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Dietetics Flashcards

1
Q

When you check overrun, you are checking:

A

c. The weight of ice cream

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2
Q

What is the process by which the water content of a vegetable is replaced by a concentrated salt solution?

A

c. diffusion

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3
Q

Which recipe ingredient should be adjusted if a cake has a crunch crust and compact moist texture?

a. milk
b. flour
c. sugar
d. baking powder

A

c. sugar

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4
Q

Why do egg whites beat more easily at room temperature?

A

C. The surface tension is lower

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5
Q

Which pigment does not change color in an acid or an alkaline solution?

A

C. Carotenoid

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6
Q

The end products of cellular oxidation are:

A

A. Water, carbon dioxide, energy

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7
Q

Carbohydrates listed in order of decreasing sweetness are:

A. Fructose, glucose, sucrose, sorbitol
B. Sucrose, glucose, fructose, sorbitol
C. Fructose, sucrose, glucose, sorbitol
D. Sorbitol,fructose, sucrose, glucose

A

C. Fructose, sucrose, glucose, sorbitol

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8
Q

The flakiness of pie crust depends on:

A

A. Type of fat

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9
Q

Why do egg whites beat more easily at room temperature?

A

c. the surface tension is lower

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10
Q

The end products of cellular oxidation are:

A

a. water, carbon dioxide, energy

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11
Q

Carbohydrates listed in order of decreasing sweetness are:

a. fructose, glucose, sucrose, sorbitol
b. sucrose, glucose, fructose, sorbitol
c. fructose, sucrose, glucose, sorbitol
d. sorbitol, fructose, sucrose, glucose

A

c. fructose, sucrose, glucose, sorbitol

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12
Q

The flakiness of pie crust depends on:

a. type of fat
b. oxidation of fat
c. Temperature of the fat
d. oven temperature

A

a. type of fat

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13
Q

If the sole source of protein is gelatin, growth is inhibited because:

a. gelatin has no tryptophan and is low in methionine and lysine
b. gelatin has no methionine and is low in tryptophan
d. gelatin has no arginine

A

a. gelatin has no tryptophan and is low in methionine and lysine

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14
Q

A #10 can holds how many cups of product?

A

b. 13 cups

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15
Q

If you replace half and half with whipping cream in ice cream, the effects on the ice crystals will be:

a. an increase in size because there is less fat
b. a decrease in size because there is more fat
c. no change
d. an increase in size because there is more fat

A

b. a decrease in size because there is more fat

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16
Q

Fat produces more calories than carbohydrates because:

A

a. fat has more carbon and hydrogen in relation to oxygen

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17
Q

Research has shown that neural tube defects can be reduced with proper supplementation of:

A

b. folic acid

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18
Q

The best laboratory value to use in assessing iron status is:

A

c. ferritin

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19
Q

Which is the best flour to use when making cakes

A

b. all-purpose flour

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20
Q

Where is lactose absorbed?

a. small intestine
b. stomach
c. pancreas
d. liver

A

a. small intestine

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21
Q

Considering the following smoke points of various fats, which would be the best to use for frying?

a. 300 degrees F
b. 325 degrees F
c. 375 degrees F
d. 400 degrees F

A

d. 400 degrees F

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22
Q

Which minerals are involved in carbohydrate metabolism?

A

b. chromium, zinc

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23
Q

Acidic chyme becomes neutralized in the duodenum by:

a. mixing with bicarbonate and fluids
b. mixing with alkaline intestinal enzymes
c. mixing with sodium and potassium
d. mixing with bile

A

a. mixing with bicarbonate and fluids

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24
Q

The colon functions in the absorption of:

A

c. water, salts, vitamin K, thiamin, riboflavin

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25
Q

To prevent frozen gravy from separating when thawed:

a. reheat slowly and stir constantly
b. thaw it before heating ans stir constantly
c. prepare it with modified starch
d. cook it longer before freezing to stabilize the gravy

A

c. prepare it with modified starch

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26
Q

How much fluid is lost through insensible losses?

A

b. 1 liter

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27
Q

An amino acid that canot be produced by the body is:

A

d. tyrptophan

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28
Q

The following is an irreversible reaction:

a. pyruvic acid into lactic acid
b. pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA
c. glucose-6-phospate into glycogen
d. glucose-6-phosphate into pyruvate

A

b. pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA

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29
Q

Riboflavin, thiamin and niacin are all involved in the:

a. metabolism of carbohydrate
b. metabolism of fat
c. metabolism of protein
d. products of amino acids

A

a. metabolism of carbohydrate

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30
Q

An increased plasma pyruvate level is an indication of:

a. iron deficiency
b. riboflavin deficiency
c. excess carbohydrate ingestion
d. thiamin deficiency

A

d. thiamin deficiency

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31
Q

What stabilizes an egg white foam?

A

a. an acid

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32
Q

Winterized oil is:

A

b. clear when refrigerated

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33
Q

What may cause EKG abnormalities?

a. high serum potassium level
b. low serum potassium level
c. low serum sodium level
d. high serum sodium level

A

a. high serum potassium level

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34
Q

In the fed state, the brain uses which nutrient as a source of energy?

A

c. glucose

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35
Q

In starvation, the brain uses which nutrient as an energy source?

A

d. ketone bodies

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36
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the:

A

b. creation of glucose from glycerol and amino acids

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37
Q

Glycolysis is the:

a. catabolism of carbohydrate
b. creation of glucose from glycerol and amino acids
c. breakdown of glycogen releasing glucose
d. creation of glycogen

A

a. catabolism of carbohydrate

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38
Q

Glycogenolysis is the:

A

c. breakdown of glycogen releasing glucose

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39
Q

The end product of aerobic glycolysis is:

A

b. pyruvic acid

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40
Q

Protein-bound iodine (PBI) measures:

a. nutritional status
b. toxic levels of iodine
c. deficiency of epinephrine
d. level of thyroxine being produced

A

d. level of thyroxine being produced

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41
Q

The hormone epinephrine:

a. lowers blood glucose during catabolic stress
b. raises blood glucose during catabolic stress
c. is secreted from the pituitary gland
d. stimulates glycogen production

A

b. raises blood glucose during catabolic stress

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42
Q

A provitamin is:

A

a. a nutrient than can be converted into a vitamin

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43
Q

The formula for producing the active form of vitamin D is:

a. vitamin D3 converting into 7-dehydrocholesterol
b. erosterol converting into calciferol
c. cholesterol converting into calciferol
d. 7-dehydrocholesterol converting into cholecalciferol

A

d. 7-dehydrocholesterol converting into cholecalciferol

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44
Q

In the human, vitamin K is affected by:

a. anticoagulants and antibiotics
b. iodine
c. water-soluble vitamins
d. gluten

A

a. anticoagulants and antibiotics

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45
Q

Which hormone regulates calcium levels?

A

c. parathyroid

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46
Q

Pyridoxine acts as a coenzyme in:

a. iron transfer
b. deamination and transamination
c. fat transfer through the lymphatic system
d. osmotic pressure of body fluid

A

b. deamination and transamination

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47
Q

Which of the following are synthesized by intestinal bacteria?

a. biotin, pantothenic acid, vitamin K
b. vitamin E, vitamin K, biotin
c. pyridoxine, vitamin E
d. ascorbic acid, pyridioxine, vitamin K

A

a. biotin, pantothenic acid, vitamin K

Biotin- coenzyme in FA synthesis, converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis
Pantothenic acid- Coenzyme A-energy synthesis of FAs
Vitamin K-Forms prothrombin in liver: aids blood clotting. Given pre-surgery. calcium metabolism

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48
Q

Ascorbic acid aids in healing. Which of the following applies?

a. collagen –> hydroxyproline
b. proline –> hydroxyproline –> collagen
c. hydroxyproline –> proline –> collagen
d. hydroxyproline –> collagen

A

b. proline –> hydroxyproline –> collagen

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49
Q

Biotin is considered a coenzyme in the synthesis of:

A

d. fatty acids

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50
Q

Food iron is in the ______form.

A

a. ferric

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51
Q

Food iron is reduced in the stomach to the more absorbable form of:

A

b. ferrous

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52
Q

Which would aid the absorption of an iron supplement?

a. cow’s milk
b. orange juice, hamburger
c. milk, eggs, cheese
d. dates, eggs

A

b. orange juice, hamburger

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53
Q

Bile is produced in the _______and stored in the _________.

A

a. liver, gallbladder

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54
Q

Cholecystokinin causes:

a. contraction of the gallbladder
b. peristalsis
c. secretion of pancretic juice
d. contraction of the liver

A

a. contraction of the gallbladder

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55
Q

Which enzymes are involved in protein digestion?

a. ptyalin, lipase, sucrase
b. amylase, lipase, trypsin
c. pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase
d. trypsin, lipase, amylase

A

c. pepsin, tyrpsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase

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56
Q

Protein digestion begins in the:

A

b. stomach

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57
Q

Which conversion requires glucose-6-phosphatase?

a. glucose into liver glycogen
b. glucose into pyruvic acid
c. pyruvic acid into lactic acid
d. liver glycogen into glucose

A

d. liver glycogen into glucose

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58
Q

Which enzymes are secreted by the
pancreas?
a. amylase, lipase, cholesterol esterase, trypsin, chymotrypsin
b. sucrose, maltase, lactase, aminopeptidase
c. ptylaln
d. aminopeptidase, dipeptidase

A

a. amylase, lipase, choesterol esterase, trypsin, chymotrypsin

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59
Q

Lactase is produced in the:

A

b. small intestine

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60
Q

NADPH is:

a. essential in the synthesis of fatty acids
b. essential in the synthesis of glycogen
c. involved in the catabolism of protein
d. essential in transamiation

A

a. essential in the synthesis of fatty acids

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61
Q

The following are required for the conversion of pyruvic acid into active acetate?

