Dx and Rx Flashcards

0
Q

Describe findings of PFTs between asthma exacerbations

A

Normal - asthma is a reversible lung disease; PFTs are abnormal only during exacerbations.

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1
Q

What is the best initial test for asthma in an acute exacerbation? Most accurate test?

A

Best initial: Peak expiratory flow (PEF) or arterial blood gas (ABG). Peak flow can be used by the pt to determine function.

Most accurate: Pulmonary function testing (PFTs). Spirometry will show decreased FEV1:FVC ratio (both decrease, but FEV1 decreases more).

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2
Q

Describe findings of PFTs during acute asthma exacerbations in terms of:

  • FEV1:FVC ratio
  • Change in FEV1 with albuterol
  • Change in FEV1 with methacholine or histamine
  • Change in diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide
A
  • Decreased ratio of FEV1:FVC
  • Increase in FEV1 > 12% or 200mL w/ albuterol
  • Decrease in FEV1 > 20% w/ methacholine or histamine
  • Increase in DLCO
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3
Q

How is CXR used in pts with asthma or Sx of asthma?

A

CXR is often normal in pts with asthma, but may show hyperinflation. It is mainly used to:

  • Exclude pneumonia as the cause of asthma exacerbation.
  • Exclude other diseases such as pneumothorax (asthma predisposes to pneumothorax) or CHF in cases that are not clear.
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4
Q

What are the findings on CBC, skin testing, and Ig levels in asthma?

A
  • CBC may show increased eosinophil count
  • Skin testing is used to identify specific allergens that might provoke bronchoconstriction.
  • Increased IgE levels suggest an allergic etiology. It may also help guide therapy such as the use of the anti-IgE medication omalizumab. Increased IgE levels are also seen in allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis.
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5
Q

What is the first step in treating asthma? What is the second step?

A

Step 1: Inhaled short-acting beta agonist (SABA), e.g. albuterol, pirbuterol, or levalbuterol. Always start with this for PRN use.

Step 2: Add a long-term control agent to a SABA. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are the best initial control agents. Examples are beclomethasone, budesonide, flunisolide, fluticasone, mometasone, and triamcinolone.

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6
Q

What are some examples of long-term control agents for asthma that can be used instead of inhaled corticosteroids?

A
  • Cromolyn and nedocromil inhibit mast cell mediator release and eosinophil recruitment.
  • Theophylline
  • Leukotriene modifiers: montelukast, zafirleukast, or zileuton
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7
Q

In whom are leukotriene modifiers the best alternate long-term control agent to inhaled corticosteroids?

A

Leukotriene modifiers are best with atopic pts.

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8
Q

What are the 2 most common adverse effects of inhaled steroids?

A

Dysphonia and oral candidiasis

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9
Q

What is a serious side effect of zafirleukast? What disease is it associated with?

A

Zafirleukast is hepatotoxic. It is associated with Churg-Strauss syndrome.

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10
Q

What are steps 3 and 4 in asthma management?

A

Step 3: Add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) to the SABA and ICS, OR increase the dose of the ICS. LABA medications are salmeterol or formoterol.

Step 4: Increase the dose of the ICS to maximum in addition to the LABA and SABA.

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11
Q

What are steps 5 and 6 in asthma management?

A

Step 5: Add omalizumab to the SABA, ICS and LABA in pts with an increased IgE level.

Step 6: Oral corticosteroids such as prednisone are added when all the other therapies are not sufficient to control symptoms.

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12
Q

What vaccines are given to all asthma pts?

A

Killed influenza vaccine and pneumococcal vaccine

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13
Q

Why are LABAs never used first or alone for asthma?

A

LABAs are never used first because they are associated with an increased risk of death from asthma. They are never used alone because they aren’t effective for acute exacerbations.

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14
Q

What are some adverse effects of systemic corticosteroids? Do high-dose inhaled steroids have these effects?

A

Systemic corticosteroids are used as a last resort in asthma management because of very harsh side effects such as:

  • Osteoporosis
  • Cataracts
  • Adrenal suppression and fat redistribution
  • Hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, acne, and hirsutism (particularly in women)
  • Thinning of skin, easy bruising, striae

High-dose inhaled steroids very rarely lead to the adverse effects associated with prednisone, which is why the dose of ICS can be increased as the 3rd and/or 4th step in management of asthma.

