CMA 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which organization developed the guidelines for universal precautions?

A. EPA
B. FDA
C. CDC
D. OSHA

A

C

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2
Q

According to OSHA, medical personnel must wear PPE when the contact following?

A. Sweat
B. Skin
C. Tears
D. Blood

A

D

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3
Q

To detect pregnancy, either urine or blood serum is tested for the presence of which of the following?

A. Febrile agglutinations
B. Potassium oxalate
C. HCG hormone
D. Oxytocin

A

C

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4
Q

A bacteriological culture needs to be performed on a collected urine specimen. Which of the following instructions what your patient should do?

A. Collect a midday specimen in a sterile cup
B. Void a specimen in a sterile cup.
C. Collect a 24-hour specimen
D. Void the entire specimen is a sterile cup

A

B

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5
Q

If a urine specimen is collected and then left standing for more than 1 hour, bacteria will grow, causing the pH of the urine to soon become which of the following?

A. Highly acidic
B. Slighly acidic
C. Alkaline
D. Neutral

A

C.

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6
Q

What is the pH range for normal urine?

A. 2.5 - 4.5
B. 2.5 - 7.0
C. 4.5 - 8.0
D. 0 -9.0

A

C

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7
Q

If a patient normally drinks 10 or more 8oz glasses of water each day, urine would most likely be which color?

A. Brown
B. Red
C. Dark yellow
D. Straw

A

D

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8
Q

Urine needs to be collected in which type of container if it is collected for baterial culture?

A. Freshly disinfected
B. Sterile
C. Washed and dried
D. Glass

A

B

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9
Q

A routine analysis of urine is made up of which of the following sets of examinations?

A. Visual, culture, reagent
B. Microscopic, Chemical, Physical
C. Microscopic, Reagent, Chemical
D. Microscopic, Analytic, Chemical

A

B

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10
Q

To prevent a urine specimen from an unreliable pH sample, the specimen should be which of the following?

A. Always refrigerated immediately upon collection
B. Exposed to air for slightly more than 1 hour
C. Tested within 1 hour of collection
D. Allowed time for urea to convert to ammonia in order to decreased the pH.

A

C

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11
Q

When placing a urine specimen tube into the centrifuge for later creating a wet mount, where should you place an identical tube containing water in that same centrifuge?

A. A second tube is not required
B. Right beside the tube containing the specimen
C. At an 90 degree angle from the urine specimen tube
D. Directly opposite the tube containing the urine sample

A

D

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12
Q

What is the principal reason for bracing the hand holding the needle assembly against the patient’s arm during phlebotomy?

A. Prevent excess needle movement
B. Ease vein palpation
C. Decrease the possibility of hemolysis
D. Cause the evaluation tubes to fill more quickly.

A

A

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13
Q

When a reagent strips is used to test a urine specimen and the result is positive for ketones, this may be an indication of which condition?

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Poisoning
C. Diabetes Mellitus
D. Liver Damage

A

C

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14
Q

What is the measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of urine called?

A. Specific gravity
B. Routine urinalysis
C. pH
C. Supernatant

A

C

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15
Q

All the steps listed are appropriate when a capillary puncture except for which of the following?

A. Gently rubbing the sides of the finger
B. Discarding the 1st drop of blood
C. Selecting the ring finger of the hand
D. Placing a tourniquet around the finger

A

D

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16
Q

When would a capillary blood sample be diluted with tissue fluid?

A. It is immersed in cold blood
B. The first drop is discarded
C. The finger is squeezed excessively
D. The sides of the finger are gently rubbed

A

C

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17
Q

Which of the following is the most common micropuncture site on an adult?

A. Outer heel
B. Ring Finger
C. Ear Lobe
D. Little finger

A

B

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18
Q

To transport oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from the body’s cell, what do erythrocytes need?

A. Bilirubin
B. Nitrates
C. Hematocrit
D. Hemoglobin

A

D

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform a hemoglobin?