a. thiamin, NAD, oxaloacetic acid, magnesium
b. oxygen, pantothenic acid, vitamin E
c. thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, pantothenic acid, magnesium
d. pantothenic acid, oxaloacetate, citric acid

A

c. thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, pantothenic acid, magnesium

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62
Q

Which vitamin acts as a coenzyme in transamination?

a. pyridoxine
b. thiamin
c. riboflavin
d. vitamin B12

A

a. pyridoxine

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63
Q

Glucocorticoids:

a. convert glucose into protein
b. convert fatty acids into glucose
c. convert glucose into fat
d. convert protein into glucose

A

c. convert glucose into fat

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64
Q

Glucocorticoids:

a. thyroid hormones
b. pituitary hormones
c. adrenal hormones
d. parathyroid hormones

A

d. parathyroid hormones

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65
Q

Dietary fat enters the blood as ____ and leaves the liver as_____.

a. phospholipids, chylomicrons
b. chylomicrons, phospholipids
c. chylomicrons, lipoproteins
d. lipoproteins, chylomicrons

A

c. chylomicrons, lipoproteins

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66
Q

The oxidation of fatty acids forms:

a. acetyl CoA
b. pyruvic acid
c. lactic acid
d. oxaloacetate

A

a. acetyl CoA

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67
Q

The best way to monitor an infants failure to thrive is to plot:

a. weight for length
b. length for age
c. weight
d. weight for age

A

a. wieght for length

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68
Q

Which of the following can be reversed with vitamin A?

a. xerophthamlia
b. nyctalopia
c. Wilsons disease
d. homocysteinuria

A

b. nyctalopia (night blindness)

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69
Q

Fresh meat contamination comes mainly from:

a. botulism
b. staphylococcus
c. clostridium
d. salmonella

A

d. salmonella

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70
Q

Which amino acids must be present in a parenteral solution?

a. valine, leucine, glycine, alanine
b. tryptophan, phenylalanine, threonine, isoleucine
c. phenylalanine, methionine, arginine, tryosine
d. lysine, glutamic acid, alanine, glycine

A

b. tryptophan, phenylalanine, threonine, isoleucine

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71
Q

Iron absorption is enhanced by:

a. acidic chyme in the duodenum
b. the alkalinity of the duodenum
c. oxalates and phytates
d. the absence of ascorbic acid

A

a. acidic chyme in the duodenum

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72
Q

Which of the following inhibits gluconeogenesis?

a. glycogen
b. insulin
c. catecholamines
d. glucocorticoids

A

b. insulin

gluconeogenesis-synthensis of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources

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73
Q

Which has the lowest cholesterol content?

a. peanut butter and crackers
b. yogurt with fruit
c. chocolate cake
d. Roast beef sandwich

A

a. peanut butter and crackers

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74
Q

What is the difference between cake flour and bread flour?

a. cake flour has less gluten, weaker gluten, less protein
b. bread flour has less glutein, weaker gluten less protein
c. cake flour has weaker gluten, but has more protein
c. bread flour has stronger gluten and less protein

A

a. cake flour has less gluten, weaker gluten, less protein

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75
Q

Vitamin A is involved in:

a. growth and development
b. blood clotting
c. growth of bones and teeth
d. development of tissue and skin

A

d. development of tissue and skin

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76
Q

A patient with metabolic alkalosis would have:

a. excess excretion of base through the kidneys
b. retention of base by the lungs
c. excretion of base by the lungs
d. retention of base by the kidneys

A

d. retention of base by the kidneys

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77
Q

Which foods should be washed just before serving?

a. plums and grapes
b. peaches and carrots
c. strawberries and mushrooms
d. apples and celery

A

c. strawberries and mushrooms

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78
Q

Which government agency inspects and grades meat?

A

c. USDA

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79
Q

If linoleic acid replaces carbohydrates in the diet:

A

a. LDL decreases, HDL increases

best source is safflower oil (mostly PUFA)

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80
Q

Which is not absorbed directly into the portal blood?

a. monosaccharides
b. amino acids
c. medium chained fatty acids
d. long chained fatty acids

A

d. long chained fatty acids

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81
Q

When substituting buttermilk for whole milk in pastry:

a. decrease the liquid
b. increase the baking soda
c. increase the amount of butter
d. increase the liquid

A

b. increase the baking soda

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82
Q

Ground meat will spoil faster than sliced meat because:

a. it has more enzyme activity
b. it has more fat
c. more surface area is exposed
d. it has less fat

A

c. more surface area is exposed

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83
Q

Evaporated milk has:

a. slightly more than half of the water removed
b. added sugar
c. a fat content of 3-6%
d. lactose removed

A

a. slightly more than half of the water removed

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84
Q

ketones are most associated with:

a. complex carbohydrates
b. simple sugars
c. fats
d. amino acids

A

c. fats

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85
Q

Which best describes sorbitol and glucose?

a. sorbitol is sweeter than glucose
b. they each provide 7 calories per gram
c. sorbitol is absorbed more slowly
d. they both covert into fructose

A

c. sorbitol is absorbed more slowly

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86
Q

What causes egg yolk color to change?

A

a. alteration of the feed provided

color of yolk depends on amount and type of pigment in hen’s diet

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87
Q

Which data is needed to convert weight into volume?

A

c. specific gravity

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88
Q

The tartness in fruits and vegetables is due to:

a. flavones
b. cholrophyll
c. anthoxanthins
d. tannins

A

d. tannins

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89
Q

When a white sauce tastes starchy and grainy, the likely cause is:

a. too much starch
b. improprer proportions of ingredients
c. starch was added before the fat melted
d. uncooked flour

A

d. uncooked flour

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90
Q

The scientific process b which water makes lettuce crisp is:

a. ostmotic pressure of water-filled vacoules
b. diffusion
c. transamination
d. water active diffusion

A

a. ostmotic pressure of water-filled vacoules

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91
Q

When analyzing correlations, when r=1:

a. there is a perfect coorelation frone one to the other
b. there is no coorelation among data presented
c. the data presented move in opposite directions
d. there is a weak coorelation among data presented

A

a. there is a perfect coorelation from one to the other

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92
Q

Which hormone greatly influences BMR?

a. the endocrine hormone
b. thyroxine
c. the growth hormone
d. insulin

A

b. thyroxine

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93
Q

If linoleic acid replaces saturated fat in the diet:

A

a. total cholesterol including HDL decrease

best source of linoleic acid is safflower oil
lack of creates eczema, poor growth rate, petechiae (red, purple skin spots)
NOTE: if linoleic acid replaces CHO: LDL decreases, and HDL increases

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94
Q

Which oil is highest in monounsaturated fatty acids?

a. olive
b. canola
c. peanut
d. sunflower

A

a olive oil

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95
Q

which oil is highest in saturated fat?

a. coconut
b. palm
c. cocoa butter
d. butter

A

a coconut oil

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96
Q

Which of the following may result in metabolic acidosis?

a. decreased retention of bicarbonate
b. decreased retention of hydrogen
c. decreased retention of chloride
d. increased retention of bicarbonate

A

a. decreased retention of bicarbonate

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97
Q

Examples of moist heat cooking include:

a. braising, stewing
b. grilling, frying
c. broiling, braising
d. steaming, frying

A

a. braising, stewing

used for less tender cuts with more connective tissue (bottom round, chuck, brisket)

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98
Q

Dry heat cookery should be used for which cut of meat?

a. shoulder
b. neck
c. brisket
d. near the backbone

A

d. near the backbone (loin, sirloin)

dry heat used for tender cuts of meat

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99
Q

What color do onions turn when cooked in an aluminum pan?

a. purple
b. blue
c. red
d. yellow

A

d. yellow

colorless in acid, yellow in alkaline

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100
Q

Which cooking method would best covert collagen to gelatin in a bottom round roast?

a. grilling it to medium rare
b. braising
c. broiling
d. searing

A

b. braising

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101
Q

Which method of bread-making is not as dependent on the length of time the dough sits to rise?

a. straight dough method
b. sponge dough method
c. continous method
d. prime bake method

A

c. continuous method

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102
Q

Which nutrient is added for flour enrichment?

A

d. iron

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103
Q

What does the term “USDA graded” on meat tell the consumer?

a. it assures wholesomeness
b. it was free of disease at time of slaugher
c. The meat if fit for human consumption
d. it defines quality

A

d. it defines quality

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104
Q

A cake with a fallen center may be the results of:

a. too little fat
b. too little sugar
c. excess sugar and excess fat
d. too little baking powder

A

c. excess sugar and excess fat

other possibilities: excess baking powder, inadequate mixing, oven temp too low, open dorr during early baking

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105
Q

Which of the following has the least amount of saturated fat?

a. 2% milk
b. half and half
c. non-dairy creamer
d. evaporated skim milk

A

d. evaporated skim milk

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106
Q

Coarse texture in a cake can be due to what?

A

too much baking powder or sugar, oven temp too low, inadequate mixing

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107
Q

Nitrogen equilibrium is associated with:

a. a 25 year old pregnant female
b. a 25 year old male
c. a 15 year old girl
d. a 4 year old child

A

b. a 25 year old male

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108
Q

Childrens diets are found to be low in iron due to emphasis on what?

A

b. milk

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109
Q

Which mineral is involved in blood clotting?

A

a. calcium

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110
Q

Which of the following is true regarding flour?

a. all purpose flour is made from soft wheat
b. all purpose flour has more protein than bread flour
c. cake flour has the least and weakest gluten
d. cake flour las less starch than bread flour

A

c. cake flour has the least and weakest gluten

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111
Q 
The main function of glycolsis is to provide:
a . pyruvate for the TCA cycle
b. lactic acid for energy use by muscles
c. muscle and liver glycogen
d. a substrate for the Cori cycle
A

a. pyruvate for the TCA cycle

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112
Q

Food service emplyees should wash their hands for at least:

A

c. 20 seconds

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113
Q

Metabolites of the Krebs cycle are:

A

a. water, energy, carbon dioxide

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114
Q

Meat graded “US Standard” is the grade given when?

