cpa1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does TID stand for in the GAAS general standards?

A

Training, Independence, and Due professional care

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2
Q

What does PIE stand for in the standards of field work?

A

Planning and supervision, Internal Control, and Evidence

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3
Q

What does GCDO stand for in the standards of reporting?

A

GAAP, Consistency, Disclosure, and Opinion

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4
Q

When is an adverse opinion rendered?

A

When a severe GAAP departure is present in the financial statements.

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5
Q

What are the two main differences between the standards of attestation and the auditing standards?

A

The attestation standards and generally accepted auditing standards differ conceptually in two main areas: 1) the attestation standards provide a framework for the attest function beyond historical financial statements; and 2) the attestation standards provide for the growing number of attest services in which the practitioner expresses assurances in forms other than the positive opinion.

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6
Q

Formula for days sales in acc receivable?

A

Acc rec / credit sales per day.Credit sales per day = Total credit sales / 365.

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7
Q

Adj entry for wages at end of year that weren’t recorded:

A

DR: Operating expensesCR: Accrued wages payable(accrued liab)

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8
Q

Why would an auditor modify the auditor’s report based on the work of a specialist?

A

If there is a difference between the specialist’s valuation of an asset and the client’s.

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9
Q

who should make up the audit committee?

A

members of the board or directors who are not officers or employees

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10
Q

what are the 3 general standards?

A

adequete training, independence of mental attitude, and due professional care

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11
Q

3 fieldwork standards?

A

adequete planning, understanding the entity and its internal control, sufficient and appropriate audit evidence

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12
Q

the auditors judgment of the overall fairness of the financial statements is applied within the framework of?

A

generally accepted audit principles

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13
Q

what does the auditor primarily use to come up with materiality?

A

the prior year financial statements

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14
Q

basics of independence concerning a close relative?

A

CR can have a financial interest in the audit client as long as the amount is immaterial to them. CR can work for the audit client as long as its not in accounting or financial reporting. CR can work for audit firm, and is not a covered member unless the person works on the engagement team or can influence the members of the engagement team or the audit itself

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15
Q

when planning a new audit, why would the auditor consider the methods used to process accounting information?

A

Because the methods influence the design of internal control

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16
Q

who appoints the PCAOB?

A

SOX created the PCAOB and it is overseen by the SEC

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17
Q

under securities act of 1934 what organizations are required to submit audited financial statements?

A

every company traded on national and over the counter exchanges

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18
Q

primary purpose of establishing quality control procedures for deciding whether to accept a new client?

A

minimize likelihood of association with clients whose management lack integrity

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19
Q

to succeed in legal action against the auditor, the client must be able to show that?

A

the CPA had duty to perform, the CPA breached the contract, the client suffered losses, and that there is a close causal connection between the auditor’s behavior and the damages suffered by the client

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20
Q

detection risk?

A

risk that auditor concludes no material misstatement exists when there actually is one

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21
Q

3 components of audit risk?

A

inherent risk, control risk, detection risk. They are multiplied together: .8 x .75 x .25 = .15 audit risk

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22
Q

if inherent risk is .8 and control risk is .2, what does the auditor do to lower audit risk?

A

increase and perform substantive testing to reduce detection risk to the point that it equals the acceptable level of audit risk

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23
Q

why are inherent risk and control risk different than detection risk?

A

inherent risk is the possibility of a material mistatement due to lack of human and system technology. Control risk is risk of material error that is not prevented or detected on a timely basis by the client’s internal controls. Detection risk is risk that the auditor misses a material error. Thus, inherent risk and control risk are functions of the client and its environment while detection risk is not

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24
Q

the risk of material misstatement refers to:

A

the combination of inherent & control risk. Multiplying IR by CR results in the ‘risk of material misstatement’

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25
Q

the level of detection risk is inversely related to:

A

the assurance provided by substantive tests. As the auditor performs substantive procedures he becomes more and more sure there are no material errors exist, and detection risk goes down

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26
Q

the audit program should be designed so that sufficient evidence is gathered to:

A

support the auditor’s conclusions

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27
Q

Do most illegal acts affect the fin statements directly or indirectly?

A

indirectly.

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28
Q

if you uncover an illegal act at a public company, the auditor is required to notify:

A

the SEC

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29
Q

when auditor has reason to believe an illegal act has ocurred, he should do what?

A

consider accumulating additional evidence, inquire of management at a level above those who did the act, and consult with the client’s legal counsel

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30
Q

what is lapping fraud?

A

you steal customer A’s money, then you get customer B’s money and apply it to A’s account, then get C’s money and apply it to B’s account, and so on

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31
Q

what is kiting?

A

money is moved from one account to the other but in different time periods to inflate the amount being reported

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32
Q

does the PCAOB make auditing standards that must be followed by all CPAs?

A

it only makes auditing standards for public companies

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33
Q

is the PCAOB a gov agency?

A

no

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34
Q

what is an S-1 form?

A

a form that must be filed with the SEC whenever a company plans to issue new securities to the public

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35
Q

what is auditors responsibility for supplementary information such as segment info?

A

auditor should apply limited procedures to the required info and report deficiencies in or omission of such info

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36
Q

who creates auditing standards for private companies?

A

the AICPA

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37
Q

what is form 8-K?

A

the form filed with SEC to report a significant event

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38
Q

how long do you have to dispose of stock in a client if you inherited some unsolicited?

A

30 days

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39
Q

do operating leases and claims against clients for immaterial amounts impair indedpence?

A

no

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40
Q

are statements in the standards that include the word “should” mandatory?

A

they are considered presumptively mandatory- the auditor can depart from them if justification is documented

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41
Q

what is the completeness assertion concerned with?

A

determining that all transactions are recorded

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42
Q

in testing the existence assertion for an asset, the auditor normally works from the ______ to the _______

A

accounting records to the supporting evidence

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43
Q

according to SOX how long does a firm keep audit documentation?

A

have to keep it 7 years

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44
Q

what is the best place to put in writing the understanding between client and firm about what will take place during the audit?

A

the engagement letter

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45
Q

to see if checks are being issued for unauthorized purchases, the auditor would most likely select testing from the population of:

A

canceled checks

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46
Q

what does tracing shipping docs to sales invoices accomplish?

A

that all items shipments have been invoiced

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47
Q

most effective control over recorded purchases?

A

supporting forms such as purchases orders and receiving reports are independently compared for agreement

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48
Q

if trying to detect overstatement of sales, you start with the:

A

accounting records and trace to the source documents

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49
Q

what is pervasiveness?

A

the extent to which an exception affects different parts of the financial statements

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50
Q

difference between adverse opinion and disclaimer of opinion?

A

adverse opinion is stating that the financials do not fairly present the position of company in accordance to GAAP. Disclaimer of opinion is when a material uncertainty affects the financials

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51
Q

what paragraph explicitly states the auditors responsibility to express an opinion?

A

the opening paragraph of the standard audit report

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52
Q

when would a lack of independence cause a disclaimer of opinion?

A

in all cases

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53
Q

if the financials and/or footnotes fail to disclose information that is required by GAAP, what type of opinion is issued?

A

adverse or qualified. if qualified, an extra paragraph would be added that describes the nature of the missing info, and the opinion paragraph would have an extra sentence “except for the information discussed in previous paragraph”

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54
Q

on a public company audit, are the reports on the financial statements and internal controls issued separately or combined?

A

it can be either

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55
Q

what are the 2 situations which result in a qualified opinion?

A

1) when the statements are materially misstated due to one account balance or class of transaction that does not have a pervasive effect on the statements2)when the auditor is unable to obtain audit evidence regarding a particular account balance that does not pervasively affect the statementsEssentially either a single deviation from GAAP or a scope limitation. The report itself is very similar to an unqualified opinion but an extra paragraph is added to explain the qualification after the scope paragraph but before the opinion paragraph

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56
Q

how many paragraphs does a standard unqualified report have and what are they?

A
  1. The introductory paragraph states the audit work performed and states the responsibility of the auditor and auditee in relation to the financial statements, the scope paragraph details the scope of the audit work, and the opinion paragraph simply states the unqualified opinion
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57
Q

when is an adverse opinion issued and how does the report change?

A

Adverse is the opposite of an unqualified opinion. It means that the financial statements as a whole are materially misstated and do not conform with GAAP. or the “differ pervasively” from GAAP. On the report, the scope paragraph is modified accordingly and an explanatory paragraph is added after the scope paragraph but before the opinion paragraph. In the opinion paragraph, the auditor specifically states that the statements are not in accordance with GAAP.

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58
Q

What situations would result in a disclaimer of opinion?

A

When the auditor is not independent or there is a conflict of interest.When a limitation on scope is imposed by the client and the auditor cant gather sufficient audit evidence.When there is a substantial going concern issue.When there are significant uncertainties in the business of the client.

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59
Q

when an auditor selects one or a few transactions and follows them through the entire accounting process, he is doing what?

A

a walkthrough. A walkthrough combines observation, documentation, and inquiry. PCAOB Standard 2 requires at least one walkthrough per major class of transaction

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60
Q

which section of SOX requires mgmt to issue an internal control report?

A

Section 404 requires auditors to assess and report on the effectiveness of the internal control over financial reporting

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61
Q

what is the definition of incompatible functions?

A

those that place any person in a position to both perpetrate and conceal errors or irregularities in the normal course of their duties. well designed controls should separate the duties of authorization, record keeping and custody of assets

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62
Q

what is the primary purpose of the auditors consideration of internal controls?

A

to determine the nature, extent, and timing of audit tests to be applied

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63
Q

if the auditor finds a reportable condition in internal controls, who should they tell first?

A

the audit commitee

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64
Q

if after understanding the ICs the auditor decides to perform tests of controls, the auditor most likely decided that:

A

it would be efficient to perform tests of controls that would result in a reduction in planned substantive tests

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65
Q

what is the concept of reasonable assurance?

A

recognizes that the cost of internal controls should not exceed the benefits derived

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66
Q

7 factors of the control environment: (I see ham bone)

A

I- integrity and ethical valuesC- commitment to competenceH- human resource policies and practicesA- assignment of authority and responsibilityM- management’s philosophy and operating styleB- board of directors or audit committee participationO- organization

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67
Q

even the best designed IC can fail due to:

A

human error, faulty judgement, collusion, management override

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68
Q

what are the five components of internal control? (clowns run cartels in mexico)

A

1) control environment2) risk assessment3) control activities4) information and communication5) monitoring

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69
Q

***What is the process of assessing risk in general?

A

You assess inherent risk and control risk to determine the amount of substantive testing that must be carried out to reduce detection risk to a level so that overall risk will still achieve an acceptably low level. Acceptable audit risk is not changed.

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70
Q

what is the audit risk formula?

A

inherent risk X control risk X detection risk = overall audit risk

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71
Q

the auditor uses the assessed level of control risk to determine the acceptable level of

A

detection risk for financial statement assertions

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72
Q

if auditor increases the level of control risk because controls are found to be ineffective, the auditor would most likely increase the

A

extent of tests of details

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73
Q

what do assertions about existence or occurrence deal with?

A

whether assets or liabilities exist at a given date and whether recorded transactions have occurred during a given period

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74
Q

when an auditor assesses control risk as low, he must:

A

identify specific policies and procedures that are likely to prevent or detect material misstatements, and he must perform tests of controls to evaluate the effectiveness of such policies and procedures. if the tests of controls result in the control risk being assessed as low, then the auditor may limit the extent of substantive testing

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75
Q

what does ‘information and communication’ refer to as far as internal control within an organization?

A

the ability of the accounting system to generate reliable info and convey it in a timely manner to the parties in the organization that need it

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76
Q

What are the 5 assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period?Alistair Overeem Cant Cut Corners

A

Accuracy- amounts and other data have been recorded appropriatelyOccurrence- transactions and events that have been recorded have occurredCompleteness- all transactions and events that should have been recorded have been recordedCutoff- transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting periodClassification- transactions and events have been recorded in the proper accounts

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77
Q

4 assertions about account balances at end of period?Even Cain Realizes Value

A

Existence- assets, liabilities, and equity interests existCompleteness- all assets, liabilities, and equity that should have been recorded have been recordedrights and obligations- the entity holds or controls the rights to assets, and liabilities are the obligations of the entityValuation and allocation- assets, liabilities, and equity interests are included in the financial statements at appropriate amounts and any resulting valuation or allocation adjustments are appropriately recorded

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78
Q

4 assertions about presentation and disclosure:Overeem Can’t Complain Anymore

A

Occurrence & rights and obligations- disclosed events and transactions have occurred and pertain to the entityCompleteness- all disclosures that should have been included have been includedClassification and understandability- financial information is appropriately presented, described, and clearly expressedAccuracy and valuation- financial and other info are disclosed fairly and at appropriate amounts

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79
Q

why is it best to have “blind” invoices received by the receiving department?

A

to make sure the receiving dep counts the incoming merchandise so that they only pay for what they received

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80
Q

what is the purpose of purchase cutoff testing?

A

to determine that items actually received in inventory have been included in the proper period

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81
Q

what is an integrated test facility?

A

it puts fake transactions in with real transactions which are processed together without client employees knowing it

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82
Q

a person who mails signed checks can also:

A

cancel the supporting documents

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83
Q

an effective control over purchases would be to have the purchasing department authorized to:

A

purchase, but not initiate purchases

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84
Q

an increased extent of tests of controls is most likely to occur when:

A

controls appear to be effective so that the preliminary control risk assessment is low. this is because auditor can then do less substantive testing.

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85
Q

are significant deficiencies and material weaknesses supposed to be relayed orally or written to those charged with governance?

A

AU 325 says that sig def and material weaknesses in a public company must be communicated in writing to the audit committee of the board of directors

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86
Q

when should control deficiencies be reported?

A

either during the audit or after the audit’s completion, within 60 days of the report release date

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87
Q

management must disclose material weaknesses in internal control if the weakness exists:

A

at the end of the year

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88
Q

what are the 2 types of control deficiency?

A

design and operations. design means its poorly designed, while operations means the people performing their tasks are doing them deficiently

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89
Q

what is ratio estimation used for?

A

to measure the total estimated error amount within a population

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90
Q

there is an inverse relationship between sample size and:

A

tolerable error. as the tolerable error decreases the sample size would increase

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91
Q

what is sampling risk?

A

the risk that the sample chosen doesn’t accurately represent the population

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92
Q

How is the allowance for sampling risk calculated?

A

It’s the difference between the upper limit and the deviation rate of the sample.

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93
Q

what are embedded audit modules?

A

coded into the clients system to collect data for the auditor

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94
Q

purpose of test data approach?

A

test data is entered with a known outcome into client’s system to see if it produces same result

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95
Q

under the PCAOB standards, a scope limitation related to internal controls over financial reporting should result in:

A

a disclaimer of opinion.

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96
Q

if a control deficiency is discovered, what is the next step?

A

determine if it is a material weakness by gathering additional evidence

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97
Q

what opinion is rendered if there is one or more material weakness in internal control over fin reporting?

A

an adverse opinion

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98
Q

“if this statement is not correct… give details of difference directly to our auditors

A

acc rec confirmation

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99
Q

“in our opinion, these statements audited by us comply in all material respects”

A

comfort letter to underwriters

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100
Q

“no claims that OUR lawyer…”

A

management rep letter

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101
Q

“which raises substantial doubt about its ability to continue as a going concrern”

A

auditors report

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102
Q

CPA is associated with the financial statements, but is NOT independent

A

Compilation report

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103
Q

providing NEGATIVE assurance on a company’s financials

A

review report

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104
Q

material departure from GAAP but NOT materially misstated

A

qualified report for GAAP departure

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105
Q

how often does an internal audit activity need to be assessed externally?

A

every five years.

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106
Q

what are the primary themes associated with internal audit attribute standards

A

(1) Purpose, Authority, and Responsibility; (2) Independence and Objectivity; (3) Proficiency and Due Professional Care; and (4) Quality Assurance and Improvement Program.

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107
Q

the 7 primary themes of the performance standards:

A

(1) Managing the Internal Audit Activity; (2) Nature of Work; (3) Engagement Planning; (4) Performing the Engagement; (5) Communicating Results; (6) Monitoring Progress; and (7) Resolution of Senior Management’s Acceptance of Risks.

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108
Q

in a conventional graph, the ‘intercept’ is the point at which:

A

the dependent variable intersects the Y axis, and where the independent variable has the lowest value, usually zero

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109
Q

elasticity of supply?

A

%change in quantity supplied/%change in price

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110
Q

what is elasticity of demand?

A

the % change in quantity is greater than the % change in price

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111
Q

how do you prevent deflation?

A

you increase the money supply by lowering the reserve requirement, or lowering interest rates which stimulates demand and increases the general price level

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112
Q

what does an import quota do?

A

it restricts the quantity of a commodity that can be brought into the country from foreign providers. The biggest beneficiary is the domestic suppliers of the commodity.

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113
Q

3 generic strategies by Michael Porter?

A

cost leadership, differentiation, and focus

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114
Q

which framework is for gauging the attractiveness of the competitive environment of an industry?

A

five forces

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115
Q

what analysis method is for evaluating a macro-environment?

A

PEST analysis: political, economic, social, and technological characteristics

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116
Q

what are the five forces?

A

1-threat of new competition entering the market2-threat of substitute goods or services3-bargaining power of buyers of the industry good or service4-bargaining power of suppliers of the inputs used in the industry5-intensity of rivalry

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117
Q

what does SWOT stand for?

A

strengths and weaknesses of the entity, and the opportunities and threats faced by the entity

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118
Q

how is weighted avg cost of capital calculated?

A

the required rate of return on each source of capital weighted by the proportion of total capital provided by each source and then those amounts are summed.debt:30%x(10% 1-30% tax rate)=2.1%CS: 60%x12%= 7.2%PS: 10%x10%= 1%WACC= 10.3%

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119
Q

what is a compensating balance and how is the effective interest rate calculated?

A

an amount the borrower has to maintain in an account with a lender.the effective int rate is the cost of borrowing divided by the funds available for use.If the interest each year is 40,000 and the only amount you can actually use is 400,000, then the effective rate is 10%.

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120
Q

how is the required rate of return calculated?

A

risk free rate + Beta(expected rate - risk free rate)

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121
Q

basic approach to capitalize earnings to determine value of business?

A

annual earnings / required rate of return.

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122
Q

what is a time series model?

A

models based on extrapolation of past data to predict a future value

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123
Q

delphi method?

A

form of qualitative forecasting that involves consensus of a group of experts using a multi-stage process to converge on a forecast.

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124
Q

diff in quantitative & qualitative forecasting?

A

quantitative is objective and rely on math and calculations. qualitative are subjective and rely on judgement and opinion

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125
Q

what is the profitability index approach?

A

the relative economic ranking of projects by taking into account the cost & net present value of projects

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126
Q

average accounting rate of return?

A

avg annual after tax net income / avg cost of investment.the avg cost of investment is the beg book value + ending bv then divided by 2.

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127
Q

formula for calculating the profitability index of a project?

A

present value of annual after tax cash flows / original cash invested in the project

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128
Q

NASDAQ requires all companies have audit committees composed entirely of:

A

Independent directors who are also financially literate

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129
Q

can board of directors change the articles of incorporation?

A

no, only stockholders can do that

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130
Q

the purchase and sale of commodities for current delivery is what:

A

the spot market. the futures market is for delivery in the future

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131
Q

what is a specialist on the NYSE?

A

a NYSE member acting as a dealer in a small number of securities

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132
Q

what is a call option?

A

the right to purchase a security at a specified price for a defined period of time.

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133
Q

what factors make up the nominal risk free rate?

A

the real rate of interest and an inflation premium

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134
Q

if the Fed reserve purchases a large number of US gov securities, what is the effect?

A

it increases the monetary supply and puts downward pressure on interest rates

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135
Q

what is a put option?

A

it lets you sell a stock at a certain price for a period of time.

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136
Q

what is transfer pricing?

A

the pricing strategy for products and services bought and sold across international borders between related parties. it is mainly part of tax planning.

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137
Q

capital structure refers to:

A

all long-term debt and equity

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138
Q

the market price of a bond is the present value of the principal amount plus:

A

the present value of future interest payments at the market rate of interest

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139
Q

cost of capital for newly issued preferred stock?

A

net proceeds per share / annual costs40 sales price less 5 issuance costs = 35.if par value is 20, @9% int. payments are 1.80calculation is 1.8/35=5.1%

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140
Q

what is the CAPM formula?

A

Expected return= RF + B(RM-RF)RF means risk free rate.B means betaRM means return on market

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141
Q

between 2 investments with the same expected return, choose the one with:

A

lower projected standard deviation

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142
Q

between 2 investments with different expected returns and standard deviations, choose the one with:

A

lower coefficient of variation

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143
Q

What is NPV?

A

net present value is the present values of future cash flows less the cost of the investment. If the NPV is above zero then it’s a good investment.

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144
Q

How do you calculate NPV?

A

it’s the present value of future cash flows discounted to present value using the COST OF CAPITAL

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145
Q

what is the basic FV calculation?

A

FV= current amount x(1+i)^nor1,000 times(1+0.1)^5

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146
Q

what is the rule of 72?

A

a very close estimate for seeing how long it takes for an investment to double. You just divide 72 by the interest rate. If the interest rate is 8% you divide 72/8=9

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147
Q

what does the security market line(SML) graph?

A

the relationship between expected return and risk as measured by the beta coefficient

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148
Q

How to calculate the benefit cost (profitability) index?

A

present value of cash flows / net investment. an index greater than 1 means the project is acceptable

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149
Q

what does the equivalent annual annuity(EAA) technique evaluate?

A

projects that have different durations(lives)

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150
Q

times interest earned calculation?

A

Earnings before interest and taxes / interest expenseThis is telling you how many times you earned your interest during the period

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151
Q

cash conversion cycle?

A

period beg with paying cash for inventory and ending with the collection of cash from the sale of products made with that inventory

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152
Q

what is underwriting?

A

investment bank buys an entire offering then tries to sell it to the public at a profit

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153
Q

least expensive long-term source of capital?

A

long term debt because interest is tax deductible and debt is repaid first so it has less risk

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154
Q

formula to determine the cost of common stock:

A

next period’s dividend / proceeds such as 2/50 which equals 4%. then you add this to the firms growth rate in dividends. If growth rate the cost of common stock would be 7+4 for 11%

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155
Q

what are the chronological events in the dividend payment process?

A

1-declaration date when board approves dividend2-ex dividend date is first date you buy stock without being entitled to the dividend3-date of record is date you must own shares by to receive dividend4-payment date is when checks are mailed

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156
Q

how is financial leverage calculated?

A

It is calculated by taking the percentage increase in earnings per share which is then divided by the percentage increase in earnings before interest and taxes. Here, earnings per share starts as $4.00 and increases by $2.00, a 50 percent increase. Earnings before interest and taxes starts as $300,000 and increases by $60,000, only a 20 percent increase. Therefore, the degree of financial leverage is 50 percent divided by 20 percent or 2.5.

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157
Q

what are the 4 reasons to hold cash?

A

transactions to meet day to day cash outflows, compensating balances required by banks, precautionary balances to meet unexpected events, and speculative balances to take advantage of opportunities

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158
Q

cash conversion cycle?

A

age of inventory + age of receivables - age of payables

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159
Q

4 parts of a company’s credit policy?

A

(1) Credit period–when the payment is due; (2) Credit standards–criteria as to which customers are granted credit; (3) Collection policy–enforcement of the collection process; and, (4) Discount–reductions offered to speed up payments.

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160
Q

Your supplier gives you credit terms of 2/10 net 30. This means that if you pay within 10 days you take a 2% discount. If not, the balance is due in full within 30 days. What is the annual percentage cost to you of not taking the discount and paying on the 30th day?

A

Your choice is to pay $.98 on the dollar on day 10 or $1 on day 30. The extra cost is .02/.98 or .0204081. You save 20 days (30-10) by paying later. To annualize the cost take 365 days and divide by the days saved. 365/20=18.25 and multiply this by the .0204081 percent cost: (.0204081) (18.25) = 37.24%

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161
Q

A manufacturer of single engine aircraft operates 365 days per year and produces 3,650 aircraft per year. Its engine supplier takes 5 days from the time an order is placed to deliver engines. Assuming the manufacturer does not wish to carry a safety stock, at what level of engine inventory should they place an order (reorder point) for new engines to ensure that production is not interrupted?

A

Economic Order Quantity points (EOQ) tells you how many engines to order at one time. It is determined by taking the square root of the following result: 2 times annual demand (1,600 units) times the cost of placing an order ($50) divided by the cost of carrying a unit for a year ($1). So, (2 x 1,600 x 50) or 160,000. That is then divided by $1 so that it stays 160,000. The square root of 160,000 is 400. That is the number of units that should always be ordered. Because 1,600 are needed, the orders of 400 are placed four times per year.

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162
Q

A manufacturer of single engine aircraft operates 365 days per year and produces 3,650 aircraft per year. Its engine supplier takes 5 days from the time an order is placed to deliver engines. Assuming the manufacturer does not wish to carry a safety stock, at what level of engine inventory should they place an order (reorder point) for new engines to ensure that production is not interrupted?

A

In the absence of a safety stock, reorder point is equal to daily usage times the time it takes for a supplier to deliver. Daily usage is 3,650/365 or 10 x 5 days to deliver (lead time) is equal to 50 engines as a reorder point.

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163
Q

average days sales in inventory?

A

360 / inventory turnoverinventory turnover= COGS/ Avg inventory

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164
Q

What does a TPS do?

A

it supports the day to day activities of a business such as purchasing goods, sales to customers, and payroll

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165
Q

ROI calculation?

A

net income / avg investment

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166
Q

alternate ROI calculation?

A

asset turnover x profit margin on sales

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167
Q

what is the dupont ROA?

A

(net income/net sales) x (net sales/avg total assets)

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168
Q

asset turnover?

A

sales / assets

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169
Q

which risk cant be mitigated through diversification of investments?

A

systematic risk because it deals with the macro environment

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170
Q

what does the systems analyst do in an IT environment?

A

designs systems, prepares specifications for programmers, and serves as intermediary between users and programmers

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171
Q

what detects errors in data transmission?

A

a parity check

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172
Q

margin of safety?

A

difference between your actual or expected profitability and the break even point

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173
Q

what is the floor and ceiling in a transfer pricing decision?

A

the floor is opportunity cost plus costs of outlay. the ceiling is the market price

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174
Q

target pricing?

A

set prices based on what you think customers are willing to pay based on perceived value

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175
Q

economic value added?

A

net operating profit after taxes less cost of capital

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176
Q

does deflation encourage or discourage borrowing?

A

deflation discourages borrowing because people want to borrow money in times of inflation because you can repay it with money with less purchasing power

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177
Q

when interest rates increase, bond prices:

A

decrease. and vice versa

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178
Q

how is the overhead rate calculated?

A

dividing estimated overhead costs(both variable and fixed) by a budgeted or estimated quantity of a cost driver. Example: total overhead costs of 75,000 divided by 20,000 budgeted direct labor hours for a overhead application rate of 3.75 per direct labor hour

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179
Q

conversion cost?

A

direct labor + overhead

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180
Q

how is a spoilage question done?

A

normal spoilage is a manufacturing cost because it’s an inherent part of production, so it is included in finished goods.Abnormal spoilage is treated as a period cost.If total units completed are 5500 with 5000 being saleable, 200 being normal spoilage, and 300 being abnormal spoilage, then 5200 is included in finished goods. so 5200/5500 times the total cost:(5200/5500)*99,000=93,600 which is what will be debited to finished goods

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181
Q

how to use high-low method:

A

total costs y=a+b(x)y=total costsa=fixed costsb=variable cost per unitx=number of kilos,etcb is change in costs divided by change in kilos, or (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

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182
Q

what does the CPU contain?

A

primary storage, a control unit, and an arithmetic/logic unit

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183
Q

what is primary storage?

A

temporary main memory portion of the CPU which is part RAM part ROM. Secondary storage consists of devices external to the CPU such as disks, flash drives, & hard drives

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184
Q

elements of assembly language:

A

must be translated into machine language by an assemblereasier to write programs in than machine languageit’s an efficient form of second gen language

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185
Q

elements of a procedural language:

A

3rd gen language that concentrates on the procedures and functions of the programs. written in source code then translated into object code. source code is more similar to english but object code is the machine language for the type of computer. FORTRAN, COBOL, and BASIC are all forms of procedural languages

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186
Q

what does a JCL do?

A

Job control language initiates programs, specifies priorities and running sequences, and which databases are used and which files are used

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187
Q

What is the order of creating master budget?

A

sales budget is first, then production budget, budgeted income statement then budgeted balance sheet

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188
Q

absorption costing?

A

assigns all 3 factors(direct material, direct labor, and both fixed and variable manufacturing overhead) to inventory

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189
Q

direct costing?

A

assigns only variable manufacturing costs to inventory- which means variable manufacturing overhead

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190
Q

what does r squared actually mean?

A

percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the variation in the independent variables

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191
Q

what are x and y in a line equation?

A

x is the independent variable, and y is the dependent variable.

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192
Q

overhead efficiency variance?

A

The overhead efficiency variance is the difference between actual direct labor hours worked, and the standard quantity of hours allowed for actual production, times the variable overhead rate per hour.

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193
Q

overhead volume variance?

A

The overhead volume variance equals the difference between the master budget for fixed overhead and applied fixed overhead. The variance has one cause only: producing a number of units different from that specified in the master budget.

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194
Q

labor efficiency variance

A

The labor efficiency variance is the difference between actual direct labor hours worked, and the standard quantity of hours allowed for actual production, times the direct labor wage rate per hour.

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195
Q

material usage variance?

A

This variance is the difference between the actual quantity of material used, and the standard quantity allowed for the output achieved, times the standard price of material.

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196
Q

Diff between spending variance for fixed overhead and variable overhead?

A

The spending variance for variable overhead is the difference between the actual overhead and the budgeted overhead based on actual direct labor hours. The spending variance for fixed overhead is the difference between the actual overhead and the master budget for fixed overhead. Neither variance is affected by the denominator used for allocating fixed overhead.

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197
Q

what is incremental or differential cost?

A

the total difference in cost of two alternatives.

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198
Q

Residual income formula?

A

Residual income = operating income - required rate of return (invested capital)

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199
Q

using PERT or CPM, activity slack is?

A

max amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire project

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200
Q

what are the 2 distinct functions of the information systems department?

A

systems development and data processing

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201
Q

liason between end-users and the processing center?

A

the control group.

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202
Q

what are the 3 main types of system documentation?

A

data flow diagramssystem flowchartsentity relationship diagrams

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203
Q

What AICPA framework relates to “reliable systems”?

A

AICPA’s Trust Services provides assurance on systems.

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204
Q

what 3 IT functions need to be separated?