A. To aid in determining blood loss
B. To detect anemia
C. To monitor dehydration
D. To detect inflammation

A

D

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20
Q

Of the following, which does NOT demonstrate quality control?

A. Proper documentation
B. Testing with control samples
C. Calibrating equipment
D. Treating ever customer properly

A

D

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21
Q

After you have washed your hands, out on PPE, and assembled the equipment and supplies, what is your next step in obtaining a capillary blood sample?

A. Perform the capillary puncture
B. Cleanse the puncture site with alcohol wipe
C. Identify the patient.
D. Ask the patient whether they are left handed or right handed,

A

C

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22
Q

What can you do lower the risk of bruising after venipuncture?

A. Apply a heating pad to the puncture site and have the patient bend his or her arm to keep it in place
B Apply pressure to the puncture site
C. Keep the tourniquet in place for 1 minute the procedure
D. Wipe the puncture site with an alcohol wipe

A

B

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23
Q

While performing venipuncture, you notice that a hematoma is forming. Which of the following should you NOT do?

A. Remove the tourniquet
B. Complete the collection of the specimen
C. Remove the vacuum tube and needle
D. Apply pressure to the site

A

B

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24
Q

Which needle gauge will result in less blood cell damage during venipuncture collection?

A. 16-gauge
B. 18-gauge
C. 20-gauge
D. 21-gauge

A

A

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25
Q

Vacuum tubes used in venipuncture have different color tubes. What is the reason for this differentiation among the colored tops?

A. Tube quantity levels
B. Tubes sizes
C. Preferred collection method
D. Additives that may be within

A

D

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26
Q

A setup for venipuncture should always included extra of which of the following?

A. Blood pressure cuffs
B. Sharps containers
C. Tourniquets
D. Vacuum tubes

A

D

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27
Q

In which color-topped tube is it acceptable for a blood clot to form?

A. Lavender
B. Green
C. Light blue
D. Red

A

D

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28
Q

A clinical medical assistant should never a tourniquet on the arm for longer than the following?

A. 45 sec
B. 60 sec
C. 90 sec
D. 120 sec

A

B

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29
Q

What is the primary purpose for anchoring a vein in performing a venipuncture?

A. To keep the patient comfortable
B. To keep the patient from moving
C. To prevent it from rolling
D. To prevent it from collapsing

A

C

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30
Q

What angle should your needle be in to perform venipuncture?

A. 35 degree with bevel up
B. 20 degree with bevel down
C. 15 degree with bevel up
D. 15 degree with bevel down

A

C

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of properly disposed venipuncture equipment and supplies?

A. Placing used gauze and cotton balls in a biohazard container
B. Placing the plastic venipuncture needle cover in a biohazard container
C. Placing the used needle and holder together into a puncture-proof container
D. Placing used alcohol wipe in a wastebasket

A

B

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32
Q

EDTA is present in which color topped tube?

A. Light blue
B. Gray
C. Pink
D. Lavender

A

D

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33
Q

Which color-topped vacuum tube is used to collect specimens for tests requiring serum?

A. Light blue
B. Gray
C. Red
D. Green

A

C

Red topped contains no additive, allowing the blood to clot

Serum is used for blood chemistry and for viral and serologic testing

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34
Q

What is the usual size of needle used when performing a venipuncture?

A. 1/2 inch 23 gauge
B. 1/2 inch 27 gauge
C. 1 inch 24 gauge
D. 1 1/2 inch 21 gauge

A

D

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35
Q

What is the purpose of the plastic collection tube holder?

A. Prevent blood leakage before needle withdrawal
B. Prevent blood specimen contamination
C. Aid insertion and withdrawal of blood vacuum tubes
D. Protect against accidental needle puncutures

A

C

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36
Q

Which color on a vacuum tube top indicates that the blood specimen will be used for cultures?