A

d. time of slaughter

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115
Q

Which of the following substitutions will most decrease the sodium content of a biscuit?
I. low sodium milk for whole milk
II. egg substitute for egg
III low sodium baking powder

a. I
b. I, II
c. all of the above
d. I, III

A

d. I, III

low sodium milk for whole milk and low sodium baking powder

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116
Q

Which pasta contains egg?

A

a. noodles

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117
Q

A patient who is iron-deficient should consume ___ with a good iron source.

a. apple juice
b. orange juice
c. milk
d. cheese

A

b. orange juice

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118
Q

A serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L indicates:

a. sepsis
b. dehydration
c. hypertension
d. hyperglycemia

A

b. dehydration

Normal range of sodium: 136-145 mEq/L
A serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L indicates hypernatremia. Hypernatremia can cause significant neurological, endocrine, and cardiac disturbances because the increase serum sodium causes intracellular water to diffuse into the extracellular spaces resulting in dehydration at the cellular level.

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119
Q

Cabbage should be cooked:

a. covered
b. in a small amount of water
c. in a large quantity of water
d. covered in a small amount of water

A

c. in a large quantity of water

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120
Q

To decrease sodium intake, substitute:

a. carrots for celery
b. unsalted margarine for regular margarine
c. diet margarine for regular margarine
d. carrots for pepper

A

b. unsalted margarine for regular margarine

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121
Q

Apples stored in a controlled environment would:

a. ripen quickly
b. last one to two years
c. have extended life and improved marketing quality
d. only be used as processed fruit

A

c. have extended life and improved marketing quality

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122
Q

The following oils can be winterized:

a. corn, soy, cottonseed
b. olive, corn, soy
c. cottonseed, olive
d. olive, corn

A

a. corn, soy, cottonseed

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123
Q

Which would you give to a person who is mildly hypokalemic?

a. 1 cup blueberries
b. 1 cup cranberries
c. 1/2 cup applesauce
d. 1 piece of cantaloupe

A

d. 1 piece of cantaloupe

Normal potassium: 3.5-5 mEq/L
Potassium sources: meat, fruits, vegetables (banana, orange, tomato, potato, cantaloupe)

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124
Q

A serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L is a sign of:

a. very high sodium intake
b. very low sodium intake
c. hyponatremia
d. hypernatremia

A

d. hypernatremia

Normal range of sodium: 136-145 mEq/L

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125
Q

To increase potassium intake, consume a snack of:

a. cheese and crackers, plums, cranberry juice
b. a bagel, milk and an apple
c. a grilled cheese and tomato sandwich with strawberries
d. tuna salad, a wheat roll, and a cola

A

c. a grilled cheese and tomato sandwich with strawberries

Normal potassium: 3.5-5 mEq/L
Potassium sources: meat, fruits, vegetables (banana, orange, tomato, potato, cantaloupe)

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126
Q

If protein intake is doubled, which nutrient needs to be increased?

a. pyridoxine
b. folic acid
c. niacin
d. vitamin C

A

a. pyridoxine

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127
Q

The level of significance of test results is measured using the p value. Which of the following represents the most significant factor?

a. < 0.0002
b. < 0.002
c. <0.02
d. < 0.20

A

a. < 0.0002

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128
Q

The Cori cycle converts:

a. glucose into galactose
b. lactate into pyruvate
c. lactic acid into glycogen
d. glycogen into glucose

A

b. lactate into pyruvate

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129
Q

Fats high in monounsaturated fatty acids include:

a. olive and canola
b. safflower and corn
c. coconut and palm
d. soy and peanut

A

a. olive and canola

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130
Q

Fats high in polyunsaturated fatty acids include:

a. olive and canola
b. safflower and corn
c. coconut and palm
d. soy and peanut

A

b. safflower and corn

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131
Q

Green beans cooked in tomato sauce turn___ due to _____.

a. bright green; chlorophyllin
b. olive green; pheophytin
c. brown; carotenoids
d. black; anthoxanthins

A

b. olive green; pheophytin

Pigment: green, due to chlorophyll
olive green in acid (pheopyhtin), bright green in alkaline (chlorophyllin)

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132
Q

If you are on a low phosphorus diet, what food should you most avoid?

a. yogurt
b. orange juice
c. beef
d. bread

A

a. yogurt

Sources: meat, milk, poultry, eggs, fish, cheese

133
Q

A 5-month-old is diagnosed with salmonella. What is likely the cause?

a. fruit juice
b. milk
c. table food
d. evaporated milk

A

c. table food

134
Q

An 8-month-old baby contracts botulism. What is the likely cause?

a. cereal and evaporate milk
b. cereal and honey
c. cereal and table food
d. cereal and fruit juice

A

b. cereal and honey

135
Q

Which is the best source of emulsification?

a. eggs
b. milk
c. salt
d. flour

A

a. eggs

136
Q

The kidneys respond to respiratory acidosis by:

a. increasing the secretion of magnesium
b. exchanging sodium for calcium
c. increasing the retention of bicarbonate
d. exchanging potassium for hydrogen

A

c. increasing the retention of bicarbonate

137
Q

A serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L may be due to:

a. an increase in the intake of sodium-rich foods
b. decreased steroid formation
c. an increased level of aldosterone
d. a decrease in the intake of sodium-rich foods

A

c. an increased level of aldosterone

normal sodium range: 136-145 mEq/L

Aldosterone is a hormone that plays a big role in keeping your blood pressure in check.
Aldosterone balances the levels of sodium and potassium in your body. It signals to your organs, like your colon and kidneys, to put more sodium into your bloodstream or release more potassium into your pee.

Your adrenal glands, which are just above your kidneys, actually release the hormone.

When the level of aldosterone in your body is out of whack, it could lead to other health issues, including damage to your heart, brain, and kidneys.

138
Q

Green peas held on the serving line may turn olive green due to:

a. pheophytin
b. chlorophyllin
c. anthoxanthins
d. flavones

A

a. pheophytin

139
Q

In cereal production, enrichment adds:

a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. iron
d. iodine

A

c. iron

140
Q

Cured meat is pink due to:

a. sugar
b. salt
c. vinegar
d. nitrites

A

d. nitrites

141
Q

A serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L may be due to:

a. over-hydration
b. dehydration
c. a very high sodium intake
d. a sodium intake of 5.5 grams per day

A

a. over-hydration

serum sodium is the BEST assessment parameter for fluid status. Hypernatremia is associated with dehydration. Hyponatremia is associated with over-hydration.

142
Q

Butter has fatty acids in this order of predominance:

a. PUFA, MUFA, SFA
b. SAT, MUFA, PUFA
c. MUFA, SAT, PUFA
d. MUFA, PUFA, SAT

A

b. SAT, MUFA, PUFA

143
Q

Margarine has fatty acids in this order of predominance:

a. PUFA, MUFA, SAT
b. SAT, MUFA, PUFA
c. MUFA, SAT, PUFA
d. MUFA, PUFA, SAT

A

A. PUFA, MUFA, SAT

144
Q

Lactic acid is produced through:

a. glycolysis
b. gluconeogenesis
c. glycogenesis
d. lactolysis

A

a. glycolysis

Anaerobic glycolysis (Cori cycle) is a metabolic pathway involving the transformation of glucose to pyruvate and the further conversion of pyruvate to lactate, in the absence of oxygen.

145
Q

Which of the following amino acids is a precursor for serotonin?

a. phyenylalanine
b. methionine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine

A

c. tryptophan

Serotonin is a NT. Low levels increase carbohdyrate appetite.

Serotonin is synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan by a short metabolic pathway consisting of two enzymes. First, tryptophan is converted to 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP) by the tryptophan hydroxylase. In a second step, 5-HTP is converted to serotonin (5-HT) by the enzyme aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

146
Q

When on Dicumarol, avoid increasing your intake of:

a. spinach
b. beets
c. corn
d. beef

A

a. spinach

common brand name drug used: Coumadin
It is an oral anticoagulant that interferes with the metabolism of vitamin K (aids in blood clotting).

Vitamin K rich foods: spinach, kale, broccoli, green, leafy vegetables

147
Q

If there is not enough oxaloacetic acid available to the TCA cycle:

a. pyruvic acid cannot be converted to acetyl CoA
b. glucose-6-phosphate cannot be converted to pyruvic acid
c. acetyl CoA coming in from fat cannot be handled properly
d. glycogen cannot be converted back to glucose-6-phosphate

A

c. acetyl CoA coming in from fat cannot be handled properly

if there is not enough oxaloacetate available to form citrate, the rate of acetyl CoA metabolism, and hence the rate of formation of ATP, will slow down.

148
Q

Energy expenditure of humans can be measured by:

a. heat intake
b. food intake
c. nitrogen output
d. oxygen consumption

A

d. oxygen consumption (most accurate)

Energy expenditure can be estimated by measuring macronutrient or oxygen consumption, or heat production or carbon dioxide production.

Most measurement approaches in use today involve the measurement of oxygen consumption and/or production of carbon dioxide via indirect calorimetry.

149
Q

Gastric proteolysis requires:

a. pyridoxine
b. ascorbic acid
c. hydrochloric acid
d. the intrinsic factor

A

c. hydrochloric acid

Proteolysis is the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or amino acids

150
Q

Patients with early signs of xerophthalmia should consume:

a. chicken, fish, summer squash
b. liver, milk, eggs
c. oatmeal, almonds, berries
d. high fiber cereals, salad greens

A

b. liver, milk, eggs

Xerophthalmia is a progressive eye disease caused by vitamin A deficiency. Lack of vitamin A can dry out your tear ducts and eyes. Xerophthalmia can develop into night blindness or more serious damage to your cornea, the outer layer of your eye. This damage may take the form of white spots on your eyes and ulcers on your corneas.