A

programming, operations, and the library

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205
Q

daily operations of the website?

A

Web coordinator

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206
Q

control activities defined?

A

Control activities include all of the policies and procedures used within a sytem to help ensure that all management directives are performed as anticipated. Each system is supposed to perform designated tasks. Control activities are installed to ensure those tasks get accomplished efficiently and effectively.

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207
Q

5 examples of information goals?

A

(1) input validity - where input data be approved and reflect accurate economic events (2) input completeness - all valid events are captured (3) input accuracy - all events are captured correctly (4) update completeness - all events are reflected in respective master files (5) update accuracy - all events are reflected correctly within master file.

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208
Q

controlling computer operations is controlled by:

A

Segregation controls, backup and recovery, contingency processing, file protection rings and internal and external labels represent methods to control computer operations. Segregation controls represent controlling access to programs and data.

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209
Q

There are five risks associated with e-commerce, according to the Trust Services framework established by the AICPA. These risks are:

A

1) security, 2) availability, 3) processing integrity, 4) online privacy, and 5) confidentiality.

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210
Q

4 categories of IT resources under COBIT:

A

applications, which include systems and manual procedures to process information; the information itself; infrastructure, which includes hardware, equipment, and operating systems needed to process information; and people.

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211
Q

4 components of the COBIT framework’s IT process model:

A

1) plan and organize, 2) acquire and implement, 3) deliver and support, and 4) monitor and evaluate. Abbreviated, these components are referred to as: Plan, Build, Run, and Monitor.

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212
Q

Who established COBIT?

A

The Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA)

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213
Q

definition of net present value?

A

present value of cash inflows minus the net investment

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214
Q

definition of internal rate of return?

A

the specific discount rate that makes the present value of the inflows equal to the net investment and forces the NPV to be equal to zero

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215
Q

market value added?

A

market value of the firm minus the book value of the capital investment in the firm

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216
Q

economic value added?

A

net operating profit after taxes minus the firm’s cost of capital in dollar terms

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217
Q

ROA (return on assets):

A

net income divided by total assets

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218
Q

ROE(return on equity):

A

net income divided by total equity

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219
Q

ROIC (return on invested capital)

A

net income plus interest divided by average total invested capital. invested capital is just interest bearing debt plus owners equity

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220
Q

what are the 4 elements of a balanced scorecard?

A

financial, customer, internal processes, and learning & growth

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221
Q

after a performance measure has been accepted, what is the next step?

A

the current level of performance should be determined (baseline performance), a designated performance rate or a designated improvement rate should be set (targets), and actions needed to achieve those targets should be designated (strategic initiatives)

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222
Q

free cash flow?

A

net operating profit after taxes (NOPAT), add in depreciation expense, then subtract money set aside for capital expenditures and any need for increasing working capital

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223
Q

receivables turnover?

A

net credit sales / avg acc receivable

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224
Q

number of days sales in inventory?

A

COGS divided by 365. Then divide avg inventory by the first number.

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225
Q

financial planning process:

A

1) analyzing the investment and financing alternatives available to a firm, 2) forecasting the future consequences for each of the alternatives, 3) deciding which alternatives to undertake, 4) measuring subsequent performance against established goals. Measuring the subsequent performance is the final step in that process.

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226
Q

what are the steps to process improvement?

A

1) design, 2) modeling (which involves simulation of the process), 3) execution (including training of personnel and testing of the process), 4) monitoring, and 5) optimization.

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227
Q

what is a pareto chart?

A

a bar chart or histogram that ranks the causes of variations in a process from most to least frequent, which is intended to indicate their effects on quality

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228
Q

what is a control chart?

A

measures deviations from process standards, a fishbone diagram identifies causes of defects and their effects

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229
Q

steps in project management:

A

project initiation, project planning, project execution, project monitoring and control, and project closure

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230
Q

a cost management system is:

A

a planning and control system that measures the cost of significant activities, identifies non value-added cost, and identifies activities.

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231
Q

relevant range?

A

level of activity where fixed costs remain fixed

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232
Q

diff between theoretical capacity and practical capacity?

A

Theoretical capacity assumes output is produced 100% of the time. Practical capacity adjusts theoretical capacity for non-production time such as holidays and maintenance shutdowns.

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233
Q

Utilizing the expected annual capacity approach to overhead application, can result in overapplied overhead when:

A

Actual overhead costs were less than expected and/or production was higher than expected.Overhead is applied based on a calculated rate per unit. This calculated rates uses estimate overhead costs divided by an estimated activity level. If either the estimated overhead is higher than the actual overhead or the estimated activity level is lower than the actual activity level, overhead can be overapplied.

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234
Q

labor rate variance?

A

actual rate paid minus standard hourly rate times the total hours worked

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235
Q

labor efficiency variance?

A

number of hours worked less hours supposed to have been worked times the standard rate

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236
Q

material price variance?

A

diff of total price paid and total price should have paid for the same amount

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237
Q

fixed overhead spending variance

A

It is the difference between the actual overhead spending and the budgeted overhead spending.

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238
Q

when doing weighted avg cost of capital calculations, what needs to have taxes removed?

A

the cost of capital for DEBT must be computed net of the tax benefit provided by the deductibility of the interest expense

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239
Q

how to find effective rate of interest on a compensating balance question?

A

cost of borrowing / funds available for useIf you have 500,000 at 8% interest that equals 40,000 in interest expense. but if you can only use 400,000, then the calculation is 40k/400k for an effective rate of 10%, not 8%

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240
Q

difference between performance standards and attribute standards

A

attribute standards describe the characteristics of organizations and people who perform internal audit services.performance standards describe internal auditing and identify the quality criteria applicable to the performance of the internal audit services

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241
Q

what percentage can a whistleblower get for a dodd-frank award?

A

10% and 30% of sanctions imposed

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242
Q

what is the slope of a demand curve?

A

it is negative. the lower the price, the greater quantity demanded

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243
Q

a positive GDP gap exists when:

A

potential GDP exceeds real GDP. This means that the economy is operating at less than full capacity- which implies unemployment and under-utilized plant and equipment

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244
Q

2 largest export countries?

A

germany and china- each about 9%

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245
Q

US share of worldwide GDP is:

A

approximately 25%

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246
Q

which type of employment is not considered in calculating full employment?

A

cyclical- the other 3 types can exist and still have “full employment”

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247
Q

a supply schedule shows the relationship between the quantity of a commodity that will be supplied during a period of time and:

A

the selling price of the commodity. A supply curve is basically saying that as price increases, more sellers would enter the market and more of the good would be supplied

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248
Q

freely fluctuating exchange rates:

A

automatically correct a lack of equilibrium in the balance of payments

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249
Q

what would the Federal Reserve NOT do to stimulate the economy?

A

Reduce tax rates. The Fed Reserve does not change tax rates. This would stimulate the economy, but tax rates are set by Congress, not the Fed. The Fed could reduce the reserve requirement, reduce the discount rate which would increase loan activity, and they could increase the money supply.

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250
Q

who controls fiscal and monetary policy?

A

The Fed controls monetary policy(money supply), and Congress controls fiscal policy(gov spending and taxes)

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251
Q

calculate marginal propensity to consume:

A

change in spending over change in disposable income

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252
Q

calculate avg propensity to consume:

A

% of disposable income spent on consumable goods

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253
Q

the preventive measure for deflation?

A

increase the money supply. this stimulates demand and increases the general price level

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254
Q

how does deflation distort reported income?

A

depreciation is NOT reflective of current fixed-asset replacement costs?

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255
Q

what is SWOT concerned with?

A

the relationship between an entity and its environment

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256
Q

what is the 5 forces concerned with?

A

the nature, operating attractiveness, and probably long-run profitability of a competitive industry

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257
Q

what is the basis for a natural monopoly?

A

economics of scale- or an increasing return to scale.

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258
Q

in a perfectly competitive market, what is the best level of output for the firm?

A

Marginal revenue = marginal cost.

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259
Q

the direct exchange rate expresses the domestic price (in dollars) of:

A

one unit of foreign currency. 1 euro to $1.15

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260
Q

PEST is acronym for:

A

political, economic, social, and technological

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261
Q

What does PESTEL add to PEST?

A

E= environmental factorsL= legal factors

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262
Q

required rate of return for an investment:

A

riskfree rate + beta(expected rate - riskfree rate)

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263
Q

diff in financial structure and capital structure:

A

financial structure includes all items of liabilities and owners equity, and capital structure includes LONG-TERM liabilities and owners equity.

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264
Q

what time series model reduces random fluctuations in data?

A

exponential smoothing

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265
Q

what source of new capital usually has the lowest after tax costs?

A

bonds. less risk to investors so they’re cheaper than equity, and the interest payments are tax deductible

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266
Q

what states the terms of a bond?

A

an indenture

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267
Q

what is the profitability index used for?

A

to rank potential investments by taking into account both the time value of money and the initial cost of the project

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268
Q

what is commercial paper?

A

short term, unsecured promissory notes

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269
Q

calculate profitability index of a project?

A

divide present value of annual after tax cash flows by the original cash invested in the project

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270
Q

what is residual income that remains after the cost of all capital, including equity capital, has been deducted?

A

economic value added. it measures economic profit, not accounting profit. NOPAT minus cost of capital

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271
Q

accounting rate of return?

A

dividing accrual based net income by the initial cost of the project

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272
Q

what is EDI for?

A

electronic data interchange allows companies to place orders with suppliers electronically

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273
Q

what kind of network is used to process EDI?

A

Value added network- VANs provide the additional security and addressing capabilities necessary to process EDI transactions

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274
Q

rollback and recovery procedures are most common in:

A

online real-time systems. periodic snapshots are taken of a master file, and upon detection of a problem, the system reprocesses all transactions that have occurred since the snapshot

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275
Q

who designs, creates, and tests program?

A

application programmers

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276
Q

a fire supression system in a computer facility should include:

A

halon and other chemical suppressents that dont harm computer hardware

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277
Q

which critical function is most likely to be missing in a small business computing environment?

A

authorization

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278
Q

in a large firm, who would maintain custody of the entity’s data?

A

the data librarian

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279
Q

what allows a database management system to add new records, delete old records, and update records?

A

a data manipulation language (DML)

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280
Q

What is used to verify that a program was free of unauthorized changes?

A

a source code comparison program. this compares an archived program to the program actually in use

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281
Q

What is PaaS?

A

PaaS is the use of the cloud to create (not access) software

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282
Q

what is systematic risk?

A

market risk. large scale economic events that typically affect all companies

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283
Q

most likely strategy to reduce breakeven point?

A

decrease fixed costs and increase contribution margin

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284
Q

what is six sigma similar to?

A

total quality management

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285
Q

what are the 4 types of costs of quality?

A

prevention costsappraisal costsinternal failure costsexternal failure costs

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286
Q

steps for business continuity plan

A

create framework and structure, identify the scope of the plan, its key roles, and assign individuals to roles. Understand and evaluate organizational risks. Define alternative methods to ensure delivery of products and services. Strategy for handling crisis incidents. embed plan in organizational culture. educate, train, and make aware.

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287
Q

If there is commercial substance to an exchange, the exchange is measured at:

A

Fair Value. The gain is equal to the old asset’s fair value and it’s book value. If the fair value was 30 and its book value is 25, the gain is 5.

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288
Q

How does retail inventory method establish lower of cost or market valuation for ending inventory?

A

By excluding net markdowns from the cost to retail ratio.

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289
Q

Can consolidated financial statements be prepared from a business combination that was accounted for using the acquisition method OR the pooling of interests method?

A

Yes to both. The pooling of interest method CANNOT be used anymore for business combinations, combinations that happened before that still need to be consolidated.

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290
Q

Does a foreign sub using the local currency as its functional currency has their financials translated or remeasured?

A

Translated.

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291
Q

Does a foreign sub using US dollars as its functional currency has their financials translated or remeasured?

A

Remeasured.

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292
Q

Under translation, common stock is translated at the what exchange rate?

A

The historic exchange rate.

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293
Q

500 shares of 6%, $100 par callable preferred stock are called at $101. The shares were issued at $103 per share. What is the journal entry to record the retirement?

A

DR preferred stock for 50,000DR PIC-preferred for 1,500CR PIC retirement of preferred for 1,000CR Cash for 50,500

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294
Q

Working capital:

A

current assets - current liabilities

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295
Q

Acid test:

A

(cash + net receivables)/current liabilities

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296
Q

Acc Rec turnover:

A

Sales/ avg net receivables

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297
Q

Inventory turnover:

A

COGS/ avg inventory

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298
Q

Times interest earned:

A

EBIT/ interest expense

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299
Q

Return on total assets:

A

(net income + after-tax interest expense)/ avg total assets

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300
Q

Return on equity:

A

Net income / avg owners equity

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301
Q

Dividend payout ratio

A

Common dividends / net income

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302
Q

What are the 2 primary qualitative characteristics?

A

Relevance and Faithful representation

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303
Q

2 components of relevance:

A

Predictive value and confirmatory value

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304
Q

3 components of Faithful Representation

A

Completeness, neutrality, and free from material error

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305
Q

What are the 4 enhancing characteristics?

A

Comparability, verifiability, timeliness, and understandability

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306
Q

Times interest earned is:

A

income before interest and income tax over interest expense

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307
Q

What is a central characteristic of a joint venture?

A

Shared control. None of the participating parties are likely to have unilateral control of the joint venture.

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308
Q

What is the defensive-interval ratio?

A

The ratio of quick assets to daily operating expenditures. The ratio is showing the length of time in days that the firm can operate with its present liquid resources- so it’s a liquidity measure.

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309
Q

Inventory turnover ratio:

A

COGS/ avg inventory for the period

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310
Q

Where are G/L on remeasurment and translation booked?

A

Remeasurement is on the income statement, translation go in an equity account. Remeasurement is when the foreign sub’s currency is the US dollar. It’s translation if the sub’s currency is the local foreign currency.

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311
Q

Receivables turnover ratio:

A

Net sales / avg net accounts receivable

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312
Q

What statements are usually included in personal financial statements?

A

A statement of financial condition and a statement of changes in net worth.

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313
Q

If a donation is conditional, how should it be accounted for?

A

As a refundable advance.

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314
Q

For donation of specialized services to a nonprofit, at what value should they be recognized?

A

Fair value.

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315
Q

For a NP, are contributions spread over a few years restricted or non restricted?

A

The contribution in the current year is non restricted(unless it comes with an actual restriction), and the contributions for future years are recognized at present value and are RESTRICTED.

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316
Q

When are the payments for an “Annuity Due” made?

A

At the beginning of each period.

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317
Q

How is a lease payment calculated when the lease payments are due at the beginning of the period?

A

You divide the FAIR VALUE of the leased equipment by the ANNUITY DUE rate.

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318
Q

What is the journal entry at the inception of a capital lease and the payments are due at the beginning of each period?

A

DR: Leased asset for its fair value amountCR: Lease Liability for plug amountCR: Cash for the payment amount

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319
Q

How do you calculate the interest expense at the end of the year on a capital lease with payments at the beginning of the period? What is the journal entry?

A

You multiply the remaining lease liability amount by the interest capitilization rate.DR: Interest expenseCR: Lease liability

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320
Q

How does the LESSOR in a capital lease determine the amount of Lease Receivable?

A

Multiply the payment by the number of payments.

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321
Q

What is the journal entry by the LESSOR for a capital lease with payments at the beginning of each period?

A

DR: Lease receivableDR: Cash for the payment amountDR: COGS for the book value amountCR: Unearned interest for the lease rec amount MINUS the BVCR: Equipment for BV amountCR: Sales for the FV amount

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322
Q

Working capital formula

A

current assets - current liabilities

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323
Q

Acid test formula

A

(cash + net receivables) / current liabilities

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324
Q

Acc Rec turnover formula

A

Sales / avg net receivables

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325
Q

Inventory turnover

A

COGS / avg inventory

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326
Q

Avg collection period for acc receivable?

A

Net credit sales / avg net acc receivable…. then you divide 365 by that number

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327
Q

What financial statements are required for the Governmental funds?

A

1)Balance sheet and 2) Statement of revenues, expenditures, and changes in fund balance

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328
Q

What statements are required for the Proprietary funds?

A

1)Statement of Net Postition2)Statement of revenues, expenditures, and changes in net position3)Statement of cash flows

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329
Q

What statements are required for the fiduciary funds?

A

1)Statement of net position2)Statement of changes in fiduciary net positiion

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330
Q

Which fund type does the government-wide financials EXCLUDE that are included on the CAFR?

A

Fiduciary funds.

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331
Q

What are the 3 sections of the CAFR?

A

1) Introductory2) Financial3) Statistical

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332
Q

If an investment in 30% of another company is accounted for using the fair value method, what is recognized as net income from the investment?

A

Cash dividends received and increases in the fair value of the investment are recognized in net income from the investment. The portion of the company’s net income is NOT recognized in net income from the investment.

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333
Q

A contest prize expense is the present value of the?

A

Total cost incurred. If the prize is an annual $50,000 payment for 20 years and the company takes out an annuity of $418,250 after making the initial $50,000 payment, the contest prize expense in the current year is $468,250.

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334
Q

The ending balance of the asset retirement obligation should be the:

A

Beginning balance + the DISCOUNTED cash flow estimate of the new asset + accretion expense - the amount paid during the year.

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335
Q

The debt service fund records cash transfers from the general fund as what, and cash payments as what?

A

Operating transfers and Expenditures.

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336
Q

During a period of inflation, would a perpetual inventory system result in the same dollar amount of ending inventory as a periodic inventory system under FIFO and LIFO?

A

Yes with FIFO, No with LIFO. The perpetual system would be calculating COGS based on the latest goods acquired prior to each sale versus all the latest goods acquired during the period under a periodic system.

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337
Q

Does a NOL carryforward directly reduce taxes or taxable income?

A

Taxable income. If the NOL is 40,000 and taxable income is 60,000, then it reduces taxable income down to 20,000, which is then multiplied by the tax rate.

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338
Q

During a business combination, can the acquisition date be before, on, or after the closing date?

A

It can be any of the 3.

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339
Q

For state or local governments, encumbrances outstanding at year end should be reported as:

A

Assigned or committed fund balance.

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340
Q

What does income and dividends from a sub do to the investment account under the equity method?

A

Income increases the investment, and dividends reduce the investment account.

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341
Q

What is the focus of proprietary funds?

A

Income determination. Proprietary funds use accrual accounting and they are similar in reporting to private businesses.

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342
Q

What is the entry in the General Fund to record equipment purchased with a capital lease?

A

DR: ExpendituresCR: Other financing sourcesThe general fund doesn’t record fixed assets. The general fund fixed asset account group would record the acquired equipment.

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343
Q

What are funds classified as that can only be used for a specific purpose because of restraints imposed by formal action of the government’s highest level of decision making authority?

A

According to GASB Statement No. 54, amounts that can only be used for a specific purpose, because of constraints imposed by formal action of the government’s highest level of decision-making authority, should be reported as Committed Fund Balance. The Restricted Fund Balance classification should be used when constraints are placed on the use of resources are either (a) externally imposed by creditors, grantors, contributors, or laws or regulations of other governments, or (b) imposed by law through constitutional provisions or enabling legislation.

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344
Q

What is the process for recording collection of accounts that had been written off?

A

First you debit accounts receivable and credit allowance for doubtful accounts to restore the amounts that had been written off. Then you debit cash for the amount collected, and you credit accounts receivable to take them off the books since they’ve been collected.

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345
Q

In the general fund, what 3 accounts are affected when property taxes are levied?

A

Revenue control is credited, property taxes receivable is credited, and allowance for uncollectible taxes is credited. Bad Debt Expense is ONLY an accrual accounting concept, and IS NOT used in modified accrual accounting.

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346
Q

When the direct method for LCM is used, what is the journal entry to write down inventory?

A

DR: Cost of goods soldCR: Inventory

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347
Q

When using the allowance method under LCM, what is the JE to write down inventory?

A

DR: Holding lossCR: Allowance for LCM

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348
Q

Under the fair value option, what is recognized as income from the investment company?

A

Cash dividends and the increase in fair value of the investment are both recognized in net income of the investor.

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349
Q

How does the installment sale method work?

A

Each payment consists of return of cost and gross profit. You calculate the gross profit percentage by taking the sales price and subtracting the carrying value, and then dividing that number by the sales price. Then you multiply the principal portion of the payment by the gross profit percentage, and then add in the interest payment amount, and that is the amount of revenue to recognize. The return of cost portion of the payment is NOT recognized as revenue.

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350
Q

Gains or losses on retirement of debt used to automatically be classified as extraordinary gains or losses, but now they are:

A

immediately recognized in full in income from continuing operations.

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351
Q

What rate is used to calculate the amount of dividends from a foreign currency?

A

The spot rate on the date of declaration is used regardless of translation or remeasurement.

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352
Q

How is the refinancing of a liability due within a year treated under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP, if the refinancing happens before the ISSUANCE date of the financial statements, then it can be considered long term again. Under IFRS, the refinancing has to happen before the BALANCE SHEET DATE for it to be considered a long term liability again.

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353
Q

How is interest expense and dividends paid classified as far as cash flow under IFRS?

A

Interest expense and dividends paid can be classified as EITHER operating or financing activities.

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354
Q

How is interest revenue and dividend revenue classified under IFRS for cash flows?

A

They can both be either cash flows from operating OR investing activities.

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355
Q

If the percentage of completion method cannot be applied, how are profits recognized on long-term contracts under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP the profits will be recognized once the job is completed- which is the completed contract method. Under IFRS, all profits will be recognized when all the costs have been recovered- the cost recovery method.

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356
Q

If an IFRS company decides to revalue its equipment each year, what effect would a drop of $2000 in value above regular depreciation be?

A

It would be a 2000 expense for that year, recognized in income. BUT…. an increase in the value would go under other comprehensive income.

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357
Q

What is the main capital lease criteria under IFRS?

A

That the lease life is a “major portion” of the equipment life. Thus, a lease of 60% of the equipment’s life would qualify as a capital lease.

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358
Q

If both parties consider a lease to be a capital lease, what interest rate do they both use under IFRS?

A

They both use the implicit rate built into the contract.

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359
Q

Under IFRS, a contingent loss must be recognized if it is…

A

More likely than not. Even just 51% vs 49% meets this criteria.

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360
Q

How is a prior service cost due to a change in the projected benefit obligation due to a contractual adjustment treated under IFRS and GAAP?

A

Under IFRS it is expensed immediately to the extent that benefits have vested. Under GAAP it is recorded to accumulated other comprehensive income and then amortized to expense over the years the employees are expected to work.

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361
Q

A bond with face value of 100k is sold at 110k due to a convert option into common stock. How is this recorded under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under IFRS 100k would be the liability and the 10k is recorded as equity. Under GAAP the full 110k is debt until it is actually converted.

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362
Q

How is an impairment loss on equipment determined under IFRS?

A

A loss must be recognized if the book value exceeds the higher of the PRESENT VALUE of the future cash flows and the fair value less necessary costs to sell the equipment.

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363
Q

GAAP vs IFRS research and development costs?

A

Under GAAP all research and development costs are expensed as incurred. Under IFRS, research costs are expensed, but development costs are capitalized if the company believes that future economic benefits are probable and that the product being developed is commercially and technically feasible.

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364
Q

How are legal costs to successfully defend a patent treated under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP the costs are added to the cost of the patent. Under IFRS the costs are expensed UNLESS the cost increase the future benefits to be derived from the asset.

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365
Q

How are biological assets valued under IFRS?

A

At fair value less costs to sell.

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366
Q

How is the reversal of an impairment loss recorded under IFRS?

A

The recovery of an impairment in value must be recognized if the circumstances that caused the impairment are reversed.

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367
Q

A company has two checking accounts: one with 100k and one with negative 10k. How are they reported under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP the negative is reported as a liability, so the cash line will show 100k. Under IFRS they are netted so the cash line would show 90k.

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368
Q

In a period of rising prices, a company that wants to maximize profits will use what inventory method?

A

FIFO. In rising prices using FIFO, the earliest goods will be sold first which makes COGS lower and NI higher.

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369
Q

Formula for ending DV LIFO balance:

A

Beginning DV LIFO + (increase at base-year dollars)(price index)300,000 + (400,000 - 300,000)(1.1) = 410,000

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370
Q

What is the ceiling and floor of LCM?

A

Ceiling is Net Realizable Value and Floor is NRV less a normal profit margin.

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371
Q

Explain LCM

A

If replacement cost is within the range of the ceiling and floor, then market is replacement cost.If the RC is greater than the ceiling, then market is the ceiling amount.If RC is less than the floor, then market is limited to the floor amount.

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372
Q

How are trademarks classified, capitalized, amortized, and impaired?

A

They can be either definite or indefinite life, only expenditures made to external parties are capitalized, amortization depends on whether they are definite or indefinite life, as does impairment.

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373
Q

How are customer lists classified, capitalized, amortized, and impaired?

A

They can be either definite or indefinite life, only expenditures made to external parties are capitalized, they are amortized, impairment is decided by the recoverable cost test.

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374
Q

How is an initial franchise fee classified, capitalized, amortized, and impaired?

A

Can be definite or indefinite life, only capitalize expenses to external parties, amortization depends on definite or indefinite, as does impairment.

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375
Q

When a liability has a carrying value less than fair value, does an unrealized gain or loss exist?

A

An unrealized loss exists. It would be a debit to Impairment loss, and a credit to the liability to increase it to its fair value.

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376
Q

In financial statements prepared on the income-tax basis, how should nondeductible expenses such as meals be reported?

A

Included in the expense category in determination of income. These are still business expenses and need to be included to calculate income on the financial statements.

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377
Q

For grants, what is a prime factor in determining eligibility for accrual?

A

The expenditure of resources (spending the money)

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378
Q

What would an entity most likely do to hedge an investment in a foreign operation?

A

Borrow from another foreign entity with the same foreign currency as the operation being hedged. Since borrowing is a liability, any changes in the foreign currency would offset the investment.

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379
Q

If intercompany fixed asset balances are NOT eliminated, will consolidated income or loss be overstated.

A

Both can be overstated.

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380
Q

When there is NOT commercial substance to an exchange, gains are recognized:

A

In proportion to the amount of cash received.

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381
Q

Under the cost method, is the Sub’s income or dividends recognized by the parent?

A

Dividends are recognized as income to the parent.

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382
Q

When transferring a receivable, the loss is the difference between the carrying value of the portion of the asset transferred and the cash received for the:

A

Transferred portion. Usually the total carrying value will be allocated between the portion of the asset surrendered and portion retained, based on relative fair values.

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383
Q

For estimating income taxes for personal financial statements, assets and liabilities measured at their tax bases should be compared to assets and liabilities measured at their:

A

Estimated current value and estimated current amount.

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384
Q

Before assets are distributed as a property dividend, the unrecognized holding gain or loss is:

A

Recognized. If a firm pays a property dividend of a stock it bought for 20,000 when its market value is 25,000, there is a debit to retained earnings for 25,000 and a gain on disposal of 5,000 is recognized.

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385
Q

Bond prices and interest rates are inversely related. When interest rates increase,

A

the market value of bonds decrease, because there are now better opportunities on the market.

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386
Q

Are fund-based statements or government wide statements included on a CAFR?

A

They both are. The gov-wide statements focus on the financial results and health of the gov while the fund based statements report how various revenues are derived and spent.

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387
Q

What are the 3 columns on the gov-wide statements?

A

Gov activities, business type activities, and total gov activities

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388
Q

Which funds are not included in the gov-wide financial statements?

A

Fiduciary funds.

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389
Q

How is an internal service fund reported on the gov wide statements if another gov agency is its main beneficiary?

A

As a gov fund instead of a business type fund.

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390
Q

What accounting basis is used to report the gov wide financial statements?

A

Full accrual accounting.

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391
Q

What statements are required for the gov wide statements?

A

The statement of net position and the statement of activities

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392
Q

How would 5 year bonds appear in the fund based statements and the gov wide statements?

A

They wont show up in the fund based statements because they aren’t a claim against current assets. They will show up as a long term liability in the gov wide statements.

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393
Q

Does a firm selling put options on its own stock affect liabilities or equity?

A

It increases liability by the fair value of the options.The liability will be extinguished when the option is exercised or when it expires.

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394
Q

When computing avg shares outstanding during the year, how are stock dividends treated?

A

Stock dividends are treated as outstanding for the entire year. It is when new stock is issued that it is multiplied by the portion of the year remaining.

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395
Q

Is additional compensation to former shareholders after a business combination considered additional costs of the business combination?

A

No.

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396
Q

Can a forecasted transaction be hedged?

A

Yes- in a cash flow hedge since it is forecasted and therefore subject to changes in related cash flow.

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397
Q

Is a finder’s fee for a lease expensed or allocated over the lease term?

A

The finder’s fee benefits the entire lease term and is therefore expensed evenly over the lease term.

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398
Q

What exchange rate is used to TRANSLATE a foreign sub’s income statement?

A

The average exchange rate.

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399
Q

If a company changes from FIFO to weighted avg inventory during 2005, how is the cumulative effect of the change measured?

A

The change is measured as of the beginning of the year of change.

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400
Q

Are the direct costs or the general expenses in a business combination deducted from the corp’s net income from the combination?

A

Both are expensed in the period incurred.

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401
Q

Does the recording of an asset retirement obligation for a natural resources development site increase the liability or the depletion base?

A

Both. It is a credit to a liability, and a debit to the natural resources account, which is the depletion base.

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402
Q

Under international accounting, the vested portion of prior service cost is immediately recognized in:

A

Pension expense. The unvested portion is gradually recognized under delayed recognition in pension expense.

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403
Q

If financial statements prepared on another basis besides GAAP are not appropriately titled, the auditor must:

A

Disclose any reservations in an explanatory paragraph and qualify the opinion for the inappropriate title of the statements.

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404
Q

Under IFRS for SMEs, which inventory valuation method is NOT allowed?

A

LIFO.

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405
Q

Personal financial statements should report assets and liabilities at:

A

Estimated current values(fair values) at the date of the financial statements.

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406
Q

What financial statements are included in a set of personal financial statements?

A

A statement of financial condition (balance sheet) is always included, and a statement of changes in net worth may be included, but is NOT required.

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407
Q

In a personal statement of financial condition, a life insurance policy should be reported at cash surrender value less any:

A

Loans outstanding against the policy.

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408
Q

In a cash flow hedge, the item being hedged is measured using:

A

The present value of expected cash inflows or outflows. The item being hedged could be associated with an asset, a liability, or a forecasted transaction.

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409
Q

What is the purpose of reporting comprehensive income?

A

To summarize all changes in equity from nonowner sources.

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410
Q

What are the “other comprehensive income” items? (4)

A

Unrealized G/L on AFS securities, unrealized G/L on pension costs, foreign currency translation adjustments, and unrealized G/L on certain derivative transactions.

