Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Eculizumab

A
  • used in renal transplantation as a complement inhibitor
  • an IgG4 antibody
  • blocks C5 from being cleavedinto C5a and C5b
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rituximab

A
  • selectively targets cells with CD20

- used for the treatment of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) - b cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Certuximab

A
  • anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)

- treats colon and head/neck cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ado-Trastuzumab

A
  • anti-Her2 antibody

- approved for metastatic breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5-ASAs

A
  • common first treatment for Crohn’s Disease
  • 5-aminosalicylates (Aspirin) and antibiotics
  • most people do not respond to these treatments, and the next option is often prednisone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Certolizumab Pegol

A

-Has FAB region of a monoclonal antibody attached to a pegylated carrier that allows for a more sustained systemic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adalimumab

A
  • Humira
  • Antibodies against TNF + Fc region of IgG to lengthen its half life
  • used to treat Crohn’s disease, psoriasis, and psoriatic arthritis, and RA
  • also can be injectable
  • Side Effects: Infections such as TB; rare leukemias and vasculitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cyclosporin

A

-targets calcineurin
-Used in transplant therapy as an immunosuppressive agent
-When calcineurin is blocked, NF-AT remains inactive and IL-2 transcription is suppressed
-CYP3A can be used to determine dosing
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tacrolimus

A
  • targets calcineurin
  • Used in transplant therapy as an immunosuppressive agent
  • When calcineurin is blocked, NF-AT remains inactive and IL-2 transcription is suppressed
  • CYP3A can be used to determine dosing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Belatacept

A
  • interferes in the reaction of T cells with co-stimulatory molecules
  • fusion of extracellular domain of CTLA-4 and the Fc region of Ig
  • binds to B7 with higher affinity than CD28 and prevents signal 2/T cell proliferation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Basiliximab

A
  • monoclonal antibody that blocks the binding of IL-2 to the IL-2R
  • inhibits clonal expansion of T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sirolimus

A
  • blocks mTor (signalling pathway downstream of IL-2R

- also used as an immunosuppressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Methotrexate

A
  • DMARD of 1st choice
  • high dose cancer therapy inhibiting purine synthesis by disrupting folic acid synthesis
  • low dose immunosuppressant leading to the accumulation of adenosine which suppresses T cell activation and B cell proliferation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FTY720

A

-blocks the S1P receptor so that T cells are unable to leave the draining lymph node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tocilizumab

A
  • Actemra
  • IL-6R blocker
  • Use for Rheumatoid Arthritis if TNFs did not work
  • prone to infections such as TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Etanercept

A
  • Enbrel
  • binds to soluble TNF alpha inhibiting its actions
  • Used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis
  • Side Effects: TB and other opportunistic infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Infliximab

A
  • Remicade
  • chimeric monoclonal antibody
  • binds and inactivates TNF alpha (soluble and membrane bound)
  • Used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis in conjunction with Methotrexate (or other DMARDs), and psoriasis
  • Side Effects: URI, headache, nausea, diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anakinra

A
  • Kineret
  • Kineret
  • recombinant IL-1
  • Blocks IL-1
  • Can be used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis alone or with other drugs
  • Side Effects: injection site reaction, infections, neutropenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Abatacept

A
  • Orencia
  • Blocks the binding of B7 with CD28 on T cells
  • Used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Prone to infections such as TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tofacitinib

A
  • Xeljanz
  • Advantage is that it is an oral pill that can be taken 2 times daily
  • Blocks Janus Kinase (JAK)
  • Used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis when methotrexate alone does not work
  • Prone to infections such as TB
21
Q

Acetaminophen

A
  • NOT an NSAID
  • Used to treat pain, fever and is also a weak anti-inflammatory
  • frequently used in children and pregnant women (NSAIDs contra-indicated during pregnancy)
22
Q

Dexamethasone

A
  • Glucocorticoid
  • anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant
  • 27 times more potent than cortisol
  • -Used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Also given to patients with bacterial meningitis prior to antibiotic treatment
23
Q