Foods high in vitamin A: yellow, orange fruits, dark green leafy vegetables, cantaloupe, fish, liver, carrots, fortified skim milk, apricots, sweet potato

151
Q

Sorbitol is:

a. less sweet than sucrose and has a lower glycemic index than sucrose
b. less sweet than sucrose and has a higher glycemic index than sucrose
c. sweeter than sucrose
d. sweeter than sucrose and has a lower glycemic response than sucrose

A

a. less sweet than sucrose and has a lower glycemic index than sucrose

152
Q

Which mineral is absorbed through the intestine and transported with ceruloplasmin in the blood?

a. copper
b. iodine
c. sodium
d. calcium

A

a. copper

In the bloodstream, copper is carried throughout the body by albumin, ceruloplasmin, and other proteins. The majority of blood copper (or serum copper) is bound to ceruloplasmin.

153
Q

The Schilling test detects defects in the absorption of:

a. folic acid
b. cyanocobalamin
c. pyridoxine
d. iron

A

b. cyanocobalamin

The Schilling test measures cobalamin absorption by assessing increased urine radioactivity after an oral dose of radioactive cobalamin. The test is useful in demonstrating that the anemia is caused by an absence of IF and is not secondary to other causes of cobalamin deficiency. It is also useful for identifying patients with classic pernicious anemia, even after they have been treated with vitamin B12.

154
Q

Which of the following should be avoided on a low sodium diet?

a. pork loin
b. turkey roll
c. beef sirloin
d. lamb chop

A

b. turkey roll

155
Q

What is the effect of excess caffeine intake?

a. insomnia
b. nausea
c. bloating
d. weight gain

A

a. insomnia

156
Q

The toxic level of vitamin A has been identified as:

a. 5000 IU
b. 10000 IU
c. 15000 IU
d. 20000 IU

A

b. 10000 IU

Vitamin A needs:
M: 900 ug (micrograms) RE
F: 700 ug RE

157
Q

How many oranges are needed to produce one quart of juice?

A

a. 12 oranges

158
Q

The amino acid tryptophan can be converted into:

a. serotonin
b. catecholamines
c. phenylalanine
d. tyrosine

A

a. serotonin

159
Q

A muffin has long tunnels from top to bottom. Net time you make this recipe you should:

a. add more baking soda
b. avoid over-mixing the batter
c. add less butter
d. cook it for a shorter time

A

b. avoid over-mixing the batter

other problem with excess mixing:
loss of carbone dioxide, overdeveloped gluten

160
Q

Nitrites added to cured meats cause:

a. slightly salty taste
b. slightly sour taste
c. a slight pink color
d. a slightly brown color

A

c. a slight pink color

161
Q

Phenylalanine is a precursor for:

a. serotonin
b. catecholamines
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine

A

d. tyrosine

162
Q

Which cheese has the highest moisture content?

a. cheddar
b. swiss
c. mozzarella
d. gorgonzola

A

c. mozzarella

163
Q

Decreased levels of serotonin are associated with:

a. decrease in carbohydrate appetite
b. increase in carbohydrate appetite
c. decreased sensation of taste
d. increased sensation of taste

A

b. increase in carbohydrate appetite

164
Q

Carbohydrate, fat, and protein are all converted into:

a. pyruvic acid
b. acetyl CoA
c. oxaloacetic acid
d. ketoglutamic acid

A

b. acetyl CoA

165
Q

If energy needs increase, which vitamins are needed in higher amounts?

a. A, C, folate
b. A, C, thiamin
c. thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, pantothenic acid
d. pyridoxine, cyanocobalamin

A

c. thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, pantothenic acid

166
Q

How many mEq of sodium are in 1 gram of sodium?

a. 25
b. 43
c. 65
d. 110

A

b. 43

To convert sodium (Na) in mg to mEq you divide the value by the molecular weight of sodium (23 mg/mM). In this case for example, 157 mg of sodium equals 7 mEq.

167
Q

How can you preserve thiamin when cooking pork?

a. use the drippings after the fat has been removed
b. insert a meat thermometer and cook it to 145 degrees F in an oven at 325 degrees
c. increase the cooking temperature to lessen cooking time
d. add a small quantity of water during cooking

A

b. insert a meat thermometer and cook it to 145 degrees F in an oven at 325 degrees

168
Q

A good source of vitamin A for pre-school children would be:

a. grapes
b. watermelon
c. cantaloupe pieces
d. banana

A

c. cantaloupe pieces

169
Q

Which amino acid is especially glucogenic?

a. alanine
b. threonine
c. valine
d. methionine

A

a. alanine

A glucogenic amino acid is an amino acid that can be converted into glucose through gluconeogenesis.
In humans, the glucogenic amino acids are:
    Alanine
    Arginine
    Asparagine
    Aspartic acid
    Cysteine
    Glutamic acid
    Glutamine
    Glycine
    Histidine
    Methionine
    Proline
    Serine
    Valine

Amino acids that are both glucogenic and ketogenic (mnemonic “PITTT”):

    Phenylalanine
    Isoleucine
    Threonine
    Tryptophan
    Tyrosine

Only leucine and lysine are not glucogenic (they are only ketogenic).

170
Q

If carbohydrate intake is increased, which vitamin needs to be increased?

a. thiamin
b. niacin
c. riboflavin
d. pyridoxine

A

a. thiamin

thiamin, CoA [pantothenic acid], riboflavin, niacin, magnesium, lipoic acid- needed for metabolism

171
Q

The rate of oxidation of which branched-chain amino acid increases significantly during moderate exercise?

a. leucine
b. phenylalanine
c. tyrosine
d. threonine

A

a. leucine

172
Q

What should you do with leftover sliced beef from lunch?

a. throw it out
b. let the meat cool at room temp and then serve within 2 days
c. refrigerate immediately and then serve within 2 days
d. keep it in the warmer until dinner time

A

c. refrigerate immediately and then serve within 2 days

frig temperature below 40 degrees F

173
Q

A food is bacteria-safe if it is:

a. neutral and moist
b. neutral and dry
c. acidic and dry
d. acidic and moist

A

c. acidic and moist

174
Q 
French fries made from stored potatoes would have changes in:
I. taste II. appearance III. texture
a. I, II, III
b. II, III
c. I
d. I, III
A

a. I, II, III

175
Q

What percent of protein and fat converts to glucose?

a. 58% pro, 10% fat
b. 10% pro, 60% fat
c. 30% pro, 30% fat
d. 20% pro, 40% fat

A

a. 58% pro, 10% fat

176
Q

Excess amounts of zinc may lead to a deficiency of:

a. copper
b. magnesium
c. folate
d. cobalt

A

a. copper

Large doses of zinc prevent your digestive tract from absorbing copper from your diet, so regularly taking too much zinc depletes your body’s copper levels. Copper deficiency can lower your white blood cell count, putting you at increased risk of an infection, since white blood cells make up a part of your immune system. Low copper levels also negatively affect your red blood cells, preventing proper oxygen transport and causing anemia.

sources of zinc: meat, shellfish, eggs, dairy, legumes, nuts, seeds

177
Q

When adding bran to a flour mixture, what should be changed?

a. baking temperature
b. increase the fat and liquid
c. increase the oxidizing agent
d. increase the flour and liquid

A

d. increase the flour and liquid

178
Q

A food item provides 45 grams of carbohydrate, 10 grams of protein and 10 grams of fat. What percent of total calories comes from fat?

a. 34%
b. 29%
c. 23%
d. 20%

A

b. 29%

45 gm CHO x4= 180 cal
10 gm Pro x 4= 40 cal
10 gm Fat x 9= 90 cal
total cal= 310 cal
90/310=.29 x100= 29%
179
Q

Which of the following is a digestive enzyme secreted by the pancreas?

a. pepsin
b. amylase
c. lactase
d. maltase

A

b. amylase

protease, lipase, amylase

180
Q

Sugar tenderizes a baked good by:

a. absorbing some of the water that gluten needs
b. increasing the strength of the gluten
c. increasing the action of the leavening agent
d. staritng gluten development

A

a. absorbing some of the water that gluten needs

sugar is hygroscopic-modified texture by tenderizing. sugar sofen gluten and prevents gluten development by absorbing some of the water that gluten needs

181
Q

Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, pellagra are signs of:

a. riboflavin deficiency
b. thiamin deficiency
c. pyridoxine deficiency
d. niacin deficiency

A

d. Niacin deficiency

Males: 16 NE
Females: 14 NE
sources of niacin: protein, peanuts, ready-to-eat cereals, chicken, rice, yeast, milk

182
Q

What must be fortified with folic acid?

a. skim milk
b. cornmeal
c. orange juice
d. canned vegetables

A

b. cornmeal

the B vitamin folic acid will be added to enriched bread, flour, cornmeal, rice, pasta, and other grain products, according to a 1996 U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulation.

183
Q

Pie crust is moist the day after cooking. Why?

a. overcooking of the crust
b. retrogradation of filling
c. too much egg in the recipe
d. inadequate flour

A

b. retrogradation of filling

184
Q

What is the main purpose of water in the body?

a. it acts as a medium for cell metabolism
b. it helps transport calcium through cell membranes
c. it maintains electrolyte balance
d. to maintain body temperature

A

a. it acts as a medium for cell metabolism

Water in the human body plays an essential role by carrying carbohydrates and protein through the blood and eliminating excess salt, minerals, and other substances.

185
Q

What is fluid seeping from a congealed product called?

a. retrogradation
b. syneresis
c. coagulation
d. gelatinization

A

b. syneresis

Syneresis is the term that describes liquid oozing out of a large number of foods such as jams, jellies, sauces, dairy products, surimi and tomato juice, as well as meat and soybean products.

186
Q

Strict vegans may need supplements of:

a. chromium
b. zinc
c. iron
d. thiamin

A

b. zinc

Few plant foods actually contain zinc. Moreover, zinc absorption from some plant foods is limited due to their phytate content.