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411
Q

Who pays the shipping with FOB shipping point?

A

The title passes to buyer at the shipping point, so the buyer is responsible for paying the shipping charges.

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412
Q

Who pays the shipping with FOB destination?

A

The seller pays shipping charges to get the goods to the buyer. The title passes to the buyer once they reach their destination.

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413
Q

Under IFRS, how should a company report their investments in bonds when it is a part of their business model to hold such investments solely to receive the cash and interest from principal repayment?

A

At amortized cost.

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414
Q

Can impairment losses on intangibles be reversed?

A

No. Losses on plant assets held for disposal can be reversed to the extent of previous losses but intangible impairment losses cannot be reversed.

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415
Q

Which governmental fund type can report a positive amount in the Unassigned fund balance?

A

The general fund. Other governmental funds cannot have a positive balance in their unassigned fund.

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416
Q

In a sale-leaseback, how is the gain on sale recognized?

A

It is amortized over the lease term. A 50,000 unearned gain on a sale-leaseback over 10 years will result in 5,000 being recognized in each of the 10 years.

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417
Q

If a city imposes a 2% tax on hotel charges which will be used to promote tourism in the city, what type of nonexchange transaction is this?

A

It is a Derived Tax Revenue.

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418
Q

How are the different governmental funds reported on the fund-based balance sheet?

A

The general fund has its own column, then the major funds each have their own column, and then the rest of the individual funds that are not considered major are grouped into a single column.

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419
Q

A fund balance is the amount of assets greater than liabilities. What are the different classes of the fund balance?

A

Unrestricted- which means it’s none of the below and is available for future use.Nonspendable and restricted. This means the money is restricted as to use by an outside party.Committed means the money is committed to a specific use by the highest level of decision making.Assigned means the money has been assigned by officials that are NOT the highest level of authority.

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420
Q

If a city plans on collecting $10k a month from property taxes for the next 18 months, how much revenue should be reported in year one?

A

$140,000. 10k for each month of the year plus Jan and Feb of the following year.

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421
Q

How is $10k of bonds reported on the gov wide and fund-based statements?

A

They are a regular liability on the gov wide statements and “other financing source” on the fund based statements.

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422
Q

How is a bond due in 3 months reported on the gov wide & fund-based statements?

A

It is ‘bonds payable’ on both.

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423
Q

If a city takes on a project but accepts no liability for the work being done, what type of fund is used.

A

An agency fund.

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424
Q

How does a transfer from the gen fund to capital projects get reported?

A

The general fund shows a “other financing use”, the capital projects fund shows a “other financing source”, and both balances will show up in the total gov funds column. This are no eliminations of “intercompany transactions”.

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425
Q

What is the difference between the purchases method and consumption method for the government fund accounting?

A

Under purchases, the whole purchase is immediately recognized as an expenditure. Under the consumption method, the supplies are moved to expenditures as they are used.

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426
Q

Is a computer or office supplies reported as an asset on the fund-based governmental statements?

A

Office supplies are an asset- capitalized assets such as a computer are not.

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427
Q

how is a capital lease recorded in the gov fund-based statements?

A

The PV of the payments is recorded as an expenditure, and an increase in ‘other financing sources’.

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428
Q

Do infrastructure assets get depreciated?

A

They do unless the modified approach is adopted. Then you have to set a minimum level of acceptable condition and maintain documentation to show that the asset is kept at that level.

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429
Q

For general purpose gov statements, is MD&A required?

A

Yes, it must be included but it is separate from both the gov wide & fund-based statements.

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430
Q

What are the 3 requirements to be a special purpose gov?

A

1) separately elected governing body. 2) It is legally independent so that it can sue, be sued, and buy and sell property in its own name. 3) Be fiscally independent of all other governments.

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431
Q

On the statement of activities, what is included in program revenues?

A

Any revenue generated by the activity, as well as any grants related specifically to that activity. This is then netted against the expense.

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432
Q

In troubled debt restructuring, what does the creditor do, and how do they recognize interest on the restructured loan?

A

They reduce the amount owed to the present value of future cash flows on the ORIGINAL interest rate. Then, they recognize interest by using the original interest rate times the BV of the new receivable. The debtor recognizes a loss as the difference between the current BV of its receivable and the present value of the future cash flows.

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433
Q

In troubled debt restructuring, what does the debtor do?

A

They compute the total cash flows now owed. So you take the future interest payments and add them to the new principal amount.

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434
Q

If you have an investment that isn’t enough to be equity method, then you invest more later that does take it to equity method, how is that treated?

A

The equity method is retroactively applied to the first amount. So if you owned 10% the whole year then bought another 20% at year end, you would recognize 10% of the company’s earnings under the equity method.

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435
Q

How is a capitalized interest problem done? (average accumulated expenditures)

A

First calculate the average accumulated expenditures. That is taking the amounts spent through the year each multiplied by the portion of the year remaining.Next you calculate avoidable interest. Avoidable interest is the interest on the construction specific loan(s), and then the amount of other debt above the amount of the construction loans.Then calculate actual interest. The lesser of the avoidable interest and the actual interest is the amount that can be capitalized.

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436
Q

When converting financial statements using translation, paid in capital accounts are translated using the ______ rate?

A

Historic rate in effect when the account arose or the investment was made.

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437
Q

If a firm buys land to build a warehouse on, is the interest from the land loan and the warehouse construction capitalized?

A

Only interest on the warehouse construction can be capitalized.

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438
Q

If a firm is going to discontinue a segment early next year, but there is a loss in that segment ending this year, how is that loss reported?

A

As an operating loss of the discontinued segment. This section is below income from continuing ops but above extraordinary items.

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439
Q

What is an accelerated filer and how long do they have after their fiscal year end to file their 10-K?

A

Aggregate worldwide market value of voting and nonvoting stock of $75 million or more, but less than 700 million. They have 75 days to file 10-K.

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440
Q

What is a large accelerated filer and how long do they have after their fiscal year end to file their 10-K?

A

Market cap of 700 million or more. They have 60 days to file their 10-K.

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441
Q

A foreign currency transaction is settled in ______ but measured and recorded on the US entity’s books in ________.

A

Non dollarsDollars.

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442
Q

Where are foreign currency exchange gains or losses on acc rec reported?

A

In current income as an item of income from continuing operations.

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443
Q

What disclosure is required relating to sinking funds and long term debt?

A

FAS 47 requires the disclosure of the aggregate amount of maturities and sinking fund requirements for all long-term debt for each of the five years following the balance sheet date. The detail of each year for both is shown.

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444
Q

When does a liquidating dividend occur?

A

When the investee pays more income than was earned during the period the investor owned the shares of the investee.

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445
Q

Describe the cost method:

A

The cost method is for an investment that DOES NOT give the investor significant influence. The dividends are recognized in income of the investor. The investment remains on the balance sheet at cost unless there is a permanent decline in value, or there is a liquidating dividend.

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446
Q

Under IFRS, are gains and losses on the changes in fair value of equity investments reported in the income statement or in other comprehensive income?

A

It can be either. If the investment is held for trading purposes, then the changes in fair value are reported in profit/loss.If it’s NOT held for trading, the investor may elect to report changes in fair value through other comp. income.

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447
Q

What type of investments can be transferred between categories under IFRS?

A

Only debt. Equity securities are not allowed to be transferred between categories under IFRS. When investments are transferred, prior period statements must be restated for comparative purposes.

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448
Q

Under IFRS, if debt securities are held NOT as part of the business plan, what are they measured at?

A

Fair value.

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449
Q

Under IFRS, if debt securities are held as part of the business plan, what are they measured at?

A

Amortized cost.

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450
Q

Under the equity method for GAAP, what effect does the sub’s income and dividends have on the investor’s investment account?

A

The investor’s share of income increases the investment account, and dividends decrease the investment account. The investor’s share of income from the investee is also recognized as income for the investor.

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451
Q

Which form of business combination results in a NEW legal entity?

A

Consolidation. In consolidation, 2 or more existing entities are combined into one new legal entity.In a merger, one pre-existing entity is combined into another pre-existing entity. In an acquisition, one entity acquires a controlling interest and both continue to exist as separate legal entities.

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452
Q

Accretion expense is essentially growth in the:

A

Asset retirement obligation.

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453
Q

Purchases of treasury stock do not affect retained earnings under the:

A

Cost method.

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454
Q

Return on equity is considered what kind of ratio?

A

A profitability ratio

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455
Q

What is the defensive-interval ratio and what type of ratio is it?

A

It is the ratio of quick assets to daily operating expenditures. It is a liquidity ratio.

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456
Q

Does the cost method or the fair value method require a reconciliation of the changes in carrying amounts between the beginning and end of a period?

A

They both require said reconciliation.

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457
Q

If a decline in inventory value is not considered temporary, the decline is recognized in the quarter in which the decline occurs. Later recoveries are:

A

Recognized as gains to the extent of the previous losses only.

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458
Q

A discount on a bond is essentially:

A

Extra interest expense.

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459
Q

Which regulation governs the form and content of financial statement disclosures?

A

Regulation S-X.

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460
Q

The notional amount in a derivative refers to:

A

The specified unit of measure. If you have an option to buy 100 shares, the notional amount is the 100 shares.

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461
Q

Where does a first time adopter of IFRS recognize the adjustments required to present its opening IFRS statement of financial position?

A

In retained earnings.

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462
Q

What are the 4 components of the IASB monitoring board? (1 on top, 3 on bottom)

A

The IFRS foundation is on top, and below it is the IFRS advisory council, the IASB, and the IFRS interpretation committee.

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463
Q

What does the IFRS foundation do and how long is their term?

A

They appoint members of the IASB, the IFRS Advisory Council, and the IFRS interpretations committee. The trustees serve 3 year terms

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464
Q

What are the objectives of the IFRS foundation? (4)

A

To develop a single set of high quality, understandable, enforceable and globally accepted financial reporting standards. To promote us and rigorous application of IFRS. To consider the needs of a range of size and type of entities. To promote and facilitate adoption of IFRS through convergence.

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465
Q

What does the IASB do?

A

They establish IFRS reporting standards, but they do NOT have enforcement power. Enforcement is the responsibility of the securities regulators in the national jurisdictions.

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466
Q

What is the IFRS advisory council and who appoints them?

A

They advise the IASB on priorities and the views of interested organizations. Members are appointed by the IFRS foundation

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467
Q

What does the IFRS interpretations committee do and who appoints the members?

A

They are similar to the FASB’s emerging issues task force: they identify issues in the context of IFRS, their interpretations are reviewed by the IASB. The members are appointed by the IFRS foundation.

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468
Q

What is an SME?

A

Small and medium-sized entities. IFRS has one single standard for companies that are not publicly traded. Revisions to SME standards only happen once every 3 years.

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469
Q

What are the 2 assumptions in the IASB framework?

A

That the accrual method is used, and that the entity is a going concern

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470
Q

What statements are required for a first-time adopter of IFRS?

A

Upon adoption, the first set of statements must have 3 statements of financial position, 2 statements of comprehensive income, two separate income statements, two statements of cash flows, and two statements of changes in equity. Basically they need 3 balance sheets and 2 of everything else.

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471
Q

What is the TRANSITION date of a company to IFRS?

A

The opening date of the balance sheet for the earliest comparative financial statements. If the first IFRS reporting date is as of Dec 31 Year 2, then the transition date will be Jan 1 year 1.

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472
Q

Upon first time adoption of IFRS, an entity can elect to use fair value as deemed cost for:

A

Any individual item of property, plant, and equipment.

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473
Q

What is the first reporting date when switching to IFRS?

A

The year end date for the period which IFRS is first applied.

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474
Q

What are the major characteristics of IFRS for SMEs?

A

Disclosures are simplified. LIFO is prohibited. Goodwill and indefinite life intangible assets are amortized over a period NOT exceeding 10 years. Depreciation is based on a component approach. Simplified temporary difference approach to income tax accounting. Reversal of impairment charges is allowed in some circumstances. No disclosures for earnings per share and segment disclosures.

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475
Q

Can revenue and AR from a sales commitment be recognized?

A

Yes. IFRS defines revenue from a balance sheet point of view and is based on the inflow of economic resources.

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476
Q

What is the difference in transfer of receivables under GAAP and IFRS?

A

GAAP focuses on whether control has shifted from the transferor to the transferee. IFRS focuses on whether the transferor has transferred the rights to receive cash flows from the receivable and whether or not substantially all the risk and rewards of ownership were transferred.

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477
Q

What is the general rule of IFRS when it comes to the value of assets?

A

That assets aren’t carried at more than their recoverable amount. If the asset’s carrying value is greater than the amount that could have been recovered through the asset’s use or by selling the asset, then it is impaired.

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478
Q

What is the definition of RECOVERABLE AMOUNT under IFRS?

A

The higher of the fair value less cost to sell or the value in use. Fair value less cost to sell is the amount obtainable from the sale in an arms-length transaction. The value in use is the discounted present value of the future cash flows expected from the asset.

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479
Q

What is a CGU under IFRS?

A

A cash generating unit is the smallest group of assets that can be identified that generates cash flows independently of the cash flows from other assets.

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480
Q

Does IFRS permit recovery of an impairment loss?

A

Yes.

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481
Q

Whats the difference in GAAP and IFRS of the reversal of an inventory write-down?

A

Under IFRS a reversal is allowed. Under GAAP it is NOT allowed.

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482
Q

How often is useful life and depreciation method reviewed under IFRS?

A

Annually. Under GAAP it’s only when events or circumstances change.

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483
Q

Component depreciation GAAP vs. IFRS

A

Under IFRS, when an item of PPE comprises of individual components for which different depreciation methods or rates are appropriate, each component is depreciated separately.

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484
Q

PPE revaluation GAAP vs IFRS

A

PPE can be remeasured to fair value if fair value can be reliably measured.

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485
Q

Where does an increase in PPE’s fair value ABOVE its original cost go under IFRS?

A

It goes into a revaluation surplus account which is in OCI. If a truck had gone down in value 10k then back up 15k in the next year, the first 10k would be in the profit and loss statements. The extra 5k would go into the revaluation surplus account in OCI.

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486
Q

What investment classifications exist under IFRS?

A

Held to maturity which is debt measured at amortized cost, and Fair value, all equity is at fair value.

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487
Q

Difference of HTM classification in GAAP vs IFRS:

A

Under GAAP the test is whether the firm has the positive ability and intent to hold to maturity. Under IFRS it’s the business model test, which evaluates if holding the debt for the cash flow is part of the business model.

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488
Q

Transfer from HTM differences GAAP vs IFRS

A

In GAAP you transfer from HTM when you no longer have the positive ability and intent to hold to maturity. Under IFRS you transfer from HTM only when the business model objective changes

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489
Q

OCI for investments differences in GAAP vs IFRS:

A

In GAAP gains/losses are recorded in OCI ONLY for AFS securities. In IFRS the entity may ELECT to records gains/losses to OCI at the initial measurement, but the election cannot be undone.

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490
Q

IFRS investment property

A

ljwoj

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491
Q

What is a small stock dividend?

A

Below 20 to 25 % of the previously outstanding shares.

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492
Q

What effect do stock dividends have on retained earnings?

A

If it is a SMALL dividend they reduce RE by the amount of shares issued X current stock price.If they are a LARGE dividend (bigger than 25%), they are recorded at par value.

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493
Q

JE for treasury stock purchase under cost method?

A

DR: Treasury stockCR: CashContributed capital is NOT affected. If treasury shares are resold at less than cost, then retained earnings is reduced by the difference in cost and reissue price.

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494
Q

In a fraud case, the CPA is generally liable to all:

A

reasonably foreseeable victims of the misstatement

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495
Q

Consideration must be:

A

legally sufficient. This doesn’t mean fair or equal.

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496
Q

A CPA can charge a contingent fee when helping a client with a claim for a refund filed solely:

A

in connection with a determination of statutory interest or penalties.

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497
Q

Ultramares rule:

A

established in a 1931 case of the same name, requires privity before an accountant is liable for negligence. Other rules, such as the Restatement rule, allow foreseeable users who rely on a negligently false statement to sue.

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498
Q

Sales contracts over $500 are governed by:

A

the statute of frauds. The UCC governs even the sale of a gumball

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499
Q

What is the one term that must be set for a UCC contract to be enforceable?

A

acceptance. Without acceptance it’s still just a negotiation

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500
Q

to be an enforceable written contract, what must the contract include?

A

the quantity of goods

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501
Q

under UCC when does risk of loss pass to buyer?

A

when the goods are delivered to the carrier

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502
Q

what does a principal have to do to terminate residual authority of one of its agents?

A

notify all thee agent’s known customers and publish the termination in appropriate trade journals

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503
Q

details of an output contract

A

when a customer agrees to buy all their materials from one supplier. courts decided that parties probably know about how much a supplier will order, so that is enough consideration to support a contract. If a contract cant be concluded within a year of its execution it must be supported by a signed writing under the statute of frauds

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504
Q

what can never be inferred?

A

quantity. price, subject matter, time for performance can all be inferred.

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505
Q

who has the responsibility in a check fraud scheme

A

the party in the best position to detect the loss- so usually the company the bad checks are coming from

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506
Q

If someone is going to transfer a check (order paper) to you, what two things do you need to make it valid?

A

Possession- meaning you need to actually have the check- and the person transferring it to you needs to have signed it.

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507
Q

Are punitive damages available in breaches of contract?

A

NO

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508
Q

what are reasonable grounds to OMIT an answer on a client’s tax return?

A

SSTS #2 says that only if both 1) the info isn’t readily available, and 2) the answer is not significant in terms of taxable income or loss

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509
Q

what is the hierarchy of paying of dividing up cash to creditors/IRS after a bankruptcy?

A

1.security interests are paid first2.child support and alimony3.admin costs such as attorneys and accountants who helped DURING the bankruptcy4. employee wages 3 MONTHS PRIOR5. contributions to benefit plans6. claims on raising or storage of grain7. consumer deposits8. all taxes are paid next9. unsecured creditors who filed in a timely fashion are paid pro rata and MUST BE FULLY REPAID before anything is paid to unsecured creditors who DID NOT file in a timely fashion

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510
Q

Usually, the first security interest to have priority will be the first one __________.But what is the exception dealing with purchase money?

A

Perfected.A purchase money security interest in NON-INVENTORY collateral has priority if it is perfected before the debtor takes possession or within 20 days thereafter.

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511
Q

what type of standard for tax shelters has the IRS adopted?

A

a “more likely than not” standard- meaning if the preparer thinks it is more likely than not that the position will be upheld- they don’t need to worry about the tax return preparer penalty

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512
Q

in a tenancy in common, the owners have the right to pass their interests to ________

A

their heirs through the estate

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513
Q

is a purchase price and a description of the property required to have a valid deed?

A

NO- you only need a description of the property

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514
Q

what is an example of a defect in the marketable title to real property?

A

an unrecorded easement

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515
Q

can incidental beneficiaries sue to enforce contracts?

A

no- the parties to the contract don’t have their benefit in mind when they create the contract

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516
Q

what is required for someone to file chapter 7 bankruptcy?

A

they must have debts- it can be any amount, as long as it is not an “abuse of the process”

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517
Q

Things to remember when looking at bankruptcy distribution problems:

A

1- Look at the dates! Priorities change based on the dates

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518
Q

claims with a “realistic possibility” of being sustained need not be:

A

disclosed. these are claims that have between a 33% and 50% chance of being sustained

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519
Q

can a surety compel the creditor to collect from the primary debtor or go after the debtor’s collateral?

A

no. the surety is primarily liable upon the debtor’s default, and they can’t compel the creditor to take either of these actions

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520
Q

2 ways intent can be established:

A

show that the defendant acted recklessly, or that the defendant knew of the misrepresentation

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521
Q

if a person is adjudicated incompetent by a court having proper jurisdictions- all future contracts entered into by this person are:

A

VOID

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522
Q

if a principal is either partially disclosed or undisclosed, is an agent personally liable for contracts entered into?

A

YES

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523
Q

Under the UCC secured transactions article, what will ALWAYS prevent a security interest from attaching?

A

failure of the debtor to have rights in the collateral

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524
Q

what entity handles ethical complaints that carry national implications

A

the AICPA

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525
Q

the 1933 securities act applies to sales of securities, including stocks, bonds and notes that are issued for periods over ___________

A

9 months

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526
Q

what is rule 505 of Regulation D of the 1933 securities act?

A

it allows a securities sale of up to 5mil in 12 months without registering with the SEC. it can only sell shares to a limit of 35 non-accredited investors but unlimited sales to accredited investors

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527
Q

what is rule 506 of reg D of the 1933 securities act?

A

Rule 506 merely requires that the securities not be advertised to the general public and not be sold to more than 35 non-accredited investors. Any type of security may qualify for this exemption, including stocks and debentures. There is no limit on the dollar value of the issue, so long as the other restrictions are complied with.

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528
Q

if you incorporate your business and you put all assets into the corp in exchange for stock, what % do you have to own immediately afterwards to qualify as tax free?

A

80%

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529
Q

in a non-liquidating distribution of property, how do you report the transaction?

A

the same as if you’d sold the property at its fair market value. If you had stock you bought for $10 per share, and you gave it to an owner of the corp when it was worth $20 per share, you’d report $10 of capital gains per share.

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530
Q

what are the tax implications to a corp and the individual if a corp has land that it bought for 20k but is now worth 25k, and the corp distributes it to an individual? (the corp still owes 10k on the land and the individual assumes the debt)

A

the corp would report a gain of 5k, and the individual reports a gain of 15k. the individual is 15k better off than before the transaction.

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531
Q

when you put property into a corp in exhange for stock, how is your basis in the stock determined?

A

it is your previous basis in the property plus any gain recognized on the property. if you had an asset you paid 100k for but is worth 150k when you transfer it, if the transfer qualifies as tax free you have basis of 100k in the stock. but if the transfer doesn’t qualify as tax free and you have a 50k gain on the transfer, then your basis in the stock is 150k.

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532
Q

if an individual transfers equipment into a new corporation with a basis of 100k but a FV of 150k and the transaction is tax free, what basis does the business take in the asset

A

100k. when you transfer property into a corp and end up with 80% or more of the stock, the tax basis is retained by both parties

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533
Q

when property is conveyed to an owner, whether as a liquidating distribution or not, it is recorded as:

A

as if it were sold for FMV. if it is a capital asset then there is a capital gain equal to the FMV less the basis.

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534
Q

if you have preferred and common shareholders, 270k in your profits and earnings account, and you pay 200k dividends to preferred shareholders and 100k dividends to common shareholders, how do they each report them?

A

preferred report 200k of dividends, and common shareholders report 70k of dividends and 30k of nontaxable return of basis. When corporate distributions exceed earnings and profits, the earnings and profits are first allocated to the distribution made to the preferred shareholders with any remainder to the common shareholders

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535
Q

what is section 1245 property?

A

personal decpreciable equipment used in a business. equipment and machinery fall into this category

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536
Q

what is section 1250 property?

A

1250 property includes business land and most real property that is subject to depreciation

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537
Q

how are taxes determined when a company is buying and selling its own stock?

A

it doesnt matter- a company buying and selling its own stock is nontaxable

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538
Q

what are capital assets for a corporation?

A

For a corporation, capital assets are normally limited to investments in stocks, bonds, and land (held in hopes of appreciation in value). Buildings, equipment, and inventory are bought to produce revenues and do not qualify as capital assets.

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539
Q

what are the threshholds and percentages for the dividends received deductions?

A

up to 20% ownership is 70%20-80% ownership is 80%above 80% is 100%

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540
Q

what is the dividend received deduction applied to?

A

the lower of the dividend amount or the overall income amount. if operations actually lost 20k but the dividend was 100k, the dividends deduction percentage would be applied to 80k

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541
Q

how do capital losses work for corporations?

A

they can be carried back 3 years and forward 5 years but they can only reduce other capital gains. they do not lower taxable income

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542
Q

what rate are capital gains for corporations taxed at?

A

the ordinary tax rate for the corp. it’s not a different rate like it is for individuals. when a net capital loss is either carried back or forward it is always treated as a short term loss

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543
Q

when a corp sells an asset, what would create ordinary income?

A

if an asset was bought for 50k, had dep exp of 10k, and was sold for 60k, 10k would be ordinary income and 10k would be a 1231 gain. the dep exp is recaptured through the sale.

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544
Q

are dividend-received deductions allowed for non-domestic companies?

A

NO. if you get dividends from a non domestic corp it’s all taxable

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545
Q

what time period are section 197 items amortized over?

A

15 years

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546
Q

how are incorporation fees expensed?

A

the first 5k can be deducted in the first year, the rest is amortized over 180 months

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547
Q

how are doubtful accounts treated for tax purposes?

A

the expense has to be incurred- meaning only the amount of accounts actually written off are able to be deducted

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548
Q

how are charitable deductions calculated for corporations?

A

the amount deducted in one year is up to 10% of income before any dividends received deductions. this means that you would take income plus dividend income and take 10% of that, then subtract the DRD afterwards. any amount over that can be carried forward for 5 years

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549
Q

a bad debt can only be deducted to the extent that:

A

it was included in income.Bad debt expense is actually the removal of a previously recognized income that was never received

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550
Q

what are the 3 elements of deductible business expenses?

A

ordinary, necessary, and reasonable in amount

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551
Q

what happens if a owner/employee is getting paid 300k and 50k of that is determined to be unreasonable compensation?

A

that 50k will then be taxed at a dividend but it also becomes NOT-deductible for the corp

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552
Q

how is inventory treated as a charitable donation?

A

when it’s donated, the deduction amount is the lower of cost or fair value

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553
Q

business gifts up to $____ per person can be deducted

A

$25

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554
Q

what is the half-year convention under MACRS?

A

According to the rules of MACRS, personal property is treated as placed in service or disposed of at the midpoint of the taxable year, resulting in a half-year of depreciation for the year in which the property is placed in service or disposed of by the company.

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555
Q

what is the tax treatment when there is a like-kind exchange with boot?

A

the amount taxed is the lesser of the boot received or the gain.

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556
Q

when a company owns 80% or more of another, when are gains reported for tax purposes?

A

not until the gain is realized by a sale to an outside party.

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557
Q

the benefit of using the installment sales method is removed by:

A

being added to taxable income as an adjustment

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558
Q

what constitutes a personal holding corporation?

A

more than half of the value of the outstanding stock must be owned by five or fewer individuals at some point during the last half of the year. at least 60 percent of its ordinary income must be generated by dividends, interest, rents, royalties, and other passive income

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559
Q

is interest income on state and federal government obligations included in taxable income?

A

interest from federal obligations IS taxable but interest from state obligations IS NOT taxable

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560
Q

which of these are included in the gross income of the recipient during a divorce: alimony, child support, and property settlement?

A

only alimony. alimony is included in the recipient’s gross income, but child support and property settlements are not

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561
Q

if someone is supposed to receive alimony and child support, but receives much less then they are supposed to during the year, how is it taxed?

A

the amount is applied to child support first. If they were supposed to get 5k during the year in child support and they received 6k total, 5k would be child support and 1k would be alimony.

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562
Q

how is the exclusion ratio computed on an annuity contract?

A

you take the basis over the amount expected to be received, and then multiply that percentage by the total of the payments received that year. so if you paid 50k for an annuity and it was estimated that you would be paid out a total of 100k, your exclusion ratio is 50%

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563
Q

what are the types of capital assets for individuals?

A

Capital assets for individual taxpayers are personal property, such as household furniture and tools, and investment property, such as real estate and securities such as stocks and bonds.

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564
Q

how are gains and losses handled on personal and investment property for individuals?

A

Taxpayers must report gains and losses on investment property (such as their investment stocks and bonds) but only gains on personal property are reported. For example, if a taxpayer sells personal furniture at a gain, that capital gain must be reported. However, if the same personal property is sold at a loss, no deduction is allowed.

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565
Q

how are short and long term capital gains and losses treated by an individual?

A

the first step is to net the short term gain and loss and the long-term gain and loss.Then, you net the two together. A net capital loss of up to $3k can be deducted in any year in arriving at AGI, and any loss over that can be carried forward indefinitely.Also, when netting the overal gains and losses together, whatever is bigger determines whether it’s a long term or short term

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566
Q

how are gains/losses treated in related party transactions on the individual level?

A

gains are taxed but losses are not deductible

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567
Q

how much capital losses can someone filing “married filing separately” deduct in a given year?

A

this filing status can only deduct $1,500 instead of the regular 3,000

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568
Q

what is the treatment of non business bad debt?

A

the principal is written off in the year the loan is deemed worthless and it is considered short-term. any foregone interest is not deductible

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569
Q

how is basis determined when a gift is given?

A

it’s the basis of the gift in the hands of the gift-giver

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570
Q

if you inherit stock worth 10k, how much tax do you owe?

A

assets that are inherited aren’t taxable. You take a basis in them that’s the same as the fair value on the date of death.

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571
Q

how are qualified dividends taxed?

A

Qualified dividends are those dividends collected from a U.S. domestic corporation or a qualified foreign corporation. To encourage investments in these companies, the dividends are taxed at the same reduced rate that applies to long-term capital gains.

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572
Q

how is a like-kind exchange taxed when no cash is received?

A

the basis of the new asset is the same as the basis in the asset given up plus any cash paid, and no gain or loss is recognized

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573
Q

how is a trade that is not like-kind treated for tax purposes?

A

your basis in the new asset is its fair market value, and you subtract the basis in the asset you traded and that difference is your gain

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574
Q

if cash is received in a like-kind exchange what is the tax consequence?

A

a gain is recognized on whatever is the lower of the cash received or the gain on the exchange. If there was 5k received and the gain was only 3k, then a 3k gain is recognized. if the gain was 5k and cash received was 2k, then a gain of 2k is recognized

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575
Q

what is the rule on excluding a gain on the sale of a primary residence?

A

If certain rules are met, a couple filing a joint return can exclude up to $500,000 of the gain on their personal residence. The structure had to be their principal residence for at least two of the most recent five years. This exclusion cannot be taken in two consecutive years.

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576
Q

what are the rules for a C corp to use the cash basis of accounting?

A

c corps cant use the cash method unless their average annual gross receipts for the previous three years do not exceed 5 million. once they pass 5 million they must use accrual method for all future years

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577
Q

can partnerships use the cash basis of accounting?

A

yes, as long as none of the partners are a c corp. and there are no income limits for the cash basis

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578
Q

characteristics of ORDINARY ASSETS?

A

accounts and notes receivableinventorytrade or business assets OWNED FOR A YEAR OR LESS

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579
Q

characteristics of 1231 assets?

A

Trade or business assets owned for MORE than a year

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580
Q

if you inherit property and the donor’s basis is higher than FMV, how is it treated when you sell the asset for tax purposes?