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Light Blue
D. Yellow

A

D

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37
Q

Which electrode is not part of the ECG recording?

A. RA
B. aVR
C. RL
D. LL

A

C

RL is considered the ground leg

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38
Q

What is the term for the relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle?

A. Systole
B. Repolarization
C. Polarization
D. Bradycardia

A

B

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39
Q

Which of the following is an example of an ECG precordial lead?

A. V4
B. aVR
C. I
D. aVR

A

A

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40
Q

Which colored top for the evacuation tube is most commonly associated with hematology testing?

A. Green
B. Red
C. Lavender
D. Light blue

A

C

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41
Q

One complete heartbeat, known as a full cardiac cycle, last approx. how long?

A. 0.28 sec
B. 0.6 sec
C. 1.8 sec
D. 0.8 sec

A

D

42
Q

The graphic representation of ventricular depolarization on an ECG reading is represented which of the following?

A. QRS complex
B. T wave
C. P-R interval
C. U wave

A

A

43
Q

Each large square ( five small squares in length) on ECG reading represents how many seconds?

A. 0.05 sec
B. 0.25 sec
C. 0.2 sec
D. 0.5 sec

A

C

44
Q

Which ECG lead is placed on the fifth intercostal space, as the midclavicular line?

A. V1
B. V5
C. V3
D. V4

A

D

45
Q

For standard ECG, where is the V1 electrode lead placement at?

A. 5th intercostal as the midclavicular line
B. 4th intercostal space at left margin of the sternum midway between V2 and V4
C. Left sternal 5th intercostal space
D. 4th intercostal space at right of the sternum

A

B

46
Q

Due to the high cost of cosmetic surgery, a patient agrees to andd signs a written payment plan. The payments are to be 7 months and 7 installments of $95. Which of the following legislative acts give the requirements for the written plans?

A. Fair Debt collection practices Acts
B. Truth in Lending Acts
C. Patient Self-Determination Act
D. Medical Practice Act

A

B

any installment for more than 4 installment.
Also known as Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act

47
Q

Which of the following concepts typically define ethics?

A. Principles of right and wrong
B. Legal actions to civil wrongs
C. Practical actions to taken
D. Guideline for occupational professionalism

A

A

48
Q

Bioethics is concerned with which of the following?

A. Criminal actions that deal with life and health care
B. In vitro fertilization
C. Genetic engineering
D. Moral controversy over biomedical technology

A

D

49
Q

A clinical medical assistant suspects a young patient is the victim of child abuse. Signs of abuse are also the finding of the examining physicians.
What is should they do?

A. Speak to parent/guardian about their suspicions and document the encounter
B. Document findings in the medical record and report it the proper authorities
C. Not document these suspicions in the chart because the abuse should be 1st ruled out.
D. Ask the parents to give an explanation and give document

A

b

50
Q

Medical records copies may be released to any one of the following, EXCEPT whom?

A. The patient, with the physicians permission
B. The attorney representing the patient, if subpoenaed and released by patient.
C. The husband or wife of the patient
D. The Physician the patient is being referred to

A

C

51
Q

The physicians-patient relationship is considered which of legal relationship?

A. An Alliance
B. A partnership
C. A professional association
D. A contract

A

D

52
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. The physician-patient relationship is legally recognized when the patient arrives at the office for treatment
B. Consent is a mutual agreement between legally capable parties when an offer is made and accepted
C. Expressed contracts are between 2 parties and may be verbal or written
D. Implied contracts are the results of a provider treating a patient

A

A

53
Q

According to the law, which statement is FALSE regarding financial responsibilities for patients?

A. A husband may be held responsible for his wife’s treatment charges
B. A wife is not always responsible for her husband’s treatment charges
C. A father is responsible for his minor children’s debt
D. If a mother refuses to pay for her treatments, her adult son is responsible for payment.

A

D

54
Q

Responsibility for the actions of a clinical medical assistant falls first to which of the following?

