consciousness and learning Flashcards

1
Q

Define consciousness?

A

consciousness our immediate awareness of our internal and external states.

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2
Q

what is the definition of psychology according to William James?

A

Early psychologists defined psychology entirely as the study of consciousness. William James, for example, noted that our conscious awareness continually shifts based on what we’re paying attention to and how intensely we are attending to our environment

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3
Q

define the stream of consciousness?

A

James coined the term “stream of consciousness” to signify how we experience our conscious life because consciousness, like a running stream, keeps flowing with time.

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4
Q

define the term “ alter state of consciousness”?

A

altered states of consciousness a change in a person’s ability to be fully aware of their external surroundings and internal states. Ex: being asleep, having a dream, psychoactive drugs, anesthesia etc

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5
Q

define the term state of consciousness?

A

States of consciousness: Sleep, in contrast to being awake, is just one of several states of consciousness. Dreaming while sleeping is one of several altered states of consciousness.

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6
Q

define the components of conscious awareness?

A

1.states of consciousness the level of awareness we have of our external surroundings and internal states.

2.contents of consciousness specific thoughts we are aware of about our internal states or external surroundings.

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7
Q

what is the definition of consciousness based on Joh Ratey?

A

Psychiatric researcher John Ratey (2001) has pointed out that “Before we can be conscious of something . . . we have to pay attention to it.”

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8
Q

define multitasking?

A

Multitasking We often think we can manage to do several mental tasks at the same time however what our brain is really doing is switching quickly between tasks. only 2% of the people can truly perform several mental functioning.

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9
Q

who discovered reticular formation?

A

In the years 1940s and 1950s, Horace Winchell Magoun and colleagues (French, Von Amerongen, & Magoun, 1952; Moruzzi & Magoun, 1949) discovered that electrical stimulation of the brainstem, specifically a structure they named the reticular formation (see Chapter 3), could bring an animal out of a state of sleep into a state of alert arousal.

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10
Q

what happens if reticular formation get damaged in animals and humans?

A

in cases where this structure is damaged, an animal can no longer maintain a state of wakefulness.
This work was extended to humans, with the findings that individuals with damage to the front portion of the reticular formation or after meningoencephalitis, an infection of the meninges that covers the brain and presumably interfered with the functions of the reticular formation, had prolonged loss of consciousness.
Today we recognize damage to the reticular formation, and associated pontine structures in the hind brain, as one of the factors that may contribute to cases where individuals are in a “locked in,” or paralyzed and in non-communicative state like a coma

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11
Q

what is the function of hypothalamus in processing information or consciousness?

A

The hypothalamus, via several sub areas, including the paraventricular and mammillary nuclei, relays the signals received from the hindbrain reticular formation to the cortex to maintain an awake and attentive state

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12
Q

what is the consequence of damage in the hypothalamus?

A

Damage to the neurotransmitter systems of the hypothalamus, specifically the orexin system, can lead to disturbances of wakefulness such as narcolepsy

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13
Q

describe the function of Thalamus in relying the information in the brain?

A

The second area of the brain that is crucial for sending signals from the hindbrain to the forebrain or cortex for consciousness is the thalamus. Activation of loops of circuits between the thalamus, and the different sensory and motor areas of the cortex, is critical for us to be consciously aware of our surroundings.

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14
Q

what is the symptoms if thalamus is damaged?

A

lack of conscious awareness of specific parts of the body or our surrounding environments.

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15
Q

in what situation an individual can lose the awareness of its half of the body?

A

if the damage to the nuclei occurs in only one hemisphere, individuals lose awareness of only half of their bodies. They become unaware of all events that occur on one side of their visual field, for example, or unaware of all objects that touch one side of their body

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16
Q

what is the contribution of cerebral cortex in terms of awareness?

A

cerebral cortex—are in charge of one’s awareness of the information the cortex receives from subcortical structures.

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17
Q

explain the Weiskrantz experiment ?

A

the patients in Weiskrantz’s studies could and did readily attend to visual objects, yet because the primary visual areas in their cerebral cortex had been destroyed, they were unaware of those objects. Weiskrantz and others have concluded that the areas of the brain that help us attend to visual stimuli are different from the visual areas in the cerebral cortex that help us to be aware that we are attending to such stimuli.

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18
Q

what are some of the functions of the left and right cerebral cortex?

A

-the left cerebral cortex is responsible for verbal awareness and the ability to send a motor command to the mouth from Broca’s area in order for the word to be spoken.
In contrast, the right cerebral cortex seems to be responsible for non-verbal forms of conscious awareness.

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19
Q

define the sense of self concept?

A

fully awareness of oneself as separate being from others is sense of self.

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20
Q

what is Rouge test?

A

the mirror test to identify the level of consciousness of kids. it starts at the age of 22 months.

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21
Q

define the term preconsciousness?

A

Preconsciousness is a level of awareness in which information can become readily available to consciousness if necessary. Bringing to mind what you had for lunch last Tuesday might take a bit of work, but you should be able to pull the information out of your preconscious mind. When (or if) you finally do remember that bowl of soup, the memory has reached consciousness. many of our familiar behavior occur during preconsciousness.

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22
Q

define the unconscious state?

A

unconscious state state in which information is not easily accessible to conscious awareness.

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23
Q

describe the two type of memories based on the cognitive theorists?

A

cognitive theorists distinguish between two basic kinds of memory: explicit memory and implicit memory.
1. Explicit memories involve pieces of knowledge that we are fully aware of. Explicit memory is the conscious, intentional recovery of a memory. Knowing the date of your birth is an explicit memory.
2. Implicit memories refer to knowledge that we are not typically aware of—information that we cannot recall at will, but that we use in the performance of various tasks in life. it also involves functional information. cause of the current taken action.

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24
Q

describe the work of Gary Klein in regard to decision making and role of intuitive process?

