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MICROBIOLOGY NOTES > Class Notes > Flashcards

Class Notes Flashcards

1
Q

A 25 year old nulligravid presents with RLQ pain with vaginal discharge, where will you culture the discharge ?

A

Thayer Martin

Most common is N go no

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2
Q

7 year old with a boil with no response to Collins, what genes should you isolate via PCR to prove that it is MRSA?

A

MecA gene

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3
Q

30s antibiotics

A

Aminoglycosides

Tetracycline

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4
Q

50s

A

Macrolides:erythropoietin, clarity to, antihero

Lincosamides: clindamycin

Chloramphenicol

Streptogamins

Linezolid

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5
Q

Immune-mediated response, complement response that serves to increase phagocytosis of encapsulated organisms

A

OPSONIZATION

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6
Q

Encapsulated bacteria (invasive) (can cause meningitis)

A

Strep pneumo
Neisseria meningitides
Hemophilia influenza type b
KLEBSIELLA pneumoniae

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7
Q

Contains a protein capsule (not polysaccharide)

A

B. Anthracis

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8
Q

First step in bacterial infection

A

Attachment

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9
Q

Most common cause of prosthetic devices infection

A

Staph epidermidis

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10
Q

Sheet of organisms that coat surfaces (ex. Oral microflora)

A

Biofilm

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11
Q

Spore-forming bacteria

A

Gram positive rods bacillus, clostridium

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12
Q

No cell wall, DOC

A

Mycoplasma

Macrolides

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13
Q

Most common cause of atypical pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma

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14
Q

Age group of mycoplasma

A

Children 5-15 years old

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15
Q

DOC of mycoplasma

A

Macrolides

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16
Q

All exotoxins are heat labile except

A

Staph enterotoxin

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17
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

Pseudomonas
Leptospirosis
Mycoplasm pneumoniae
Mycobacterium

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18
Q

Toxin transmission via transduction

A 
Shiga-like toxin
Botulinum
Cholera 
Diphtheria
Eryhtrogenic toxin
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19
Q

Scarlet fever causing organism

A

Strep pyogenes

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20
Q

Antibiotics in Thayer-MARTIN

A

COLISTIN
NYSTATIN
Vancomycin

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21
Q

Chocolate agar with factor X and V

A

Hemophilus influenza type B

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22
Q

Culture media corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Telluride

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23
Q

Culture media group D streptococci/enteroccoci

A

Bile esculin

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24
Q

CM: clostridium perfringens

A

Blood agar, Egg yolk

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25
Q

Staphylococci

A

Blood Agar (Mannitol Salts Agar)

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26
Q

N.meningitidis, N. Gonorrhoeae from sterile sites

A

CHocolate agar

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27
Q

N. Gonorrheae from no sterile sites

A

Thayer Martin

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28
Q

Lowenstein-Jensen

A

Mycobacterium TB

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29
Q

Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts/Sucrose

A

Vibrio Cholerae

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30
Q

Bordet-Gengou

A

Bored tells pertussis

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31
Q

Charcoal-yeast extract

A

Legionella pneumo-cilia

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32
Q

Skirrow

A

Campylobacteria jejune

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33
Q

BArbour-stoenner-Kelly (BSK)

A

Bornelia burgdorferi

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34
Q

Eaton

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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35
Q

Cetrimide

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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36
Q

Xylophone-Lysine-Deoxycholate (XLD)

A

Salmonella Shigella

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37
Q

Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-HArris

A

Leptospirosis interrogates

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38
Q

Lyme Disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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39
Q

Recurrent carbunculosis

A

Staph aureus

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40
Q

Most common cause of neonatal sepsis. DOC prior to delivery

A

GROUP B STREP

Ampicillin

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41
Q

Pneumonia
Diarrhea
Hyponatremia

A

Legionella pneumophilia

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42
Q

Fake heart
Virgin heart
Sick heart

A

Epidermidis
Staph aureus
Virginians

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43
Q

Airconditioning

A

Legionella penumophilia

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44
Q

Polyribitol phosphate capsule in chocolate agar

A

Hib

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45
Q

Most common cause of acute endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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46
Q

Staph aureus attacks this valve

A

Tricuspid

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47
Q

With heat-stable enterotoxin

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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48
Q

Salad with mayonnaise, creamy food

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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49
Q

SSS or the ______ disease is the separation at what layer

A

Ritter’s

Stratum granulosum

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50
Q

Prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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51
Q

DOC for staph epidermidis

A

Vancomycin

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52
Q

2nd most common cause of UTI

A

Staph saprophyticus

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53
Q

DOC for S saprophyticus

A

Fluoroquinolones

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54
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis, toxin

A

Strep pyogenes, exotoxins B

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55
Q

Scarlet fever cause, toxin

A

Strep pyogenes, erythrogenic-toxin

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56
Q

Scarlet fever susceptibility test

A

Dick test

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57
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