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15
Q

How can the severity of an asthma exacerbation be quantified?

A
  • Decreased peak expiratory flow

- ABG with increased A-a gradient

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16
Q

What is peak expiratory flow? What is it based on? How is it used?

A

PEF is an approximation of the FVC. There is no precise “normal” value. It is based predominantly on the pts height and age (not weight). The PEF is used in acute assessment by seeing how much difference there is from the pt’s usual PEF when they are stable.

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17
Q

What is the best initial therapy for a pt with an acute asthma exacerbation?

A

Oxygen combined with an inhaled SABA and a bolus of steroids.

*Corticosteroids need 4-6 hours to begin to work, so give them right away.

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18
Q

Why and when are epinephrine injections and magnesium used for acute asthma exacerbation?

A

Epinephrine injections are no more effective than albuterol and have more adverse systemic effects. Epinephrine is rarely used and only as a last resort.

Magnesium has some modest effect on bronchodilation, but is not as effective as albuterol, ipratropium or steroids. It is only used in severe asthma exacerbation not responsive to several rounds of albuterol while waiting for steroids to take effect.

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19
Q

In whom are cromolyn or nedocromil the best alternate to ICS in pts with asthma?

A

Cromolyn and nedocromil are best in pts with extrinsic allergies like hay fever.

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20
Q

What do you do for pts with acute asthma exacerbation in the ER if they do not respond to oxygen, albuterol or if they develop respiratory acidosis (increased pCO2)?

A

These pts may need to undergo endotracheal intubation for mechanical ventilation. They should be admitted to the ICU.

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21
Q

What is the best initial test for COPD? Most accurate test? What are the findings?

A

Best initial: CXR

  • Increased AP diameter
  • Air trapping and flattened diaphragms

Most accurate: PFT

  • Decreased FEV1:FVC (<70%)
  • Increased TLC because of increased residual vol.
  • Decreased DLCO (emphysema, not bronchitis)
  • Incomplete improvement with albuterol
  • Little or no worsening with methacholine
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22
Q

In pts with COPD, describe the usual findings on:

  • Plethysmography
  • ABG
A

Plethysmography will show an increase in residual volume

ABG will show increased pCO2 and hypoxia in acute exacerbations. Respiratory acidosis may be present if there is insufficient metabolic compensation; bicarbonate will be elevated. In between exacerbations, not all pts with COPD will retain CO2.

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23
Q

In pts with COPD, describe the usual findings on:

  • CBC
  • EKG
  • Ech
A

CBC may show an increase in hematocrit from chronic hypoxia.

EKG may show RAH and RVH. A fib and multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT) are possible.

Echo may show RAH and RVH. It may also show pulmonary HTN.

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24
Q

What 3 methods of COPD management improve mortality and delay progression of the disease?

A
  • Smoking cessation
  • Oxygen therapy for those with pO2 < 55 or
    O2 sat < 88%; mortality benefit is proportional to the number of hours that oxygen is used.
  • Influenza and pneumococcal vaccines
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25
Q

What 5 methods of COPD management definitely improve symptoms (but do not decrease disease progression or mortality)?

A
  • SABAs
  • Anticholinergic meds (ipratropium, tiotropium)
  • Steroids
  • LABAs
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation
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26
Q

How do the first 2 steps of COPD management differ from that of asthma?

A

Asthma not controlled with albuterol –> add inhaled steroid

COPD not controlled with albuterol –> add anticholinergic –> add inhaled steroid

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27
Q

How does the last resort of COPD management differ from that of asthma?

A

Asthma - last resort is systemic steroids

COPD - last resort is lung transplant

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28
Q

Describe the usefulness of theophylline, lung volume reduction surgery, cromolyn, and leukotriene modifiers in COPD.

A

Theophylline and lung volume reduction surgery can possibly improve symptoms of COPD, whereas cromolyn and leukotriene modifiers have no benefit.