187
Q

The citric acid cycle occurs:

a. in the cytoplasm of the cell and produces energy as ATP
b. in the mitochondria and produces energy as ATP
c. in the cytoplasm of the cell and produces pyruvic and lactic acids
d. in the mitochondria and prouces pyruvic and lactic acids

A

b. in the mitochondria and produces energy as ATP

citric acid cycle produces 90% of bodys energy as ATP (also CO2 and water)
Full oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose yields 38 ATP

188
Q

Frozen chicken has been thawed in warm water. You should:

a. prepare it immediately
b. discard it
c. refreeze it
d. refrigerate it

A

b. discard it

Perishable foods should never be thawed on the counter or in hot water and must not be left at room temperature for more than two hours. There are safe ways to thaw food: in the refrigerator, in cold water, and in the microwave.

189
Q

When substituting butter for lard in pastry:

a. use the same amount
b. use less
c. use more
d. use less and decrease the water content

A

c. use more

190
Q

The purpose of an emulsifier in margarine is to:

a. keep water and fat from seperating
b. keep water and fat separated
c. sustain the natural flavor of the ingredients
d. retain the color

A

a. keep water and fat from seperating

191
Q

Which of the following must be reduced before it can be further transported for absorption?

a. dipeptides
b. whey
c. casein hydrolysate
d. crystalline amino acids

A

b. whey

192
Q

Adding bran to a bread recipe will:

a. increase the volume
b. decrease the volume
c. required an increase in oven temperature
d. require a decrease in oven temperature

A

b. decrease the volume

193
Q

An angel food cake is made without cream of tartar. What is the result?

a. a yellowy cake
b. a bright white cake
c. a cake with large volume
d. a very tender cake

A

a. a yellowy cake

194
Q

All baking powders contain:

a. sodium bicarbonate
b. tartrate
c. phosphate
d. acetate

A

a. sodium bicarbonate

195
Q

Beef bottom round should be cooked:

a. at a high temp for a short time
b. in water for an extended time
c. in dry heat
d. in moist heat for a short time

A

b. in water for an extended time

196
Q

Which of the following combines with CoA in two carbon fragments to make acetyl CoA to then enter the Krebs cycle to make energy?

a. lactic acid
b. fatty acids
c. glucose
d. fructose

A

b. fatty acids

197
Q

What is the best way to cook a roast?

a. sear the meat first, roast at 400degrees F
b. cook slowly in the oven at 325 degrees
c. cook it at 400 degrees F for 10 minutes, then at 350 degrees
d. brown the meat, then cook it at 350 degrees

A

b. cook slowly in the oven at 325 degrees

198
Q

If you are comparing the prevalence of heart disease in two states, the study design is:

a. analytical research
b. case control research
c. descriptive research
d. quasi-experimental

A

c. descriptive research

Descriptive research is mainly done when a researcher wants to gain a better understanding of a topic. That is, analysis of the past as opposed to the future. Descriptive research is the exploration of the existing certain phenomena.

199
Q

Which of the following has the most bacteria?

a. roast chicken
b. ground beef
c. roast veal
d. roast pork

A

b. ground beef

when beef is ground, bacteria from its surface are mixed throughout the meat as it is chopped into tiny pieces. That means ground beef—and all other ground meats, like ground chicken, turkey, pork or lamb, which are processed the same way—must be cooked all the way through in order to kill the bacteria.

200
Q

What is the product of pyruvate breakdown?

a. acetyl CoA
b. glycogen
c. NADPH
d. glucose-6-phosphate

A

a. acetyl CoA

201
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. fructose has sucrose
b. fructose is less concentrated than glucose
c. frustose takes longer to digest than glucose
d. fructose is sweeter than glucose

A

d. fructose is sweeter than glucose

202
Q

Infants should be given solid foods when?

A

a. 4-6 months

203
Q

Which of the following is a grade for fresh produce?

a. US select
b. US Grade 1
c. US No. 1
d. US standard

A

c. US No. 1

204
Q

What is the recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a women with a BMI of 28?

A

c. 15-25 pounds

205
Q

What gives the structure to quick breads?

a. flour and milk
b. flour and water
c. egg and flour
d. egg

A

c. egg and flour

206
Q

When taking an anticoagulant, avoid the following:

a. thiamin supplments
b. vitamin E supplements about 400 IU per day
c. supplements of calcium and vitamin D
d. niacin supplements

A

b. vitamin E supplements about 400 IU per day

Vitamin E, a fat soluble vitamin, may prevent blood clots from forming or may make the effects of prescription anticoagulants such as warfarin more powerful. Vitamin E in large doses may interfere with vitamin K, which helps blood clot

207
Q

What is the function of cream of tartar in a recipe?

a. prevents the Maillard reaction
b. enhances the Maillard reaction
c. increases alkalinity allowing for better leavening
d. enhances gelation

A

a. prevents the Maillard reaction

Maillard reaction is a chemical reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars that gives browned food its distinctive flavour. Seared steaks, pan-fried dumplings, cookies and other kinds of biscuits, breads, toasted marshmallows, and many other foods

208
Q

The flour with the most starch is:

a. cake
b. whole wheat
c. instantized
d. durum

A

a. cake

209
Q

In interpreting correlation data, if the r value is greater than 1:

a. the relationship is strong
b. the result is not valid
c. the relationship is weak
d. it is within 1 standard deviation

A

b. the result is not valid

210
Q

Homemade rolls are crumbly and fall apart easily. The most likely cause of the poor texture in the yeast bread is:

a. use of a high-protein flour
b. use of lower-protein flour
c. insufficient proofing time
d. excessive proofing time

A

b. use of lower-protein flour

211
Q

Replacing carbohydrate with fat in the diet will:

a. raise the respiratory quotient
b. lower the respiratory quotient
c. increase the respiratory rate
d. spare protein

A

b. lower the respiratory quotient

212
Q

A commercial muffin mix is described as a “rich formula”, which means it contains:

a. high proportions of sugar and shortening
b. high-fructose corn syrup instead of crystalline sugar
c. high amounts of whey insead of nonfat dry milk solids
d. more chemical leavening than is used in a “lean formula”

A

a. high proportions of sugar and shortening

213
Q

The greatest effect on the yield of meat cooked to a uniform internal temperature is produced by the:

a. type of oven and source of the heat
b. weight of meat and the oven load
c. degree of tempering and the grade of meat
d. cooking time and the oven temperature

A

d. cooking time and oven temperature

214
Q

In the quasi-experimental design “time series”, there is:

a. series of control groups
b. no control group
c. an experimental and a control group
d. a placebo group

A

b. no control group

215
Q

which of the following will stabilize the egg in the recipe?

a. a base
b. an acid
c. sugar
d. salt

A

b. an acid

216
Q

A natural plant hormone that is used to ripen fruits is:

a. methanol
b. ethylene
c. acetyl acid
d. ethanol

A

b. ethylene

217
Q

Aseptically packaged milk should be stored:

a. in dry storage
b. in the refrigerator
c. in the freezer
d. below 40 degrees

A

a. in dry storage

Aseptic processing is a processing technique wherein commercially thermally sterilized liquid products are packaged into previously sterilized containers under sterile conditions to produce shelf-stable products that do not need refrigeration.

218
Q

The sensitivity of a screening tool evaluates:

a. the proportion of non-afflicted individuals identified as non-afflicted
b. the consistency or reproducibility of test results
c. the proportion of afflicted individuals who tested positive
d. the amount of variation that occurs randomly within the population

A

c. the proportion of afflicted individuals who tested positive

219
Q

A processed food entree includes TVP which is used to:

a. add color
b. improve taste
c. retain water and add protein
d. act as an emulsifier

A

c. retain water and add protein

220
Q

If broccoli in a vegetable mixture turns olive green during holding it may be due to:

a. lemon juice
b. baking soda
c. salt
d. sugar

A

a. lemon juice (an acid)

221
Q

In the alanine cycle, alanine is released from muscle, taken up by the liver, and:

a. excreted in the urine
b. deaminated to release glucose
c. converted into adipose
d. oxidized to nitric acid

A

b. deaminated to release glucose

GLUCOSE/ALANINE CYCLE
Summary of the glucose/alanine cycle:

During extended periods of fasting (eg baby not feeding well, Ramadan fasting/puasa bulan Ramadhan), skeletal muscle is degraded as an alternative source of energy.
Alanine is the major amino acid present when muscle (protein) is degraded.
The glucose-alanine cycle occurs in skeletal muscle to eliminate nitrogen while replenishing (renewing) the energy supply for muscle.
The amino group transported from the muscle to the liver in the form of alanine, is converted to urea in the urea cycle and excreted.

(ii) Reactions in skeletal muscle:

In muscle cells and other peripheral tissues, glycolysis produces pyruvate.
Pyruvate can be transaminated to  alanine.
The transamination reaction requires an α-amino acid as donor of the amino group, generating an α-keto acid in the process. 
This reaction is catalyzed by alanine transaminase, ALT.
The alanine then enters the blood stream and is transported to the liver.
Alanine is returned to the liver for gluconeogenesis.

(iii) Reactions in liver:

Within the liver, alanine is converted back to pyruvate by deamination.
Pyruvate is a source of carbon atoms for gluconeogenesis.
Gluconeogenesis converts pyruvate to form glucose.
The newly formed glucose can then enter the blood for delivery back to the muscle.
This pathway is termed the glucose-alanine cycle.
222
Q

In the Cori cycle, lactate is converted into:

a. ribose
b. NADPH
c. pyruvate
d. acetyl CoA

A

c. pyruvate

In the Cori cycle lactaee is released from tissue, transported to the liver, and converted back to pyruvate

223
Q

Normal saline has ___ mEq sodium/L:

a. 154
b. 100
c. 50
d. 200

A

a. 154 m Eq sodium/L

224
Q

An amylase deficiency would result in:

a. decreased gluconeogenesis
b. decreased lipolysis
c. decreased glycolysis
d. decreased proteolysis

A

c. decreased glycolysis

amylase breaks down carbohydrates (glucose).