A

You assume the lower FMV as your basis for computing losses, and you use the donor’s higher basis for computing gainsIf you sell it at a price in between the gain and loss basis, no gain or loss is recognized

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581
Q

If you inherit stock and sell it within a year is it a short-term or long-term gain?

A

You assume the holding period of the donor. So if they had only had it 6 months you start at 6 months when you inherit it- if they had it 5 years and you sell it the day after you inherit it, it is still a long-term gain

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582
Q

when the alternate valuation date is elected after a death, what is the basis for the property distributed?

A

it is the fair market value on the date that is six months after the date of death

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583
Q

if you (an individual) have ST cap losses of 10k and LT cap losses of 10k how much can you deduct of each one in the current year?

A

3k can be deducted, and the ST losses are deducted first.

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584
Q

in an involuntary conversion, how do you calculate any gain or loss?

A

the taxable gain is the LOWER of the actual gain on the transaction or the money left over after the replacement

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585
Q

what is the basic hobby loss rule?

A

you have to make a profit in 3 out of the most recent 5 years. so 3 years of losses in a row means you’re engaged in a hobby not a business.expenses related to a hobby are deductible only to the extent of revenues earned

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586
Q

how are benefits under cafeteria plans taxed?

A

they are only taxable if they are received in cash

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587
Q

what is the exception to the rule of stock dividends being non-taxable?

A

if the investor can choose between cash or a stock dividend, then it’s taxable.If some owners are given common stock but some are given preferred stock, then it’s taxable to all.

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588
Q

how are gambling gains/losses treated for tax purposes?

A

Winnings from gambling activities are reported within the income of the taxpayer. Losses are shown as miscellaneous itemized deductions. However, the losses deducted cannot exceed the amount of gambling winnings being reported

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589
Q

is interest on United States treasury bonds taxable?

A

nterest revenue on United States treasury bonds is taxable on a federal income tax tax return. Interest revenue on US Series EE bonds is tax exempt but only when it meets specific rules: the bonds must have been purchased by the taxpayer who was over 24 years old and the proceeds must be used to pay college costs for taxpayer, spouse or a dependent. Interest revenue on state and municipal bonds are always tax free on a federal return.

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590
Q

how are passive activity losses treated on an individual tax return?

A

Passive activity losses are not deductible on an individual income tax return. They are carried over and used to offset passive income in the future until used up. A passive activity is a business in which the taxpayer serves as an owner but does not materially participate in the operation. Rental activities and limited partnerships are also included in this category, regardless of the owner’s participation.

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591
Q

what is the loss deductibility exception dealing with losses from rental activity?

A

passive losses on rental activities are deductible up to $25,000 as long as the owner is an active participant in the management. The deductibility of this $25,000 is lost gradually if the taxpayer’s income is especially high. Passive losses are carried forward indefinitely so that they can reduce future passive activity gains.

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592
Q

if a taxpayer has a reasonably high income level but they get social security benefits, what percent of the SS is taxable?

A

usually 85%. So 85% of the SS benefits received would be included in taxable income

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593
Q

what can cause a scholarship to be considered earned income?

A

if the recipient has to work as a requirement of the scholarship, such as teaching 2 classes a week

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594
Q

If a couple separates and the husband gives the wife 5k before a legal separation decree is in place how is the 5k taxed?

A

It is not yet alimony so it is not taxable to the woman.

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595
Q

If you have rental homes can you deduct charitable contributions from the rental revenue?

A

No. You would have your rental revenue and expenses on a schedule E of a 1040 and a charitable contribution isn’t a necessary expense of maintaining rental properties. But, you could include the charity as an itemized deduction on the schedule A of a 1040.

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596
Q

how are social security benefits taxed in the income is relatively low?

A

SS benefits are not taxed if the income is low. 50% becomes taxable if the income is higher, and up to 85% can be taxable if the income level is relatively high

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597
Q

are cash gifts included in taxable income?

A

no- cash received as a gift is not included in federal taxable income, although in some situations a gift tax may apply

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598
Q

what is the number of days per year that determines whether a property is treated as a rental or not?

A

15 days. If a property is rented for less than 15 days, no rental income is includable and expenses attributable to the rental are not deductible. The property taxes are still deductible in full on Schedule A

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599
Q

how are dividends on a life insurance policy treated for tax purpose?

A

they are not taxable. They are viewed as deduction in the expense of the policy

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600
Q

what are the requirements for EE bond interest to be tax free?

A

the bonds must be issued after December 31, 1989, be purchased by the sole (or joint owner) and the buyer must be at least 24 years old when bonds are purchased. The proceeds of the bonds must be used to pay the higher education tuition and fees for taxpayer, spouse, or dependent.

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601
Q

how are a C corp’s net capital losses used?

A

deducted from the corp’s ordinary income up to 3k, then carried back 3 years and forward 5 years

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602
Q

what is the maximum deduction in one year for a section 1244 loss?

A

50,000- 100k if filing jointly

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603
Q

what are examples of 1245 property?

A

all depreciable personal property such as equipment and machinery. under section 1245 recapture, gains are treated as ordinary income up to the amount that was depreciated.

604
Q

how does the 1231 lookback provision work?

A

1231 gains are applied to past 1231 losses and treated as ordinary income. whent the past losses are absorbed the balance is a 1231 gain.if you have 100k of 1231 gain this year, but 80k 1231 loss last year, then 80k this year is ordinary income and 20k is a 1231 gain

605
Q

what is the statutory amortization period for a covenant not to compete that is related to business acquisition?

A

15 years

606
Q

the section 179 deduction is limited to:

A

the net income from the business

607
Q

what is the MACRS life of a non-residential real property such as an office building?

A

39 years. MACRS requires that such a building is depreciated on the straight line bassis.BUT- the mid-month convention applies to this type of property which means no matter when it is placed into service it is considered to be mid-month.

608
Q

is debt relief considered boot?

A

yes. that and cash

609
Q

what are the 2 categories of qualified moving expenses?

A

moving the household goods, and lodging during the move. temporary living expenses are NOT deductible

610
Q

what is the rule when a taxpayer make a charitable contribution in connection with admission to an entertainment event?

A

the taxpayer can only deduct the difference between the amount paid for admission and the fair value of admission. If you pay 100 but regular admission is only 50, you can deduct 50.

611
Q

what is the rule with donating ‘ordinary income property’ to charity?

A

if you’ve owned it for less than a year the amount you can deduct is the lower of cost or market.If you’ve owned it more than a year, then you can deduct the FMV

612
Q

what is the income percentage limit of donating long term capital gain property to charity?

A

you can only deduct up to 30% of your AGI in long term capital gain property.

613
Q

what is the gross income test amount for someone to be claimed as a dependent by someone else?

A

3,900

614
Q

how does the hope/american opportunity credit work?

A

It gives the taxpayer a credit of 100% of the first 2k and 25% of the next 2k of qualified post-secondary education expenses. So the total can be $2,500. The credit doesn’t begin phasing out for married filing jointly until the income hits 160k of AGI.

615
Q

how does the child care credit work?

A

you can get a credit for eligible childcare expenses of 35% of the the expenses if you have AGI of 15k or less. If your AGI is more than 15k, the credit goes down 1% of your expenses for every 2k of AGI above 15k, but it is not reduced to less than 20% of the expenses.

616
Q

how does the foreign income tax credit work?

A

it’s the lower of the foreign taxes paid, or the amount of US taxes that would be paid on the foreign income

617
Q

how are corporate startup costs treated for tax purposes?

A

5k of organizational costs can be deducted in the first year- anything over 50k reduces the 5k that may be deducted in the first year though. Legal fees are allowed, but commissions paid to an underwriter are not. stock issue costs are not deductible either.

618
Q

what percentage of ownership must consent to revoke the S status of an S corp?

A

more than 50%

619
Q

what does article 2 of the UCC govern?

A

governs the sale of new and used goods, by both merchants and non-merchants

620
Q

what items are stated separately for partnership income?

A

interest incomemunicipal interest incomesection 1231 gaincharitable donationslife insurance premiums on partner’s livesordinary income/loss

621
Q

what is the statute of limitations on the IRS assessing additional taxes?

A

3 years unless the amount of income omitted is more than 25% of the income reported on the taxpayer’s income tax return

622
Q

if a corp has E&P of 9k and it distributes 9k of cash to its sole shareholder, and land with a FMV of 40k and a basis of 5k, what is the shareholder’s taxable income because of the transaction?

A

if a corp distributes appreciated property, its E&P goes up by the difference between FMV and its basis in the property.So in this case, the total E&P is raised from 9k to 44k (9+35). So the shareholder has a gain of 44k and the remaining 5k is a return of capital and is nontaxable.

623
Q

what is a type A reorg?

A

a merger or consolidation under state law. it is stock for asset, the target corp dissolves

624
Q

what is a type B reorg?

A

stock for stock. Acquirer must own at least 80% of target after the transaction. Only voting stock can be used by acquiring. No boot allowed.

625
Q

what is a type C reorg?

A

stock for asset. doesn’t have to be statutory. Only voting stock and can used by acquiring. Boot is allowed but it cannot exceed 20% of the consideration provided by acquiring. Acquiring must acquire substantially all of target’s assets(90% of net asset value and 70% of gross asset value)

626
Q

If you get stock as a GIFT, what is your basis?

A

If the owner’s basis is less than FMV on the date of the gift, then your basis is the same as who gave it to you.But, if the FMV is less than the owner’s basis at the date of gift, then you have a separate gain basis and a loss basis. Your loss basis is the lower amount, and your gain basis is the higher amount.

627
Q

What is your basis in INHERITED property?

A

The FMV of the property at the date used to value the property. *this can be the date of death or the alternate date as chosen by the executor

628
Q

how is the basis in a jointly-owned property calculated?

A

The original basis is divided by the two. If you have 350k in basis, each has 175k in basis. At the death of one person, that person’s half is given to the survivor at FMV. So if the FMV of the property was 400k, then the survivor gets basis of 200k plus their original basis of 175k for a total basis of 375k in a property with a fmv of 400k

629
Q

what does rule 506 D allow?

A

that the securities are NOT advertised to the public, and that they are not sold to more than 35 non-accredited investors.There is NO LIMIT on the dollar value of the issue- and they can be either stocks OR debentures

630
Q

what is the primary thing to win a section 11 claim?

A

that there was a material misstatement in the registration statement on the effective date, that they can trace their shares to that registration statement, and that they suffered damages

631
Q

if you give someone a check for 120k and they don’t deposit it within 30 days and then there is a bank failure, you are off the hook for:

A

the extra 20k. The FDIC will cover 100k.

632
Q

what right does one cosurety have against another cosurety?

A

contribution. this means that if one surety pays more than his fair share, he can recover from the other surety

633
Q

under the UCC, the party to whom a check is present for payment is the:

A

drawee. this is the bank.

634
Q

what is one reason for which the corporate veil might be pierced?

A

if the corp was undercapitalized when it was formed

635
Q

if you estimated your taxes in 2012 as 5k and then in 2013 you found the exact amount to be 6k, you:

A

include the remaining 1k in your 2013 tax return

636
Q

what is the total allowable medical expenses amount?

A

20k. only medical expenses in excess of 10% of AGI are allowable as a deduction

637
Q

a merchant’s firm offer has to remain open for:

A

a reasonable time

638
Q

what is the only thing that can cause a gain in a partnership distribution?

A

when cash is distributed that exceeds the partner’s basis

639
Q

are an insurance company’s securities regulated by the securities act of 1933?

A

YES

640
Q

what is the medicare surtax obligation and how is it calculated?

A

3.8% of the lesser of net investment income or the excess of AGI over the AGI threshold which is total AGI minus 250k

641
Q

foreign currency exchange gains or losses in the course of normal business are ______

A

ordinary

642
Q

for an S corp, what all will increase or decrease a shareholders basis?

A

everything will affect the shareholders basis- even capital gains and losses

643
Q

a C corps net capital losses are carried back:

A

back 3 years and forward 5. Remember that these are capital losses and not NOLs.NOLs can be carried back 2 years and forward 20

644
Q

what a bond is amortized for tax purposes, what method is used?

A

constant yield to maturity method

645
Q

even if the workload is uneven, if no agreement to the contrary exists, profits in a partnership will be:

A

divided equally- even if one partner does more work than the other. there needs to be an agreement if profits are different than 50/50

646
Q

the person who goods must be delivered to under a negotiable bill of lading

A

the consignee of the bill of lading

647
Q

if unionized employees go on strike, when must their company hire them back?

A

after a ‘unfair labor practice’ strike- not if the strike is over wages

648
Q

which court is not of ‘original jurisdiction’

A

the united states court of appeals

649
Q

do proposed regulations have the effect of law?

A

no

650
Q

bilateral contract

A

promise for a promise

651
Q

unilateral contract

A

promise in exchange for an act

652
Q

executory contract

A

contract not fully performed on both sides

653
Q

if you file chapter 7, any inheritence you get within how many days of filing will go to your creditors?

A

within 180 days

654
Q

what are the reg D offerings?

A

504- 1 million505- 5 million506- private placement, unlimitedthe SEC must be notified within 15 days of the first sale

655
Q

uniform capilization rules amount

A

gross receipts of 10million or more

656
Q

under circular 230, if you find an error on a client’s tax return after he sends it, you are required to:

A

tell the client- it’s up to them what to do next

657
Q

what are the rules and stipulations of an exempt offering under Reg D rule 506?

A

up to 35 nonaccredited investors may purchase shares. there is no limit on the placement of securities as long as the other requirements are met. the issuer needs to take reasonable steps to see that purchasers of the exempt offering are not underwriters and are buying for investment. the SEC must be notified within 15 days of the first sale of the securities.

658
Q

what are the rules for filing a valid involuntary petition against someone?

A

there needs to be 12 creditors, or one creditor needs to be owed at least $14,425 of unsecured debt.

659
Q

what are the rules on preferential transfers?

A

the trustee can set aside a payment to a creditor made within 90 days previous to the bankruptcy filing. A payment to an insider within a year before the bankruptcy can also be set aside as preferential. If you receive “new value” such as buying something before the bankruptcy, that won’t be preferential.

660
Q

an unrecorded mortgage has priority over a subsequently recorded mortgage if the subsequent mortgagee:

A

knew of the un-recorded mortgage. If another mortgage company knows about an existing mortgage- even if it’s unrecorded, the unrecorded mortgage will take priority.

661
Q

indemnity contract:

A

you promise to pay your friend if he has to pay someone 10k

662
Q

suretyship contract:

A

you promise your friend’s bank that you’ll pay off his car loan if he doesn’t pay it

663
Q

who enforces anti-trust laws?

A

The DOJ’s anti-trust division and the FTC

664
Q

what types of entities are exempt from the registration requirements of the securities act of 1933 when they issue securities?

A

charities, railroad company, farmer’s cooperative, or banks

665
Q

how does a suretyship work if 2 people are each 50% but one is released without the other one knowing?

A

before the one is released, either one could be forced to pay the entire amount, but they would then have the right of contribution to go after 50% from the co-surety. when one is released, the remaining surety is then only liable for 50% total.

666
Q

which needs additional consideration to be binding: a material modification involving the sale of real estate or the material modification of a sale of goods under the UCC?

A

the real estate. UCC transactions can be modified without new consideration

667
Q

what causes trust property to be included in the grantor’s gross estate?

A

if the trust is revocable, which means the taxpayer maintains ownership or control of the property

668
Q

can an S corp be owned by a bankruptcy estate?

A

Yes. it can also be owned by decedent’s estates, or trusts.

669
Q

what happens if an S corp has excessive passive income? (passive income exceeds 25% of the corp’s gross receipts)

A

a tax at the highest corporate rate is imposed on the excessive passive income

670
Q

how are estimated tax payments calculated?

A

at least 90% of current years taxes or 100% of last years taxes. BUT- if AGI exceeds 150k, then tax payments during the year must be 110% of last years taxes

671
Q

when a C corp makes an S election and it has unrealized built-in gains in its assets as of the election day, they must pay a built-in gains tax on this appreciation if it is recognized within the:

A

next 10 years. That means if it is sold and the gain is recognized it has to pay a built-in gains tax on the appreciation at 35%

672
Q

how do 1231 gains and losses work?

A

1231 gains are carried back against 1231 losses and ordinary income is ‘recaptured’. Gains go back 5 years.

673
Q

when doing a life insurance as a fringe benefit question, the key thing to remember is that the first 50,000 of ______ is _____.

A

coverage is free. if it has 2.76 per $1000 of coverage, only apply it to the amount higher than 50k

674
Q

things to remember about putting property into a partnership:

A

the partnership divides up any debt on the property. if you put in property with that you have 7k of basis in, and there is a mortgage of 3k, then you would have 7k of basis in the partnership except you have to subtract the amount of the debt the other partners will assume. if you’re a 50% partner then you’d subtract 50% of the debt, so your basis goes down to 5.5k. 7k - 1.5k = 5.5k

675
Q

some guidelines for determining eligible exemptions:

A

the individual you are claiming must be a qualifying child or relative.they can’t provide more than 50% of their own support- which means you provide over 50% of their support.the personal exemption amount is 3,900 for income.time at college counts as living at home- they need to live at home for more than 1/2 the year

676
Q

how is your taxable income and basis determined for property received as a dividend?

A

the taxable income is the FMV of the property received less any liabilities assumed.Your basis is always the FMV of the property.

677
Q

what is the standard deduction for a trust or an estate in the fiduciary income tax return?

A

zero

678
Q

in a corporate formation, gain is recognized to the extent that the liabilities assumed by the corporation exceed the:

A

basis in the assets contributed by the shareholder.If you put in property worth 20k, you have basis of 6k, and it has a 12k mortgage- your gain is the difference in your basis and the mortgage you’re being relieved of… so 6k in this case

679
Q

what is the rule for interest expenses when computing AMT?

A

the interest has to be related to the primary residence- it can’t be a home equity loan to buy a motor home.you add back in taxes to compute AMT.You add back in the 2% deductions to compute AMT.

680
Q

how do you deduct INVESTMENT INTEREST EXPENSE?

A

it is deductible to the extent of net investment income. So you take non-interest investment expenses and net them with investment income. You can then deduct investment interest expense up to the amount of net investment profit.if you have investment income of 10k and investment expenses of 8k, you can deduct up to 2k of investment interest expenses.

681
Q

are medical expenses that you paid with a credit card deductible when you pay them or when you pay off the credit card?

A

they are deductible in the year you paid the medical expenses, not when you pay off the credit card.

682
Q

what are the rules for using real estate losses to offset ordinary income?

A

a natural person can offset up to 25k of nonpassive income with passive losses resulting from rental activities. You have to own at least 10% of the rental activity, and you must have actively participated.Also, the 25k allowance is reduced by 50% of the amount that the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income exceeds 100k.So if you have 200k in income, you have 100k over the 100k limit, and you have to reduce your losses by half of that amount, or 50k.

683
Q

which senate committee considers new tax legislation?

A

the finance committee

684
Q

if a partner disposes of his share of a partnership and it had suspended loss caryyovers, how is it treated?

A

the passive losses are released and can offset any type of income

685
Q

what are ‘hot assets’ of a partnership?

A

ONLY inventory and unrealized receivables

686
Q

how is basis in a distribution of property from a partnership to an individual calculated?

A

it is the same as the partnership’s basis in the property but it may not exceed the partner’s basis in the partnership.Also, cash distributed reduces the partner’s basis dollar for dollar.If you have a partner with basis of 50k and they get 20k in cash, and then some land with 40k of basis to the partnership, the partner can only take basis in the land of 30k. because of the 50k basis less the 20k received in cash, there’s only 30k of basis left for that partner.

687
Q

what is the gain and loss basis of stock that is given to you as a gift?

A

if the owners basis is less than FMV, then it is the owners basis. If the FMV is less than the owners basis, then you take the FMV basis for losses, and the owners basis for gains.For an inheritance the gift is valued at FMV.

688
Q

for a stock split basis question:

A

figure out the total amount the stock cost originally and multiply that by the different split ratios to get the basis per share when the stock is sold

689
Q

how to do a wash sale question

A

let’s say you sold 500 shares at a loss and then purchased 100 back within 30 days at a lower price. the % of shares you bought back is the percentage of the loss you’re not allowed to take. So if selling the 500 shares got you a loss of $1,000, buying back 100 shares is 1/5 or 20% of the shares you sold. So $200 of loss would be disallowed.

690
Q

when does a short-term capital gain change into a long-term capital gain?

A

LONGER than one year. if it is exactly one year it is still short term.

691
Q

Details of personal use assets for tax purposes:

A

Personal use assets, such as a BOAT, are capital assets. BUT, if you have a loss when you sell a personal use asset IT IS NOT DEDUCTIBLE. It is of course taxable if you have a gain though.

692
Q

what is the difference in 1231, 1245, and 1250 property?

A

1245 and 1250 are BOTH still 1231 property, but they are each different.1245 property is depreciable personalty such as equipment in a sole proprietorship. The amount of depreciation taken on 1245 property is recaptured when it is sold and is then ordinary income. The remaining gain is 1231 gain.1250 property is depreciable realty such as land or buildings. On these you take the straight-line depreciation once it is sold and it is subject to the 1250 25% recapture tax. If there is actual depreciation over straight-line, that is subject to 1245 rules which would be ordinary income.

693
Q

what year class are computers under MACRS?

A

5 year class

694
Q

what is the half year convention under MACRS?

A

in the year the asset is purchased, it is depreciated for 6 months no matter when it is actually bought. same thing for the year it is sold

695
Q

generally a lessor will not be taxed on improvements made by a lessee unless:

A

the improvements are deducted from lease payments as a form of rental payments. if the improvement serve as a substitute for rental payments, then it is fully taxable to the lessor

696
Q

if you are the beneficiary of a life insurance policy which is collateral for someone who owes you money, how is it taxed?

A

only the amount that you get paid above what you are owed is taxable. If they owe you 100k and the policy pays you out 120k, then the 20k is taxable

697
Q

prepaid rental income is taxable when received unless:

A

unless it is potentially refundable

698
Q

how much of a capital loss can be deducted in one year for individuals?

A

3000- anything more than that is carried forward as a STCL.

699
Q

for interest on a series EE bond to be deductible, the person you spend it on must be:

A

a dependent of yours

700
Q

how are gambling gains and losses treated?

A

gambling winnings are included in gross income. Gambling losses DO NOT offset gambling winnings- they are deducted from AGI as a misc itemized deduction limited to the amount of gambling winnings

701
Q

formula for casualty losses:

A

you take the lesser of the decline in the property because of the casualty or the adjusted basis in the propertythen you deduct any insurance reimbursementsthen you have a disallowance of $100then you deduct 10% of your AGI for the yearThat leaves you with the casualty loss you’re allowed

702
Q

how much of the self employment tax is allowed as a deduction FOR AGI? what form does it go on?

A

one half. it would go on the form 1040

703
Q

are insurance premiums on property for personal use deductible?

A

no

704
Q

what is the rule about deducting the either sales tax or state income taxes paid?

A

you can deduct the greater of sales taxes paid or state income taxes paid

705
Q

are estimated federal tax payments deductible on the tax return?

A

no

706
Q

what is a schedule A?

A

itemized deductions

707
Q

where are tax preparer fees listed on a tax return?

A

it is a schedule A itemized item, even if the person earned all their money is from a schedule C sole proprietorship

708
Q

are personal life insurance premiums deductible?

A

no- they are considered a personal expense

709
Q

how is an interest forfeiture penalty for making an early withdrawal from a certificate of deposit treated?

A

it is deductible on page 1 of the 1040 to arrive at AGI

710
Q

are estimated state income taxes deductible?

A

yes- fully deductible as an itemized deduction schedule A

711
Q

are real estate taxes on a principal residence deductible?

A

yes- fully deductible as an itemized deduction schedule A

712
Q

how is an expenditure made for medical reasons that improves a residence treated for tax purposes?

A

it is an itemized deduction subject to a 7.5% of AGI threshold to the amount of the cost over the value it added to the home. If the cost was 10k and it increased the home’s value by 8k, then 2k is deductible.

713
Q

are health insurance premiums deductible?

A

they are an itemized sched A deduction subject to a 7.5% AGI threshold

714
Q

how are unreimbursed employee expenses treated?

A

misc itemized deduction on sched A subject to a 2% of AGI threshold

715
Q

in a partnership distribution- when is gain recognized?

A

only when cash exceeds the basis in the partnership interest

716
Q

for the repair of a rare book, if the first price agreed upon is 450 but additional repairs are needed and the price goes up to 600, is that binding?

A

yes because the repair of the book is a service, and additional repairs equate to additional consideration, the increase in price is binding

717
Q

under the UCC how much of a deposit can a seller keep if the buyer defaults?

A

the lesser of $500 or 20% of the purchase price- even if there was no liquidated damages clause

718
Q

if you get assigned a partnership interest, do you get to share in profits and management?

A

you get the share of the profits, but you don’t get to participate in management unless the other partners agree

719
Q

if you put equipment into a corp worth 20k, you have basis of 6k, and it has a liability of 12k, how much gain do you recognize?

A

you recognize the amount of liability over your basis that you’re relieved of. So you had a 12k liability with basis of 6k, so your gain is 6k.

720
Q

what basis does a corp take in land contributed by an owner?

A

it takes the owner’s basis plus any gain the owner recognized on the transaction.If an owner contributes land with 40k of basis but the corp gives him 10k in cash, the corp’s basis in the property is 50k

721
Q

for corporations, how long is goodwill amortized?

A

amortized over 15 years

722
Q

how are premiums paid on a key-person life insurance policy treated on an M-1?

A

they reduce book income but not taxable income

723
Q

how are corporate NOLs treated?

A

you can carry them back two years and ahead 20 years

724
Q

for a corp, are life insurance premiums paid for its executives as part of their taxable compensation deductible to the corp?

A

yes, they are fully deductible

725
Q

is interest expense on a loan used to purchase municipal bonds deductible?

A

since the loan is used to purchase bonds that generate tax-exempt income, the interest expense is NOT deductible

726
Q

is interest on municipal arbitrage bonds and interest on US treasury notes taxable to a corp?

A

yes- both are taxable.

727
Q

how long do you have to own a stock to qualify for dividends received deduction?

A

45 days

728
Q

is a dividend received deduction allowed on a REIT investment?

A

no

729
Q

what amount of a net capital loss can a corp deduct in one year?

A

none- capital losses are only used to offset capital gains. they can be carried back 3 years and forward 5

730
Q

is interest on funds borrowed for working capital deductible?

A

yes.

731
Q

which of these are qualified organizational expenses for a corporate startup:-legal fees-state incorporation fees-commissions paid to broker on sale of stock

A

only the state incorporation fees and the legal fees. the broker fees aren’t deductible at all.

732
Q

for a corp, how long can you carry forward excess charitable contributions?

A

up to five years

733
Q

for dividends rec deduction questions, when the income is a net loss:

A

make sure to deduct it from the income amount before applying the DRD.-20k in net income with 200k of 25% owned dividends = a DRD of 80% against 180k - NOT 200k

734
Q

difference in startup costs for a corp and organization costs for a corp?

A

nothing really- they are separate and each have the 5k rule but they are different. organization costs and startup costs are NOT lumped together

735
Q

dividends received deduction limits:

A

0-20%: deduct 70%21-80%: deduct 80%81-100%: deduct 100%

736
Q

how does the corporate AMT small corp exemption work?

A

In the first year of a corp’s existence it is automatically exempt from AMT.Year 2’s test is the gross receipts from year one.If year one’s gross receipts exceed 5million, then the corp is NOT exempt from AMT in year 2.Once the small corp test is failed, the corp is NOT exempt for all future tax years.The general test is 7,500,000- the above 5million test is for NEW corps.

737
Q

what is the AMT exemption regarding 40k?

A

the exemption is 40k minus 25% of the AMT income exceeding 150k.If you have 200k of AMT income then 50k applies to the exemption. That would be 40k - (50k x .25) which equals 27,500

738
Q

what is the federal acc earnings tax credit and how does it work?

A

it gives corps 250k to lower its income subject to the acc earnings tax, plus any dividends or fed income taxes paid.If your corp had 400k in taxable income and it paid 100k in tax, you then subtract the credit of 250k from the remaining 300k- this leaves you with 50k that is subject to the acc earnings tax

739
Q

when would a corp want to distribute land instead of cash?

A

if the land is appreciated then the corp would have to pay tax on the appreciation.the amount of dividend income is the same either way to the shareholder

740
Q

how do noncorporate shareholders treat gains on a redemption of stock that qualifies as a partial liquidation?

A

entirely as a capital gain

741
Q

what is a B reorg?

A

stock for stock, and only the voting stock of the acquiring firm is permitted

742
Q

what is a type a reorg?

A

a statutory merger- target ceases to exist, but target shareholders now own stock in acquiring corp

743
Q

what is a type c reorg?

A

acquisition of “substantially all” of the assets of the target solely in exchange for voting stock of the acquiring corp

744
Q

accrual based corps can deduct all or part of charitable contributions paid after the year end of its tax year if the contribution is paid within the first ____ months after the end of the tax year

A

2 and 1/2 months.if the board approved 300k to be donated on jan 31st of the next year, the corp can deduct the maximum amount this year.

745
Q

are S corps eligible to be in an affiliated group?

A

NO

746
Q

when you contribute cash and property to a partnership in exchange for a partnership interest, how is your basis in the partnership calculated?

A

Your cash gives you basis in the amount of the cash.You take your basis in the land you contributeLESS a mortgage on itADD back your % of the partnership in the mortgageADD your % of recourse liabilitiesThe sum of these equal your basis

747
Q

if you contribute property and services to gain an interest in a partnership, how is your basis determined?

A

you get your basis in the land plus basis equal to the value of the services contributed. BUT- you must recognize wage income for the services provided- that’s what gives you tax basis

748
Q

if you contribute services to get a partnership interest, do you use the % of net assets or the % of the assets FMV of the partnership?

A

you use the fair market value of the partnership to determine the amount of ordinary income you recognize

749
Q

what depreciation method do partnerships use?

A

the partnership elects the method to use, but it has to be an approved method by the IRS

750
Q

if a partnership sells depreciable property at a gain in excess of the depreciation allowed on the property:

A

then it will be treated partly as a 1231 gain and partly as ordinary income

751
Q

for tax purposes, what will cause an end to a partnership?

A

a partnership terminates when it no longer does business as a partnership or if 50% or more interest in partnership capital and profits is exchanged within 12 months.

752
Q

when a partner sells his interest, what are the tax consequences?

A

if the partnership has unrealized receivables or substantially appreciated inventory, then the partner will recognize ordinary income on his share.Also, whatever cash amount the partner sells his interest for is taxable, plus a gain in the amount of liabilities that he is no longer responsible for.