Strep pyogenes

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58
Q

Strep pyogenes DOC

A

Penicillin G

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59
Q

Endocarditis in patients who underwent GIT surgery

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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60
Q

Most common cause of neonatal sepsis

A

Strep agalactiae Group B

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61
Q

Mar antic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy

A

Strep bovis

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62
Q

Dental caries

A

S. Mutants

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63
Q

Subacute bacterial endocarditis (group, subspecies)

A

VIridans streptococci (S. Sanguis)

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64
Q

Brain abscesses

A

S. Intermedius

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65
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in adults and elderly

A

Strep pneumoniae

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66
Q

FRIED RIIIIIIICCCEEE, DOC

A

Bacillus cereus, SUPPORTIVE

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67
Q

Hemorrhagic mediastinitis alternative name and etiology

A

Woolsorter’s disease, Bacillus anthracis

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68
Q

DOC for bacillus anthracis

A

Ciprofloxacin

69
Q

Ingestion of raw honey or household dust causing floppy baby syndrome, DOC

A

Clostridium botulinum

Metronidazole, Penicillin

70
Q

Causes of Clostridium difficile

A

CLindamycin
Ampicillin
Cephalosporins

71
Q

DOC for clostridium difficile

A

Metronidazole

Vancomycin

72
Q

Pseudo membranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

73
Q

Gas gangrene (myonecrosis)

A

Clostridium perfringens

74
Q

Lecithinase

A

Clostridium perfringens

75
Q

Pain, edema, cellulitis with crepitation, hemolysis, jaundice

A

Clostridium perfringens

76
Q

Toxin in tetanus inhibiting ______ release from spinal cord

A

Tetanospasmin, glycine

77
Q

Risus sardonicus, opisthotonos

A

Clostridium tetanus

78
Q

DOC of clostridium tetani

A

Penicillin G/Metronidazole

79
Q

Pseudomembranous pharyngitis, DOC

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Penicillin/Ampicillin +antitoxin

80
Q

Chinese character appearance

A

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae

81
Q

AIRWAY obstruction, myocarditis, cranial nerve or muscle paralysis

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae complications

82
Q

From green veggies, unpasteurized milk and cheese

A

Listeria monocytogenes

83
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

84
Q

Early onset neonatal sepsis, late-onset neonatal meningitis

A

Listeria monocytogenes

85
Q

High carriage rate in close quaternary

A

N meningitidis

86
Q

Most common cause of meningitis between 2 to 18 years old

A

N. Meningitidis

87
Q

Severe form of meningococcal is with bilateral hemorrhagic destruction of adrenal glands

A

Waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome

88
Q

DOC for neisseria meningitidis

A

Penicillin G

89
Q

Causes purulent conjunctivitis in the newborn ( ophthalmia neonatorum), DOC for prevention

A

Neisseria gonorrhea, erythromycin

90
Q

Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome etiology

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

91
Q

Syndrome caused by Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

92
Q

30% of Neisseria gonorrhea will be con infected with

A

Chlamydia

93
Q

Violin string adhesions are characteristic lesions in

A

Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

94
Q

DOC for Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone + Tetracycline or azithromycin (If pregnant) for chlamydia

95
Q

Most common cause of epiglottitis, DOC

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B, Ceftriaxone

96
Q

Most common etiologic agent among people with COPD

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

97
Q

Pneumonia, Hyponatremia, diarrhea

A

Legionella pneumophilia

98
Q

DOC for legionella

A

Azithromycin/Erythromycin (MAcrolides)

99
Q

Most common cause of community-acquired UTI, DOC

A

E.coli, Fluoroquinolones/3rd gen cephalosporin

100
Q

Toxin producing hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Verotoxin

101
Q

Triad of hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Thrombocytopenia, anemia, renal failure

102
Q

Causative agent of HUS

A

E. Coli

103
Q

DOC for bordetella pertussis

A

Erythromycin

104
Q

Associated with undercooked beef

A

E. Coli

105
Q

Causative strain of traveler’s diarrhea

A

ETEC

106
Q

Etiology of typhoid fever

A

Salmonella typhi

107
Q

Salmonella stays in this organ for those who are chronic carriers

A

Gallbladder

108
Q

DOC for Salmonella

A

Ampicillin

109
Q

Most common cause of bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella

110
Q

Bloody diarrhea, fever, tenesmus

A

Shigella

111
Q

DOC for Shigella

A

Ciprofloxacin

112
Q

Gastroenteritis from contaminated raw seafood

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

113
Q

Cholera Etiology

A

Vibrio Cholerae

114
Q

Gastroenteritis from ingestion of raw shellfish

A

V. Vulfinicus

115
Q

`DOC from VIbrio app

A

Tetracyclines

116
Q

Most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis

A

Campylobacter jejuni

117
Q

Gastroenteritis associated with GBS, reactive arthritis

A

C. Jejuni

118
Q

Reiter’s syndrome

A

Arthritis, urethritis, uveitis

119
Q

DOC for C. Jejuni

A

Erythromycin

120
Q

Associated with gastric carcinoma and MALT lymphomas

A

H. Pylori

121
Q

4 antibiotics that can be used for H. Pylori

A

Amoxicillin
Tetracycline
Clarithromycin
Metronidazole

122
Q

Gram negative, ESBL with mucous colonies

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

123
Q

Most common cause of pneumonia in alcoholics

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

124
Q

Small painless papule ulcerated to form red ulcer with velvety surface, etiology, DOC