A

Early work by psychologist Gary Klein, for example, examined decision making in firefighters. Klein expected that, given the huge stakes involved in fighting fires, fire chiefs typically must consider a range of scenarios and carefully weigh the pros and cons before acting. What he found instead was that when fighting fires, fire chiefs typically identify one possible decision immediately, run the scenario in their head, and if it doesn’t have any glaring errors, they go with it. Basically, the fire chiefs let their experience automatically generate a solution.

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25
Q

define disorders of consciousness?

A

Disorders of consciousness Patients who are in a coma, and on a ventilator, may still have brain activity in response to a naturalistic stimulus such as watching television.

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26
Q

define the Freudian slip?

A

slip of the tongue (called a Freudian slip) as a moment when the mind inadvertently allows a repressed idea into consciousness.

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27
Q

define the adaptive theory of sleep?

A

the adaptive theory of sleep, suggests that sleep is the evolutionary outcome of self-preservation.

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28
Q

what are the benefits of sleep?

A

sleep plays a role in the growth process, a notion consistent with the finding that the pituitary gland releases growth hormones during sleep. In fact, as we age, we release fewer of these hormones, grow less, and sleep less.

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29
Q

which neurotransmitter contribute to the sleep process?

A

GABA from hypothalamus signals to the rest of the brain to inhibit the wake promoting process.

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30
Q

define the restorative theory of sleep?

A

restorative theory of sleep, suggests that sleep allows the brain and body to restore certain depleted chemical resources, while eliminating chemical wastes that have accumulated during the waking day

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31
Q

what are some of the side effects of sleep deprivation?

A

Sleep deprivation also reduces the functioning of the immune system and has negative effects on cardiovascular health. As well, growth hormone production increases during sleep in adults, a process that would also promote restoration of body tissues and structures

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32
Q

define the term circadian rhythm?

A

circadian rhythm pattern of sleep–wake cycles that in human beings roughly corresponds to periods of daylight and night.

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33
Q

to which process do we call biological clock?

A

circadian rhythm is called biological clock cause the pattern repeats itself in 24 hr

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34
Q

define the term lark and owls?

A

lark is referred to the early morning person vs Owl to the last noon people.

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35
Q

define what is a clock genes ?

A

very cell in your body has its own internal clock, governed by circadian clock genes, and scientists are able to measure your unique body clock at the cellular level. These clock genes govern a variety of functions within the body and can be altered by stress and nutrition and can influence a person’s likelihood of developing a substance abuse disorder

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36
Q

what is found in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)?

A

the master control centre for your body’s internal clock and your own sleep–wake rhythm may be found in the brain area known as the suprachiasmatic nucleus.

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37
Q

define the suprachiasmatic nucleus?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) a small group of neurons in the hypothalamus responsible for coordinating the many rhythms of the body.

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38
Q

describe the brain patterns?

A

Every 90 to 100 minutes over the first half of the night while we sleep, we pass through a sleep cycle that consists of five different stages.
- Over the latter part of the night, we tend to spend most time in the first two of these five stages and in rapid eye movement or REM sleep. Researchers have identified these stages by examining people’s brainwave patterns while they sleep, using a device called an electroencephalograph (EEG).

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39
Q

describe the firs 2 stages of the patterns of sleep?

A

> When we first go to bed and, still awake, begin to relax, EEG readings show that we experience what are called alpha waves.
1. When we finally doze off, EEG readings show that our brainwaves become smaller and irregular, signaling that we have entered Stage 1 sleep. Alpha-wave patterns are replaced by slower waves, called theta waves. it represent a bright between wakefulness and sleep.
2. A still further slowing of brainwave activity occurs during this stage, although we may also exhibit sleep spindles—bursts of brain activity that last a second or two. During Stage 2, our breathing becomes steadily rhythmic. Occasionally the body twitches, although generally our muscle tension relaxes. During this stage, which lasts 15 to 20 minutes, we can still be awakened fairly easily. towards the end of this stage, theta wave change to Delta wave.

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40
Q

describe the 3 last stages of sleep patterns?

A
  1. , Stage 3 and Stage 4, are characterized by very deep, slow wave, sleep. In Stage 3, between 20 and 50 percent of our EEG waves are delta waves.
  2. During Stage 4, heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rates all drop to their lowest levels, and the sleeper seems cut off from the world. Although our muscles are most relaxed during this deepest phase of sleep, this is also the time when people are prone to sleepwalking. This is also the stage of sleep that changes most during adolescence. As the brain finishes maturing during this time, the amount of slow wave sleep declines to adult typical levels.
  3. , rapid eye movement, or REM, sleep. A graduate student in physiology, Eugene Aserinsky, discovered REM sleep when he attached electronic leads to his 8-year-old son’s head and eyelids to monitor his sleep and waking brainwaves. He found unexpected brainwave activity, suggesting his son “had woken up even though he hadn’t”
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41
Q

What happens during the REM sleep?

A

During REM sleep, we experience rapid and jagged brainwave patterns, increased heart rate, rapid and irregular breathing, rapid eye movements, and dreaming, in contrast to the slow waves of NREM sleep. REM sleep has been called paradoxical sleep because, even though the body remains deeply relaxed on the surface—almost paralyzed—we experience considerable activity internally

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42
Q

what is NERM?

A

stage 1-4 of normal sleep pattern.

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43
Q

define dream?

A

Dreams—emotional, story-like sensory experiences that usually occur during REM sleep—have proven to be endlessly fascinating to scientists, clinicians, philosophers, artists, and laypeople, probably because of their vividness and mysteriousness. Research suggests that actions in dreams run in real time—that is, it takes you as long to accomplish something in the dream as it would if you were performing the action while you were awake

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44
Q

define information-processing theory?

A

offers a cognitive view of dreaming. According to this view, dreams are the mind’s attempt to sort out and organize the day’s experiences and to fix them in memory.