753
Q

once an S corps status is revoked or terminated, how long does it have to wait before making a new S election?

A

five years

754
Q

What does TID stand for in the GAAS general standards?

A

Training, Independence, and Due professional care

755
Q

What does PIE stand for in the standards of field work?

A

Planning and supervision, Internal Control, and Evidence

756
Q

What does GCDO stand for in the standards of reporting?

A

GAAP, Consistency, Disclosure, and Opinion

757
Q

When is an adverse opinion rendered?

A

When a severe GAAP departure is present in the financial statements.

758
Q

What are the two main differences between the standards of attestation and the auditing standards?

A

The attestation standards and generally accepted auditing standards differ conceptually in two main areas: 1) the attestation standards provide a framework for the attest function beyond historical financial statements; and 2) the attestation standards provide for the growing number of attest services in which the practitioner expresses assurances in forms other than the positive opinion.

759
Q

Formula for days sales in acc receivable?

A

Acc rec / credit sales per day.Credit sales per day = Total credit sales / 365.

760
Q

Adj entry for wages at end of year that weren’t recorded:

A

DR: Operating expensesCR: Accrued wages payable(accrued liab)

761
Q

Why would an auditor modify the auditor’s report based on the work of a specialist?

A

If there is a difference between the specialist’s valuation of an asset and the client’s.

762
Q

who should make up the audit committee?

A

members of the board or directors who are not officers or employees

763
Q

what are the 3 general standards?

A

adequete training, independence of mental attitude, and due professional care

764
Q

3 fieldwork standards?

A

adequete planning, understanding the entity and its internal control, sufficient and appropriate audit evidence

765
Q

the auditors judgment of the overall fairness of the financial statements is applied within the framework of?

A

generally accepted audit principles

766
Q

what does the auditor primarily use to come up with materiality?

A

the prior year financial statements

767
Q

basics of independence concerning a close relative?

A

CR can have a financial interest in the audit client as long as the amount is immaterial to them. CR can work for the audit client as long as its not in accounting or financial reporting. CR can work for audit firm, and is not a covered member unless the person works on the engagement team or can influence the members of the engagement team or the audit itself

768
Q

when planning a new audit, why would the auditor consider the methods used to process accounting information?

A

Because the methods influence the design of internal control

769
Q

who appoints the PCAOB?

A

SOX created the PCAOB and it is overseen by the SEC

770
Q

under securities act of 1934 what organizations are required to submit audited financial statements?

A

every company traded on national and over the counter exchanges

771
Q

primary purpose of establishing quality control procedures for deciding whether to accept a new client?

A

minimize likelihood of association with clients whose management lack integrity

772
Q

to succeed in legal action against the auditor, the client must be able to show that?

A

the CPA had duty to perform, the CPA breached the contract, the client suffered losses, and that there is a close causal connection between the auditor’s behavior and the damages suffered by the client

773
Q

detection risk?

A

risk that auditor concludes no material misstatement exists when there actually is one

774
Q

3 components of audit risk?

A

inherent risk, control risk, detection risk. They are multiplied together: .8 x .75 x .25 = .15 audit risk

775
Q

if inherent risk is .8 and control risk is .2, what does the auditor do to lower audit risk?

A

increase and perform substantive testing to reduce detection risk to the point that it equals the acceptable level of audit risk

776
Q

why are inherent risk and control risk different than detection risk?

A

inherent risk is the possibility of a material mistatement due to lack of human and system technology. Control risk is risk of material error that is not prevented or detected on a timely basis by the client’s internal controls. Detection risk is risk that the auditor misses a material error. Thus, inherent risk and control risk are functions of the client and its environment while detection risk is not

777
Q

the risk of material misstatement refers to:

A

the combination of inherent & control risk. Multiplying IR by CR results in the ‘risk of material misstatement’

778
Q

the level of detection risk is inversely related to:

A

the assurance provided by substantive tests. As the auditor performs substantive procedures he becomes more and more sure there are no material errors exist, and detection risk goes down

779
Q

the audit program should be designed so that sufficient evidence is gathered to:

A

support the auditor’s conclusions

780
Q

Do most illegal acts affect the fin statements directly or indirectly?

A

indirectly.

781
Q

if you uncover an illegal act at a public company, the auditor is required to notify:

A

the SEC

782
Q

when auditor has reason to believe an illegal act has ocurred, he should do what?

A

consider accumulating additional evidence, inquire of management at a level above those who did the act, and consult with the client’s legal counsel

783
Q

what is lapping fraud?

A

you steal customer A’s money, then you get customer B’s money and apply it to A’s account, then get C’s money and apply it to B’s account, and so on

784
Q

what is kiting?

A

money is moved from one account to the other but in different time periods to inflate the amount being reported

785
Q

does the PCAOB make auditing standards that must be followed by all CPAs?

A

it only makes auditing standards for public companies

786
Q

is the PCAOB a gov agency?

A

no

787
Q

what is an S-1 form?

A

a form that must be filed with the SEC whenever a company plans to issue new securities to the public

788
Q

what is auditors responsibility for supplementary information such as segment info?

A

auditor should apply limited procedures to the required info and report deficiencies in or omission of such info

789
Q

who creates auditing standards for private companies?

A

the AICPA

790
Q

what is form 8-K?

A

the form filed with SEC to report a significant event

791
Q

how long do you have to dispose of stock in a client if you inherited some unsolicited?

A

30 days

792
Q

do operating leases and claims against clients for immaterial amounts impair indedpence?

A

no

793
Q

are statements in the standards that include the word “should” mandatory?

A

they are considered presumptively mandatory- the auditor can depart from them if justification is documented

794
Q

what is the completeness assertion concerned with?

A

determining that all transactions are recorded

795
Q

in testing the existence assertion for an asset, the auditor normally works from the ______ to the _______

A

accounting records to the supporting evidence

796
Q

according to SOX how long does a firm keep audit documentation?

A

have to keep it 7 years

797
Q

what is the best place to put in writing the understanding between client and firm about what will take place during the audit?

A

the engagement letter

798
Q

to see if checks are being issued for unauthorized purchases, the auditor would most likely select testing from the population of:

A

canceled checks

799
Q

what does tracing shipping docs to sales invoices accomplish?

A

that all items shipments have been invoiced

800
Q

most effective control over recorded purchases?

A

supporting forms such as purchases orders and receiving reports are independently compared for agreement

801
Q

if trying to detect overstatement of sales, you start with the:

A

accounting records and trace to the source documents

802
Q

what is pervasiveness?

A

the extent to which an exception affects different parts of the financial statements

803
Q

difference between adverse opinion and disclaimer of opinion?

A

adverse opinion is stating that the financials do not fairly present the position of company in accordance to GAAP. Disclaimer of opinion is when a material uncertainty affects the financials

804
Q

what paragraph explicitly states the auditors responsibility to express an opinion?

A

the opening paragraph of the standard audit report

805
Q

when would a lack of independence cause a disclaimer of opinion?

A

in all cases

806
Q

if the financials and/or footnotes fail to disclose information that is required by GAAP, what type of opinion is issued?

A

adverse or qualified. if qualified, an extra paragraph would be added that describes the nature of the missing info, and the opinion paragraph would have an extra sentence “except for the information discussed in previous paragraph”

807
Q

on a public company audit, are the reports on the financial statements and internal controls issued separately or combined?

A

it can be either

808
Q

what are the 2 situations which result in a qualified opinion?

A

1) when the statements are materially misstated due to one account balance or class of transaction that does not have a pervasive effect on the statements2)when the auditor is unable to obtain audit evidence regarding a particular account balance that does not pervasively affect the statementsEssentially either a single deviation from GAAP or a scope limitation. The report itself is very similar to an unqualified opinion but an extra paragraph is added to explain the qualification after the scope paragraph but before the opinion paragraph

809
Q

how many paragraphs does a standard unqualified report have and what are they?

A
  1. The introductory paragraph states the audit work performed and states the responsibility of the auditor and auditee in relation to the financial statements, the scope paragraph details the scope of the audit work, and the opinion paragraph simply states the unqualified opinion
810
Q

when is an adverse opinion issued and how does the report change?

A

Adverse is the opposite of an unqualified opinion. It means that the financial statements as a whole are materially misstated and do not conform with GAAP. or the “differ pervasively” from GAAP. On the report, the scope paragraph is modified accordingly and an explanatory paragraph is added after the scope paragraph but before the opinion paragraph. In the opinion paragraph, the auditor specifically states that the statements are not in accordance with GAAP.

811
Q

What situations would result in a disclaimer of opinion?

A

When the auditor is not independent or there is a conflict of interest.When a limitation on scope is imposed by the client and the auditor cant gather sufficient audit evidence.When there is a substantial going concern issue.When there are significant uncertainties in the business of the client.

812
Q

when an auditor selects one or a few transactions and follows them through the entire accounting process, he is doing what?

A

a walkthrough. A walkthrough combines observation, documentation, and inquiry. PCAOB Standard 2 requires at least one walkthrough per major class of transaction

813
Q

which section of SOX requires mgmt to issue an internal control report?

A

Section 404 requires auditors to assess and report on the effectiveness of the internal control over financial reporting

814
Q

what is the definition of incompatible functions?

A

those that place any person in a position to both perpetrate and conceal errors or irregularities in the normal course of their duties. well designed controls should separate the duties of authorization, record keeping and custody of assets

815
Q

what is the primary purpose of the auditors consideration of internal controls?

A

to determine the nature, extent, and timing of audit tests to be applied

816
Q

if the auditor finds a reportable condition in internal controls, who should they tell first?

A

the audit commitee

817
Q

if after understanding the ICs the auditor decides to perform tests of controls, the auditor most likely decided that:

A

it would be efficient to perform tests of controls that would result in a reduction in planned substantive tests

818
Q

what is the concept of reasonable assurance?

A

recognizes that the cost of internal controls should not exceed the benefits derived

819
Q

7 factors of the control environment: (I see ham bone)

A

I- integrity and ethical valuesC- commitment to competenceH- human resource policies and practicesA- assignment of authority and responsibilityM- management’s philosophy and operating styleB- board of directors or audit committee participationO- organization

820
Q

even the best designed IC can fail due to:

A

human error, faulty judgement, collusion, management override

821
Q

what are the five components of internal control? (clowns run cartels in mexico)

A

1) control environment2) risk assessment3) control activities4) information and communication5) monitoring

822
Q

***What is the process of assessing risk in general?

A

You assess inherent risk and control risk to determine the amount of substantive testing that must be carried out to reduce detection risk to a level so that overall risk will still achieve an acceptably low level. Acceptable audit risk is not changed.

823
Q

what is the audit risk formula?

A

inherent risk X control risk X detection risk = overall audit risk

824
Q

the auditor uses the assessed level of control risk to determine the acceptable level of

A

detection risk for financial statement assertions

825
Q

if auditor increases the level of control risk because controls are found to be ineffective, the auditor would most likely increase the

A

extent of tests of details

826
Q

what do assertions about existence or occurrence deal with?

A

whether assets or liabilities exist at a given date and whether recorded transactions have occurred during a given period

827
Q

when an auditor assesses control risk as low, he must:

A

identify specific policies and procedures that are likely to prevent or detect material misstatements, and he must perform tests of controls to evaluate the effectiveness of such policies and procedures. if the tests of controls result in the control risk being assessed as low, then the auditor may limit the extent of substantive testing

828
Q

what does ‘information and communication’ refer to as far as internal control within an organization?

A

the ability of the accounting system to generate reliable info and convey it in a timely manner to the parties in the organization that need it

829
Q

What are the 5 assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period?Alistair Overeem Cant Cut Corners

A

Accuracy- amounts and other data have been recorded appropriatelyOccurrence- transactions and events that have been recorded have occurredCompleteness- all transactions and events that should have been recorded have been recordedCutoff- transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting periodClassification- transactions and events have been recorded in the proper accounts

830
Q

4 assertions about account balances at end of period?Even Cain Realizes Value

A

Existence- assets, liabilities, and equity interests existCompleteness- all assets, liabilities, and equity that should have been recorded have been recordedrights and obligations- the entity holds or controls the rights to assets, and liabilities are the obligations of the entityValuation and allocation- assets, liabilities, and equity interests are included in the financial statements at appropriate amounts and any resulting valuation or allocation adjustments are appropriately recorded

831
Q

4 assertions about presentation and disclosure:Overeem Can’t Complain Anymore

A

Occurrence & rights and obligations- disclosed events and transactions have occurred and pertain to the entityCompleteness- all disclosures that should have been included have been includedClassification and understandability- financial information is appropriately presented, described, and clearly expressedAccuracy and valuation- financial and other info are disclosed fairly and at appropriate amounts

832
Q

why is it best to have “blind” invoices received by the receiving department?

A

to make sure the receiving dep counts the incoming merchandise so that they only pay for what they received

833
Q

what is the purpose of purchase cutoff testing?

A

to determine that items actually received in inventory have been included in the proper period

834
Q

what is an integrated test facility?

A

it puts fake transactions in with real transactions which are processed together without client employees knowing it

835
Q

a person who mails signed checks can also:

A

cancel the supporting documents

836
Q

an effective control over purchases would be to have the purchasing department authorized to:

A

purchase, but not initiate purchases

837
Q

an increased extent of tests of controls is most likely to occur when:

A

controls appear to be effective so that the preliminary control risk assessment is low. this is because auditor can then do less substantive testing.

838
Q

are significant deficiencies and material weaknesses supposed to be relayed orally or written to those charged with governance?

A

AU 325 says that sig def and material weaknesses in a public company must be communicated in writing to the audit committee of the board of directors

839
Q

when should control deficiencies be reported?

A

either during the audit or after the audit’s completion, within 60 days of the report release date

840
Q

management must disclose material weaknesses in internal control if the weakness exists:

A

at the end of the year

841
Q

what are the 2 types of control deficiency?

A

design and operations. design means its poorly designed, while operations means the people performing their tasks are doing them deficiently

842
Q

what is ratio estimation used for?

A

to measure the total estimated error amount within a population

843
Q

there is an inverse relationship between sample size and:

A

tolerable error. as the tolerable error decreases the sample size would increase

844
Q

what is sampling risk?

A

the risk that the sample chosen doesn’t accurately represent the population

845
Q

How is the allowance for sampling risk calculated?

A

It’s the difference between the upper limit and the deviation rate of the sample.

846
Q

what are embedded audit modules?

A

coded into the clients system to collect data for the auditor

847
Q

purpose of test data approach?

A

test data is entered with a known outcome into client’s system to see if it produces same result

848
Q

under the PCAOB standards, a scope limitation related to internal controls over financial reporting should result in:

A

a disclaimer of opinion.

849
Q

if a control deficiency is discovered, what is the next step?

A

determine if it is a material weakness by gathering additional evidence

850
Q

what opinion is rendered if there is one or more material weakness in internal control over fin reporting?

A

an adverse opinion

851
Q

“if this statement is not correct… give details of difference directly to our auditors

A

acc rec confirmation

852
Q

“in our opinion, these statements audited by us comply in all material respects”

A

comfort letter to underwriters

853
Q

“no claims that OUR lawyer…”

A

management rep letter

854
Q

“which raises substantial doubt about its ability to continue as a going concrern”

A

auditors report

855
Q

CPA is associated with the financial statements, but is NOT independent

A

Compilation report

856
Q

providing NEGATIVE assurance on a company’s financials

A

review report

857
Q

material departure from GAAP but NOT materially misstated

A

qualified report for GAAP departure

858
Q

how often does an internal audit activity need to be assessed externally?

A

every five years.

859
Q

what are the primary themes associated with internal audit attribute standards

A

(1) Purpose, Authority, and Responsibility; (2) Independence and Objectivity; (3) Proficiency and Due Professional Care; and (4) Quality Assurance and Improvement Program.

860
Q

the 7 primary themes of the performance standards:

A

(1) Managing the Internal Audit Activity; (2) Nature of Work; (3) Engagement Planning; (4) Performing the Engagement; (5) Communicating Results; (6) Monitoring Progress; and (7) Resolution of Senior Management’s Acceptance of Risks.

861
Q

in a conventional graph, the ‘intercept’ is the point at which:

A

the dependent variable intersects the Y axis, and where the independent variable has the lowest value, usually zero

862
Q

elasticity of supply?

A

%change in quantity supplied/%change in price

863
Q

what is elasticity of demand?

A

the % change in quantity is greater than the % change in price

864
Q

how do you prevent deflation?

A

you increase the money supply by lowering the reserve requirement, or lowering interest rates which stimulates demand and increases the general price level

865
Q

what does an import quota do?

A

it restricts the quantity of a commodity that can be brought into the country from foreign providers. The biggest beneficiary is the domestic suppliers of the commodity.

866
Q

3 generic strategies by Michael Porter?

A

cost leadership, differentiation, and focus

867
Q

which framework is for gauging the attractiveness of the competitive environment of an industry?

A

five forces

868
Q

what analysis method is for evaluating a macro-environment?

A

PEST analysis: political, economic, social, and technological characteristics

869
Q

what are the five forces?

A

1-threat of new competition entering the market2-threat of substitute goods or services3-bargaining power of buyers of the industry good or service4-bargaining power of suppliers of the inputs used in the industry5-intensity of rivalry

870
Q

what does SWOT stand for?

A

strengths and weaknesses of the entity, and the opportunities and threats faced by the entity

871
Q

how is weighted avg cost of capital calculated?

A

the required rate of return on each source of capital weighted by the proportion of total capital provided by each source and then those amounts are summed.debt:30%x(10% 1-30% tax rate)=2.1%CS: 60%x12%= 7.2%PS: 10%x10%= 1%WACC= 10.3%

872
Q

what is a compensating balance and how is the effective interest rate calculated?

A

an amount the borrower has to maintain in an account with a lender.the effective int rate is the cost of borrowing divided by the funds available for use.If the interest each year is 40,000 and the only amount you can actually use is 400,000, then the effective rate is 10%.

873
Q

how is the required rate of return calculated?

A

risk free rate + Beta(expected rate - risk free rate)

874
Q

basic approach to capitalize earnings to determine value of business?

A

annual earnings / required rate of return.

875
Q

what is a time series model?

A

models based on extrapolation of past data to predict a future value

876
Q

delphi method?

A

form of qualitative forecasting that involves consensus of a group of experts using a multi-stage process to converge on a forecast.

877
Q

diff in quantitative & qualitative forecasting?

A

quantitative is objective and rely on math and calculations. qualitative are subjective and rely on judgement and opinion

878
Q

what is the profitability index approach?

A

the relative economic ranking of projects by taking into account the cost & net present value of projects

879
Q

average accounting rate of return?

A

avg annual after tax net income / avg cost of investment.the avg cost of investment is the beg book value + ending bv then divided by 2.

880
Q

formula for calculating the profitability index of a project?

A

present value of annual after tax cash flows / original cash invested in the project

881
Q

NASDAQ requires all companies have audit committees composed entirely of:

A

Independent directors who are also financially literate

882
Q

can board of directors change the articles of incorporation?

A

no, only stockholders can do that

883
Q

the purchase and sale of commodities for current delivery is what:

A

the spot market. the futures market is for delivery in the future

884
Q

what is a specialist on the NYSE?

A

a NYSE member acting as a dealer in a small number of securities

885
Q

what is a call option?

A

the right to purchase a security at a specified price for a defined period of time.

886
Q

what factors make up the nominal risk free rate?

A

the real rate of interest and an inflation premium

887
Q

if the Fed reserve purchases a large number of US gov securities, what is the effect?

A

it increases the monetary supply and puts downward pressure on interest rates

888
Q

what is a put option?

A

it lets you sell a stock at a certain price for a period of time.

889
Q

what is transfer pricing?

A

the pricing strategy for products and services bought and sold across international borders between related parties. it is mainly part of tax planning.

890
Q

capital structure refers to:

A

all long-term debt and equity

891
Q

the market price of a bond is the present value of the principal amount plus:

A

the present value of future interest payments at the market rate of interest

892
Q

cost of capital for newly issued preferred stock?

A

net proceeds per share / annual costs40 sales price less 5 issuance costs = 35.if par value is 20, @9% int. payments are 1.80calculation is 1.8/35=5.1%

893
Q

what is the CAPM formula?

A

Expected return= RF + B(RM-RF)RF means risk free rate.B means betaRM means return on market

894
Q

between 2 investments with the same expected return, choose the one with:

A

lower projected standard deviation

895
Q

between 2 investments with different expected returns and standard deviations, choose the one with:

A

lower coefficient of variation

896
Q

What is NPV?

A

net present value is the present values of future cash flows less the cost of the investment. If the NPV is above zero then it’s a good investment.

897
Q

How do you calculate NPV?

A

it’s the present value of future cash flows discounted to present value using the COST OF CAPITAL

898
Q

what is the basic FV calculation?

A

FV= current amount x(1+i)^nor1,000 times(1+0.1)^5

899
Q

what is the rule of 72?

A

a very close estimate for seeing how long it takes for an investment to double. You just divide 72 by the interest rate. If the interest rate is 8% you divide 72/8=9

900
Q

what does the security market line(SML) graph?

A

the relationship between expected return and risk as measured by the beta coefficient

901
Q

How to calculate the benefit cost (profitability) index?

A

present value of cash flows / net investment. an index greater than 1 means the project is acceptable

902
Q

what does the equivalent annual annuity(EAA) technique evaluate?

A

projects that have different durations(lives)

903
Q

times interest earned calculation?

A

Earnings before interest and taxes / interest expenseThis is telling you how many times you earned your interest during the period

904
Q

cash conversion cycle?

A

period beg with paying cash for inventory and ending with the collection of cash from the sale of products made with that inventory

905
Q

what is underwriting?

A

investment bank buys an entire offering then tries to sell it to the public at a profit

906
Q

least expensive long-term source of capital?

A

long term debt because interest is tax deductible and debt is repaid first so it has less risk

907
Q

formula to determine the cost of common stock:

A

next period’s dividend / proceeds such as 2/50 which equals 4%. then you add this to the firms growth rate in dividends. If growth rate the cost of common stock would be 7+4 for 11%

908
Q

what are the chronological events in the dividend payment process?

A

1-declaration date when board approves dividend2-ex dividend date is first date you buy stock without being entitled to the dividend3-date of record is date you must own shares by to receive dividend4-payment date is when checks are mailed

909
Q

how is financial leverage calculated?

A

It is calculated by taking the percentage increase in earnings per share which is then divided by the percentage increase in earnings before interest and taxes. Here, earnings per share starts as $4.00 and increases by $2.00, a 50 percent increase. Earnings before interest and taxes starts as $300,000 and increases by $60,000, only a 20 percent increase. Therefore, the degree of financial leverage is 50 percent divided by 20 percent or 2.5.

910
Q

what are the 4 reasons to hold cash?

A

transactions to meet day to day cash outflows, compensating balances required by banks, precautionary balances to meet unexpected events, and speculative balances to take advantage of opportunities

911
Q

cash conversion cycle?

A

age of inventory + age of receivables - age of payables

912
Q

4 parts of a company’s credit policy?

A

(1) Credit period–when the payment is due; (2) Credit standards–criteria as to which customers are granted credit; (3) Collection policy–enforcement of the collection process; and, (4) Discount–reductions offered to speed up payments.

913
Q

Your supplier gives you credit terms of 2/10 net 30. This means that if you pay within 10 days you take a 2% discount. If not, the balance is due in full within 30 days. What is the annual percentage cost to you of not taking the discount and paying on the 30th day?

A

Your choice is to pay $.98 on the dollar on day 10 or $1 on day 30. The extra cost is .02/.98 or .0204081. You save 20 days (30-10) by paying later. To annualize the cost take 365 days and divide by the days saved. 365/20=18.25 and multiply this by the .0204081 percent cost: (.0204081) (18.25) = 37.24%

914
Q

A manufacturer of single engine aircraft operates 365 days per year and produces 3,650 aircraft per year. Its engine supplier takes 5 days from the time an order is placed to deliver engines. Assuming the manufacturer does not wish to carry a safety stock, at what level of engine inventory should they place an order (reorder point) for new engines to ensure that production is not interrupted?

A

Economic Order Quantity points (EOQ) tells you how many engines to order at one time. It is determined by taking the square root of the following result: 2 times annual demand (1,600 units) times the cost of placing an order ($50) divided by the cost of carrying a unit for a year ($1). So, (2 x 1,600 x 50) or 160,000. That is then divided by $1 so that it stays 160,000. The square root of 160,000 is 400. That is the number of units that should always be ordered. Because 1,600 are needed, the orders of 400 are placed four times per year.

915
Q

A manufacturer of single engine aircraft operates 365 days per year and produces 3,650 aircraft per year. Its engine supplier takes 5 days from the time an order is placed to deliver engines. Assuming the manufacturer does not wish to carry a safety stock, at what level of engine inventory should they place an order (reorder point) for new engines to ensure that production is not interrupted?

A

In the absence of a safety stock, reorder point is equal to daily usage times the time it takes for a supplier to deliver. Daily usage is 3,650/365 or 10 x 5 days to deliver (lead time) is equal to 50 engines as a reorder point.

916
Q

average days sales in inventory?

A

360 / inventory turnoverinventory turnover= COGS/ Avg inventory

917
Q

What does a TPS do?

A

it supports the day to day activities of a business such as purchasing goods, sales to customers, and payroll

918
Q

ROI calculation?

A

net income / avg investment

919
Q

alternate ROI calculation?

A

asset turnover x profit margin on sales

920
Q

what is the dupont ROA?

A

(net income/net sales) x (net sales/avg total assets)

921
Q

asset turnover?

A

sales / assets

922
Q

which risk cant be mitigated through diversification of investments?

A

systematic risk because it deals with the macro environment

923
Q

what does the systems analyst do in an IT environment?

A

designs systems, prepares specifications for programmers, and serves as intermediary between users and programmers

924
Q

what detects errors in data transmission?

A

a parity check

925
Q

margin of safety?

A

difference between your actual or expected profitability and the break even point

926
Q

what is the floor and ceiling in a transfer pricing decision?

A

the floor is opportunity cost plus costs of outlay. the ceiling is the market price

927
Q

target pricing?

A

set prices based on what you think customers are willing to pay based on perceived value

928
Q

economic value added?

A

net operating profit after taxes less cost of capital

929
Q

does deflation encourage or discourage borrowing?

A

deflation discourages borrowing because people want to borrow money in times of inflation because you can repay it with money with less purchasing power

930
Q

when interest rates increase, bond prices:

A

decrease. and vice versa

931
Q

how is the overhead rate calculated?

A

dividing estimated overhead costs(both variable and fixed) by a budgeted or estimated quantity of a cost driver. Example: total overhead costs of 75,000 divided by 20,000 budgeted direct labor hours for a overhead application rate of 3.75 per direct labor hour

932
Q

conversion cost?

A

direct labor + overhead

933
Q

how is a spoilage question done?

A

normal spoilage is a manufacturing cost because it’s an inherent part of production, so it is included in finished goods.Abnormal spoilage is treated as a period cost.If total units completed are 5500 with 5000 being saleable, 200 being normal spoilage, and 300 being abnormal spoilage, then 5200 is included in finished goods. so 5200/5500 times the total cost:(5200/5500)*99,000=93,600 which is what will be debited to finished goods

934
Q

how to use high-low method:

A

total costs y=a+b(x)y=total costsa=fixed costsb=variable cost per unitx=number of kilos,etcb is change in costs divided by change in kilos, or (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

935
Q

what does the CPU contain?

A

primary storage, a control unit, and an arithmetic/logic unit

936
Q

what is primary storage?

A

temporary main memory portion of the CPU which is part RAM part ROM. Secondary storage consists of devices external to the CPU such as disks, flash drives, & hard drives

937
Q

elements of assembly language:

A

must be translated into machine language by an assemblereasier to write programs in than machine languageit’s an efficient form of second gen language

938
Q

elements of a procedural language:

A

3rd gen language that concentrates on the procedures and functions of the programs. written in source code then translated into object code. source code is more similar to english but object code is the machine language for the type of computer. FORTRAN, COBOL, and BASIC are all forms of procedural languages

939
Q

what does a JCL do?

A

Job control language initiates programs, specifies priorities and running sequences, and which databases are used and which files are used

940
Q

What is the order of creating master budget?

A

sales budget is first, then production budget, budgeted income statement then budgeted balance sheet

941
Q

absorption costing?

A

assigns all 3 factors(direct material, direct labor, and both fixed and variable manufacturing overhead) to inventory

942
Q

direct costing?

A

assigns only variable manufacturing costs to inventory- which means variable manufacturing overhead

943
Q

what does r squared actually mean?

A

percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the variation in the independent variables

944
Q

what are x and y in a line equation?

A

x is the independent variable, and y is the dependent variable.

945
Q

overhead efficiency variance?

A

The overhead efficiency variance is the difference between actual direct labor hours worked, and the standard quantity of hours allowed for actual production, times the variable overhead rate per hour.

946
Q

overhead volume variance?

A

The overhead volume variance equals the difference between the master budget for fixed overhead and applied fixed overhead. The variance has one cause only: producing a number of units different from that specified in the master budget.

947
Q

labor efficiency variance

A

The labor efficiency variance is the difference between actual direct labor hours worked, and the standard quantity of hours allowed for actual production, times the direct labor wage rate per hour.

948
Q

material usage variance?

A

This variance is the difference between the actual quantity of material used, and the standard quantity allowed for the output achieved, times the standard price of material.

949
Q

Diff between spending variance for fixed overhead and variable overhead?

A

The spending variance for variable overhead is the difference between the actual overhead and the budgeted overhead based on actual direct labor hours. The spending variance for fixed overhead is the difference between the actual overhead and the master budget for fixed overhead. Neither variance is affected by the denominator used for allocating fixed overhead.

950
Q

what is incremental or differential cost?

A

the total difference in cost of two alternatives.

951
Q

Residual income formula?

A

Residual income = operating income - required rate of return (invested capital)

952
Q

using PERT or CPM, activity slack is?

A

max amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire project

953
Q

what are the 2 distinct functions of the information systems department?

A

systems development and data processing

954
Q

liason between end-users and the processing center?

A

the control group.

955
Q

what are the 3 main types of system documentation?

A

data flow diagramssystem flowchartsentity relationship diagrams

956
Q

What AICPA framework relates to “reliable systems”?

A

AICPA’s Trust Services provides assurance on systems.

957
Q

what 3 IT functions need to be separated?

A

programming, operations, and the library

958
Q

daily operations of the website?

A

Web coordinator

959
Q

control activities defined?

A

Control activities include all of the policies and procedures used within a sytem to help ensure that all management directives are performed as anticipated. Each system is supposed to perform designated tasks. Control activities are installed to ensure those tasks get accomplished efficiently and effectively.

960
Q

5 examples of information goals?