225
Q

Fresh eggs in the shell can be stored in a refrigerator at 40 degrees for:

a. 3 weeks
b. 2 weeks
c. 10 days
d. 4-6 days

A

a. 3 weeks

226
Q

Trypsin and chymotrypsin are:

a. pancreatic enzymes that provide proteolytic action
b. intestinal enzymes that digest starch
c. liver hormones involved in fat digestion
d. intestinal enzymes that digest protein

A

a. pancreatic enzymes that provide proteolytic action

227
Q

Acid-base abnormalities in an uncontrolled diabetic are likely due to:

a. respiratory alkalosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

A

b. metabolic acidosis

metabolic acidosis:
decrease in HCO3-
kidneys excrete excess base; uremia, diarrhea. The compensatory response is; respiration increases to expel carbon dioxide to decrease carbonic acid

increase in H+-
increaseed hydrogen production or retention by kidney, uncontrolled diabetes, starvation, high fat or low CHO diet
The compensatory response is:
hyperventilation

228
Q

A patient consumed 12 grams of protein and released 8 grams of nitrogen in the urine. This is:

a. nitrogen balance
b. negative nitrogen balance
c. positive nitrogen balance
d. plus 4 nitrogen balance

A

b. negative nitrogen balance

nitrogen balance compares intake to output
formual: nitrogen in minus nitrogen out
protein intake (grams)/6.25 minus (urinary urea nitrogen + 4)
12/6.25 - (8 +4)= -10.08

229
Q

Kidneys help control pH by:

a. excreting sodium and calcium
b. controlling the ratio of hydrogen ions to bicarbonate excretion
c. excreting carbon dioxide and carbonic acid
d. excreting NADPH

A

b. controlling the ration of hydrogen ions to bicarbonate excretion

230
Q

Pernicious anemia is likely to occur following a:

a. colectomy
b. colostomy
c. gastrectomy
d. esophagostomy

A

c. gastrectomy

Pernicious anemia is a chronic illness caused by impaired absorption of vitamin B-12 because of a lack of intrinsic factor (IF) in gastric secretions.
Gastrectomy can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency and affect the production of Intrinsic Factor. When the proximal stomach is resected or if the cells of the stomach lining are not able to produce Intrinsic Factor as an effect of gastrectomy, pernicious anemia is developed by the patient. The lack of Intrinsic Factor is the main cause of pernicious anemia because it is needed by the body to absorb vitamin B12. Normally, Intrinsic Factor combines with vitamin B12 and it helps in the absorption of B12 through the intestines.

231
Q

A patient’s I/O form indicates the following data. What is his total insensible fluid loss?

Input (ml)
Oral fluids 1800
Solid foods 800
Metabolic water 250
Total: 2850
Output (ml)
urine 1900
intestinal 250
lungs and skin 700
Total 2850

a. 700 ml
b 950 ml
c. 1900 ml
d. 2850 ml

A

a. 700 ml

Fluid loss can be classified as sensible or insensible.
Sensible losses include those obvious methods of excretion, such as fluid loss through urination, gastric drainage or vomiting.
Insensible losses are more subtle and include fluid loss through sweating or breathing (lungs, skin, respiratory tract)

Normal Insensible water loss averages 8-12 mL/kg/d & increases 10% for every degree of body temp > 37.2 °C (99 °F)

232
Q

Which pigment can be converted into a vitamin?

a. chlorophyll
b. carotenoids
c. anthocyanin
d. anthoxanthins

A

b. carotenoids

233
Q

The amount of ceruloplasmin is affected by what disease?

a. Addisons disease
b. pheochromocytoma
c. Cushings syndrome
d. Wilsons disease

A

d. Wilsons disease

Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder in which copper builds up in the body. Symptoms are typically related to the brain and liver. Liver-related symptoms include vomiting, weakness, fluid build up in the abdomen, swelling of the legs, yellowish skin, and itchiness.

Ceruloplasmin is the protein that binds with copper to remove it from the body. It is the unbound (to ceruloplasmin) copper that is free to roam around the body and accumulate in organs causing Wilson disease damage.

234
Q

An edematous person may actually be dehydrated because:

a. intravascular fluid is retained
b. intravascular fluid is diluted
c. fluid is retained intracellularly
d. fluid is retained extracellularly

A

d. fluid is retained extracellularly

235
Q

When alpha-linolenic acid is substituted for saturated fatty acids in the diet, the results will be:

a. increased HDL, reduced LDL
b. decreased triglycerides, lower total cholesterol
c. decreased triglycerides, little change in total cholesterol
d. lower HDL, increased LDL

A

c. decreased triglycerides, little change in total cholesterol

Alpha-linolenic acid is a type of omega-3 fatty acid found in plants. It is found in flaxseed oil, and in canola, soy, perilla, and walnut oils.

Alpha Linolenic Acid (ALA) is an essential (body can’t produce, other is linoleic acid) Omega 3 fatty acid necessary for a wide range of functions in the body’s cardiovascular (heart) system, immune system, and endocrine (hormone) system.

236
Q

When substituted for saturated fats in the diet, which of the following oils will likely lower total cholesterol but also lower HDL cholesterol?

a. olive oil
b. canola oil
c. peanut oil
d. safflower oil

A

d. safflower oil

safflower oil is mostly polyunsaturated fat. Good source of linoleic acid (essential amino acid)

237
Q

What is the best way to reduce the fat content of a brownie recipe?

a. use margarine instead of butter
b. cut out all the fat
c. cut out half the fat
d. use prune puree in place of half the fat

A

d. use prune puree in place of half the fat

238
Q

You want to keep lemon meringue pie at its peak. What should you do?

a. add sugar with eggs
b. add flour with butter
c. keep the pie at room temperature
d. keep the pie refrigerated

A

d. keep the pie refrigerated

239
Q

A child is lethargic and irritable with diarrhea. The cause may be:

a. zinc toxicity
b. lead poisoning
c. iron overload
d. vitamin A toxicity

A

b. lead poisoning

240
Q

A child is at the 95th percentile BMI for age. He is:

a. normal
b. obese
c. overweight
d. tall for his age

A

b. obese

BMI for age percentiles start at age 2:
Underweight < 5th
Healthy Weight 5th to 84th
Overweight 85th to 94th
Obese >= 95th or BMI >30
241
Q

A:

a. overweight
b. tall for his age
c. muscular for his age
d. normal weight

A

a. overweight

BMI for age percentiles start at age 2:
Underweight < 5th
Healthy Weight 5th to 84th
Overweight 85th to 94th
Obese >= 95th or BMI >30
242
Q

Cross-sectional studies:

a. describe past events and conditions
b. are useful in predicting future events
c. are a snap-shot look at one point in time
d. measure before and after an intervention occurs

A

c. are a snap-shot look at one point in time

one time data collection counting all of the cases of a specific disease among a group of people at a particular time. Snap shot describes current, not past or future events

243
Q

To determine whether promtional efforts have increased sales in a business, use;

a. the experimental design
b. an observational study
c. a survey
d. a segmentation process

A

a. the experimental design

244
Q

What should you do with a new client who sits scowling at you during the session?

a. presume she understands what you are saying
b. ask her if she is uncomfortable about the session
c. recognize than new clients are seldom relaxed.
d. preseum that she just would rather be somewhere else

A

b. ask her if she uncomfortable about the session

245
Q

The absence of reinforcement following an undersirable behavior is:

a. positive reinforcement
b. punishment
c. extinction
d. avoidance

A

c. extinction

extinction is one type of behavior modification method.
Extinction reduces undesired behavior
which involves the absence of reinforcement following undesired behavior (ignore). If extinction is repeated, behavior will eventually disappear

246
Q

A study design that tracks the occurence of infections in patients who are at nutritional risk and in the hospital for longer than 7 days is:

a. cohort study
b. time series method
c. case control study
d. descriptive research

A

a. cohort study

Cohort study: any group whose members have something in common. carried out over a long period of time (longitudinal) and prospective (future-oriented). Retrospective cohort studies use existing data and look back for relationship between exposure factors and outcomes.

247
Q

Which of the following foods is the best source of omega-3 fatty acids?

a. shrimp
b. anchovies
c. sardines
d. olive oil

A

c. sardines

PUFAS
Omega 3 Fatty Acids have 3 main dietary types:
-Alpha Linolenic Acids (ALAs) - Found in Plant Foods
-Eicosapentaenoic Acid (EPA) - Found in Fish and Seafood
-Docosahexaenoic Acid (DHA) - Found in Fish and Seafood

248
Q

Before you teach a class on nutrition, you should:

a. research all curretn materials at the library
b. read a current nutrition textbook
c. take a survey to determine what they are interested in
d. assess the students current nutrition knowledge

A

d. assess the students current nutrition knowledge

249
Q

You are explaining to a new client how making a few changes in his food choices will benefit his overall health. The learning domain is:

a. psychomotor
b. cognitive
c. affective
d. human

A

c. affective

affective: acquistion of attitudes and values, growth in feelings or emotions

250
Q

Active listening in counseling sessions involves:

a. probing into specific areas of behavior
b. empathizing
c. selective perception
d. paraphrasing and responding

A

d. paraphrasing and responding

active or reflective listening is paraphrasing or repeating back what was just said which involves absorbing what is being said and responding to the persons concerns

251
Q

A study reported a 10% morbidity rate in infants in the country and a 12% morbidity rate for infants in the city. This means that:

a. 10% of infants died in the country
b. more infants died in the city than in the country
c. more disease in infants in the city than in the country
d. more disease in infants in the country than in the city

A

c. more disease in infants in the city than in the country

Morbidity-disease state
Mortality- incidence of death

252
Q

The first step in planning a continuing education program is to:

a. locate the guest speaker
b. survey participants to see what interests them
c. survey other groups to see what they are doing
d. select a topic than has not been offered lately.