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45
Q

what is the hypotheses proposed by Allan Hobson and Robert McCarley about dreaming?

A

activation-synthesis model theory that dreams result from the brain’s attempts to synthesize or organize random internally-generated signals and give them meaning.
when dreams occur, neurons in the brainstem get activated–> cerebral cortex produces visual and auditory signals – cingulate cortex, amygdala, and hippocampus gets activated as well.

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46
Q

what is the difference between manifest content of the dream and latent content?

A

Freud called the dream images that people are able to recall the manifest content of the dream. The unconscious elements of dreams are called the latent content. In our example, the young man’s desire for his sister-in-law (latent content)—a scandalous idea that he would never allow himself to have—is symbolized in the dream by a swim in the pool (manifest content)

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47
Q

define the nightmare?

A

Dreams filled with intense anxiety are called nightmares. The feeling of terror can be so great that the dreamer awakens from the dream, often crying out.

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48
Q

who is more likely to suffer from dream anxiety disorder?

A

People who experience frequent nightmares and become very distressed by their nightmares are considered to have a nightmare or dream anxiety disorder.

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49
Q

name a therapy that helps with reducing nightmares?

A

Cognitive interventions such as imagery rehearsal therapy, where an imagination of a new scenario rather than the nightmare imagery is practised.

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50
Q

define the lucid dreams?

A

lucid dreams dreams in which sleepers fully recognize that they are dreaming, and occasionally actively guide the outcome of the dream.

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51
Q

define the daydream?

A

Fantasies that occur while one is awake and mindful of external reality, but not fully conscious, are called daydreams

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52
Q

which area of the brain is activated during REM but not wakefulness?

A

muscle twitches during REM sleep activate hippocampal and cerebellar pathways; these same areas are not activated by motor behavior during wakefulness

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53
Q

what risks can be associated with lack of sleep?

A

muscle twitches during REM sleep activate hippocampal and cerebellar pathways; these same areas are not activated by motor behaviour during wakefulness for adolescence.
Lack of good sleep in adulthood may be related to psychological disorders such as dementia and depression

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54
Q

what is the main reason for the primary sleep disorder?

A

Primary sleep disorders typically arise from abnormalities in people’s circadian rhythms and sleep–wake mechanisms.

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55
Q

define insomnia?

A

People who suffer from insomnia, the most common sleep disorder, regularly cannot fall asleep or stay asleep .

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56
Q

what can be the main cause of snoring?

A

It is likely that many of these serious snorers suffer from sleep apnea, the second most common sleep disorder. People with this condition repeatedly stop breathing during the night, depriving the brain of oxygen and leading to frequent awakenings. Sleep apnea can result when the brain fails to send a “breathe signal” to the diaphragm and other breathing muscles, or when muscles at the top of the throat become too relaxed, allowing the windpipe to partially close. Sufferers stop breathing for up to 30 seconds or more as they sleep.

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57
Q

define the central disorder of hypersomnolence?

A

Excessive daytime sleepiness is characterized by feeling drowsy or chronically tired even after having a good night sleep.
- Narcolepsy is marked by an uncontrollable urge to fall asleep and muscle tone. can last up to 15 mins. can be genetic

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58
Q

which neuroreceptors can contribute in Narcolepsy?

A

Recent work by Maan Lee and his colleagues at the Montreal Neurological Institute has helped to identify orexin or hypocretin receptors in the hypothalamus and their potential role in narcolepsy. When these receptors under-function, narcolepsy results

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59
Q

what is delayed sleep phase syndrome?

A

Delayed sleep phase syndrome is characterized by a long delay in a person’s ability to fall asleep, often hours past the time they wish to fall asleep. Difficulty in waking up at the desired time in the morning is also characteristic of this disorder.

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60
Q

define the term advanced sleep phase disorder?

A

Individuals with this sleep difficulty tend to fall asleep early in the evening, between 6 and 9 p.m., prior to their desired time to fall asleep. They wake up in the early hours of the day, between 2 and 5 a.m., well before their desired time to wake. common on old and middle age people. can be genetic.

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61
Q

define the sleep related movement disorders?

A

Restless legs syndrome (RLS) and periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS) are disorders where individuals have strong urges to move their legs, usually in the evenings just prior to falling asleep, or during sleep in the case of PLMS. This condition is typically considered a sleep disorder since it usually gets worse when a person is still and just prior to going to sleep. Individuals describe this disorder as one where their legs are uncomfortable and they feel pins and needles, or experience a crawling feeling under the skin of their legs that leads to an uncontrollable urge to move their legs.
- Abnormalities in dopamine neurotransmitter system function is likely related to both disorders

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62
Q

what is parasomnia?

A

–Sleepwalking (somnabulism) most often takes place during the first three hours of sleep.
- Night terrors are related to sleepwalking. Individuals who suffer from this pattern awaken suddenly, sit up in bed, scream in extreme fear and agitation, and experience heightened heart and breathing rates. They appear to be in a state of panic and are often incoherent. Usually people suffering from night terrors do not remember the episodes the next morning. They tend to occur during Stages 3 and 4, the deepest stages of NREM sleep.
- REM Sleep Behavior Disorder: he usual small twitches that often occur they are moving about vigorously, and appear to be acting out their dream. This type of behavior is typical of REM sleep behavior disorder

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63
Q

define hypnosis?

A

hypnosis a seemingly altered state of consciousness during which individuals can be directed to act or experience the world in unusual ways

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64
Q

what was the argument of Spanos about hypnoses?

A

Nick Spanos working at Carleton University. Spanos argued that hypnosis subjects are actually role-playing—acting as they believe hypnotized people should act.

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65
Q

define the posthypnotic response?

A

A posthypnotic response is a behavior that was suggested while the person was hypnotized, but that is engaged in later when a specified sign is observed

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66
Q

what is posthypnotic amnesia?