*Cromolyn and leukotriene modifiers have no benefit because COPD is not associated with allergies.

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29
Q

When do you start oxygen in a pt with COPD and no comorbidities? When do you start O2 in a pt with pulmonary HTN, high HCT, or cardiomyopathy? How much O2 do you use?

A

Begin O2 when pCO2 =/< 55 or O2 sat =/< 88%.

In a pt with pulmonary HTN, high HCT, or cardiomyopathy, begin O2 when pCO2 =/< 60 or
O2 sat =/< 90%.

Only use enough O2 as is necessary to raise the pO2 above 90% saturation.

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30
Q

What is the management for acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis (AECB)?

A

Bronchodilator, corticosteroid, and an antibiotic

*basically the same as for acute exacerbation of asthma but with the addition of an abx

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31
Q

What is the most common cause of AECB?

A

Infection

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32
Q

What bugs should abx used in AECB cover?

A

Abx should cover Strep pneumo, H. influenzae, and Morexella catarrhalis.

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33
Q

Which abx are used for first-line and second-line therapy for AECB?

A

First-line agents:

  • Macrolides: azithromycin, clarithromycin
  • Cephalosporins: cefuroxime, cefixime, cefaclor, ceftibuten
  • Amoxicillin/clavulinic acid (augmentin)
  • Respiratory quinolones: levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin

Second-line agents:

  • Doxycycline
  • TMP/SMX (bactrim)
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34
Q

What are the best initial and most accurate tests for bronchiectasis? What do they show?

A

Best initial: CXR - shows dilated, thickened bronchi, sometimes with a “tram-tracks” appearance.

Most accurate: High-resolution CT scan - shows widening of the bronchi in multiple areas.

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35
Q

How do you determine the specific bacterial etiology of recurrent episodes of infection in someone with bronchiectasis?

A

Sputum culture is the only way.

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36
Q

Describe the management/treatment of bronchiectasis

A
  • Chest physiotherapy (“cupping and clapping”) and postural drainage are essential for dislodging plugged-up bronchi.
  • Treat each episode of infection as it arises, using the same abx as for COPD, with two differences:
    1) inhaled abx have some efficacy; 2) a specific microbiological Dx is preferred because Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI) can be found.
  • Rotate abx, 1 weekly each month
  • Surgical resection of focal lesions may be indicated.
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37
Q

What diagnostic tests can be used for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A
  • Peripheral eosinophilia
  • Skin test reactivity to aspergillus antigens
  • Precipitating antibodies to aspergillus on blood test
  • Elevated serum IgE
  • Pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray or CT
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38
Q

What is the Rx for ABPA?

A
  • Oral steroids (prednisone) for severe cases*
  • Itraconazole orally for recurrent episodes

*Inhaled steroids are not effective for ABPA

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39
Q

What test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis? How does it work? What does it show?

A

Increased sweat chlorine test is the most accurate test for CF. Pilocarpine increases acetylcholine levels which increases sweat production. Chloride levels in sweat above 60 meq/L on repeated testing establishes the diagnosis.

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40
Q

What indicates a positive increased chloride sweat test in diagnosing CF?

A

Chloride levels in sweat above 60 meq/L on repeated testing establishes the diagnosis.

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41
Q

Describe the role of genotyping in diagnosing CF?

A

Genotyping is not as accurate as increased sweat chloride level. This is because there are so many different types of mutations leading to CF.

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42
Q

What findings may be present on chest x-ray or CT in a pt with CF?

A
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Pneumothorax
  • Scarring
  • Atelectasis
  • Hyperinflation
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43
Q

What might an ABG show for a pt with CF? What do PFTs show?

A

ABG shows hypoxia and, in advance disease, respiratory acidosis.

PFTs show:

  • mixed obstructive and restrictive patterns
  • decreases in FVC and TLC
  • decreased DLCO
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44
Q

What 4 bugs are commonly found in sputum cultures of pts with CF?

A
  • Nontypable H. influenzae
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Staph aureus
  • Burkholderia cepacia
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45
Q

What is the Rx for CF?