A

(1) input validity - where input data be approved and reflect accurate economic events (2) input completeness - all valid events are captured (3) input accuracy - all events are captured correctly (4) update completeness - all events are reflected in respective master files (5) update accuracy - all events are reflected correctly within master file.

961
Q

controlling computer operations is controlled by:

A

Segregation controls, backup and recovery, contingency processing, file protection rings and internal and external labels represent methods to control computer operations. Segregation controls represent controlling access to programs and data.

962
Q

There are five risks associated with e-commerce, according to the Trust Services framework established by the AICPA. These risks are:

A

1) security, 2) availability, 3) processing integrity, 4) online privacy, and 5) confidentiality.

963
Q

4 categories of IT resources under COBIT:

A

applications, which include systems and manual procedures to process information; the information itself; infrastructure, which includes hardware, equipment, and operating systems needed to process information; and people.

964
Q

4 components of the COBIT framework’s IT process model:

A

1) plan and organize, 2) acquire and implement, 3) deliver and support, and 4) monitor and evaluate. Abbreviated, these components are referred to as: Plan, Build, Run, and Monitor.

965
Q

Who established COBIT?

A

The Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA)

966
Q

definition of net present value?

A

present value of cash inflows minus the net investment

967
Q

definition of internal rate of return?

A

the specific discount rate that makes the present value of the inflows equal to the net investment and forces the NPV to be equal to zero

968
Q

market value added?

A

market value of the firm minus the book value of the capital investment in the firm

969
Q

economic value added?

A

net operating profit after taxes minus the firm’s cost of capital in dollar terms

970
Q

ROA (return on assets):

A

net income divided by total assets

971
Q

ROE(return on equity):

A

net income divided by total equity

972
Q

ROIC (return on invested capital)

A

net income plus interest divided by average total invested capital. invested capital is just interest bearing debt plus owners equity

973
Q

what are the 4 elements of a balanced scorecard?

A

financial, customer, internal processes, and learning & growth

974
Q

after a performance measure has been accepted, what is the next step?

A

the current level of performance should be determined (baseline performance), a designated performance rate or a designated improvement rate should be set (targets), and actions needed to achieve those targets should be designated (strategic initiatives)

975
Q

free cash flow?

A

net operating profit after taxes (NOPAT), add in depreciation expense, then subtract money set aside for capital expenditures and any need for increasing working capital

976
Q

receivables turnover?

A

net credit sales / avg acc receivable

977
Q

number of days sales in inventory?

A

COGS divided by 365. Then divide avg inventory by the first number.

978
Q

financial planning process:

A

1) analyzing the investment and financing alternatives available to a firm, 2) forecasting the future consequences for each of the alternatives, 3) deciding which alternatives to undertake, 4) measuring subsequent performance against established goals. Measuring the subsequent performance is the final step in that process.

979
Q

what are the steps to process improvement?

A

1) design, 2) modeling (which involves simulation of the process), 3) execution (including training of personnel and testing of the process), 4) monitoring, and 5) optimization.

980
Q

what is a pareto chart?

A

a bar chart or histogram that ranks the causes of variations in a process from most to least frequent, which is intended to indicate their effects on quality

981
Q

what is a control chart?

A

measures deviations from process standards, a fishbone diagram identifies causes of defects and their effects

982
Q

steps in project management:

A

project initiation, project planning, project execution, project monitoring and control, and project closure

983
Q

a cost management system is:

A

a planning and control system that measures the cost of significant activities, identifies non value-added cost, and identifies activities.

984
Q

relevant range?

A

level of activity where fixed costs remain fixed

985
Q

diff between theoretical capacity and practical capacity?

A

Theoretical capacity assumes output is produced 100% of the time. Practical capacity adjusts theoretical capacity for non-production time such as holidays and maintenance shutdowns.

986
Q

Utilizing the expected annual capacity approach to overhead application, can result in overapplied overhead when:

A

Actual overhead costs were less than expected and/or production was higher than expected.Overhead is applied based on a calculated rate per unit. This calculated rates uses estimate overhead costs divided by an estimated activity level. If either the estimated overhead is higher than the actual overhead or the estimated activity level is lower than the actual activity level, overhead can be overapplied.

987
Q

labor rate variance?

A

actual rate paid minus standard hourly rate times the total hours worked

988
Q

labor efficiency variance?

A

number of hours worked less hours supposed to have been worked times the standard rate

989
Q

material price variance?

A

diff of total price paid and total price should have paid for the same amount

990
Q

fixed overhead spending variance

A

It is the difference between the actual overhead spending and the budgeted overhead spending.

991
Q

when doing weighted avg cost of capital calculations, what needs to have taxes removed?

A

the cost of capital for DEBT must be computed net of the tax benefit provided by the deductibility of the interest expense

992
Q

how to find effective rate of interest on a compensating balance question?

A

cost of borrowing / funds available for useIf you have 500,000 at 8% interest that equals 40,000 in interest expense. but if you can only use 400,000, then the calculation is 40k/400k for an effective rate of 10%, not 8%

993
Q

difference between performance standards and attribute standards

A

attribute standards describe the characteristics of organizations and people who perform internal audit services.performance standards describe internal auditing and identify the quality criteria applicable to the performance of the internal audit services

994
Q

what percentage can a whistleblower get for a dodd-frank award?

A

10% and 30% of sanctions imposed

995
Q

what is the slope of a demand curve?

A

it is negative. the lower the price, the greater quantity demanded

996
Q

a positive GDP gap exists when:

A

potential GDP exceeds real GDP. This means that the economy is operating at less than full capacity- which implies unemployment and under-utilized plant and equipment

997
Q

2 largest export countries?

A

germany and china- each about 9%

998
Q

US share of worldwide GDP is:

A

approximately 25%

999
Q

which type of employment is not considered in calculating full employment?

A

cyclical- the other 3 types can exist and still have “full employment”

1000
Q

a supply schedule shows the relationship between the quantity of a commodity that will be supplied during a period of time and:

A

the selling price of the commodity. A supply curve is basically saying that as price increases, more sellers would enter the market and more of the good would be supplied

1001
Q

freely fluctuating exchange rates:

A

automatically correct a lack of equilibrium in the balance of payments

1002
Q

what would the Federal Reserve NOT do to stimulate the economy?

A

Reduce tax rates. The Fed Reserve does not change tax rates. This would stimulate the economy, but tax rates are set by Congress, not the Fed. The Fed could reduce the reserve requirement, reduce the discount rate which would increase loan activity, and they could increase the money supply.

1003
Q

who controls fiscal and monetary policy?

A

The Fed controls monetary policy(money supply), and Congress controls fiscal policy(gov spending and taxes)

1004
Q

calculate marginal propensity to consume:

A

change in spending over change in disposable income

1005
Q

calculate avg propensity to consume:

A

% of disposable income spent on consumable goods

1006
Q

the preventive measure for deflation?

A

increase the money supply. this stimulates demand and increases the general price level

1007
Q

how does deflation distort reported income?

A

depreciation is NOT reflective of current fixed-asset replacement costs?

1008
Q

what is SWOT concerned with?

A

the relationship between an entity and its environment

1009
Q

what is the 5 forces concerned with?

A

the nature, operating attractiveness, and probably long-run profitability of a competitive industry

1010
Q

what is the basis for a natural monopoly?

A

economics of scale- or an increasing return to scale.

1011
Q

in a perfectly competitive market, what is the best level of output for the firm?

A

Marginal revenue = marginal cost.

1012
Q

the direct exchange rate expresses the domestic price (in dollars) of:

A

one unit of foreign currency. 1 euro to $1.15

1013
Q

PEST is acronym for:

A

political, economic, social, and technological

1014
Q

What does PESTEL add to PEST?

A

E= environmental factorsL= legal factors

1015
Q

required rate of return for an investment:

A

riskfree rate + beta(expected rate - riskfree rate)

1016
Q

diff in financial structure and capital structure:

A

financial structure includes all items of liabilities and owners equity, and capital structure includes LONG-TERM liabilities and owners equity.

1017
Q

what time series model reduces random fluctuations in data?

A

exponential smoothing

1018
Q

what source of new capital usually has the lowest after tax costs?

A

bonds. less risk to investors so they’re cheaper than equity, and the interest payments are tax deductible

1019
Q

what states the terms of a bond?

A

an indenture

1020
Q

what is the profitability index used for?

A

to rank potential investments by taking into account both the time value of money and the initial cost of the project

1021
Q

what is commercial paper?

A

short term, unsecured promissory notes

1022
Q

calculate profitability index of a project?

A

divide present value of annual after tax cash flows by the original cash invested in the project

1023
Q

what is residual income that remains after the cost of all capital, including equity capital, has been deducted?

A

economic value added. it measures economic profit, not accounting profit. NOPAT minus cost of capital

1024
Q

accounting rate of return?

A

dividing accrual based net income by the initial cost of the project

1025
Q

what is EDI for?

A

electronic data interchange allows companies to place orders with suppliers electronically

1026
Q

what kind of network is used to process EDI?

A

Value added network- VANs provide the additional security and addressing capabilities necessary to process EDI transactions

1027
Q

rollback and recovery procedures are most common in:

A

online real-time systems. periodic snapshots are taken of a master file, and upon detection of a problem, the system reprocesses all transactions that have occurred since the snapshot

1028
Q

who designs, creates, and tests program?

A

application programmers

1029
Q

a fire supression system in a computer facility should include:

A

halon and other chemical suppressents that dont harm computer hardware

1030
Q

which critical function is most likely to be missing in a small business computing environment?

A

authorization

1031
Q

in a large firm, who would maintain custody of the entity’s data?

A

the data librarian

1032
Q

what allows a database management system to add new records, delete old records, and update records?

A

a data manipulation language (DML)

1033
Q

What is used to verify that a program was free of unauthorized changes?

A

a source code comparison program. this compares an archived program to the program actually in use

1034
Q

What is PaaS?

A

PaaS is the use of the cloud to create (not access) software

1035
Q

what is systematic risk?

A

market risk. large scale economic events that typically affect all companies

1036
Q

most likely strategy to reduce breakeven point?

A

decrease fixed costs and increase contribution margin

1037
Q

what is six sigma similar to?

A

total quality management

1038
Q

what are the 4 types of costs of quality?

A

prevention costsappraisal costsinternal failure costsexternal failure costs

1039
Q

steps for business continuity plan

A

create framework and structure, identify the scope of the plan, its key roles, and assign individuals to roles. Understand and evaluate organizational risks. Define alternative methods to ensure delivery of products and services. Strategy for handling crisis incidents. embed plan in organizational culture. educate, train, and make aware.

1040
Q

If there is commercial substance to an exchange, the exchange is measured at:

A

Fair Value. The gain is equal to the old asset’s fair value and it’s book value. If the fair value was 30 and its book value is 25, the gain is 5.

1041
Q

How does retail inventory method establish lower of cost or market valuation for ending inventory?

A

By excluding net markdowns from the cost to retail ratio.

1042
Q

Can consolidated financial statements be prepared from a business combination that was accounted for using the acquisition method OR the pooling of interests method?

A

Yes to both. The pooling of interest method CANNOT be used anymore for business combinations, combinations that happened before that still need to be consolidated.

1043
Q

Does a foreign sub using the local currency as its functional currency has their financials translated or remeasured?

A

Translated.

1044
Q

Does a foreign sub using US dollars as its functional currency has their financials translated or remeasured?

A

Remeasured.

1045
Q

Under translation, common stock is translated at the what exchange rate?

A

The historic exchange rate.

1046
Q

500 shares of 6%, $100 par callable preferred stock are called at $101. The shares were issued at $103 per share. What is the journal entry to record the retirement?

A

DR preferred stock for 50,000DR PIC-preferred for 1,500CR PIC retirement of preferred for 1,000CR Cash for 50,500

1047
Q

Working capital:

A

current assets - current liabilities

1048
Q

Acid test:

A

(cash + net receivables)/current liabilities

1049
Q

Acc Rec turnover:

A

Sales/ avg net receivables

1050
Q

Inventory turnover:

A

COGS/ avg inventory

1051
Q

Times interest earned:

A

EBIT/ interest expense

1052
Q

Return on total assets:

A

(net income + after-tax interest expense)/ avg total assets

1053
Q

Return on equity:

A

Net income / avg owners equity

1054
Q

Dividend payout ratio

A

Common dividends / net income

1055
Q

What are the 2 primary qualitative characteristics?

A

Relevance and Faithful representation

1056
Q

2 components of relevance:

A

Predictive value and confirmatory value

1057
Q

3 components of Faithful Representation

A

Completeness, neutrality, and free from material error

1058
Q

What are the 4 enhancing characteristics?

A

Comparability, verifiability, timeliness, and understandability

1059
Q

Times interest earned is:

A

income before interest and income tax over interest expense

1060
Q

What is a central characteristic of a joint venture?

A

Shared control. None of the participating parties are likely to have unilateral control of the joint venture.

1061
Q

What is the defensive-interval ratio?

A

The ratio of quick assets to daily operating expenditures. The ratio is showing the length of time in days that the firm can operate with its present liquid resources- so it’s a liquidity measure.

1062
Q

Inventory turnover ratio:

A

COGS/ avg inventory for the period

1063
Q

Where are G/L on remeasurment and translation booked?

A

Remeasurement is on the income statement, translation go in an equity account. Remeasurement is when the foreign sub’s currency is the US dollar. It’s translation if the sub’s currency is the local foreign currency.

1064
Q

Receivables turnover ratio:

A

Net sales / avg net accounts receivable

1065
Q

What statements are usually included in personal financial statements?

A

A statement of financial condition and a statement of changes in net worth.

1066
Q

If a donation is conditional, how should it be accounted for?

A

As a refundable advance.

1067
Q

For donation of specialized services to a nonprofit, at what value should they be recognized?

A

Fair value.

1068
Q

For a NP, are contributions spread over a few years restricted or non restricted?

A

The contribution in the current year is non restricted(unless it comes with an actual restriction), and the contributions for future years are recognized at present value and are RESTRICTED.

1069
Q

When are the payments for an “Annuity Due” made?

A

At the beginning of each period.

1070
Q

How is a lease payment calculated when the lease payments are due at the beginning of the period?

A

You divide the FAIR VALUE of the leased equipment by the ANNUITY DUE rate.

1071
Q

What is the journal entry at the inception of a capital lease and the payments are due at the beginning of each period?

A

DR: Leased asset for its fair value amountCR: Lease Liability for plug amountCR: Cash for the payment amount

1072
Q

How do you calculate the interest expense at the end of the year on a capital lease with payments at the beginning of the period? What is the journal entry?

A

You multiply the remaining lease liability amount by the interest capitilization rate.DR: Interest expenseCR: Lease liability

1073
Q

How does the LESSOR in a capital lease determine the amount of Lease Receivable?

A

Multiply the payment by the number of payments.

1074
Q

What is the journal entry by the LESSOR for a capital lease with payments at the beginning of each period?

A

DR: Lease receivableDR: Cash for the payment amountDR: COGS for the book value amountCR: Unearned interest for the lease rec amount MINUS the BVCR: Equipment for BV amountCR: Sales for the FV amount

1075
Q

Working capital formula

A

current assets - current liabilities

1076
Q

Acid test formula

A

(cash + net receivables) / current liabilities

1077
Q

Acc Rec turnover formula

A

Sales / avg net receivables

1078
Q

Inventory turnover

A

COGS / avg inventory

1079
Q

Avg collection period for acc receivable?

A

Net credit sales / avg net acc receivable…. then you divide 365 by that number

1080
Q

What financial statements are required for the Governmental funds?

A

1)Balance sheet and 2) Statement of revenues, expenditures, and changes in fund balance

1081
Q

What statements are required for the Proprietary funds?

A

1)Statement of Net Postition2)Statement of revenues, expenditures, and changes in net position3)Statement of cash flows

1082
Q

What statements are required for the fiduciary funds?

A

1)Statement of net position2)Statement of changes in fiduciary net positiion

1083
Q

Which fund type does the government-wide financials EXCLUDE that are included on the CAFR?

A

Fiduciary funds.

1084
Q

What are the 3 sections of the CAFR?

A

1) Introductory2) Financial3) Statistical

1085
Q

If an investment in 30% of another company is accounted for using the fair value method, what is recognized as net income from the investment?

A

Cash dividends received and increases in the fair value of the investment are recognized in net income from the investment. The portion of the company’s net income is NOT recognized in net income from the investment.

1086
Q

A contest prize expense is the present value of the?

A

Total cost incurred. If the prize is an annual $50,000 payment for 20 years and the company takes out an annuity of $418,250 after making the initial $50,000 payment, the contest prize expense in the current year is $468,250.

1087
Q

The ending balance of the asset retirement obligation should be the:

A

Beginning balance + the DISCOUNTED cash flow estimate of the new asset + accretion expense - the amount paid during the year.

1088
Q

The debt service fund records cash transfers from the general fund as what, and cash payments as what?

A

Operating transfers and Expenditures.

1089
Q

During a period of inflation, would a perpetual inventory system result in the same dollar amount of ending inventory as a periodic inventory system under FIFO and LIFO?

A

Yes with FIFO, No with LIFO. The perpetual system would be calculating COGS based on the latest goods acquired prior to each sale versus all the latest goods acquired during the period under a periodic system.

1090
Q

Does a NOL carryforward directly reduce taxes or taxable income?

A

Taxable income. If the NOL is 40,000 and taxable income is 60,000, then it reduces taxable income down to 20,000, which is then multiplied by the tax rate.

1091
Q

During a business combination, can the acquisition date be before, on, or after the closing date?

A

It can be any of the 3.

1092
Q

For state or local governments, encumbrances outstanding at year end should be reported as:

A

Assigned or committed fund balance.

1093
Q

What does income and dividends from a sub do to the investment account under the equity method?

A

Income increases the investment, and dividends reduce the investment account.

1094
Q

What is the focus of proprietary funds?

A

Income determination. Proprietary funds use accrual accounting and they are similar in reporting to private businesses.

1095
Q

What is the entry in the General Fund to record equipment purchased with a capital lease?

A

DR: ExpendituresCR: Other financing sourcesThe general fund doesn’t record fixed assets. The general fund fixed asset account group would record the acquired equipment.

1096
Q

What are funds classified as that can only be used for a specific purpose because of restraints imposed by formal action of the government’s highest level of decision making authority?

A

According to GASB Statement No. 54, amounts that can only be used for a specific purpose, because of constraints imposed by formal action of the government’s highest level of decision-making authority, should be reported as Committed Fund Balance. The Restricted Fund Balance classification should be used when constraints are placed on the use of resources are either (a) externally imposed by creditors, grantors, contributors, or laws or regulations of other governments, or (b) imposed by law through constitutional provisions or enabling legislation.

1097
Q

What is the process for recording collection of accounts that had been written off?

A

First you debit accounts receivable and credit allowance for doubtful accounts to restore the amounts that had been written off. Then you debit cash for the amount collected, and you credit accounts receivable to take them off the books since they’ve been collected.

1098
Q

In the general fund, what 3 accounts are affected when property taxes are levied?

A

Revenue control is credited, property taxes receivable is credited, and allowance for uncollectible taxes is credited. Bad Debt Expense is ONLY an accrual accounting concept, and IS NOT used in modified accrual accounting.

1099
Q

When the direct method for LCM is used, what is the journal entry to write down inventory?

A

DR: Cost of goods soldCR: Inventory

1100
Q

When using the allowance method under LCM, what is the JE to write down inventory?

A

DR: Holding lossCR: Allowance for LCM

1101
Q

Under the fair value option, what is recognized as income from the investment company?

A

Cash dividends and the increase in fair value of the investment are both recognized in net income of the investor.

1102
Q

How does the installment sale method work?

A

Each payment consists of return of cost and gross profit. You calculate the gross profit percentage by taking the sales price and subtracting the carrying value, and then dividing that number by the sales price. Then you multiply the principal portion of the payment by the gross profit percentage, and then add in the interest payment amount, and that is the amount of revenue to recognize. The return of cost portion of the payment is NOT recognized as revenue.

1103
Q

Gains or losses on retirement of debt used to automatically be classified as extraordinary gains or losses, but now they are:

A

immediately recognized in full in income from continuing operations.

1104
Q

What rate is used to calculate the amount of dividends from a foreign currency?

A

The spot rate on the date of declaration is used regardless of translation or remeasurement.

1105
Q

How is the refinancing of a liability due within a year treated under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP, if the refinancing happens before the ISSUANCE date of the financial statements, then it can be considered long term again. Under IFRS, the refinancing has to happen before the BALANCE SHEET DATE for it to be considered a long term liability again.

1106
Q

How is interest expense and dividends paid classified as far as cash flow under IFRS?

A

Interest expense and dividends paid can be classified as EITHER operating or financing activities.

1107
Q

How is interest revenue and dividend revenue classified under IFRS for cash flows?

A

They can both be either cash flows from operating OR investing activities.

1108
Q

If the percentage of completion method cannot be applied, how are profits recognized on long-term contracts under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP the profits will be recognized once the job is completed- which is the completed contract method. Under IFRS, all profits will be recognized when all the costs have been recovered- the cost recovery method.

1109
Q

If an IFRS company decides to revalue its equipment each year, what effect would a drop of $2000 in value above regular depreciation be?

A

It would be a 2000 expense for that year, recognized in income. BUT…. an increase in the value would go under other comprehensive income.

1110
Q

What is the main capital lease criteria under IFRS?

A

That the lease life is a “major portion” of the equipment life. Thus, a lease of 60% of the equipment’s life would qualify as a capital lease.

1111
Q

If both parties consider a lease to be a capital lease, what interest rate do they both use under IFRS?

A

They both use the implicit rate built into the contract.

1112
Q

Under IFRS, a contingent loss must be recognized if it is…

A

More likely than not. Even just 51% vs 49% meets this criteria.

1113
Q

How is a prior service cost due to a change in the projected benefit obligation due to a contractual adjustment treated under IFRS and GAAP?

A

Under IFRS it is expensed immediately to the extent that benefits have vested. Under GAAP it is recorded to accumulated other comprehensive income and then amortized to expense over the years the employees are expected to work.

1114
Q

A bond with face value of 100k is sold at 110k due to a convert option into common stock. How is this recorded under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under IFRS 100k would be the liability and the 10k is recorded as equity. Under GAAP the full 110k is debt until it is actually converted.

1115
Q

How is an impairment loss on equipment determined under IFRS?

A

A loss must be recognized if the book value exceeds the higher of the PRESENT VALUE of the future cash flows and the fair value less necessary costs to sell the equipment.

1116
Q

GAAP vs IFRS research and development costs?

A

Under GAAP all research and development costs are expensed as incurred. Under IFRS, research costs are expensed, but development costs are capitalized if the company believes that future economic benefits are probable and that the product being developed is commercially and technically feasible.

1117
Q

How are legal costs to successfully defend a patent treated under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP the costs are added to the cost of the patent. Under IFRS the costs are expensed UNLESS the cost increase the future benefits to be derived from the asset.

1118
Q

How are biological assets valued under IFRS?

A

At fair value less costs to sell.

1119
Q

How is the reversal of an impairment loss recorded under IFRS?

A

The recovery of an impairment in value must be recognized if the circumstances that caused the impairment are reversed.

1120
Q

A company has two checking accounts: one with 100k and one with negative 10k. How are they reported under GAAP and IFRS?

A

Under GAAP the negative is reported as a liability, so the cash line will show 100k. Under IFRS they are netted so the cash line would show 90k.

1121
Q

In a period of rising prices, a company that wants to maximize profits will use what inventory method?

A

FIFO. In rising prices using FIFO, the earliest goods will be sold first which makes COGS lower and NI higher.

1122
Q

Formula for ending DV LIFO balance:

A

Beginning DV LIFO + (increase at base-year dollars)(price index)300,000 + (400,000 - 300,000)(1.1) = 410,000

1123
Q

What is the ceiling and floor of LCM?

A

Ceiling is Net Realizable Value and Floor is NRV less a normal profit margin.

1124
Q

Explain LCM

A

If replacement cost is within the range of the ceiling and floor, then market is replacement cost.If the RC is greater than the ceiling, then market is the ceiling amount.If RC is less than the floor, then market is limited to the floor amount.

1125
Q

How are trademarks classified, capitalized, amortized, and impaired?

A

They can be either definite or indefinite life, only expenditures made to external parties are capitalized, amortization depends on whether they are definite or indefinite life, as does impairment.

1126
Q

How are customer lists classified, capitalized, amortized, and impaired?

A

They can be either definite or indefinite life, only expenditures made to external parties are capitalized, they are amortized, impairment is decided by the recoverable cost test.

1127
Q

How is an initial franchise fee classified, capitalized, amortized, and impaired?

A

Can be definite or indefinite life, only capitalize expenses to external parties, amortization depends on definite or indefinite, as does impairment.

1128
Q

When a liability has a carrying value less than fair value, does an unrealized gain or loss exist?

A

An unrealized loss exists. It would be a debit to Impairment loss, and a credit to the liability to increase it to its fair value.

1129
Q

In financial statements prepared on the income-tax basis, how should nondeductible expenses such as meals be reported?

A

Included in the expense category in determination of income. These are still business expenses and need to be included to calculate income on the financial statements.

1130
Q

For grants, what is a prime factor in determining eligibility for accrual?

A

The expenditure of resources (spending the money)

1131
Q

What would an entity most likely do to hedge an investment in a foreign operation?

A

Borrow from another foreign entity with the same foreign currency as the operation being hedged. Since borrowing is a liability, any changes in the foreign currency would offset the investment.

1132
Q

If intercompany fixed asset balances are NOT eliminated, will consolidated income or loss be overstated.

A

Both can be overstated.

1133
Q

When there is NOT commercial substance to an exchange, gains are recognized:

A

In proportion to the amount of cash received.

1134
Q

Under the cost method, is the Sub’s income or dividends recognized by the parent?

A

Dividends are recognized as income to the parent.

1135
Q

When transferring a receivable, the loss is the difference between the carrying value of the portion of the asset transferred and the cash received for the:

A

Transferred portion. Usually the total carrying value will be allocated between the portion of the asset surrendered and portion retained, based on relative fair values.

1136
Q

For estimating income taxes for personal financial statements, assets and liabilities measured at their tax bases should be compared to assets and liabilities measured at their:

A

Estimated current value and estimated current amount.

1137
Q

Before assets are distributed as a property dividend, the unrecognized holding gain or loss is:

A

Recognized. If a firm pays a property dividend of a stock it bought for 20,000 when its market value is 25,000, there is a debit to retained earnings for 25,000 and a gain on disposal of 5,000 is recognized.

1138
Q

Bond prices and interest rates are inversely related. When interest rates increase,

A

the market value of bonds decrease, because there are now better opportunities on the market.

1139
Q

Are fund-based statements or government wide statements included on a CAFR?

A

They both are. The gov-wide statements focus on the financial results and health of the gov while the fund based statements report how various revenues are derived and spent.

1140
Q

What are the 3 columns on the gov-wide statements?

A

Gov activities, business type activities, and total gov activities

1141
Q

Which funds are not included in the gov-wide financial statements?

A

Fiduciary funds.

1142
Q

How is an internal service fund reported on the gov wide statements if another gov agency is its main beneficiary?

A

As a gov fund instead of a business type fund.

1143
Q

What accounting basis is used to report the gov wide financial statements?

A

Full accrual accounting.

1144
Q

What statements are required for the gov wide statements?

A

The statement of net position and the statement of activities

1145
Q

How would 5 year bonds appear in the fund based statements and the gov wide statements?

A

They wont show up in the fund based statements because they aren’t a claim against current assets. They will show up as a long term liability in the gov wide statements.

1146
Q

Does a firm selling put options on its own stock affect liabilities or equity?

A

It increases liability by the fair value of the options.The liability will be extinguished when the option is exercised or when it expires.

1147
Q

When computing avg shares outstanding during the year, how are stock dividends treated?

A

Stock dividends are treated as outstanding for the entire year. It is when new stock is issued that it is multiplied by the portion of the year remaining.

1148
Q

Is additional compensation to former shareholders after a business combination considered additional costs of the business combination?

A

No.

1149
Q

Can a forecasted transaction be hedged?

A

Yes- in a cash flow hedge since it is forecasted and therefore subject to changes in related cash flow.

1150
Q

Is a finder’s fee for a lease expensed or allocated over the lease term?

A

The finder’s fee benefits the entire lease term and is therefore expensed evenly over the lease term.

1151
Q

What exchange rate is used to TRANSLATE a foreign sub’s income statement?

A

The average exchange rate.

1152
Q

If a company changes from FIFO to weighted avg inventory during 2005, how is the cumulative effect of the change measured?

A

The change is measured as of the beginning of the year of change.

1153
Q

Are the direct costs or the general expenses in a business combination deducted from the corp’s net income from the combination?

A

Both are expensed in the period incurred.

1154
Q

Does the recording of an asset retirement obligation for a natural resources development site increase the liability or the depletion base?

A

Both. It is a credit to a liability, and a debit to the natural resources account, which is the depletion base.

1155
Q

Under international accounting, the vested portion of prior service cost is immediately recognized in:

A

Pension expense. The unvested portion is gradually recognized under delayed recognition in pension expense.

1156
Q

If financial statements prepared on another basis besides GAAP are not appropriately titled, the auditor must:

A

Disclose any reservations in an explanatory paragraph and qualify the opinion for the inappropriate title of the statements.

1157
Q

Under IFRS for SMEs, which inventory valuation method is NOT allowed?

A

LIFO.

1158
Q

Personal financial statements should report assets and liabilities at:

A

Estimated current values(fair values) at the date of the financial statements.

1159
Q

What financial statements are included in a set of personal financial statements?

A

A statement of financial condition (balance sheet) is always included, and a statement of changes in net worth may be included, but is NOT required.

1160
Q

In a personal statement of financial condition, a life insurance policy should be reported at cash surrender value less any:

A

Loans outstanding against the policy.

1161
Q

In a cash flow hedge, the item being hedged is measured using:

A

The present value of expected cash inflows or outflows. The item being hedged could be associated with an asset, a liability, or a forecasted transaction.

1162
Q

What is the purpose of reporting comprehensive income?

A

To summarize all changes in equity from nonowner sources.

1163
Q

What are the “other comprehensive income” items? (4)

A

Unrealized G/L on AFS securities, unrealized G/L on pension costs, foreign currency translation adjustments, and unrealized G/L on certain derivative transactions.

1164
Q

Who pays the shipping with FOB shipping point?

A

The title passes to buyer at the shipping point, so the buyer is responsible for paying the shipping charges.

1165
Q

Who pays the shipping with FOB destination?

A

The seller pays shipping charges to get the goods to the buyer. The title passes to the buyer once they reach their destination.

1166
Q

Under IFRS, how should a company report their investments in bonds when it is a part of their business model to hold such investments solely to receive the cash and interest from principal repayment?