A

Related to posthypnotic responses is the phenomenon of posthypnotic amnesia, in which the hypnotist directs the person to later forget information learned during hypnosis. the individual can remember the learnt behavior during hypnosis if the hypnotist provide a predetermined signal to remember.

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67
Q

what are some of the side effects caused by hypnosis?

A
  • Hypnosis can also induce hallucinations, mental perceptions that do not match the physical stimulations coming from the world around us.
  • Positive hallucinations are those in which people under hypnosis are guided to see objects or hear sounds that are not present. - — Negative hallucinations are those in which hypnotized people fail to see or hear stimuli that are present. Negative hallucinations are often used to control pain. The hypnotized person is directed to ignore—basically, to simply not perceive—pain. The hallucination may result in a total or partial reduction of pain
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68
Q

why hypnosis is used?

A

Beyond its use in the control of pain, hypnosis has been used successfully to help treat a variety of problems, such as anxiety, skin diseases, asthma, insomnia, stuttering, high blood pressure, warts, and other forms of infection, quit smoking or bad habits.

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69
Q

why does hypnosis work?

A

hypnosis is a state of divided consciousness . Another theory suggested by Canadian Nick Spano, sees hypnosis as an implementation of common social and cognitive processes or role-playing

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70
Q

how is the participant’s attention diverted form the pain?

A
  1. divided consciousness theory: hypnosis splits awareness into 2 parts; one part responds to the hypnotist’s suggestion, the other part continues to process pain information but at a less conscious level.
  2. social/cognitive process theory: the participants is highly motivated to believe in hypnosis, and, without awareness, works hard to ignore the pain.
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71
Q

what is dissociation by hypnosis?

A

a theory suggested by Ernest Hilgard: dissociation a splitting of consciousness into two dimensions.

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72
Q

describe the Hilgard theory ?

A

One part of our consciousness becomes fully tuned into and responsive to the hypnotist’s suggestions.
The second part, which Hilgard called the hidden observer, operates at a subtler, less conscious level, continuing to process information that is seemingly unavailable to the hypnotized person. According to Hilgard, the hidden observer was the part of the student’s mind that was still able to hear while hypnotized

73
Q

which theory stands in opposition of the Hilgard’s theory?

A

Spanos’s theory is that, instead of resulting from a divided consciousness, hypnotic phenomena consist simply of highly-motivated people performing tasks, being extra attentive, and enacting roles that are asked of them—that is, they are playing a part in a social interaction between themselves, the “hypnotist,” and the audience. Because of their strong beliefs in hypnosis, the people fail to recognize or ignore their own active contributions to the process

74
Q

what happens in the brain during hypnosis?

A

When people are hypnotized, they are usually first guided into a state of mental relaxation. Studies have found that during this state, neural activity in key areas of the cerebral cortex and thalamus—brain regions that, as we noted earlier, are implicated in conscious awareness—are altered by hypnosis.
Hypnotized individuals are next guided into a state of mental absorption, during which they focus carefully on the hypnotist’s voice and instructions and actively block out other sources of stimulation, both internal and environmental. In fact, mental absorption has often been described as a state of total focus. During this state, cerebral blood flow and neural activity actually speed back up in key areas of the cerebral cortex, thalamus, and other parts of the brain’s attention and conscious awareness systems

75
Q

what is the findings of neurologist regarding hypnosis?

A

Neuroimaging research suggests that one part of the brain’s cerebral cortex, the anterior cingulate cortex, may be particularly involved when hypnosis is used to anesthetize or reduce pain (Figure 6.11). This region has been implicated both in general awareness and in the unpleasantness we feel during pain. While individuals are in a hypnotic pain-free state, neurons in their anterior cingulate cortex become markedly less active. Although the activity of other neurons that receive pain messages continue as usual in people’s brains—suggesting that they are indeed receiving sensations of pain—the decreased activity in the anterior cingulate cortex seems to reduce their awareness of the pain.

76
Q

what is psychoactive drugs?

A

psychoactive drugs chemicals that affect awareness, behavior, sensation, perception, or mood

77
Q

define addiction?

A

addiction psychological or physical compulsion to take a drug, resulting from regular ingestion and leading to maladaptive patterns of behavior and changes in physical response

78
Q

what are the two common groups of the depressants used?

A

The two most widely used groups of depressants are alcohol and sedative-hypnotic drugs

79
Q

what are depressants?

A

depressants class of drugs that slow the activity of the central nervous system

80
Q

what is alcohol dehydrogenase?

A

alcohol dehydrogenase, an enzyme in the liver that is responsible for breaking down and eliminating alcohol from the body, so they react very negatively to even a small intake of alcohol. Such extreme reactions help prevent heavy use

81
Q

define the function cirrhosis?

A

a condition in which the liver becomes scarred and dysfunctional

82
Q

what side effects can heavy drinking have on fetus?

A

Excessive alcohol use during pregnancy may also cause a baby to be born with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) or fetal alcohol effects (FAE), a pattern that can include intellectual disability, hyperactivity, head and face deformities, heart defects, and slow growth

83
Q

what is sedative-hypnotic drugs?

A

At low dosages, sedative-hypnotic drugs produce feelings of relaxation and drowsiness. At higher dosages, they are sleep inducers, or hypnotics. Benzodiazepines, anti-anxiety drugs developed in the 1950s, are the most popular sedative-hypnotic drugs available today. Xanax®, Ativan®, and Valium® are three of the benzodiazepines in wide clinical use.

84
Q

what is opioids?

A

The term opioids refers to opium and drugs derived from it, including heroin, morphine, codeine, and OxyContin. Natural opioids include morphine and codeine. Semi-natural or synthetic opioids that are created in laboratories from natural opioids include heroin, oxycodone, (brand name OxyContin), methadone, and fentanyl.

85
Q

what is the pleasant feeling caused by opioids called?