A
  1. Abx - same as bronchiectasis and COPD:
    1st line - macrolides, cephalosporins, augmentin, or quinolones
    2nd line - doxycycline or bactrim
    Also: inhaled aminoglycosides may be used; this is exclusive to CF
  2. Inhaled recombinant human deoxyribonuclease (rhDNase) - breaks up massive amounts of DNA in respiratory mucus plugs.
  3. Inhaled bronchodilators e.g. albuterol
  4. Pneumococcal and influenza vaccines
  5. Lung transplant is the last resort
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46
Q

What is the best initial test for respiratory infections e.g. pneumonia?

A

Chest x-ray is the best initial test, but it cannot determine the bacterial etiology.

Sputum gram stain and culture are the best ways to first try to determine a specific bacterial etiology; however, no etiology is found in over 50% of cases because Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila, Legionella, Coxiella and viruses are responsible for 30-50% of cases but aren’t visible on Gram stain.

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47
Q

Bilateral interstitial infiltrates are seen with which bugs on CXR?

A

The bugs that cause atypical pneumonia:

  • Mycoplasma
  • Chlamydia
  • Coxiella
  • Pneumocystis
  • Viruses
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48
Q

What findings make a sputum Gram stain adequate?

A

> 25 WBCs and < 10 epithelial cells

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49
Q

When are thoacocentesis and bronchoscopy used in CAP?

A

Thoracentesis - The analysis of pleural effusion can be used to determine the presence of an empyema if the Dx is unclear. Empyema will improve more rapidly if it is drained with a chest tube.

Bronchoscopy - This is rarely used in CAP. It is used to diagnose pneumocystis pneumonia in which noninvasive testing rarely reveals a diagnosis and precise confirmation of the etiology is critical to guide therapy. It is also used if there is severe disease such as someone needing placement in an ICU when initial testing does not yield an organism and the pt’s condition is worsening despite empiric therapy.

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50
Q

Describe the lab results for empyema

A

Empyema is an infected pleural effusion.

  • LDH > 60% of serum level or protein above 50% of serum level is suggestive of exudate.*
  • WBC count above 1000 microliters or pH < 7.2 is suggestive of infection.

*Exudates are caused by infection and cancer.

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51
Q

What drives initial therapy of CAP?

A

The severity of the disease drives initial therapy, NOT the etiology.

52
Q

What is the difference between outpatient vs. inpatient treatment for CAP?

A

Outpatient - For previously healthy pt or no abx in the last 3 months and mild Sx, use a macrolide or doxycycline. For pts with comorbidities or abx in the last 3 months, use a respiratory quinolone.

Inpatient - Use a respiratory quinolone or a combination of ceftriaxone and azithromycin.

53
Q

What are indications for admission for pts with pneumonia?

A

Severe disease is defined as a combination of:

  • Hypotension (systolic < 90 mmHg)
  • Respiratory rate above 30 per minute, pO2 less than 60 mmHg, or pH below 7.35
  • BUN > 30, sodium < 130, glucose > 125
  • Pulse > 125
  • Confusion
  • Temperature > 104 F
  • Age 65 or older, or comorbidities such as cancer, COPD, CHF, renal failure, or liver disease
54
Q

What is CURB65?

A

One of the criteria used for admitting pts with CAP. It stands for:

  • Confusion
  • Uremia
  • Respiratory distress
  • BP low
  • Age 65 or older

0-1 point: send home
2 or more points: admit

55
Q

Who should receive the pneumococcal vaccination (the 23 polyvalent vaccine)?

A
  • Everyone age 65 or older
  • Chronic heart, liver, kidney, or lung disease
  • Functional or anatomic asplenia (e.g. sickle cell disease)
  • Hematologic malignancy (leukemia, lymphoma)
  • Immunosuppression: DM, alcoholics, corticosteroid users, AIDS or HIV positive
  • CSF leak
  • Cochlear implant recipients
56
Q

What is the difference in people who get the pneumococcal vaccine because of age and those who need it for other reasons?

A

Those who are healthy should get a single dose at age 65.

If the first dose is given before age 65 or with any of the other conditions that require vaccination, a second dose should be given 5 years later.