A. CMA, if nationally certified as an RMA or CMA
B. CMA’s clinical or administrative supervisor
C. Employer/ Physician
D. Medical office manager

A

C

55
Q

What is the legal term for the confidential information exchanged in a physician and patient relationship?

A. Classified
B. Professional
C. Re ipsa loquitur
D. Privileged

A

D

56
Q

Any breach by medical office staff of patient confidentiality may result in which of the following legal changes?

A. Malfeasance
B. Assault
C. Malpractice
D. Negligence

A

D

57
Q

Which of the following is the legal term for committing an improper act that is legally unjustified and possibly harmful to another?

A. Nonfeasance
B. Malfeasance
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Dereliction

A

A

58
Q

The courts mandate that the physician uphold the “standard of care” in practice. This means the provider is required to provide care that best describes as which of the following?

A. The highest degree possible under the circumstance
B. Comparable to all other physicians of the same specialty anywhere
C. Comparable to all given circumstances
D. Comparable to reasonable, attentive, diligent physicians of the same education, same specialty, and practicing in the same or similar geographic area

A

D

59
Q

To prove negligence against a physician, all the following must be proven EXCEPT which of the following?

A. Dereliction of duty directly in patient injury
B. Under involved circumstances, there was no compliance with the duty required
C. Dereliction of duty indirectly caused more then 1 injury to the patient
D. Duty was owed to the patient

A

C

60
Q

Which of the following may be a factor that may influence when the onset period of time for the statue of limitations on negligent action resulting in a injury begins?

A. The date of the patient’s last treatment
B. When the final payment for services is made
C. When the plaintiff files a suit for the injury
D. When the injury is discovered

A

D

61
Q

Slander is defamation through which type of act?

A. Spoken statements that damage someone’s reputation
B. Written statement that damage someone’s reputation
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Improper performance of an act

A

A

62
Q

Any breached federal or state narcotics laws are considered which type of offense?

A. Criminal acts
B. Misdemeanors
C. Tort
D. Civil Wrongs

A

A

63
Q

Which of the following situations would present a civil rather than a criminal liabiluty for a physicians?

A. A provider in medical practice treats patients without a valid license
B. A provider falsifies medical records for a worker’ compensation
C. Surgeon performs knee replacement on the wrong knee
D. Provider accessed of substance abuse while on the job

A

C

64
Q

Which of the following statement is a FALSE about ethics?

A. Ethics comprises are principles or right and wrong conduct
B. Ethics comprises self-imposed standard of conduct
C. Ethics comprises formal actions of a legislative body
D. Ethics relates to moral and moral judgement.

A

C

65
Q

A medical office’s policy regardng the length of time for retaining patient files should be based on which of the following laws?

A. Patient Self-Determination Act
B. Statute of limitations
C. Fair Credit Billing act
D. Medical Practice Act

A

B

66
Q

Which of the following is the principal purpose of a living will?

A. Give the family members permission to make medical care decisions for the patient
B. Let the caregiver know the patient’s wants with regard to lifesaving measures
C. Give a provider authority to make life-sustaining measures for a patient
D. Keep a patient alive by whatever measures are necessary

A

B

67
Q

To comply with HIPPA, a medical office must always furnish what information to a new patient to be seen for treatment?

A. Copy of each staff member’s malpractice policy
B. Certifications and licensure documents of medical staff
C. Office policy manual
D. The provision of provision of privacy practices document

A

D

68
Q

verbally divulging information about a patient to someone not directly involved in the patient’s care is an example of which improper conduct?

A. Libel
B. Misfeasance
C. Defamation
D. Invasion of Privacy

A

D

69
Q

Which of the following needs led to the creation of the states’ Medical Practice Acts?

A. To determine the methods and requirements of physicians licensure
B. To protect all health-care professional reporting both STD and child/elderly abuse
C. To regulate serious issues of drug and abuse
D. To ensure medical facility access to all people

A

A

70
Q

The occurrence of malpractice lawsuits is directly related to which factor?