Prednisone

A
  • Glucocorticoid
  • pro-drug that is converted into its active form by 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3-B-HSD)
  • Used to treat inflammatory responses (asthma), Crohn’s disease, and Systemic Lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • Many side effects: moon face, buffalo hump, truncal obesity, muscle weakness, abdominal stria, emotional disturbances
24
Q

Leflunomide

A
  • 2nd line of defense

- inhibits pyrimidine synthesis blocking proliferation of active lymphoctes

25
Q

Betamethasone

A
  • glucocorticoid used for skin irritation

- same immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory actions as prednisone and dexamethasone but is applied topically

26
Q

Fluticasone

A
  • used to treat allergic rhinitis

- Flonase

27
Q

Aspirin

A
  • developed from Willow Tree bark/leaves
  • salicylate
  • irreversible inhibition of COX enzymes - at low doses preferentially inhibits COX-1 and is therefore used as an anticoagulative therapy
  • Adverse GI effects
28
Q

Ibuprofen/Naproxen

A
  • Naproxen trade name is Aleve
  • Propionic Acid derivatives
  • COX1 and COX2 inhibitors
  • GI upset, discontinue prior to surgery
  • Difference: Naproxen has a longer half life than Ibuprofen
29
Q

Indomethacin

A
  • Indole acetic acid derivative
  • Not an OTC medication
  • delays premature labor; also used in patients with patent ductus arteriosus
  • contra-indicated with GI disease due to high incidence of GI side effects
30
Q

Piroxicam

A
  • Feldene

- prescribed mostly for osteoarthritis

31
Q

Tenoxicam

A
  • Used to treat chronic pain such as arthritis

- Not effective for acute pain such as post-operative pain

32
Q

Meloxicam

A

-COX2 selective inhibitor at lower doses

33
Q

Ketorlac

A
  • anti-inflammatory providing mild pain relief
  • equivalent to codeine
  • often given post-operatively
34
Q

Tolmetin

A

-used for arthritis pain but has GI side effects

35
Q

Diclofenac

A
  • Used to treat post-operative pain and post-trauma pain,
  • acute migraines
  • dysmennorrhea - pain associated with endometriosis
36
Q

Celecoxib

A
  • Celebrex
  • Inhibits p450
  • interacts with ACE inhibitors
37
Q

Misoprostol

A
  • Cytotec
  • PGE1
  • Prevents NSAID induced gastric ulcers and is often combined with diclofenac
  • also used for labor induction
  • Abortifacient
  • used for patent ductus arteriosus
38
Q

Dinoprostone

A
  • PGE2
  • Cervidil/Prepidil
  • cervical ripening
39
Q

Dinoprost

A
  • PGF2 alpha

- labor induction; Abortifacient

40
Q

Carboprost

A
  • PGF2 alpha
  • Hemabate
  • post-partum hemorrhage
41
Q

Epoprostenol

A
  • PGI2
  • Flolan
  • vasodilator used in pulmonary hypertension if other treatments fail
42
Q

Latanoprost

A
  • PGF2 alpha

- used to treat glaucoma

43
Q

Travoprost

A
  • PGF2 alpha

- used to treat glaucoma

44
Q

Apocynin

A

-Nautral inhibitor of NADPH oxidase

45
Q

Epinephrine

A
  • primary therapy for anaphylactic shock

- also used for bronchial asthma

46
Q

Theophylline

A

-used to treat bronchial asthma

47
Q

Cromolyn

A

-blocks leukotriene release stabilizing mast cells so that they do no degranulate

48
Q

Omalizumab

A
  • anti-IgE antibody

- used in children with severe bronchial asthma to neutralize and eliminate IgE

49
Q

Daclizumab

A
  • Zenapax
  • IL-2R blocker
  • used to prevent solid organ graft rejection
  • Also given to MS patients