A

b. survey participants to see what interests them

253
Q

When planning a program for rural elderly, which is the most important?

a. the number of participants
b. what you will serve
c. where it will be held
d. how they will get to you

A

d. how they will get to you

254
Q

Which exhibits a definit positive correlation?

a. .05-.07
b. 1.2-1.3
c. 0.8-1.0
d. 0.2-0.9

A

c. 0.8-1.0

255
Q

Where would this be places in a research article: “most of the changes seen were probably due to…/”

a. introduction
b. discussion
c. results
d. summary

A

b. discussion

256
Q

You are asked to give an in-service to the staff. What should you do first?

a. ask them what they want to learn
b. read up on the subject
c. observe the staff at work to identify problems
d. see what other hospitals are teaching

A

c. observe the staff at work to identify problems

257
Q

When should an explanation of how a worker will be evaluated be given to them?

a. one month prior to their evaluation
b. they should not be shown to the worker
c. the day of the evaluation before you meet with them
d. the day they are hired

A

d. the day they are hired

258
Q

When developing educational plans, when do you plan the evaluation criteria:

a. before implementation of the plan
b. do it bfore you plan anything else
c. plan evaluation criteria at each step in the process
d. plan it just before you offer the program

A

c. plan evaluation criteria at each step in the process

259
Q

The first step in developing a training program is to:

a. assess the needs of the group
b. review training programs offered in other locations
c. provide the trainer with detailed instructions
d. estimate approximate length of time needed to complete training

A

a. assess the needs of the group

260
Q

Which of the following is the most useful for evaluating long term nutrition in children?

a. height for age
b. weight for height
c. weight for age
d. length for weight

A

a. height for age

defines shortness/tallness
reflects L/T nutritional status; determines extent of stunting
affected by L/T nutritional stress or chronic illness
< 5th percentile- short stature

261
Q

Which denotes a high correlation?

a. .2
b. .4
c. .6
d. .8

A

d. .8

.1 is a perferct correlation

262
Q

The mean is a measure of:

a. normal curve
b. central tendency
c. frequency curve
d. straight line

A

b. central tendency

mean is the average of the numbers in a set

263
Q

In intrepreting statisical data, if half the observations are above the number 8, and half are belwo the number 8, the number 8 is the:

a. mode
b. median
c. mean
d. avierage

A

b. median

The median is the middle number

264
Q

In a study of the effects of following a low fat diet on the incidence of breast cancer, women were randomized to follow either their usual dietary pattern, or a low fat diet. The study design is:

a. descriptive research
b. analytical research
c. cross-sectional
d. qualitative

A

b. analytical research

265
Q

A study showed the morbidity of chilren with aneamia to be 5: 1000. This means:

a. 5 children out of 1000 died of anemia
b. 5 children out of 1000 had anemia
c. 1000 children had anemia
d. 1000 children died of anemia

A

b. 5 children out of 1000 had anemia

morbidity- disease state

266
Q

A 5-month old infant has changed from the 65th to the 95th percentile weight for height. The dietitian should first:

a. suggest the infant receives more solid foods
b. change the feeding formual
c. check to see if weights have been plotted properly
d. increase the amount of formula provided

A

c. check to see if weights have been plotted properly

267
Q

You are analyzing a clients physical ability to prepare meals. The learning domain is:

a. conceptual
b. affective
c. human
d. psychomotor

A

d. psychomotor

psychomotor- acquistion of muscular skills (exercises, food preparation)

268
Q

At your first counseling session with a new patient you should:

a. tell him you have to change his diet
b. find out what he eats
c. give him instructional materials
d. teach him meal exchanges

A

b. find out what he eats

269
Q

An appropriate purpose of analytical research is to ____.

a. test the hypothesis
b. investigate the…
c. formulate a hypothesis..
d. distinguish between…

A

a. test the hypothesis

270
Q

The best indicator that children applied knowledge from a nutrition education program about vitamin D is:

a. their parents know about good sources of vitamin D
b. the children can name good sources of vitamin D
c. the children request more snacks with vitamin D
d. the children know the reasons for including vitam D

A

c. the children request more snacks with vitamin D

271
Q

In a study on custars which would be the dependent variable?

a. the amount of milk and sugar in the recipe
b. the cooked custard
c. the temperture of the oven
d. the time of cooking

A

b. the cooked custard

Dependent variables are outcomes
Independent variables are what you mainpulate in your study

272
Q

Statistics that let you draw probable conclusions beyond your immediate universe of data, are called:

a. descriptive statistics
b. inferential statistics
c. variable interest statistics
d. continous statistics

A

b. inferential statistics

inferential statistics are techniques that allow conclusions to extend beyond an immediate set; what is the probability that the results can be applied to a larger group; what can you infer from the results of your study

273
Q

A performance objective should be based on:

a. review of the literature for the latest research
b. what the learner should know or be able to do
c. existing standards of practice
d. SWOT analysis

A

b. what the learner should know or be able to do

274
Q

Which would be the best source of omega-3 fatty acids?

a. walnuts, flaxseed
b. tuna, cod
c. sardines, herring, mackerel
d. canola oil

A

c. sardines, herring, mackerel

275
Q

When counseling an anorexic, the best advice is to:

a. be real strict in their food choices
b. be flexible and help them choose reasonable goals
c. provide a large variety of menu items
d. give them free rein with their intake

A

b. be flexible and help them choose reasonable goals

anorexia — an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight.

276
Q

After you review the patients medical record, the first step in counseling is:

a. assess the patients nutritional status
b. collect all relevant data
c. establish a climate of trust
d. establish an overall evaluation plan for the patient

A

c. establish a climate of trust

277
Q

ANOVA is used when:

a. several products compete against one another
b. comparing two similar products
c. testing whether results can be generalized to a larger group
d. testing whether the difference between the two groups is real

A

a. several products compete against one another

ANOVA- analysis of variance. tool used to evaluate validity.

  • asks whether the difference between samples is areliable one that would be repeated
  • used when several products compete against one another
    • compares the variance between groups with the variance within groups
  • -answers; are there 1 or more significant differences ANYWHERE among the samples
278
Q

If you measure a group before and after a treatment to see whether or not there has been a significant change, the study design is:

a. experimental
b. quasi-experimental
c. descriptive
d. qualitative

A

b. quasi-experimental

no control group

279
Q

The number of individuals in a population diagnosed with a specfic condition during a specified time is the:

a. prevalence
b. incidence
c. rate of the condition
d. duration of the condition

A

b. incidence

Incidence is the rate of new (or newly diagnosed) cases of the disease. It is generally reported as the number of new cases occurring within a period of time (e.g., per month, per year).

Prevalence is the actual number of cases alive, with the disease either during a period of time (period prevalence) or at a particular date in time (point prevalence).

280
Q

Results of a three day food record were obtained in June and again three months later. What is this called?

a. validity
b. reliability
c. sensitivity
d. specificity

A

b. reliability

reliability- consistency or reproducibility of test results

281
Q

Inferential statistics are associated with:

a. probability
b. mean
c. mode
d. graphs

A

a. probability

282
Q

The statement “After class, the patient will be able to write a days menu following the guidelines” is..

a. goal
b. objective
c. plan
d. research hypothesis

A

b. objective

283
Q

To determine the reading level of a text:

a. count the number of words with more than 1 syllable
b. count the number of paragraphs
c. count the average number of letters in the workds
d. count the number of sentences in a paragraph

A

a. count the number of words with more than 1 syllable

284
Q

In a normal curve, what % of data falls between +1 and -1 standard deviation?

a. 52
b. 93
c. 35
d. 68

A

d. 68

285
Q

The statement “ This further shows daily weighing is an effective weight loss tool” should be placed in which section of the research report?

a. implications
b. results
c. analysis
d. methodology

A

a. implications

286
Q

What reading level is appropriate for written materials for a population with low literacy skills?

a. 4th grade
b. 6th grade
c. 8th grade
d. 9th grade

A

6th grade

Reading level appropriate for the general population is: 8th grade

287
Q

Which is the dependent variable?

a. leavening
b. storage days
c. volume
d. oven temperature

A

c. volume

Dependent variables are outcomes
Independent variables are what you mainpulate in your study

288
Q

If there is no statisical difference between study groups, the hypothesis is:

a. negative
b. null
c. even
d. positive

A

b. null

289
Q

A focus group contributes what data?

a. analytical
b. experimental
c. attitudinal
d. objective

A

c. attitudinal

290
Q

An example of nominal (frequency) data is;

a. temperature
b. weight
c. differentiate between men and women
d. rank in class

A

c. differentiate between men and women

Nominal or categorical data is data that comprises of categories that cannot be rank ordered – each category is just different (example: male/female. The categories available cannot be placed in any order and no judgment can be made about the relative size or distance from one category to another.

291
Q

Compared to whole milk, breast milk is:

a. higher in protein and fat, lower in carbohydrate
b. lower in protein, higher in carbohydrate and fat
c. lower in protein, carbohydrate and fat
d. has the same nutrient composition

A

a. higher in protein and fat, lower in carbohdrate

292
Q

A patient relates a story to the RD. The RD says: “This happened to me too”. This is:

a. reflection
b. clarification
c. attribution
d. self-disclosure

A

d. self-disclosure

293
Q

An example of formative evaluation is:

a. IQ test
b. RD exam
c. Pretest quiz
d. comparative evaluation

A

c. pretest quiz

Method to evaluate educational outcomes: formative evaluation is made early or during course of education. helps to pinpoint parts mastered and parts not mastered

294
Q

The lecture:

a. increases teacher-student involvement
b. is student oriented
c. reinforces material presented
d. provides the most material covered in a short time

A

d. provides the most material covered in a short time

295
Q

A client says, “ I want to change my eating habits” You ask why. The learning domain is:

a. affective
b. cognitive
c. psychomotor
d. psychoscocial

A

a. affective

affective: acquistion of attitudes and values, growth in feelings or emotions

296
Q

What is the best way to assess what a group of students has learned after diet instruction?

a. list their skills
b. have them explain their skills
c. have them demonstrate their skills
d. post-test on their skills

A

c. have them demonstrate their skills

297
Q

At which step in the educational process do you bein evaluation?

a. assessment
b. planning
c. implementation
d. evaluation

A

a. assessment

298
Q

An example of a survey with a negative correlation is:

a. when folic acid intake increases prior to pregnancy, the incidence of neural tube defects declines
b. when LDL increase, the rate of heart disease increases
c. when a person becomes more obese, their LDL levels likely rise
d. as the intake of peanut butter and potato chips increases, dental caries increase

A

a. when folic acid intake increases prior to pregnancy, the incidence of neural tube defects declines

negative correlation: the opposite. As one variable increases. the other decreases and vice versa
In a positive correlation , both variables move in the same direction.