A

pleasant feeling and shift in consciousness called a high or nod. During a high, the opioid user feels very relaxed and happy and is unconcerned about food or other bodily needs.

86
Q

what is stimulants?

A

Psychoactive drugs that speed up the CNS are called stimulants. They produce increases in blood pressure, heart rate, alertness, thinking, and behavior. The most common and often the most problematic stimulants are caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, and amphetamines

87
Q

what is Caffein?

A
  • Caffeine, a mild (and legal) stimulant, is the world’s most widely used stimulant. It is found in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola, and so-called energy drinks.
88
Q

what is the usage of Amphetamines?

A

Amphetamines were first created in the late 1800s and are one of the few drugs discussed in this chapter that are purely synthetic and do not have a plant origin. Amphetamines have been used for a number of reasons, including attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, obesity, and narcolepsy. As recreational drugs, they are often used to heighten alertness, as an aphrodisiac, or as a performance enhancer for athletes

89
Q

how dies the Amphetamines effect our body?

A

amphetamines increase energy and alertness and lower appetite in small doses, produce intoxication and psychosis in higher doses, and cause an emotional letdown when they are broken down and cleared from the body.
These drugs produce such effects by increasing the availability of the neurotransmitters dopamine and norepinephrine in the CNS. This greater availability allows for more dopamine and norepinephrine receptor activation of the neurons that are stimulated by these neurotransmitters, which in turn leads to activation of glutamate and opioid systems throughout the forebrain

90
Q

what are the side effects of the methamphetamine?

A

this particular drug also may damage nerve endings, a neurotoxicity that is compounded by the drug’s tendency to remain in the brain and body for a long time—more than six hours . Possible changes in the brain with chronic methamphetamine use include smaller frontal cortices; changes in white matter volume, which is an indication of changes in axon number; and changes in the connections between the frontal lobes and the basal ganglia as compared to controls. These differences may account for the behavioral changes seen in chronic methamphetamine users, such as poor decision making, increased impulsivity, loss of cognitive flexibility, and increased aggression.

91
Q

what is MDMA?

A

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, or MDMA (better known as ecstasy), is another “club drug” form of methamphetamine often found at parties. Just over a half of one percent of Canadians have tried ecstasy. Ecstasy produces its effects by causing a dump of the serotonin neurotransmitter, which then binds to serotonin receptors and activates the neurons downstream of serotonin. The result is a sense of euphoria, reduced anxiety, and increased social intimacy lasting for two to four hours. This outpouring of serotonin initiated by ecstasy means that if one takes more of the drug when the effects of the initial dose wear off, there is very little additional effect. Short-term issues can include dehydration, difficulty concentrating, lack of appetite, and dry mouth. Longer-term negative effects can include depression, anxiety, paranoia, and memory and cognitive problems, as well as long-term damage to the serotonin system

92
Q

what is Hallucinogens?

A

Hallucinogens, or psychedelic drugs, are substances that dramatically change one’s state of awareness by causing powerful changes in sensory perception, such as enhancing a person’s normal perceptions and producing illusions and hallucinations.

93
Q

what is trip caused by hallucinogens?

A

The substance-induced sensory changes are sometimes called “trips,” and these trips may be exciting or frightening, depending on how a person’s brain reacts to the drugs

94
Q

name of the hallucinogens?

A

Many hallucinogens come from plants or animals; others are laboratory-produced. The most common hallucinogens include LSD, psilocybin (magic mushrooms), mescaline (peyote cactus), ketamine, phencyclidine (PCP), and N, N-dimethyltriptamine (DMT).

95
Q

Define Learning?

A

learning a lasting change caused by experience. it should be reflected in behavior which can not be directly observed.

96
Q

what are the two major division of the learning?

A

associative learning learning that involves forming associations between stimuli.

non-associative learning learning that does not involve forming associations between stimuli.

97
Q

what are the types of the non-associative learning?

A
  1. habituation a form of non-associative learning whereby repeated presentation of a stimulus leads to a reduction in response in terms of behavior.
  2. dishabituation a form of non-associative learning whereby there is a recovery of attention to a novel stimulus following habituation.
  3. sensitization a form of non-associative learning whereby a strong stimulus results in an exaggerated response to the subsequent presentation of weaker stimuli.
98
Q

is sensory adaption and habituation the same?

A

No, Sensory adaptation is the lack of response of the senses to the repeated stimuli vs Habituation is making habit of ignoring an irrelevant stimuli learned from repeated exposer to the stimuli.

99
Q

give an example of habituation and dishabituation.

A

habituation is used as a tool for familiarizing infants and toddlers with stimuli and then testing for recognition and discrimination. Infants and toddlers direct their gaze to stimuli they are interested in. Therefore, once a baby stops looking at an object of interest, we know that the baby has habituated to it.
Then if researchers show the baby a new stimulus and the baby shows renewed interest in the stimulus (i.e., the baby dishabituates), we know that these two stimuli look different to the baby

100
Q

what is the use of the habituation and dishabituation techniques?

A

using this technique across the different sensory systems, researchers are able to test visual acuity (for example, whether babies can discriminate between facial expressions), auditory acuity (for example, whether babies can discriminate speech sounds), and so on. Learning theorists also study habituation by examining changes in patterns of neuronal activation in various regions of cortex

101
Q

most of the leaning is considered as?

A

associative learning; but connecting two or more stimuli.

102
Q

name the two major types of associative learning?

A

Classical and operant conditioning.

103
Q

what is conditioning?

A

conditioning the association of events in the environment.
Ex: yelling mom= punishment

104
Q

what is the classical conditioning?

A

classical conditioning a form of associative learning between two previously unrelated stimuli that results in a learned response.

105
Q

who discovered the classical conditioning?

A

Classical conditioning was serendipitously discovered around the turn of the 19th century by a Russian physiologist named Ivan Petrovich Pavlov. His discovery of conditioned reflexes made it possible to study psychic activity objectively and led the way to a systematic investigation of associative learning in the laboratory.
the name of classical conditioning is coming from where it was the first systematic study of the basic law of learning.