A. The yearly income of the patient
B. Level of the patient’s education
C. socioeconomic status of the patient
D. level of trust in the provider-patient relationship.

A

D

71
Q

Which of the following concepts refers to the principles of conduct that are required by legislative enactments?

A. Morals
B. Professionalism
C. Laws
D. Ethics related to morals and moral judgement

A

C

72
Q

When a patient formally gives a loved one durable POA for health-care matters, at what point does this legal document become active?

A. When signed
B. When provider is notified of the existence
C. When the patient cannot make competent medical decisions
D. When patient moves into a nursing home

A

C

73
Q

A patient’s unreasonable conduct resulted in injury to himself and he has filed a claim of medical malpractice against his provider. If the court determines the patient to be fully or partially at fault, what is the term used for this finding?

A. Malfeasance
B. Quid pro quo
C. Nonfeasance
D. Contributory negligence

A

D

74
Q

What is the term for an employee who is considered to be acting on the doctor’s behalf while performing professional tasks?

A. Respondeat superior
B. Subpoena duces tecum
C. Malfeasance
D. Res ipsa loquitur

A

A

75
Q

If a physician simply decided to stop providing care for his or her non compliant patient without following the appropriate legal steps, the patient could file a lawsuit against the physician on which grounds?

A quid pro quo.
B. Malfeasance.
C. abandonment.
D. RES ipsa LOQUIT UR.

A

C

76
Q

. The Americans with Disability Act guarantees which of the following rights for the physically impaired.?

A equal pay for like positions.
B. Health insurance for full time employees.
C. vacation pay.
D. Ease in physical access to the workplace.

A

d

77
Q

Which form of medical practice may have personal property attached in case of business failure and earns all of the profit when the business succeeds.?

A. Profit Sharing Corporation.
B. Partnership with limits.
C. Sole proprietorship.
D. Specialty Group

A

C

78
Q

What does Libel mean.?

A.Action intended to deceive another person.
B. Verbal statements made about another person that are malice and or false.
C. Ruining someone’s good reputation by spreading A verbal rumors.
D. Statements, written or pictures about another person that are intended to be cruel and damaging to a person’s reputation

A

D

79
Q

Civil law includes which of the following?

A. Torts.
b. Implied contracts.
C. Medical malpractice.
D. All of these answers

A

D

80
Q

The privacy rule is in place to protect which of the following?

A. All medical billing.
B. Specialty in the field of medical law.
C. The considerations of culture, beliefs
D. Electronic transfer of information

A

D

81
Q

How can a medical provider Avoid patient abandonment.?

A. By giving verbal notice of withdrawal from an established patient.
B. By declaring the patient to be indignant.
C. By mailing the patient a copy of borrowed Servant doctrine.
D. By giving formal notice of withdrawal from the established patient.

A

D

82
Q

If a patient were to sue a physician for delegation of duty, what would the patient have to prove about the physician?

A. The physician has breached confidentiality.
B. The visitation did not carry malpractice insurance.
C. The physician lacked empathy for the patient.
D. The physician did not conform to the acceptable standard of care.

A

D

83
Q

What does privileged communication refer to?

A. Arbitration
b. Confidentiality
c. An affidavit
d. Allied health professions

A

B

84
Q

Professional negligence in medicine must be proven by presenting evidence of which four elements?

A. Malpractice, emphasis, damage, DERELICTION. Of duty.
B. Malpractice, MISFEASANCE, FEASANCE, Duty.
C. Duty to the patient, DERELICTION of duty, direct cause, damages
D. And it’s illegal act, DEREL. By CTION of duty, malfeasance, Damages

A

C

85
Q

Which of the following refers to an injury to another person as a result of failure to act when duty is indicated?