A

Granuloma inguinale, Klebsiella DOC: Azithromycin

125
Q

DOC for Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

2nd-3rd gen cephalosporins + amino glycosides

126
Q

Proteus mirabilis has ______ motility

A

Swarming motility

127
Q

Swarming motility

A

Proteus mirabilis

128
Q

DOC for proteus mirabilis

A

Fluoroquinolones, Cotrimoxazole

129
Q

Responsible for the green pigment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Pyocyanine

130
Q

Pseudomonas would produce this pattern on agar

A

Fleur de lis pattern

131
Q

Spreads to blood or peritoneum during bowel trauma, perforation or surgery, DOC

A

Bacteriodes, Metronidazole

132
Q

Causative agent, animal source, Bubonic plague

A

Yersinia petis, rat, streptomycin

133
Q

Causative agent, animal source, Tularemia

A

Francisella tularensis, rabbit, Streptomycin

134
Q

Bite infections cause from dogs or cats cause ______ infection and DOC is

A

Pasteurella multicoda, Penicillin G

135
Q

Brucella abortus causes
From
DOC

A

Undulating fever
Cattle
Doxycycline

136
Q

Cause of osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell disease

A

Salmonella

137
Q

Duval’s bodies are seen in

A

Shigella sonnei

138
Q

Chloramphenicol is static but cidal to these 4 bacteria

A

N. Meningitidis
Bacteriodes fragility
Haemophilus influenzae
Strep Pneumo

(NO BOYFRIEND SINCE HIGH SCHOOL)

139
Q

Large aggregates of lipid-laden macrophages “Red snappers”

GObi- masses of AFB, multi bacillary

A

Lepromatous leprosy

140
Q

Hypo pigmented patches with skin anesthesia

A

Tuberculoid leprosariums

141
Q

Leprosy etiology

A

Mycobacterium leprae

142
Q

Most common type of atypical pneumoniae, DOC

A

Mycoplasma, macrolides

143
Q

Etiology syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

144
Q

Painful chancre:

No painful chancre:

A

Painful chancre: H. Ducreyi

Non painful chancre: primary syphilis

145
Q

Characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis

A

Condylomata lata

146
Q

Characteristic lesion of tertiary syphilis

A

Gumma

147
Q

Loss of vibration and position sense can be seen in which stage of Syphilis

A

Dorsal column affectation in tertiary syphilis

148
Q

DOC for Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin

149
Q

Jarish- Herxheimer reaction is from

A

Penicillin administration

150
Q

Ivermectin sometimes causes this flu like syndrome

A

Mazzoti

151
Q

Lyme disease is caused by

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

152
Q

Ticks involved in Lyme disease

A

Ixodes

153
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi DOC

A

Doxycycline

154
Q

Calf tenderness, conjunctival suffusion, fever, shills, intense headache

A

Leptospirosis interrogans

155
Q

Triad of Weil syndrome

A

Jaundice bleeding uremia

156
Q

DOC for leptospira interrogans

A

Penicillin

Doxycycline for prevention

157
Q

Associated with blindness particularly in Africa

A

C. Trachomatis A-C

158
Q

Halberstadler Prowazek inclusions

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

159
Q

Etiology of lyphogranuloma venereum (suppurations Inguinal lypmhadenitis) that has a positive _____ test
DOC

A

Chlamydia trachomatis
Positive frei test
DOC tetracycline/Macrolides

160
Q

Buboes:
Pseudobuboes:

A

Clhamydia, Bubonic plague

Pseudo: Klebsiella granulomatis: granuloma inguinale

161
Q

All viruses are haploid except

A

Retroviruses

162
Q

All DNA virus have double stranded DNA except

A

Parvovirus

163
Q

All RNA viruses have ssRNA except

A

Reovirus

164
Q

All dsDNA are icosahedral except

A

Poxvirus

165
Q

Can be used to treat thyphoid/enteric fever

A

Ampicillin
Cotrimoxazole
Ciprofloxacin

166
Q

Diagnosis of leprosy is by

A

Skin slit smear

167
Q

Lepromin test positive

A

Tuberculoid

168
Q

Lepromin test negative

A

Lepromatous

169
Q

Produces lecithin are causing issue necrosis

A

CLostridium perfringens

MICROBIOLOGY NOTES (1 decks)

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