106
Q

why did Pavlov won noble price?

A

he work in understanding the role of the salivary reflex on the action of the stomach during digestion. This work on the digestive system won him a Nobel Prize in 1904

107
Q

define the basic idea of the Pavlov expirement?

A

the “psychic secretion” that dog learned from the arrival of the assistant that followed with the presence of food. the Salivation was happing before the arrival of food. which wasn’t only a physiological and also psychological response; a type of learning happens in the cerebral cortex.

108
Q

what is natural reflex?

A

natural reflex an automatic involuntary response that typically occurs without learning.
Ex: pupil contraction in the bright light.

109
Q

what are the terms of the classical conditioning?

A

unconditioned stimulus (US) a stimulus that on its own elicits a response.

unconditioned response (UR) a physical response elicited by an unconditioned stimulus; it does not need to be learned.

conditioned stimulus (CS) a neutral stimulus that eventually elicits the same response as an unconditioned stimulus with which it has been paired.

conditioned response (CR) a physical response elicited by a conditioned stimulus; it is acquired through experience and is usually the same as the unconditioned response.

Neutral stimuli NS doesn’t cause any reaction but after paring with the US it becomes CS.

110
Q

explain the Pavlov theory of classical conditioning?

A
  1. food (US) –> salvation (UR)
  2. assistant (CS) + food (US) –> salvation (UR)
  3. Assistant (CS) –> Salvation (CR)
111
Q

what are some of the important factors to condition a stimuli?

A
  1. repetition: US should follow the CS religiously.
  2. timing: the US should be in a 30s max of the difference from CS to be associate with.
112
Q

Why aren’t people who are afraid of snakes afraid of only one type of snake?

A

Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus trigger the same conditioned response. the more the stimuli be similar to the conditioned stimuli, the stronger the conditioned response.

113
Q

define the stimulus discrimination?

A

stimulus discrimination what occurs when an organism learns to emit a specific behavior in the presence of a conditioned stimulus, but not in the presence of stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus. important for discriminate poisonous plant vs eatable plants.

114
Q

define higher order conditioning?

A

higher order conditioning what occurs when a previously conditioned stimulus functions as if it were an unconditioned stimulus for further conditioning. ex: advisors pairs thier products with sexual imagery to sell products.
The celebrity (CS) has become associated with sexual imagery (US), and the celebrity, in turn, becomes associated with the product (CS2).

115
Q

explain the extinction in terms of classical conditioning?

A

extinction reduction of a conditioned response after repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus alone. can never unlearn the behavior but can decrease the intensity.

116
Q

what is spontaneous recovery?

A

spontaneous recovery re-emergence of a conditioned response sometime after extinction has occurred. in the sense that it might happen one more time.

117
Q

define acquisition, extinction and spontaneous recovery.

A

Acquisition occurs as the US and CS are repeatedly paired.
- When the CS is presented repeatedly without the US, the individual’s learned response gradually decreases until extinction occurs.
- But the information about the previous CS–US pairing is not lost, and the extinguished response spontaneously reappears.

118
Q

how does the drug dependency occurs?

A

Drug use begins when an individual experiences the effects of a drug as pleasurable. Drug dependency involves the psychological and physiological experiences that occur as the individual continues to use the drug; the body adapts to the presence of the drug and the individual experiences withdrawal if the drug is reduced or stopped.

119
Q

what is withdrawal?

A

Withdrawal is the psychological and physical discomfort and distress experienced when the body is deprived of an addictive substance it has become metabolically adapted to.

120
Q

what was the study of Shepard Siegel about?

A

the role of classical conditioning in drug dependency which included physiological and psychological tolerance build up against the drug which leads the addicted person to increase the dosage of the drug to get the same effect.

121
Q

what is the reason for the death in the heroin addicts?

A

Siegel argues that a learned compensatory response (US) can trigger drug tolerance (UR) and may be involved in some drug overdoses. He argues that the body seeks to compensate for the effects of a drug by initiating a compensatory response (for example, lowering body temperature in anticipation of a rise in temperature caused by heroin injection) when there are environmental cues that the drug is on its way. The greater the compensatory response, the larger the dose required to offset it. and the environmental cues are absent the body will not be prepared for the high amount of drugs which will lead to death.

122
Q

what is compensatory response?

A

Compensatory responses The environmental context in which heroin addicts inject themselves becomes associated with their body’s compensatory response to the heroin. As a result, if they inject themselves in a novel location their body’s compensatory response may not be sufficient to counter the effects of the heroin, resulting in an overdose.

123
Q

what is extroceptive cues?

A

This means that the nervous system, due to classical conditioning, anticipates the arrival of the heroin based simply on external environmental cues (called extroceptive cues) provided by the location.

124
Q

who is John Broadus Watson?

A

John Broadus Watson, often viewed as the founder of behaviorism, expressed his belief in the all-important role the environment played in shaping individuals. He rejected the role of introspection and the study of the mental worlds of the conscious and unconscious mind as unverifiable and instead argued that behaviorism was the experimental approach that ought to be used in psychology as behavior was observable and therefore could be studied with complete objectivity.

125
Q

explain the little Albert’s experiment by Watson?

A

US (loud noise) + CS (rat) = fear (UR/CR).
Not ethical.

126
Q

what is the objective of Watson’s experiment of little Albert?

A

that fear is a learned response.

127
Q

Define phobia?

A

Phobias are extreme, irrational, persistent fears of specific objects or situations, many of which pose little real danger.it involves abnormal activity (increased) in the amygdala and suppression in prefrontal cortex.

128
Q

what are some ways to treat phobia?

A

systematic desensitization a process used to condition extinction of phobias through gradual exposure to the feared object or situation.