A. FEASANCE.
B. MALFEASANCE.
C. MISFEASANCE
D. NONFEASANCE

A

D

86
Q

A breach of confidentiality is considered unethical and illegal and is Prohibited by which of the following?

A. OSHA.
B. Civil Rights Act.
C. Standard of care
D. Hippa

A

D

87
Q

Which envelope address is typed according to the US Postal Service formatted format.?

A. Tolland, Connecticut 06084.
B. TOLLAND, CONNECTICUT 06084.
C. TOLL. CT 06084.
D. Tolland CT 06084.

A

D

88
Q

One question about a patient’s appointment at your office by that patient’s aunt, the clinical medical assistance. Most appropriate response would be which of the following?

A. Tell her to mind her own business

B. Ask her if her niece has confided. Anything about her health to her

C. Ignore Her inquiry.

D. Tell her it is your duty to protect the privacy of your office patients and you hope she understands.

A

D

89
Q

In order to have the best therapeutic communication, the clinical medical assistant should do which of the following?

A. Accept each patient’s particular attributes.
B. Overlook educational differences.
C. Ignore language barriers.
D. Use local area street slang to address the patient.

A

A

90
Q

Which of the following actions is a roadblock to therapeutic communication?

A. Asking close ended questions.
B. Giving advice.
C. Taking notes.
D. Paraphrasing

A

B

91
Q

Initiating and responding in a calm, professional manner when communicating with others is known as which of the following.?

A. Diplomacy.
B. Diversity.
C. Flexibility.
D. Empathy.

A

A

92
Q

if you are mailing information that is meant to be “confidential”. Where should the notation be typed on the Envelope?

A. Below the stamp
B. To the right of the addresses name.
C. Below the mailing address.
D. 3 lines below the return address

A

D

93
Q

When typing a physician’s name as part of the inside address in a letter, which of the following would be the correct format?

A. Doctor Jeffrey L. Daigle
B. DR. Daigle
C. Jeffrey L. Daigle, MD
D. Dr. Jeffrey L. Daigle, MD

A

C

94
Q

If you have an important scheduled for a patient who speaks English as a second language, which communication technique would be the most effective at the time of their visit to your office?

a. Making eye contact.
b. Communicating everything in writing
c. Having an interpreter present
d. Using nonverbal communication

A

C

95
Q

Which of the following demonstrates positive communication skills?

A. Ignoring a patient’s anger
B. Giving advice that patient, although they may not have asked for it.
C. Responding to the patient’s stated problem by saying let’s discuss it.
D. Telling an unhappy patient to cheer up Things will get better.

A

C

96
Q

Which of the following is the foundation for developing good listening skills?

A. Sitting within someone’s personal space.
B. Paraphrasing.
C. Moderate and clear vocal tones.
D. Taking notes.

A

B

97
Q

You are employed at an OBGYN practice. The physician has confirmed a suspected pregnancy of one of your husband’s family relatives. The relative nervously lets you know that there is no one else knows about this office visit. Which of the following is the most? Appropriate response.

A. If someone asks, I’ll only tell them you had an office appointment
B. Be assured in knowing that I don’t discuss or share any patient information outside of the office
C. Trust me, I’ll only tell my husband.
D. This is such happy news, it should be shared

A

B

98
Q

In the examination room, the patient tells you the reason for the office visit. Which of the following terms defines the best response from you that would promote positive communication?

A. Feedback
B. encoding.
C. Input.
D. Process.

A

A

99
Q

Which of the following terms is not one of the five C’s or components of communication?

A. Consistent.
B. Clear.
C. Cohesive.
D. Concise.

A

A

100
Q

While telephone patients to confirm their appointments for the next day, a patient states that they are cancelling their appointments. What should a Clinical Medical Assistant Avoid doing?

A. Note the cancellation in their medical record.
B. Note the cancellation in the appointment record.
C. Leave a phone message for the physician so he or she can call them later.
D. Ask how they are currently feeling.

A

C

101
Q
A