A

At amortized cost.

1167
Q

Can impairment losses on intangibles be reversed?

A

No. Losses on plant assets held for disposal can be reversed to the extent of previous losses but intangible impairment losses cannot be reversed.

1168
Q

Which governmental fund type can report a positive amount in the Unassigned fund balance?

A

The general fund. Other governmental funds cannot have a positive balance in their unassigned fund.

1169
Q

In a sale-leaseback, how is the gain on sale recognized?

A

It is amortized over the lease term. A 50,000 unearned gain on a sale-leaseback over 10 years will result in 5,000 being recognized in each of the 10 years.

1170
Q

If a city imposes a 2% tax on hotel charges which will be used to promote tourism in the city, what type of nonexchange transaction is this?

A

It is a Derived Tax Revenue.

1171
Q

How are the different governmental funds reported on the fund-based balance sheet?

A

The general fund has its own column, then the major funds each have their own column, and then the rest of the individual funds that are not considered major are grouped into a single column.

1172
Q

A fund balance is the amount of assets greater than liabilities. What are the different classes of the fund balance?

A

Unrestricted- which means it’s none of the below and is available for future use.Nonspendable and restricted. This means the money is restricted as to use by an outside party.Committed means the money is committed to a specific use by the highest level of decision making.Assigned means the money has been assigned by officials that are NOT the highest level of authority.

1173
Q

If a city plans on collecting $10k a month from property taxes for the next 18 months, how much revenue should be reported in year one?

A

$140,000. 10k for each month of the year plus Jan and Feb of the following year.

1174
Q

How is $10k of bonds reported on the gov wide and fund-based statements?

A

They are a regular liability on the gov wide statements and “other financing source” on the fund based statements.

1175
Q

How is a bond due in 3 months reported on the gov wide & fund-based statements?

A

It is ‘bonds payable’ on both.

1176
Q

If a city takes on a project but accepts no liability for the work being done, what type of fund is used.

A

An agency fund.

1177
Q

How does a transfer from the gen fund to capital projects get reported?

A

The general fund shows a “other financing use”, the capital projects fund shows a “other financing source”, and both balances will show up in the total gov funds column. This are no eliminations of “intercompany transactions”.

1178
Q

What is the difference between the purchases method and consumption method for the government fund accounting?

A

Under purchases, the whole purchase is immediately recognized as an expenditure. Under the consumption method, the supplies are moved to expenditures as they are used.

1179
Q

Is a computer or office supplies reported as an asset on the fund-based governmental statements?

A

Office supplies are an asset- capitalized assets such as a computer are not.

1180
Q

how is a capital lease recorded in the gov fund-based statements?

A

The PV of the payments is recorded as an expenditure, and an increase in ‘other financing sources’.

1181
Q

Do infrastructure assets get depreciated?

A

They do unless the modified approach is adopted. Then you have to set a minimum level of acceptable condition and maintain documentation to show that the asset is kept at that level.

1182
Q

For general purpose gov statements, is MD&A required?

A

Yes, it must be included but it is separate from both the gov wide & fund-based statements.

1183
Q

What are the 3 requirements to be a special purpose gov?

A

1) separately elected governing body. 2) It is legally independent so that it can sue, be sued, and buy and sell property in its own name. 3) Be fiscally independent of all other governments.

1184
Q

On the statement of activities, what is included in program revenues?

A

Any revenue generated by the activity, as well as any grants related specifically to that activity. This is then netted against the expense.

1185
Q

In troubled debt restructuring, what does the creditor do, and how do they recognize interest on the restructured loan?

A

They reduce the amount owed to the present value of future cash flows on the ORIGINAL interest rate. Then, they recognize interest by using the original interest rate times the BV of the new receivable. The debtor recognizes a loss as the difference between the current BV of its receivable and the present value of the future cash flows.

1186
Q

In troubled debt restructuring, what does the debtor do?

A

They compute the total cash flows now owed. So you take the future interest payments and add them to the new principal amount.

1187
Q

If you have an investment that isn’t enough to be equity method, then you invest more later that does take it to equity method, how is that treated?

A

The equity method is retroactively applied to the first amount. So if you owned 10% the whole year then bought another 20% at year end, you would recognize 10% of the company’s earnings under the equity method.

1188
Q

How is a capitalized interest problem done? (average accumulated expenditures)

A

First calculate the average accumulated expenditures. That is taking the amounts spent through the year each multiplied by the portion of the year remaining.Next you calculate avoidable interest. Avoidable interest is the interest on the construction specific loan(s), and then the amount of other debt above the amount of the construction loans.Then calculate actual interest. The lesser of the avoidable interest and the actual interest is the amount that can be capitalized.

1189
Q

When converting financial statements using translation, paid in capital accounts are translated using the ______ rate?

A

Historic rate in effect when the account arose or the investment was made.

1190
Q

If a firm buys land to build a warehouse on, is the interest from the land loan and the warehouse construction capitalized?

A

Only interest on the warehouse construction can be capitalized.

1191
Q

If a firm is going to discontinue a segment early next year, but there is a loss in that segment ending this year, how is that loss reported?

A

As an operating loss of the discontinued segment. This section is below income from continuing ops but above extraordinary items.

1192
Q

What is an accelerated filer and how long do they have after their fiscal year end to file their 10-K?

A

Aggregate worldwide market value of voting and nonvoting stock of $75 million or more, but less than 700 million. They have 75 days to file 10-K.

1193
Q

What is a large accelerated filer and how long do they have after their fiscal year end to file their 10-K?

A

Market cap of 700 million or more. They have 60 days to file their 10-K.

1194
Q

A foreign currency transaction is settled in ______ but measured and recorded on the US entity’s books in ________.

A

Non dollarsDollars.

1195
Q

Where are foreign currency exchange gains or losses on acc rec reported?

A

In current income as an item of income from continuing operations.

1196
Q

What disclosure is required relating to sinking funds and long term debt?

A

FAS 47 requires the disclosure of the aggregate amount of maturities and sinking fund requirements for all long-term debt for each of the five years following the balance sheet date. The detail of each year for both is shown.

1197
Q

When does a liquidating dividend occur?

A

When the investee pays more income than was earned during the period the investor owned the shares of the investee.

1198
Q

Describe the cost method:

A

The cost method is for an investment that DOES NOT give the investor significant influence. The dividends are recognized in income of the investor. The investment remains on the balance sheet at cost unless there is a permanent decline in value, or there is a liquidating dividend.

1199
Q

Under IFRS, are gains and losses on the changes in fair value of equity investments reported in the income statement or in other comprehensive income?

A

It can be either. If the investment is held for trading purposes, then the changes in fair value are reported in profit/loss.If it’s NOT held for trading, the investor may elect to report changes in fair value through other comp. income.

1200
Q

What type of investments can be transferred between categories under IFRS?

A

Only debt. Equity securities are not allowed to be transferred between categories under IFRS. When investments are transferred, prior period statements must be restated for comparative purposes.

1201
Q

Under IFRS, if debt securities are held NOT as part of the business plan, what are they measured at?

A

Fair value.

1202
Q

Under IFRS, if debt securities are held as part of the business plan, what are they measured at?

A

Amortized cost.

1203
Q

Under the equity method for GAAP, what effect does the sub’s income and dividends have on the investor’s investment account?

A

The investor’s share of income increases the investment account, and dividends decrease the investment account. The investor’s share of income from the investee is also recognized as income for the investor.

1204
Q

Which form of business combination results in a NEW legal entity?

A

Consolidation. In consolidation, 2 or more existing entities are combined into one new legal entity.In a merger, one pre-existing entity is combined into another pre-existing entity. In an acquisition, one entity acquires a controlling interest and both continue to exist as separate legal entities.

1205
Q

Accretion expense is essentially growth in the:

A

Asset retirement obligation.

1206
Q

Purchases of treasury stock do not affect retained earnings under the:

A

Cost method.

1207
Q

Return on equity is considered what kind of ratio?

A

A profitability ratio

1208
Q

What is the defensive-interval ratio and what type of ratio is it?

A

It is the ratio of quick assets to daily operating expenditures. It is a liquidity ratio.

1209
Q

Does the cost method or the fair value method require a reconciliation of the changes in carrying amounts between the beginning and end of a period?

A

They both require said reconciliation.

1210
Q

If a decline in inventory value is not considered temporary, the decline is recognized in the quarter in which the decline occurs. Later recoveries are:

A

Recognized as gains to the extent of the previous losses only.

1211
Q

A discount on a bond is essentially:

A

Extra interest expense.

1212
Q

Which regulation governs the form and content of financial statement disclosures?

A

Regulation S-X.

1213
Q

The notional amount in a derivative refers to:

A

The specified unit of measure. If you have an option to buy 100 shares, the notional amount is the 100 shares.

1214
Q

Where does a first time adopter of IFRS recognize the adjustments required to present its opening IFRS statement of financial position?

A

In retained earnings.

1215
Q

What are the 4 components of the IASB monitoring board? (1 on top, 3 on bottom)

A

The IFRS foundation is on top, and below it is the IFRS advisory council, the IASB, and the IFRS interpretation committee.

1216
Q

What does the IFRS foundation do and how long is their term?

A

They appoint members of the IASB, the IFRS Advisory Council, and the IFRS interpretations committee. The trustees serve 3 year terms

1217
Q

What are the objectives of the IFRS foundation? (4)

A

To develop a single set of high quality, understandable, enforceable and globally accepted financial reporting standards. To promote us and rigorous application of IFRS. To consider the needs of a range of size and type of entities. To promote and facilitate adoption of IFRS through convergence.

1218
Q

What does the IASB do?

A

They establish IFRS reporting standards, but they do NOT have enforcement power. Enforcement is the responsibility of the securities regulators in the national jurisdictions.

1219
Q

What is the IFRS advisory council and who appoints them?

A

They advise the IASB on priorities and the views of interested organizations. Members are appointed by the IFRS foundation

1220
Q

What does the IFRS interpretations committee do and who appoints the members?

A

They are similar to the FASB’s emerging issues task force: they identify issues in the context of IFRS, their interpretations are reviewed by the IASB. The members are appointed by the IFRS foundation.

1221
Q

What is an SME?

A

Small and medium-sized entities. IFRS has one single standard for companies that are not publicly traded. Revisions to SME standards only happen once every 3 years.

1222
Q

What are the 2 assumptions in the IASB framework?

A

That the accrual method is used, and that the entity is a going concern

1223
Q

What statements are required for a first-time adopter of IFRS?

A

Upon adoption, the first set of statements must have 3 statements of financial position, 2 statements of comprehensive income, two separate income statements, two statements of cash flows, and two statements of changes in equity. Basically they need 3 balance sheets and 2 of everything else.

1224
Q

What is the TRANSITION date of a company to IFRS?

A

The opening date of the balance sheet for the earliest comparative financial statements. If the first IFRS reporting date is as of Dec 31 Year 2, then the transition date will be Jan 1 year 1.

1225
Q

Upon first time adoption of IFRS, an entity can elect to use fair value as deemed cost for:

A

Any individual item of property, plant, and equipment.

1226
Q

What is the first reporting date when switching to IFRS?

A

The year end date for the period which IFRS is first applied.

1227
Q

What are the major characteristics of IFRS for SMEs?

A

Disclosures are simplified. LIFO is prohibited. Goodwill and indefinite life intangible assets are amortized over a period NOT exceeding 10 years. Depreciation is based on a component approach. Simplified temporary difference approach to income tax accounting. Reversal of impairment charges is allowed in some circumstances. No disclosures for earnings per share and segment disclosures.

1228
Q

Can revenue and AR from a sales commitment be recognized?

A

Yes. IFRS defines revenue from a balance sheet point of view and is based on the inflow of economic resources.

1229
Q

What is the difference in transfer of receivables under GAAP and IFRS?

A

GAAP focuses on whether control has shifted from the transferor to the transferee. IFRS focuses on whether the transferor has transferred the rights to receive cash flows from the receivable and whether or not substantially all the risk and rewards of ownership were transferred.

1230
Q

What is the general rule of IFRS when it comes to the value of assets?

A

That assets aren’t carried at more than their recoverable amount. If the asset’s carrying value is greater than the amount that could have been recovered through the asset’s use or by selling the asset, then it is impaired.

1231
Q

What is the definition of RECOVERABLE AMOUNT under IFRS?

A

The higher of the fair value less cost to sell or the value in use. Fair value less cost to sell is the amount obtainable from the sale in an arms-length transaction. The value in use is the discounted present value of the future cash flows expected from the asset.

1232
Q

What is a CGU under IFRS?

A

A cash generating unit is the smallest group of assets that can be identified that generates cash flows independently of the cash flows from other assets.

1233
Q

Does IFRS permit recovery of an impairment loss?

A

Yes.

1234
Q

Whats the difference in GAAP and IFRS of the reversal of an inventory write-down?

A

Under IFRS a reversal is allowed. Under GAAP it is NOT allowed.

1235
Q

How often is useful life and depreciation method reviewed under IFRS?

A

Annually. Under GAAP it’s only when events or circumstances change.

1236
Q

Component depreciation GAAP vs. IFRS

A

Under IFRS, when an item of PPE comprises of individual components for which different depreciation methods or rates are appropriate, each component is depreciated separately.

1237
Q

PPE revaluation GAAP vs IFRS

A

PPE can be remeasured to fair value if fair value can be reliably measured.

1238
Q

Where does an increase in PPE’s fair value ABOVE its original cost go under IFRS?

A

It goes into a revaluation surplus account which is in OCI. If a truck had gone down in value 10k then back up 15k in the next year, the first 10k would be in the profit and loss statements. The extra 5k would go into the revaluation surplus account in OCI.

1239
Q

What investment classifications exist under IFRS?

A

Held to maturity which is debt measured at amortized cost, and Fair value, all equity is at fair value.

1240
Q

Difference of HTM classification in GAAP vs IFRS:

A

Under GAAP the test is whether the firm has the positive ability and intent to hold to maturity. Under IFRS it’s the business model test, which evaluates if holding the debt for the cash flow is part of the business model.

1241
Q

Transfer from HTM differences GAAP vs IFRS

A

In GAAP you transfer from HTM when you no longer have the positive ability and intent to hold to maturity. Under IFRS you transfer from HTM only when the business model objective changes

1242
Q

OCI for investments differences in GAAP vs IFRS:

A

In GAAP gains/losses are recorded in OCI ONLY for AFS securities. In IFRS the entity may ELECT to records gains/losses to OCI at the initial measurement, but the election cannot be undone.

1243
Q

IFRS investment property

A

ljwoj

1244
Q

What is a small stock dividend?

A

Below 20 to 25 % of the previously outstanding shares.

1245
Q

What effect do stock dividends have on retained earnings?

A

If it is a SMALL dividend they reduce RE by the amount of shares issued X current stock price.If they are a LARGE dividend (bigger than 25%), they are recorded at par value.

1246
Q

JE for treasury stock purchase under cost method?

A

DR: Treasury stockCR: CashContributed capital is NOT affected. If treasury shares are resold at less than cost, then retained earnings is reduced by the difference in cost and reissue price.

1247
Q

In a fraud case, the CPA is generally liable to all:

A

reasonably foreseeable victims of the misstatement

1248
Q

Consideration must be:

A

legally sufficient. This doesn’t mean fair or equal.

1249
Q

A CPA can charge a contingent fee when helping a client with a claim for a refund filed solely:

A

in connection with a determination of statutory interest or penalties.

1250
Q

Ultramares rule:

A

established in a 1931 case of the same name, requires privity before an accountant is liable for negligence. Other rules, such as the Restatement rule, allow foreseeable users who rely on a negligently false statement to sue.

1251
Q

Sales contracts over $500 are governed by:

A

the statute of frauds. The UCC governs even the sale of a gumball

1252
Q

What is the one term that must be set for a UCC contract to be enforceable?

A

acceptance. Without acceptance it’s still just a negotiation

1253
Q

to be an enforceable written contract, what must the contract include?

A

the quantity of goods

1254
Q

under UCC when does risk of loss pass to buyer?

A

when the goods are delivered to the carrier

1255
Q

what does a principal have to do to terminate residual authority of one of its agents?

A

notify all thee agent’s known customers and publish the termination in appropriate trade journals

1256
Q

details of an output contract

A

when a customer agrees to buy all their materials from one supplier. courts decided that parties probably know about how much a supplier will order, so that is enough consideration to support a contract. If a contract cant be concluded within a year of its execution it must be supported by a signed writing under the statute of frauds

1257
Q

what can never be inferred?

A

quantity. price, subject matter, time for performance can all be inferred.

1258
Q

who has the responsibility in a check fraud scheme

A

the party in the best position to detect the loss- so usually the company the bad checks are coming from

1259
Q

If someone is going to transfer a check (order paper) to you, what two things do you need to make it valid?

A

Possession- meaning you need to actually have the check- and the person transferring it to you needs to have signed it.

1260
Q

Are punitive damages available in breaches of contract?

A

NO

1261
Q

what are reasonable grounds to OMIT an answer on a client’s tax return?

A

SSTS #2 says that only if both 1) the info isn’t readily available, and 2) the answer is not significant in terms of taxable income or loss

1262
Q

what is the hierarchy of paying of dividing up cash to creditors/IRS after a bankruptcy?

A

1.security interests are paid first2.child support and alimony3.admin costs such as attorneys and accountants who helped DURING the bankruptcy4. employee wages 3 MONTHS PRIOR5. contributions to benefit plans6. claims on raising or storage of grain7. consumer deposits8. all taxes are paid next9. unsecured creditors who filed in a timely fashion are paid pro rata and MUST BE FULLY REPAID before anything is paid to unsecured creditors who DID NOT file in a timely fashion

1263
Q

Usually, the first security interest to have priority will be the first one __________.But what is the exception dealing with purchase money?

A

Perfected.A purchase money security interest in NON-INVENTORY collateral has priority if it is perfected before the debtor takes possession or within 20 days thereafter.

1264
Q

what type of standard for tax shelters has the IRS adopted?

A

a “more likely than not” standard- meaning if the preparer thinks it is more likely than not that the position will be upheld- they don’t need to worry about the tax return preparer penalty

1265
Q

in a tenancy in common, the owners have the right to pass their interests to ________

A

their heirs through the estate

1266
Q

is a purchase price and a description of the property required to have a valid deed?

A

NO- you only need a description of the property

1267
Q

what is an example of a defect in the marketable title to real property?

A

an unrecorded easement

1268
Q

can incidental beneficiaries sue to enforce contracts?

A

no- the parties to the contract don’t have their benefit in mind when they create the contract

1269
Q

what is required for someone to file chapter 7 bankruptcy?

A

they must have debts- it can be any amount, as long as it is not an “abuse of the process”

1270
Q

Things to remember when looking at bankruptcy distribution problems:

A

1- Look at the dates! Priorities change based on the dates

1271
Q

claims with a “realistic possibility” of being sustained need not be:

A

disclosed. these are claims that have between a 33% and 50% chance of being sustained

1272
Q

can a surety compel the creditor to collect from the primary debtor or go after the debtor’s collateral?

A

no. the surety is primarily liable upon the debtor’s default, and they can’t compel the creditor to take either of these actions

1273
Q

2 ways intent can be established:

A

show that the defendant acted recklessly, or that the defendant knew of the misrepresentation

1274
Q

if a person is adjudicated incompetent by a court having proper jurisdictions- all future contracts entered into by this person are:

A

VOID

1275
Q

if a principal is either partially disclosed or undisclosed, is an agent personally liable for contracts entered into?

A

YES

1276
Q

Under the UCC secured transactions article, what will ALWAYS prevent a security interest from attaching?

A

failure of the debtor to have rights in the collateral

1277
Q

what entity handles ethical complaints that carry national implications

A

the AICPA

1278
Q

the 1933 securities act applies to sales of securities, including stocks, bonds and notes that are issued for periods over ___________

A

9 months

1279
Q

what is rule 505 of Regulation D of the 1933 securities act?

A

it allows a securities sale of up to 5mil in 12 months without registering with the SEC. it can only sell shares to a limit of 35 non-accredited investors but unlimited sales to accredited investors

1280
Q

what is rule 506 of reg D of the 1933 securities act?

A

Rule 506 merely requires that the securities not be advertised to the general public and not be sold to more than 35 non-accredited investors. Any type of security may qualify for this exemption, including stocks and debentures. There is no limit on the dollar value of the issue, so long as the other restrictions are complied with.

1281
Q

if you incorporate your business and you put all assets into the corp in exchange for stock, what % do you have to own immediately afterwards to qualify as tax free?

A

80%

1282
Q

in a non-liquidating distribution of property, how do you report the transaction?

A

the same as if you’d sold the property at its fair market value. If you had stock you bought for $10 per share, and you gave it to an owner of the corp when it was worth $20 per share, you’d report $10 of capital gains per share.

1283
Q

what are the tax implications to a corp and the individual if a corp has land that it bought for 20k but is now worth 25k, and the corp distributes it to an individual? (the corp still owes 10k on the land and the individual assumes the debt)

A

the corp would report a gain of 5k, and the individual reports a gain of 15k. the individual is 15k better off than before the transaction.

1284
Q

when you put property into a corp in exhange for stock, how is your basis in the stock determined?

A

it is your previous basis in the property plus any gain recognized on the property. if you had an asset you paid 100k for but is worth 150k when you transfer it, if the transfer qualifies as tax free you have basis of 100k in the stock. but if the transfer doesn’t qualify as tax free and you have a 50k gain on the transfer, then your basis in the stock is 150k.

1285
Q

if an individual transfers equipment into a new corporation with a basis of 100k but a FV of 150k and the transaction is tax free, what basis does the business take in the asset

A

100k. when you transfer property into a corp and end up with 80% or more of the stock, the tax basis is retained by both parties

1286
Q

when property is conveyed to an owner, whether as a liquidating distribution or not, it is recorded as:

A

as if it were sold for FMV. if it is a capital asset then there is a capital gain equal to the FMV less the basis.

1287
Q

if you have preferred and common shareholders, 270k in your profits and earnings account, and you pay 200k dividends to preferred shareholders and 100k dividends to common shareholders, how do they each report them?

A

preferred report 200k of dividends, and common shareholders report 70k of dividends and 30k of nontaxable return of basis. When corporate distributions exceed earnings and profits, the earnings and profits are first allocated to the distribution made to the preferred shareholders with any remainder to the common shareholders

1288
Q

what is section 1245 property?

A

personal decpreciable equipment used in a business. equipment and machinery fall into this category

1289
Q

what is section 1250 property?

A

1250 property includes business land and most real property that is subject to depreciation

1290
Q

how are taxes determined when a company is buying and selling its own stock?

A

it doesnt matter- a company buying and selling its own stock is nontaxable

1291
Q

what are capital assets for a corporation?

A

For a corporation, capital assets are normally limited to investments in stocks, bonds, and land (held in hopes of appreciation in value). Buildings, equipment, and inventory are bought to produce revenues and do not qualify as capital assets.

1292
Q

what are the threshholds and percentages for the dividends received deductions?

A

up to 20% ownership is 70%20-80% ownership is 80%above 80% is 100%

1293
Q

what is the dividend received deduction applied to?

A

the lower of the dividend amount or the overall income amount. if operations actually lost 20k but the dividend was 100k, the dividends deduction percentage would be applied to 80k

1294
Q

how do capital losses work for corporations?

A

they can be carried back 3 years and forward 5 years but they can only reduce other capital gains. they do not lower taxable income

1295
Q

what rate are capital gains for corporations taxed at?

A

the ordinary tax rate for the corp. it’s not a different rate like it is for individuals. when a net capital loss is either carried back or forward it is always treated as a short term loss

1296
Q

when a corp sells an asset, what would create ordinary income?

A

if an asset was bought for 50k, had dep exp of 10k, and was sold for 60k, 10k would be ordinary income and 10k would be a 1231 gain. the dep exp is recaptured through the sale.

1297
Q

are dividend-received deductions allowed for non-domestic companies?

A

NO. if you get dividends from a non domestic corp it’s all taxable

1298
Q

what time period are section 197 items amortized over?

A

15 years

1299
Q

how are incorporation fees expensed?

A

the first 5k can be deducted in the first year, the rest is amortized over 180 months

1300
Q

how are doubtful accounts treated for tax purposes?

A

the expense has to be incurred- meaning only the amount of accounts actually written off are able to be deducted

1301
Q

how are charitable deductions calculated for corporations?

A

the amount deducted in one year is up to 10% of income before any dividends received deductions. this means that you would take income plus dividend income and take 10% of that, then subtract the DRD afterwards. any amount over that can be carried forward for 5 years

1302
Q

a bad debt can only be deducted to the extent that:

A

it was included in income.Bad debt expense is actually the removal of a previously recognized income that was never received

1303
Q

what are the 3 elements of deductible business expenses?

A

ordinary, necessary, and reasonable in amount

1304
Q

what happens if a owner/employee is getting paid 300k and 50k of that is determined to be unreasonable compensation?

A

that 50k will then be taxed at a dividend but it also becomes NOT-deductible for the corp

1305
Q

how is inventory treated as a charitable donation?

A

when it’s donated, the deduction amount is the lower of cost or fair value

1306
Q

business gifts up to $____ per person can be deducted

A

$25

1307
Q

what is the half-year convention under MACRS?

A

According to the rules of MACRS, personal property is treated as placed in service or disposed of at the midpoint of the taxable year, resulting in a half-year of depreciation for the year in which the property is placed in service or disposed of by the company.

1308
Q

what is the tax treatment when there is a like-kind exchange with boot?

A

the amount taxed is the lesser of the boot received or the gain.

1309
Q

when a company owns 80% or more of another, when are gains reported for tax purposes?

A

not until the gain is realized by a sale to an outside party.

1310
Q

the benefit of using the installment sales method is removed by:

A

being added to taxable income as an adjustment

1311
Q

what constitutes a personal holding corporation?

A

more than half of the value of the outstanding stock must be owned by five or fewer individuals at some point during the last half of the year. at least 60 percent of its ordinary income must be generated by dividends, interest, rents, royalties, and other passive income

1312
Q

is interest income on state and federal government obligations included in taxable income?

A

interest from federal obligations IS taxable but interest from state obligations IS NOT taxable

1313
Q

which of these are included in the gross income of the recipient during a divorce: alimony, child support, and property settlement?

A

only alimony. alimony is included in the recipient’s gross income, but child support and property settlements are not

1314
Q

if someone is supposed to receive alimony and child support, but receives much less then they are supposed to during the year, how is it taxed?

A

the amount is applied to child support first. If they were supposed to get 5k during the year in child support and they received 6k total, 5k would be child support and 1k would be alimony.

1315
Q

how is the exclusion ratio computed on an annuity contract?

A

you take the basis over the amount expected to be received, and then multiply that percentage by the total of the payments received that year. so if you paid 50k for an annuity and it was estimated that you would be paid out a total of 100k, your exclusion ratio is 50%

1316
Q

what are the types of capital assets for individuals?

A

Capital assets for individual taxpayers are personal property, such as household furniture and tools, and investment property, such as real estate and securities such as stocks and bonds.

1317
Q

how are gains and losses handled on personal and investment property for individuals?

A

Taxpayers must report gains and losses on investment property (such as their investment stocks and bonds) but only gains on personal property are reported. For example, if a taxpayer sells personal furniture at a gain, that capital gain must be reported. However, if the same personal property is sold at a loss, no deduction is allowed.

1318
Q

how are short and long term capital gains and losses treated by an individual?

A

the first step is to net the short term gain and loss and the long-term gain and loss.Then, you net the two together. A net capital loss of up to $3k can be deducted in any year in arriving at AGI, and any loss over that can be carried forward indefinitely.Also, when netting the overal gains and losses together, whatever is bigger determines whether it’s a long term or short term

1319
Q

how are gains/losses treated in related party transactions on the individual level?

A

gains are taxed but losses are not deductible

1320
Q

how much capital losses can someone filing “married filing separately” deduct in a given year?

A

this filing status can only deduct $1,500 instead of the regular 3,000

1321
Q

what is the treatment of non business bad debt?

A

the principal is written off in the year the loan is deemed worthless and it is considered short-term. any foregone interest is not deductible

1322
Q

how is basis determined when a gift is given?

A

it’s the basis of the gift in the hands of the gift-giver

1323
Q

if you inherit stock worth 10k, how much tax do you owe?

A

assets that are inherited aren’t taxable. You take a basis in them that’s the same as the fair value on the date of death.

1324
Q

how are qualified dividends taxed?

A

Qualified dividends are those dividends collected from a U.S. domestic corporation or a qualified foreign corporation. To encourage investments in these companies, the dividends are taxed at the same reduced rate that applies to long-term capital gains.

1325
Q

how is a like-kind exchange taxed when no cash is received?

A

the basis of the new asset is the same as the basis in the asset given up plus any cash paid, and no gain or loss is recognized

1326
Q

how is a trade that is not like-kind treated for tax purposes?

A

your basis in the new asset is its fair market value, and you subtract the basis in the asset you traded and that difference is your gain

1327
Q

if cash is received in a like-kind exchange what is the tax consequence?

A

a gain is recognized on whatever is the lower of the cash received or the gain on the exchange. If there was 5k received and the gain was only 3k, then a 3k gain is recognized. if the gain was 5k and cash received was 2k, then a gain of 2k is recognized

1328
Q

what is the rule on excluding a gain on the sale of a primary residence?

A

If certain rules are met, a couple filing a joint return can exclude up to $500,000 of the gain on their personal residence. The structure had to be their principal residence for at least two of the most recent five years. This exclusion cannot be taken in two consecutive years.

1329
Q

what are the rules for a C corp to use the cash basis of accounting?

A

c corps cant use the cash method unless their average annual gross receipts for the previous three years do not exceed 5 million. once they pass 5 million they must use accrual method for all future years

1330
Q

can partnerships use the cash basis of accounting?

A

yes, as long as none of the partners are a c corp. and there are no income limits for the cash basis

1331
Q

characteristics of ORDINARY ASSETS?

A

accounts and notes receivableinventorytrade or business assets OWNED FOR A YEAR OR LESS

1332
Q

characteristics of 1231 assets?

A

Trade or business assets owned for MORE than a year

1333
Q

if you inherit property and the donor’s basis is higher than FMV, how is it treated when you sell the asset for tax purposes?

A

You assume the lower FMV as your basis for computing losses, and you use the donor’s higher basis for computing gainsIf you sell it at a price in between the gain and loss basis, no gain or loss is recognized

1334
Q

If you inherit stock and sell it within a year is it a short-term or long-term gain?

A

You assume the holding period of the donor. So if they had only had it 6 months you start at 6 months when you inherit it- if they had it 5 years and you sell it the day after you inherit it, it is still a long-term gain

1335
Q

when the alternate valuation date is elected after a death, what is the basis for the property distributed?