129
Q

what is conditioned taste aversion?

A

conditioned taste aversion a form of classical conditioning whereby a previously neutral stimulus (often an odor or taste) elicits an aversive reaction after it’s paired with illness (nausea).

130
Q

what is arachnophobia?

A

Arachnophobia An extreme fear of spiders is one of the most common of all phobias. Around half of all women and 10 percent of all men have at least a mild fear of spiders

131
Q

what is the time window that a food can be associated with an illness?

A

research shows that the taste of a specific food or drink can be associated with illness up to 12 hours after its ingestion.

132
Q

what is Garcia effect?

A

researcher John Garcia and his colleagues used classical conditioning to condition taste aversions in laboratory animals by giving them specific foods to eat or drink and then inducing nausea through injection or radiation, causing radiation sickness.

133
Q

what is biological preparedness?

A

The ability to associate potentially tainted food with a subsequent illness leads to increased survival and reproduction. Those who could not learn to avoid that which made them ill were more likely to be poisoned and to die. In this way, abilities with survival value, such as avoiding potentially tainted food and water, are passed down to future generations and therefore over time, most people in the population form conditioned taste aversions.

134
Q

what is conditioned aversion and visual cues?

A

Conditioned aversions and visual cues Birds use visual cues to develop conditioned taste aversions, such as aposematic coloring to identify butterflies that produce an illness when eaten

135
Q

what is operant or instrumental conditioning?

A

operant or instrumental conditioning a form of associative learning whereby behavior is modified depending on its consequences

136
Q

define the developed theory by Thorndike?

A

law of effect a law that states that behaviors leading to rewards are more likely to occur again, while behaviors producing unpleasantness are less likely to occur again.
^^the cat “puzzle box” experiment of instrumental or operant conditioning.

137
Q

what was the behaviorist’s thought of learning?

A

Behaviorists believed that, unlike internal events such as thoughts or emotions, behavior could be objectively studied and measured. Further, they believed that all behavior could be learned through stimulus–response associations via either classical or operant conditioning.

138
Q

who is the founder of operant conditioning?

A

Burrhus Frederic Skinner believed that organisms didn’t simply respond to the environment; instead they exerted influence (or “operated”) on the environment, so he called this form of learning operant conditioning

139
Q

what is a reinforcer?

A

reinforcer an experience that produces an increase in a certain behavior. Ex: food as a reward to influence the reoccurrence of the behavior. Although the reinforcer can be different for each individual.

140
Q

what is the difference between self harm or suicide attempt?

A

when the individual harm itself without the intension of suicide is self harm.

141
Q

how does the self harm concept fits into Thorndike’s theory of Law of effect?

A

When the body is injured it releases endorphins, a naturally-occurring opiate. Endorphin release is often associated with a feeling of euphoria, a state of happiness and well-being. The euphoric feeling following the injury may also positively reinforce the self-injurious behavior.

142
Q

how many types of reinforcers do we have?

A
  • positive reinforcement presentation of a pleasant consequence following a behavior to increase the probability that the behavior will reoccur.
  • negative reinforcement removal of an unpleasant stimulus after a response to increase the probability that the behavior will reoccurrence.
143
Q

in what situation the negative influencer is effective?

A

Phobia: the woman will feel anxious at the thought of going outside and encountering the dog. As her anxiety increases, she decides to stay at home and therefore her anxiety drops. She has escaped unpleasant anxiety by avoiding the feared object (the dog), and is therefore likely to resort to avoiding the feared object the next time she is anxious.

144
Q

what is punishment?

A

Punishment decreases the likelihood a response will reoccur, weakening the tendency to make the same response.

145
Q

name the types of punishment?

A
  • negative punishment removal of a pleasant stimulus as a consequence of a behavior to decrease the probability of the behavior being repeated.
  • positive punishment presentation of an unpleasant consequence following a specific behavior to decrease the probability of the behavior being repeated.
146
Q

what is an example of positive reinforcer and punishment as well as negative reinforcer and punishment?

A
  1. positive reinforce: granting scholarship someone
  2. positive punishment: giving more homework
  3. negative influencer: removal of an extra exam.
  4. negative punishment: losing scholarship.
147
Q

what are some examples of primary reinforcer and punisher and secondary reinforcers and punishers?

A

primary reinforcer: food (biological need)
primary punisher: slapping (direct biological effect)
secondary reinforcer: better pay-> better food
secondary punisher: less pay-> less food.

148
Q

how many types of punishers do we have?

A

-primary punisher a stimulus that is naturally aversive to an organism.
-secondary punisher a stimulus that becomes aversive when associated with a primary punisher

149
Q

how many reinforcers do we have?

A
  • primary reinforcer a stimulus that has survival value and is therefore intrinsically rewarding.
    -secondary reinforcer a neutral stimulus that becomes rewarding when associated with a primary reinforcer.
150
Q

what is the skinners argument about changing the behavior?

A

Skinner argued that what people really learn about punishment is only how to avoid it. Consequently, if we want to change behavior, we have to use reinforcement

151
Q

what are the downside of the physical punishment?

A

Joan Grusec at the University of Toronto: children who experience physical aggression are more aggressive to others.
Elizabeth Gershoff: long term problems such as low-self esteem, poor self-concept, lack of interpersonal skills and delinquency, criminal behavior, child abuse and mental health issues.

152
Q

what are the guideline for effective punishment?

A

Punishments should be mild.

Positive punishment is most effective when it occurs immediately following the incorrect behaviour.

Negative punishment (such as a timeout) is generally more effective than positive punishment (such as a stern rebuke).

Punishment is most effective when it is consistent. If behaviour warrants punishment once, the behaviour needs to be punished each time it occurs.

Punishment is effective only when the punishment is a consequence of a specific behaviour, rather than, say, a result of the teacher’s or caregiver’s bad mood or general dislike for the child.