299
Q

When providing nutrition education to a pregnant teenager, which characteristic of adolescents should be kept in mind?

a. interested in planning for the future
b. responds more to emotional stimuli
c. desire to be like their peers
d. has well-defined self-image

A

c. desire to be like their peers

300
Q

A new mother may hesitate to become involved with a breast-feeding informational program due to:

a. lack of funds
b. lack of social support
c. lack of knowledge about benefits
d. lack of medical care

A

b. lack of social support

301
Q

A statement of affirmation in motivational interviewing would be:

a. “Taking a walk during your lunch hour shows how determined you are”
b. “I would like you to try to reudce portion sizes at dinner”
c. “Perhaps eating lunch away from your desk would be helpful”
d. “Try to increase your intake of fruits and vegetables”

A

a. “Taking a walk during your lunch hour shows how determined you are”

302
Q

To estimate REE in normal weight and obese individuals, use:

a. Harris Benedict
b. Mifflin St. Jeor
c. BMR
d. indirect calorimetry

A

b. Mifflin St Jeor

303
Q

Of the following oils, which is highest in vitamin E?

a. safflower
b. corn
c. cottonseed
d. olive

A

c. cottonseed

304
Q

Water soluble nutrients are absorbed through:

a. active transport
b. simple diffusion
c. carrier-facilitated diffusion
d. inactive transport

A

c. carrier-facilitated diffusion

305
Q

The two most abundant minerals in the body are:

a. zinc and chromium
b. calcium and zinc
c. iron and calcium
d. calcium and phosphorus

A

d. calcium and phosphorus

306
Q

Increased plasma pyruvate is an indication of a :

a. riboflavin deficiency
b. thiamin deficiency
c. pyridoxine deficiency
d. iron deficiency

A

b. thiamin deficiency

307
Q

A serum calcium level of 11.5 mg/dl will bring on a release of:

a. parathormone from the parathyroid gland
b. calcitonin from the thyroid glands
c. calcium
d. calcium-binding protein from the intestine

A

b. calcitonin from the thyroid glands

Needs: 8.5 to 10.3 mg/dL
Calcitonin is a hormone secreted by the thyroid gland that reduces the concentration of blood calcium level when it has risen to an above normal level.

308
Q

A neonate at birth was at the 75th percentile for weight for age. At 6 months he appears healhy and was at the 60th percentile weight for age. This indicates:

a. he has a low caloric intake
b. he is experiencing normal growth
c. he may have protein-energy malnutrition
d. birth measurements were incorrect

A

b. he is experiencing normal growth

weight for age is NOT used to classify under/overweight.
short-term marker of growth
further evaluation needed if belwo 5th or above the 95th percentile

309
Q

To determine whether your client has applied your suggestions on decreasing his fat intake, ask him to:

a. name a few foods that should be consumed infrequently
b. name four foods to avoid
c. list the foods he has consumer over the past three days
d. selct an appropriate breakfast from a menu

A

c. list the foods he has consumer over the past three days

310
Q

BMI for age percentiles start at age:

a. 24 months
b. 36 months
c. 48 months
d. 5 years

A

a. 24 months (2years)

311
Q

Pale conjuntivae is associated with a deficiency of:

a. vitamin C
b. vitamin D
c. zinc
d. iron

A

d. iron

312
Q

A typical meal of a pregnant teenager consists of a hamburger, french fries and diet soda. Which of the following changes would be most beneficial?

a. substitute fresh vegetables for french fries
b. substitute a milkshake for diet soda
c. add fresh fruit to the meal
d. add another hamburger

A

b. substitute a milkshake for diet soda

313
Q

Which of the following nonessential amino acids may be considered conditionally essential in catabolic stress such as heart failure?

a. arginine
b. asparagine
c. proline
d. leucine

A

a. arginine

L-glutamine and l-arginine are both conditionally essential amino acids. This means that although the body is able to produce them, during times of stress, (such as critical illness, trauma, catabolic stress such as heart failure, hemolysis, and GI disorders), the body may not produce enough.

L-arginine- Improves Heart Health. Research shows that L-arginine is beneficial for lowering inflammation and improving the health of the blood vessels and cardiovascular system, which is why oral arginine is one of the most popular supplements recommended by cardiologists.

Each of these amino acids is found in high amounts in dairy foods and meat, and both amino acids can be supplemented.

.

314
Q

Cheilosis, stomatitis and a magenta tongue are signs of a:

a. riboflavin deficiency
b. niacin deficiency
c. thiamin deficiency
d. biotin deficiency

A

a. riboflavin deficiency (vitamin B2)

Sources: liver, kidney, meat, milk
M: 1.3 mg
F: 1.1 mg

315
Q

When green vegetables begin to lose their color during serving, consider:

a. changing vendors or brands
b. decreasing holding time during heating
c. use different cooking equipment
d. changing the storage temperature

A

b. decreasing holding time during heating

316
Q

In metabolic acidosis, which of the following is involved?

a. excretion of potassium
b. excess calcium retention
c. excretion of sodium bicarbonate
d. excess calcium loss

A

c. excretion of sodium bicarbonate

metabolic acidosis:
decrease in HCO3-
kidneys excrete excess base; uremia, diarrhea. The compensatory response is; respiration increases to expel carbon dioxide to decrease carbonic acid

317
Q

Fats used in frying can become rancid due to the:

a. oxidation of unsaturated fats
b. uptake of oxyen at the point of saturation
c. removal of high-melting triglycerides
d. prolonged exposure to high temperatures

A

a. oxidation of unsaturated fats

318
Q

At what age should children be measured standing up?

a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

A

d. 24 months (2years)

319
Q

What is normal weight gain during the first trimester?

a. 1-2 lbs
b. 2-5 lbs
c. 5-8 lbs
d. 8-10 lbs

A

b. 2-5 pounds

320
Q

The breast-fed infant is drinking primarily colostrum for:

a. the first 24 hours
b. the first few days
c. 1-2 weeks
d. 3 months

A

b. the first few days

321
Q

A normal pregnancy requires supplementation of:

a. iron
b. vitamin c, calcium iron
c. iron and folic acid
d. calcium and zinc

A

c. iron and folic acid

baby needs zinc for cell growth and for the production and functioning of DNA – the body’s genetic blueprint. Getting enough zinc is especially important during pregnancy because there’s so much rapid cell growth.
Your body uses iron to make hemoglobin, a substance in red blood cells that transports oxygen throughout your body. During pregnancy, your body supplies blood and oxygen to your baby, so the demand for iron goes up to keep up with the increase in blood supply.

322
Q

Which hormone is involved in developing the placenta?

a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. lactogen
d. testosterone

A

a. progesterone

323
Q

Which supplements should you give to a breast-fed baby?

a. vitamin D and fluoride
b. fluoride
c. vitamin D
d. vitamins A and C

A

a. vitamin D and fluoride

324
Q

Which of the following represents cows milk?

a. it creates a low renal solute load
b. high in iron, low in vitamin C
c. low in phosphorus, low in iron
d. it creates a high renal solute load

A

d. it creates a high renal solute load

The high protein, sodium, potassium, phosphorus and chloride content of cow’s milk present what is called a high renal solute load; this means that the unabsorbed solutes from the diet must be excreted via the kidneys.

three main reasons cows milk should not be given to infants: causes iron deficiency anemia, high renal solute load, place a strain on immature kidneys forcing them to draw water from the body thus increasing the risk of dehydration.

325
Q

A child who is below the 5th percentile weight for height:

a. is tall for his age
b. has a condition inhibiting growth
c. may have experienced long term under-nutrition
d. may have experienced short term under-nutrition

A

d. may have experienced short term under-nutrition

326
Q

A low birth weight infant weighs:

a. less than 2500 grams
b. between 500 and 1500 grams
c. between 3000 and 4000 grams
d. between 100 and 500 grams

A

a. less than 2500 grams

327
Q

The treatment for hyperbilirubinemia is:

a. high calorie
b. high protein
c. high fluid
d. high fat

A

c. fluid

Causes of elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood can be caused by infections, viral hepatitis, anemia, genetic diseases, and liver problems. Symptoms of elevated bilirubin levels depend on the cause; however, jaundice is a common sign. Treatment for elevated bilirubin levels depend on the cause.

Fluids and other Considerations. Drinking plenty of fluids is also very important if you have jaundice. You should consume daily at least 1.2 liters, or eight glasses.

328
Q

Which of the following weight gains puts pregnant women at risk?

a. less than 4 lbs/month in the last half of pregnancy
b. less than 5 lbs/month in the last half of pregnancy
c. less than 6 lbs/month in the last half of pregnancy
d. more than 2 lbs/month in the last half of pregnancy

A

a. less than 4 lbs/month in the last half of pregnancy

pregnant women gain 1 pound/month during the first 3 months of pregnancy, and 1 pound per week during the remainder of the pregnancy.

It is possible to achieve 1 pound per week by consuming an additional ~300 calories per day,

329
Q

Which is the primary fuel used by resting muscle and at low intensity?

a. glucose
b. fatty acids
c. branch chain amino acids
d. keto-acids

A

b. fatty acids

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