A

it is the fair market value on the date that is six months after the date of death

1336
Q

if you (an individual) have ST cap losses of 10k and LT cap losses of 10k how much can you deduct of each one in the current year?

A

3k can be deducted, and the ST losses are deducted first.

1337
Q

in an involuntary conversion, how do you calculate any gain or loss?

A

the taxable gain is the LOWER of the actual gain on the transaction or the money left over after the replacement

1338
Q

what is the basic hobby loss rule?

A

you have to make a profit in 3 out of the most recent 5 years. so 3 years of losses in a row means you’re engaged in a hobby not a business.expenses related to a hobby are deductible only to the extent of revenues earned

1339
Q

how are benefits under cafeteria plans taxed?

A

they are only taxable if they are received in cash

1340
Q

what is the exception to the rule of stock dividends being non-taxable?

A

if the investor can choose between cash or a stock dividend, then it’s taxable.If some owners are given common stock but some are given preferred stock, then it’s taxable to all.

1341
Q

how are gambling gains/losses treated for tax purposes?

A

Winnings from gambling activities are reported within the income of the taxpayer. Losses are shown as miscellaneous itemized deductions. However, the losses deducted cannot exceed the amount of gambling winnings being reported

1342
Q

is interest on United States treasury bonds taxable?

A

nterest revenue on United States treasury bonds is taxable on a federal income tax tax return. Interest revenue on US Series EE bonds is tax exempt but only when it meets specific rules: the bonds must have been purchased by the taxpayer who was over 24 years old and the proceeds must be used to pay college costs for taxpayer, spouse or a dependent. Interest revenue on state and municipal bonds are always tax free on a federal return.

1343
Q

how are passive activity losses treated on an individual tax return?

A

Passive activity losses are not deductible on an individual income tax return. They are carried over and used to offset passive income in the future until used up. A passive activity is a business in which the taxpayer serves as an owner but does not materially participate in the operation. Rental activities and limited partnerships are also included in this category, regardless of the owner’s participation.

1344
Q

what is the loss deductibility exception dealing with losses from rental activity?

A

passive losses on rental activities are deductible up to $25,000 as long as the owner is an active participant in the management. The deductibility of this $25,000 is lost gradually if the taxpayer’s income is especially high. Passive losses are carried forward indefinitely so that they can reduce future passive activity gains.

1345
Q

if a taxpayer has a reasonably high income level but they get social security benefits, what percent of the SS is taxable?

A

usually 85%. So 85% of the SS benefits received would be included in taxable income

1346
Q

what can cause a scholarship to be considered earned income?

A

if the recipient has to work as a requirement of the scholarship, such as teaching 2 classes a week

1347
Q

If a couple separates and the husband gives the wife 5k before a legal separation decree is in place how is the 5k taxed?

A

It is not yet alimony so it is not taxable to the woman.

1348
Q

If you have rental homes can you deduct charitable contributions from the rental revenue?

A

No. You would have your rental revenue and expenses on a schedule E of a 1040 and a charitable contribution isn’t a necessary expense of maintaining rental properties. But, you could include the charity as an itemized deduction on the schedule A of a 1040.

1349
Q

how are social security benefits taxed in the income is relatively low?

A

SS benefits are not taxed if the income is low. 50% becomes taxable if the income is higher, and up to 85% can be taxable if the income level is relatively high

1350
Q

are cash gifts included in taxable income?

A

no- cash received as a gift is not included in federal taxable income, although in some situations a gift tax may apply

1351
Q

what is the number of days per year that determines whether a property is treated as a rental or not?

A

15 days. If a property is rented for less than 15 days, no rental income is includable and expenses attributable to the rental are not deductible. The property taxes are still deductible in full on Schedule A

1352
Q

how are dividends on a life insurance policy treated for tax purpose?

A

they are not taxable. They are viewed as deduction in the expense of the policy

1353
Q

what are the requirements for EE bond interest to be tax free?

A

the bonds must be issued after December 31, 1989, be purchased by the sole (or joint owner) and the buyer must be at least 24 years old when bonds are purchased. The proceeds of the bonds must be used to pay the higher education tuition and fees for taxpayer, spouse, or dependent.

1354
Q

how are a C corp’s net capital losses used?

A

deducted from the corp’s ordinary income up to 3k, then carried back 3 years and forward 5 years

1355
Q

what is the maximum deduction in one year for a section 1244 loss?

A

50,000- 100k if filing jointly

1356
Q

what are examples of 1245 property?

A

all depreciable personal property such as equipment and machinery. under section 1245 recapture, gains are treated as ordinary income up to the amount that was depreciated.

1357
Q

how does the 1231 lookback provision work?

A

1231 gains are applied to past 1231 losses and treated as ordinary income. whent the past losses are absorbed the balance is a 1231 gain.if you have 100k of 1231 gain this year, but 80k 1231 loss last year, then 80k this year is ordinary income and 20k is a 1231 gain

1358
Q

what is the statutory amortization period for a covenant not to compete that is related to business acquisition?

A

15 years

1359
Q

the section 179 deduction is limited to:

A

the net income from the business

1360
Q

what is the MACRS life of a non-residential real property such as an office building?

A

39 years. MACRS requires that such a building is depreciated on the straight line bassis.BUT- the mid-month convention applies to this type of property which means no matter when it is placed into service it is considered to be mid-month.

1361
Q

is debt relief considered boot?

A

yes. that and cash

1362
Q

what are the 2 categories of qualified moving expenses?

A

moving the household goods, and lodging during the move. temporary living expenses are NOT deductible

1363
Q

what is the rule when a taxpayer make a charitable contribution in connection with admission to an entertainment event?

A

the taxpayer can only deduct the difference between the amount paid for admission and the fair value of admission. If you pay 100 but regular admission is only 50, you can deduct 50.

1364
Q

what is the rule with donating ‘ordinary income property’ to charity?

A

if you’ve owned it for less than a year the amount you can deduct is the lower of cost or market.If you’ve owned it more than a year, then you can deduct the FMV

1365
Q

what is the income percentage limit of donating long term capital gain property to charity?

A

you can only deduct up to 30% of your AGI in long term capital gain property.

1366
Q

what is the gross income test amount for someone to be claimed as a dependent by someone else?

A

3,900

1367
Q

how does the hope/american opportunity credit work?

A

It gives the taxpayer a credit of 100% of the first 2k and 25% of the next 2k of qualified post-secondary education expenses. So the total can be $2,500. The credit doesn’t begin phasing out for married filing jointly until the income hits 160k of AGI.

1368
Q

how does the child care credit work?

A

you can get a credit for eligible childcare expenses of 35% of the the expenses if you have AGI of 15k or less. If your AGI is more than 15k, the credit goes down 1% of your expenses for every 2k of AGI above 15k, but it is not reduced to less than 20% of the expenses.

1369
Q

how does the foreign income tax credit work?

A

it’s the lower of the foreign taxes paid, or the amount of US taxes that would be paid on the foreign income

1370
Q

how are corporate startup costs treated for tax purposes?

A

5k of organizational costs can be deducted in the first year- anything over 50k reduces the 5k that may be deducted in the first year though. Legal fees are allowed, but commissions paid to an underwriter are not. stock issue costs are not deductible either.

1371
Q

what percentage of ownership must consent to revoke the S status of an S corp?

A

more than 50%

1372
Q

what does article 2 of the UCC govern?

A

governs the sale of new and used goods, by both merchants and non-merchants

1373
Q

what items are stated separately for partnership income?

A

interest incomemunicipal interest incomesection 1231 gaincharitable donationslife insurance premiums on partner’s livesordinary income/loss

1374
Q

what is the statute of limitations on the IRS assessing additional taxes?

A

3 years unless the amount of income omitted is more than 25% of the income reported on the taxpayer’s income tax return

1375
Q

if a corp has E&P of 9k and it distributes 9k of cash to its sole shareholder, and land with a FMV of 40k and a basis of 5k, what is the shareholder’s taxable income because of the transaction?

A

if a corp distributes appreciated property, its E&P goes up by the difference between FMV and its basis in the property.So in this case, the total E&P is raised from 9k to 44k (9+35). So the shareholder has a gain of 44k and the remaining 5k is a return of capital and is nontaxable.

1376
Q

what is a type A reorg?

A

a merger or consolidation under state law. it is stock for asset, the target corp dissolves

1377
Q

what is a type B reorg?

A

stock for stock. Acquirer must own at least 80% of target after the transaction. Only voting stock can be used by acquiring. No boot allowed.

1378
Q

what is a type C reorg?

A

stock for asset. doesn’t have to be statutory. Only voting stock and can used by acquiring. Boot is allowed but it cannot exceed 20% of the consideration provided by acquiring. Acquiring must acquire substantially all of target’s assets(90% of net asset value and 70% of gross asset value)

1379
Q

If you get stock as a GIFT, what is your basis?

A

If the owner’s basis is less than FMV on the date of the gift, then your basis is the same as who gave it to you.But, if the FMV is less than the owner’s basis at the date of gift, then you have a separate gain basis and a loss basis. Your loss basis is the lower amount, and your gain basis is the higher amount.

1380
Q

What is your basis in INHERITED property?

A

The FMV of the property at the date used to value the property. *this can be the date of death or the alternate date as chosen by the executor

1381
Q

how is the basis in a jointly-owned property calculated?

A

The original basis is divided by the two. If you have 350k in basis, each has 175k in basis. At the death of one person, that person’s half is given to the survivor at FMV. So if the FMV of the property was 400k, then the survivor gets basis of 200k plus their original basis of 175k for a total basis of 375k in a property with a fmv of 400k

1382
Q

what does rule 506 D allow?

A

that the securities are NOT advertised to the public, and that they are not sold to more than 35 non-accredited investors.There is NO LIMIT on the dollar value of the issue- and they can be either stocks OR debentures

1383
Q

what is the primary thing to win a section 11 claim?

A

that there was a material misstatement in the registration statement on the effective date, that they can trace their shares to that registration statement, and that they suffered damages

1384
Q

if you give someone a check for 120k and they don’t deposit it within 30 days and then there is a bank failure, you are off the hook for:

A

the extra 20k. The FDIC will cover 100k.

1385
Q

what right does one cosurety have against another cosurety?

A

contribution. this means that if one surety pays more than his fair share, he can recover from the other surety

1386
Q

under the UCC, the party to whom a check is present for payment is the:

A

drawee. this is the bank.

1387
Q

what is one reason for which the corporate veil might be pierced?

A

if the corp was undercapitalized when it was formed

1388
Q

if you estimated your taxes in 2012 as 5k and then in 2013 you found the exact amount to be 6k, you:

A

include the remaining 1k in your 2013 tax return

1389
Q

what is the total allowable medical expenses amount?

A

20k. only medical expenses in excess of 10% of AGI are allowable as a deduction

1390
Q

a merchant’s firm offer has to remain open for:

A

a reasonable time

1391
Q

what is the only thing that can cause a gain in a partnership distribution?

A

when cash is distributed that exceeds the partner’s basis

1392
Q

are an insurance company’s securities regulated by the securities act of 1933?

A

YES

1393
Q

what is the medicare surtax obligation and how is it calculated?

A

3.8% of the lesser of net investment income or the excess of AGI over the AGI threshold which is total AGI minus 250k

1394
Q

foreign currency exchange gains or losses in the course of normal business are ______

A

ordinary

1395
Q

for an S corp, what all will increase or decrease a shareholders basis?

A

everything will affect the shareholders basis- even capital gains and losses

1396
Q

a C corps net capital losses are carried back:

A

back 3 years and forward 5. Remember that these are capital losses and not NOLs.NOLs can be carried back 2 years and forward 20

1397
Q

what a bond is amortized for tax purposes, what method is used?

A

constant yield to maturity method

1398
Q

even if the workload is uneven, if no agreement to the contrary exists, profits in a partnership will be:

A

divided equally- even if one partner does more work than the other. there needs to be an agreement if profits are different than 50/50

1399
Q

the person who goods must be delivered to under a negotiable bill of lading

A

the consignee of the bill of lading

1400
Q

if unionized employees go on strike, when must their company hire them back?

A

after a ‘unfair labor practice’ strike- not if the strike is over wages

1401
Q

which court is not of ‘original jurisdiction’

A

the united states court of appeals

1402
Q

do proposed regulations have the effect of law?

A

no

1403
Q

bilateral contract

A

promise for a promise

1404
Q

unilateral contract

A

promise in exchange for an act

1405
Q

executory contract

A

contract not fully performed on both sides

1406
Q

if you file chapter 7, any inheritence you get within how many days of filing will go to your creditors?

A

within 180 days

1407
Q

what are the reg D offerings?

A

504- 1 million505- 5 million506- private placement, unlimitedthe SEC must be notified within 15 days of the first sale

1408
Q

uniform capilization rules amount

A

gross receipts of 10million or more

1409
Q

under circular 230, if you find an error on a client’s tax return after he sends it, you are required to:

A

tell the client- it’s up to them what to do next

1410
Q

what are the rules and stipulations of an exempt offering under Reg D rule 506?

A

up to 35 nonaccredited investors may purchase shares. there is no limit on the placement of securities as long as the other requirements are met. the issuer needs to take reasonable steps to see that purchasers of the exempt offering are not underwriters and are buying for investment. the SEC must be notified within 15 days of the first sale of the securities.

1411
Q

what are the rules for filing a valid involuntary petition against someone?

A

there needs to be 12 creditors, or one creditor needs to be owed at least $14,425 of unsecured debt.

1412
Q

what are the rules on preferential transfers?

A

the trustee can set aside a payment to a creditor made within 90 days previous to the bankruptcy filing. A payment to an insider within a year before the bankruptcy can also be set aside as preferential. If you receive “new value” such as buying something before the bankruptcy, that won’t be preferential.

1413
Q

an unrecorded mortgage has priority over a subsequently recorded mortgage if the subsequent mortgagee:

A

knew of the un-recorded mortgage. If another mortgage company knows about an existing mortgage- even if it’s unrecorded, the unrecorded mortgage will take priority.

1414
Q

indemnity contract:

A

you promise to pay your friend if he has to pay someone 10k

1415
Q

suretyship contract:

A

you promise your friend’s bank that you’ll pay off his car loan if he doesn’t pay it

1416
Q

who enforces anti-trust laws?

A

The DOJ’s anti-trust division and the FTC

1417
Q

what types of entities are exempt from the registration requirements of the securities act of 1933 when they issue securities?

A

charities, railroad company, farmer’s cooperative, or banks

1418
Q

how does a suretyship work if 2 people are each 50% but one is released without the other one knowing?

A

before the one is released, either one could be forced to pay the entire amount, but they would then have the right of contribution to go after 50% from the co-surety. when one is released, the remaining surety is then only liable for 50% total.

1419
Q

which needs additional consideration to be binding: a material modification involving the sale of real estate or the material modification of a sale of goods under the UCC?

A

the real estate. UCC transactions can be modified without new consideration

1420
Q

what causes trust property to be included in the grantor’s gross estate?

A

if the trust is revocable, which means the taxpayer maintains ownership or control of the property

1421
Q

can an S corp be owned by a bankruptcy estate?

A

Yes. it can also be owned by decedent’s estates, or trusts.

1422
Q

what happens if an S corp has excessive passive income? (passive income exceeds 25% of the corp’s gross receipts)

A

a tax at the highest corporate rate is imposed on the excessive passive income

1423
Q

how are estimated tax payments calculated?

A

at least 90% of current years taxes or 100% of last years taxes. BUT- if AGI exceeds 150k, then tax payments during the year must be 110% of last years taxes

1424
Q

when a C corp makes an S election and it has unrealized built-in gains in its assets as of the election day, they must pay a built-in gains tax on this appreciation if it is recognized within the:

A

next 10 years. That means if it is sold and the gain is recognized it has to pay a built-in gains tax on the appreciation at 35%

1425
Q

how do 1231 gains and losses work?

A

1231 gains are carried back against 1231 losses and ordinary income is ‘recaptured’. Gains go back 5 years.

1426
Q

when doing a life insurance as a fringe benefit question, the key thing to remember is that the first 50,000 of ______ is _____.

A

coverage is free. if it has 2.76 per $1000 of coverage, only apply it to the amount higher than 50k

1427
Q

things to remember about putting property into a partnership:

A

the partnership divides up any debt on the property. if you put in property with that you have 7k of basis in, and there is a mortgage of 3k, then you would have 7k of basis in the partnership except you have to subtract the amount of the debt the other partners will assume. if you’re a 50% partner then you’d subtract 50% of the debt, so your basis goes down to 5.5k. 7k - 1.5k = 5.5k

1428
Q

some guidelines for determining eligible exemptions:

A

the individual you are claiming must be a qualifying child or relative.they can’t provide more than 50% of their own support- which means you provide over 50% of their support.the personal exemption amount is 3,900 for income.time at college counts as living at home- they need to live at home for more than 1/2 the year

1429
Q

how is your taxable income and basis determined for property received as a dividend?

A

the taxable income is the FMV of the property received less any liabilities assumed.Your basis is always the FMV of the property.

1430
Q

what is the standard deduction for a trust or an estate in the fiduciary income tax return?

A

zero

1431
Q

in a corporate formation, gain is recognized to the extent that the liabilities assumed by the corporation exceed the:

A

basis in the assets contributed by the shareholder.If you put in property worth 20k, you have basis of 6k, and it has a 12k mortgage- your gain is the difference in your basis and the mortgage you’re being relieved of… so 6k in this case

1432
Q

what is the rule for interest expenses when computing AMT?

A

the interest has to be related to the primary residence- it can’t be a home equity loan to buy a motor home.you add back in taxes to compute AMT.You add back in the 2% deductions to compute AMT.

1433
Q

how do you deduct INVESTMENT INTEREST EXPENSE?

A

it is deductible to the extent of net investment income. So you take non-interest investment expenses and net them with investment income. You can then deduct investment interest expense up to the amount of net investment profit.if you have investment income of 10k and investment expenses of 8k, you can deduct up to 2k of investment interest expenses.

1434
Q

are medical expenses that you paid with a credit card deductible when you pay them or when you pay off the credit card?

A

they are deductible in the year you paid the medical expenses, not when you pay off the credit card.

1435
Q

what are the rules for using real estate losses to offset ordinary income?

A

a natural person can offset up to 25k of nonpassive income with passive losses resulting from rental activities. You have to own at least 10% of the rental activity, and you must have actively participated.Also, the 25k allowance is reduced by 50% of the amount that the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income exceeds 100k.So if you have 200k in income, you have 100k over the 100k limit, and you have to reduce your losses by half of that amount, or 50k.

1436
Q

which senate committee considers new tax legislation?

A

the finance committee

1437
Q

if a partner disposes of his share of a partnership and it had suspended loss caryyovers, how is it treated?

A

the passive losses are released and can offset any type of income

1438
Q

what are ‘hot assets’ of a partnership?

A

ONLY inventory and unrealized receivables

1439
Q

how is basis in a distribution of property from a partnership to an individual calculated?

A

it is the same as the partnership’s basis in the property but it may not exceed the partner’s basis in the partnership.Also, cash distributed reduces the partner’s basis dollar for dollar.If you have a partner with basis of 50k and they get 20k in cash, and then some land with 40k of basis to the partnership, the partner can only take basis in the land of 30k. because of the 50k basis less the 20k received in cash, there’s only 30k of basis left for that partner.

1440
Q

what is the gain and loss basis of stock that is given to you as a gift?

A

if the owners basis is less than FMV, then it is the owners basis. If the FMV is less than the owners basis, then you take the FMV basis for losses, and the owners basis for gains.For an inheritance the gift is valued at FMV.

1441
Q

for a stock split basis question:

A

figure out the total amount the stock cost originally and multiply that by the different split ratios to get the basis per share when the stock is sold

1442
Q

how to do a wash sale question

A

let’s say you sold 500 shares at a loss and then purchased 100 back within 30 days at a lower price. the % of shares you bought back is the percentage of the loss you’re not allowed to take. So if selling the 500 shares got you a loss of $1,000, buying back 100 shares is 1/5 or 20% of the shares you sold. So $200 of loss would be disallowed.

1443
Q

when does a short-term capital gain change into a long-term capital gain?

A

LONGER than one year. if it is exactly one year it is still short term.

1444
Q

Details of personal use assets for tax purposes:

A

Personal use assets, such as a BOAT, are capital assets. BUT, if you have a loss when you sell a personal use asset IT IS NOT DEDUCTIBLE. It is of course taxable if you have a gain though.

1445
Q

what is the difference in 1231, 1245, and 1250 property?

A

1245 and 1250 are BOTH still 1231 property, but they are each different.1245 property is depreciable personalty such as equipment in a sole proprietorship. The amount of depreciation taken on 1245 property is recaptured when it is sold and is then ordinary income. The remaining gain is 1231 gain.1250 property is depreciable realty such as land or buildings. On these you take the straight-line depreciation once it is sold and it is subject to the 1250 25% recapture tax. If there is actual depreciation over straight-line, that is subject to 1245 rules which would be ordinary income.

1446
Q

what year class are computers under MACRS?

A

5 year class

1447
Q

what is the half year convention under MACRS?

A

in the year the asset is purchased, it is depreciated for 6 months no matter when it is actually bought. same thing for the year it is sold

1448
Q

generally a lessor will not be taxed on improvements made by a lessee unless:

A

the improvements are deducted from lease payments as a form of rental payments. if the improvement serve as a substitute for rental payments, then it is fully taxable to the lessor

1449
Q

if you are the beneficiary of a life insurance policy which is collateral for someone who owes you money, how is it taxed?

A

only the amount that you get paid above what you are owed is taxable. If they owe you 100k and the policy pays you out 120k, then the 20k is taxable

1450
Q

prepaid rental income is taxable when received unless:

A

unless it is potentially refundable

1451
Q

how much of a capital loss can be deducted in one year for individuals?

A

3000- anything more than that is carried forward as a STCL.

1452
Q

for interest on a series EE bond to be deductible, the person you spend it on must be:

A

a dependent of yours

1453
Q

how are gambling gains and losses treated?

A

gambling winnings are included in gross income. Gambling losses DO NOT offset gambling winnings- they are deducted from AGI as a misc itemized deduction limited to the amount of gambling winnings

1454
Q

formula for casualty losses:

A

you take the lesser of the decline in the property because of the casualty or the adjusted basis in the propertythen you deduct any insurance reimbursementsthen you have a disallowance of $100then you deduct 10% of your AGI for the yearThat leaves you with the casualty loss you’re allowed

1455
Q

how much of the self employment tax is allowed as a deduction FOR AGI? what form does it go on?

A

one half. it would go on the form 1040

1456
Q

are insurance premiums on property for personal use deductible?

A

no

1457
Q

what is the rule about deducting the either sales tax or state income taxes paid?

A

you can deduct the greater of sales taxes paid or state income taxes paid

1458
Q

are estimated federal tax payments deductible on the tax return?

A

no

1459
Q

what is a schedule A?

A

itemized deductions

1460
Q

where are tax preparer fees listed on a tax return?

A

it is a schedule A itemized item, even if the person earned all their money is from a schedule C sole proprietorship

1461
Q

are personal life insurance premiums deductible?

A

no- they are considered a personal expense

1462
Q

how is an interest forfeiture penalty for making an early withdrawal from a certificate of deposit treated?

A

it is deductible on page 1 of the 1040 to arrive at AGI

1463
Q

are estimated state income taxes deductible?

A

yes- fully deductible as an itemized deduction schedule A

1464
Q

are real estate taxes on a principal residence deductible?

A

yes- fully deductible as an itemized deduction schedule A

1465
Q

how is an expenditure made for medical reasons that improves a residence treated for tax purposes?

A

it is an itemized deduction subject to a 7.5% of AGI threshold to the amount of the cost over the value it added to the home. If the cost was 10k and it increased the home’s value by 8k, then 2k is deductible.

1466
Q

are health insurance premiums deductible?

A

they are an itemized sched A deduction subject to a 7.5% AGI threshold

1467
Q

how are unreimbursed employee expenses treated?

A

misc itemized deduction on sched A subject to a 2% of AGI threshold

1468
Q

in a partnership distribution- when is gain recognized?

A

only when cash exceeds the basis in the partnership interest

1469
Q

for the repair of a rare book, if the first price agreed upon is 450 but additional repairs are needed and the price goes up to 600, is that binding?

A

yes because the repair of the book is a service, and additional repairs equate to additional consideration, the increase in price is binding

1470
Q

under the UCC how much of a deposit can a seller keep if the buyer defaults?

A

the lesser of $500 or 20% of the purchase price- even if there was no liquidated damages clause

1471
Q

if you get assigned a partnership interest, do you get to share in profits and management?

A

you get the share of the profits, but you don’t get to participate in management unless the other partners agree

1472
Q

if you put equipment into a corp worth 20k, you have basis of 6k, and it has a liability of 12k, how much gain do you recognize?

A

you recognize the amount of liability over your basis that you’re relieved of. So you had a 12k liability with basis of 6k, so your gain is 6k.

1473
Q

what basis does a corp take in land contributed by an owner?

A

it takes the owner’s basis plus any gain the owner recognized on the transaction.If an owner contributes land with 40k of basis but the corp gives him 10k in cash, the corp’s basis in the property is 50k

1474
Q

for corporations, how long is goodwill amortized?

A

amortized over 15 years

1475
Q

how are premiums paid on a key-person life insurance policy treated on an M-1?

A

they reduce book income but not taxable income

1476
Q

how are corporate NOLs treated?

A

you can carry them back two years and ahead 20 years

1477
Q

for a corp, are life insurance premiums paid for its executives as part of their taxable compensation deductible to the corp?

A

yes, they are fully deductible

1478
Q

is interest expense on a loan used to purchase municipal bonds deductible?

A

since the loan is used to purchase bonds that generate tax-exempt income, the interest expense is NOT deductible

1479
Q

is interest on municipal arbitrage bonds and interest on US treasury notes taxable to a corp?

A

yes- both are taxable.

1480
Q

how long do you have to own a stock to qualify for dividends received deduction?

A

45 days

1481
Q

is a dividend received deduction allowed on a REIT investment?

A

no

1482
Q

what amount of a net capital loss can a corp deduct in one year?

A

none- capital losses are only used to offset capital gains. they can be carried back 3 years and forward 5

1483
Q

is interest on funds borrowed for working capital deductible?

A

yes.

1484
Q

which of these are qualified organizational expenses for a corporate startup:-legal fees-state incorporation fees-commissions paid to broker on sale of stock

A

only the state incorporation fees and the legal fees. the broker fees aren’t deductible at all.

1485
Q

for a corp, how long can you carry forward excess charitable contributions?

A

up to five years

1486
Q

for dividends rec deduction questions, when the income is a net loss:

A

make sure to deduct it from the income amount before applying the DRD.-20k in net income with 200k of 25% owned dividends = a DRD of 80% against 180k - NOT 200k

1487
Q

difference in startup costs for a corp and organization costs for a corp?

A

nothing really- they are separate and each have the 5k rule but they are different. organization costs and startup costs are NOT lumped together

1488
Q

dividends received deduction limits:

A

0-20%: deduct 70%21-80%: deduct 80%81-100%: deduct 100%

1489
Q

how does the corporate AMT small corp exemption work?

A

In the first year of a corp’s existence it is automatically exempt from AMT.Year 2’s test is the gross receipts from year one.If year one’s gross receipts exceed 5million, then the corp is NOT exempt from AMT in year 2.Once the small corp test is failed, the corp is NOT exempt for all future tax years.The general test is 7,500,000- the above 5million test is for NEW corps.

1490
Q

what is the AMT exemption regarding 40k?

A

the exemption is 40k minus 25% of the AMT income exceeding 150k.If you have 200k of AMT income then 50k applies to the exemption. That would be 40k - (50k x .25) which equals 27,500

1491
Q

what is the federal acc earnings tax credit and how does it work?

A

it gives corps 250k to lower its income subject to the acc earnings tax, plus any dividends or fed income taxes paid.If your corp had 400k in taxable income and it paid 100k in tax, you then subtract the credit of 250k from the remaining 300k- this leaves you with 50k that is subject to the acc earnings tax

1492
Q

when would a corp want to distribute land instead of cash?

A

if the land is appreciated then the corp would have to pay tax on the appreciation.the amount of dividend income is the same either way to the shareholder

1493
Q

how do noncorporate shareholders treat gains on a redemption of stock that qualifies as a partial liquidation?

A

entirely as a capital gain

1494
Q

what is a B reorg?

A

stock for stock, and only the voting stock of the acquiring firm is permitted

1495
Q

what is a type a reorg?

A

a statutory merger- target ceases to exist, but target shareholders now own stock in acquiring corp

1496
Q

what is a type c reorg?

A

acquisition of “substantially all” of the assets of the target solely in exchange for voting stock of the acquiring corp

1497
Q

accrual based corps can deduct all or part of charitable contributions paid after the year end of its tax year if the contribution is paid within the first ____ months after the end of the tax year

A

2 and 1/2 months.if the board approved 300k to be donated on jan 31st of the next year, the corp can deduct the maximum amount this year.

1498
Q

are S corps eligible to be in an affiliated group?

A

NO

1499
Q

when you contribute cash and property to a partnership in exchange for a partnership interest, how is your basis in the partnership calculated?

A

Your cash gives you basis in the amount of the cash.You take your basis in the land you contributeLESS a mortgage on itADD back your % of the partnership in the mortgageADD your % of recourse liabilitiesThe sum of these equal your basis

1500
Q

if you contribute property and services to gain an interest in a partnership, how is your basis determined?

A

you get your basis in the land plus basis equal to the value of the services contributed. BUT- you must recognize wage income for the services provided- that’s what gives you tax basis

1501
Q

if you contribute services to get a partnership interest, do you use the % of net assets or the % of the assets FMV of the partnership?

A

you use the fair market value of the partnership to determine the amount of ordinary income you recognize

1502
Q

what depreciation method do partnerships use?

A

the partnership elects the method to use, but it has to be an approved method by the IRS

1503
Q

if a partnership sells depreciable property at a gain in excess of the depreciation allowed on the property:

A

then it will be treated partly as a 1231 gain and partly as ordinary income

1504
Q

for tax purposes, what will cause an end to a partnership?

A

a partnership terminates when it no longer does business as a partnership or if 50% or more interest in partnership capital and profits is exchanged within 12 months.

1505
Q

when a partner sells his interest, what are the tax consequences?

A

if the partnership has unrealized receivables or substantially appreciated inventory, then the partner will recognize ordinary income on his share.Also, whatever cash amount the partner sells his interest for is taxable, plus a gain in the amount of liabilities that he is no longer responsible for.

1506
Q

once an S corps status is revoked or terminated, how long does it have to wait before making a new S election?

A

five years