Punishment should be combined with an explanation for the punishment as well as suggestions for alternative behaviors.

153
Q

what is an effective punishment?

A

Effective punishment This child will learn best through positive punishment that is mild, immediate, consistent, and based on a specific behavior. Ideally, she will also learn what she might have done instead.
although negative punishment is consider to be more ethical.

154
Q

what is continuous and intermittent or partial reinforcement?

A

continuous reinforcement what occurs when behavior is reinforced every time it occurs. results in rapid learning.

intermittent or partial reinforcement a schedule of reinforcement where the behavior is followed by reinforcement only some of the time

155
Q

what is ratio schedule reinforcement?

A

In a ratio schedule, reinforcement is based on the number of behavioral responses.

156
Q

how many types of ratio schedule we have?

A

fixed ratio schedule a schedule of reinforcement that occurs after a specific number of responses. (no time)

variable ratio schedule a schedule of reinforcement that occurs when the number of responses required for reinforcement is unpredictable. (no time)

157
Q

what is interval schedule?`

A

In an interval schedule, reinforcement is based on elapsed time, rather than on the number of behavioral responses.

158
Q

how many types of interval schedule do we have?

A

fixed interval schedule a schedule of reinforcement that occurs every time a specific time period has elapsed. (timed )

variable interval schedule a schedule of reinforcement that occurs after varying amounts of time. (timed)

159
Q

what is an example of fixed and variable ratio?

A

Fixed ratio:
Definition- Reinforcement occurs after a predetermined number of responses.
Response Rate- High, with pauses after reinforcement
Example- A rat is reinforced for every tenth bar press
Variable ratio:
Definition-Reinforcement occurs after an average number of responses.
Response Rate- High, regular rate of response Example- A slot machine pays out after an average of 20 tries, but the payout intervals are unpredictable

160
Q

give some example of fixed and variable interval?

A

Fixed interval:
Definition- Reinforcement occurs after a fixed period of time following a correct response Response Rate- Low, with increases as time for reinforcement approaches
Example- A worker receives a paycheque every week
Variable interval:
Definition-Reinforcement occurs over varying and predictable time intervals since the last correct response
Response rate- Low, as reinforcement is tied to time rather than to output
Example- Work breaks occur at unpredictable intervals, such as 60 minutes, 72 minutes, and 54 minutes

161
Q

name the intermittent reinforcement schedules?

A

Fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed interval, variable interval.

162
Q

what is shaping?

A

shaping introducing new behavior by reinforcing close approximations of the desired behavior. more realistic. breaking down a final action to several small steps.

163
Q

what is instinctive drift?

A

Breland and Breland (1961) referred to this inability to produce a conditioned response due to a return to instinctive behavior as instinctive drift. raccoons’ inability to take more than one coin to the bank due to thier instinct habit of washing food so they would go back to their instinctive behavior of washing coins rather than completing the task.

164
Q

define behavior modification?

A

behavior modification a systematic approach to change behavior using principles of operant conditioning

165
Q

what is potting who is the inventor?

A

potting is the fear based learning that developed in the residential school, the term is coined by Rocky James in 2020

166
Q

what is potting?

A

a violent coping mechanism learned in residential school as a means of coping with stress, conflict, and relationship development.
-James argues that this fear-based learning is a form of lateral violence that developed in residential schools. He argued that because children were cognitively immature and because they had limited experience in dealing with such life-altering circumstances, they often directed their rage at their peers

167
Q

what is lateral violence?

A

Lateral violence is an internalized form of aggression experienced by those with little power and is directed horizontally (sideways). This form of aggression occurs when the sense of helplessness experienced by those in vulnerable positions causes them to direct their anger toward themselves or others with equal, or even less, power. EX: bullying, gossiping, shaming etc.

168
Q

define internalized aggression?

A

Internalized aggression Helplessness and rage often cause those who are hurt to hurt others in situations similar to or worse than their own.

169
Q

define the term learned helplessness?

A

learned helplessness a situation in which repeated exposure to inescapable punishment eventually produces a failure to make escape attempts.

170
Q

define observational or social learning?

A

observational learning or social learning: learning that occurs without overt training in response to watching the behavior of others, called models.

171
Q

define modelling learning?

A

modelling what occurs when an observer learns from the behavior of another without questioning.

172
Q

describe Vicarious learning?

A

vicarious learning: learning that occurs when an individual observes the consequences to another’s actions and then chooses to duplicate the behavior or refrain from doing so

173
Q

what is the neurologist perception about imitation and observational learning?

A

Neuroscientists believe that the neural basis for imitation and observational learning is mirror neurons.
- mirror neurons neurons fired when an animal or human performs an action or when they see another animal perform the same action

174
Q

what is implicit learning?

A

implicit learning the acquisition of information without awareness. no reinforcer or modelling required.

175
Q

what is spatial navigation learning?

A

spatial navigation learning: learning that involves forming associations among stimuli relevant to navigating in space.

176
Q

what is latent learning?

A

latent learning a form of learning that is not expressed until there is a reward or incentive

177
Q

define insight learning?

A

insight learning a sudden realization of a solution to a problem or leap in understanding new concepts. insight learning is a form of cognitive learning that doesn’t require reinforcement.

178
Q

what are the factors that facilitate learning?

A
  1. Timing:
  2. multiple exposure or review of the material.
  3. context effect: the location that the knowledge is gained is important. studying in different locations consolidate the materials in the brain.
  4. awareness and attention: a different stimuli that the others “pop-out” catches are attention
  5. repetition of the information
  6. focusing in one task at a time.
  7. sleep: good 8-10 hours of sleep is important to retain the information.
179
Q

what is the Stroop effect?

A

The Stroop Effect The Stroop Effect illustrates how when information is inherently contradictory (the word “red” presented in blue ink), attending to one stimulus (the word “red”) can block our ability to attend to the relevant task (naming the colour “blue”).