58
Q

What is the main difference between CAP and HAP treatment?

A

HAP treatment is centered around Gram-negative bacilli; thus, macrolide are NOT acceptable therapy.

59
Q

What are appropriate abx for HAP?

A

Antipseudomonal cephalosporins:
cefepime or ceftazidime

Antipseudomonal penicillins:
piperacillin/tazobactum

Carbapenems:
imipenem, meropenem, or doripenem

60
Q

What are the 5 diagnostic tests for VAP in order of least accurate but easiest to most accurate but most dangerous?

A
  • Tracheal aspirate
  • Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)
  • Protected brush specimen
  • Video-assisted thoracoscopy (VAT)
  • Open lung biopsy
61
Q

What is the Rx for VAP?

A

Combine 3 different drugs:

  1. Antipseudomonal beta-lactam
    - Any of the drugs used in HAP
  2. Second antipseudomonal agent
    - Aminoglycoside: gentamicin, tobramicin, or amikacin
    - Fluoroquinolone: levofloxacin or moxifloxacin
  3. MRSA agent
    - Vancomycin or linezolid
62
Q

What is the best initial test for lung abscess? Most accurate?

A

Best initial: CXR* will show a cavity, possibly with an air-fluid level.

Most accurate: Lung biopsy is the only way to establish the specific microbiological etiology.

*CT is more accurate than CXR, but cannot determine etiology so it’s not worth doing.

63
Q

What is the Rx for lung abscess?

A

Clindamycin or penicillin

64
Q

Is sputum culture useful for lung abscess?

A

Everyone has anaerobes in their sputum from mouth flora. Sputum culture is useless.

65
Q

What is the best initial test for pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)? Most accurate?

A

The best initial test is either a CXR that shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates OR an ABG looking for hypoxia or an increased A-a gradient.

Most accurate: Bronchoalveolar lavage.

66
Q

Is sputum stain useful for PCP diagnosis?

A

A positive sputum stain for pneumocystis is very specific. If the stain is positive, there is no need for further testing.

A negative sputum stain means you have to do bronchoscopy for diagnosis.

67
Q

How sensitive is high LDH level in PCP?

A

LDH is always elevated. A normal LDH means PCP should not be considered the most likely diagnosis.

68
Q

What is the best initial Rx for pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

TMP/SMX is the best initial therapy for treatment.

If there is toxicity from bactrim, switch to either:
- clindamycin and primaquine
OR
- pentamidine

69
Q

How is treatment different for mild and severe cases of PCP?

A

In mild cases with mild hypoxia, atovaquone can be used as an alternative to bactrim.

In severe cases, add steroids to bactrim to decrease mortality. Severe PCP is defined as having a pO2 < 70 or an A-a gradient > 35.

70
Q

What is the best initial test for TB? Most accurate?

A

Best initial: CXR (as with any respiratory infection); shows upper lobe disease

Most accurate: Pleural biopsy

*PPD skin testing is never the best test for a symptomatic pt.

71
Q

Are sputum stain and culture used to Dx TB?

A

Sputum stain and culture specifically for acid-fast bacilli must be done 3 times to fully exclude TB.

72
Q

When the smear is positive for TB, how is therapy begun?

A

Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.*

After 2 months, stop pyrazinamide and ethambutol but continue with rifampin and isoniazid for the next 4 months.

*Ethambutol is unnecessary if it is known at the beginning of therapy that the organism is sensitive to all TB drugs. It is only used prior to knowing the sensitivity of the organism.

73
Q

For whom is TB treated for 9 months?

A

Rx is 9 months for:

  • Osteomyelitis
  • Miliary TB
  • Meningitis
  • Pregnancy or any other time pyrazinamide cannot be used
74
Q

What side effect do all TB meds have in common? At what point should they be stopped?

A

All of them can cause hepatotoxicity, but don’t stop them unless the transaminases rise to 3-5 times the upper limit or normal.

75
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of each TB drug, besides hepatotoxicity? How is each adverse effect managed?

A

Rifampin turns body secretions and urine red; this is benign.

Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy; pyridoxine is given as prevention.

Pyrazinamide causes hyperuricemia; no Rx unless symptomatic.

Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis / color vision problems; decrease its dose in pts with renal failure.

76
Q

How are steroids used in TB?

A

Glucocorticoids decrease the risk of constrictive pericarditis in those with pericardial involvement. They also decrease neurological complications in TB meningitis.

77
Q

How is TB treated in pregnancy?

A

It is treated for 9 months instead of 6 and withOUT the use of pyrazinamide and streptomycin, which are both C/I in pregnancy.

78
Q

In a PPD skin test, how large much the induration be for pts without any risk factors to be considered positive?

A

Induration > 15 mm

79
Q

In a PPD skin test, induration > 5 mm is considered a positive test for whom?

A
  • HIV positive pts
  • Glucocorticoid users
  • Organ transplant recipients
  • Close contacts of those with active TB
  • Abnormal calcifications on CXR
80
Q

In a PPD skin test, induration > 10 mm is considered a positive test for whom?

A
  • Recent immigrants (5 years)
  • Prisoners
  • Healthcare workers
  • Close contacts of someone with TB
  • Hematologic malignancy, alcoholics, DM
81
Q

For pts with latent TB, what test should be done if they are symptomatic to check if the disease is active? What test should be done if they have an abnormal CXR?

A

The next step is sputum acid-fast testing in both cases. It must be done 3 times to fully exclude TB as the cause of the symptoms or abnormal CXR.

PPD is never the best test in a pt showing signs or symptoms of TB.

82
Q

When is a second PPD skin test indicated?

A

If the pt has never had a PPD skin test before, a second test is indicated within 1-2 weeks to make sure the first test wasn’t a false negative.

If the first test is positive, a second one is not necessary. Once the PPD is positive, it will always be positive in the future.

83
Q

If a pt has a reactive (positive) PPD skin test, what is the next step in management?

A

Everyone with an active PPD skin test should have a CXR to exclude active disease.

If the first test is positive, a second one is not necessary. Once the PPD is positive, it will always be positive in the future.

84
Q

What is a interferon gamma release assay (IGRA)?

A

IGRA is a blood test equal in significance to PPD to exclude TB exposure. There is no cross-reaction with BCG, the TB vaccine.

85
Q

A pt with latent TB has just had active TB excluded with a CXR. What is the next step in management?

A

Isoniazid for 9 months (with pyridoxine)

86
Q

How often should healthcare workers and other high risk groups get a PPD done?

A

Every year. Most of the risk of developing active TB lies within the first 2 years of conversion.

87
Q

How does it change management recommendations if a pt has received the BCG (TB vaccine)?

A

There is no change in management.

88
Q

What are the qualities of benign pulmonary nodules in terms of:

  • Age of pt
  • Change in size over time
  • Border texture
  • Size
  • Lung condition
  • Adenopathy or no?
  • Calcification quality
  • PET scan findings
  • Smoking status
A
  • Age of pt:
89
Q

What are the qualities of malignant pulmonary nodules in terms of:

  • Age of pt
  • Change in size over time
  • Border texture
  • Size
  • Lung condition
  • Adenopathy or no?
  • Calcification quality
  • PET scan findings
  • Smoking status
A
  • Age of pt: > 40
  • Change in size over time: Enlarging
  • Border texture: Spiculated (spikes)
  • Size: Large, > 2 cm
  • Lung condition: Atelectasis
  • Adenopathy: Yes
  • Calcification quality: Sparse, eccentric calcification
  • PET scan findings: Abnormal
  • Smoking status: Yes
90
Q

What is the best initial step after finding a lung lesion on CXR?

A

Compare the size with old CXRs.

91
Q

What do you do if a pulmonary nodule is enlarging?

A

Biopsy

92
Q

When many of the features of malignancy are present in a lung nodule, what do you do?

A

The best choice is to resect the lesion when there are multiple features of malignancy.

Don’t bother with sputum cytology, needle biopsy, or PET scan because a negative test would most likely be a false negative.

93
Q

For intermediate-probability lung nodules, what is the next step in management if:

  • sputum cytology is positive
  • the lesion is centrally located
  • the lesion is peripherally located
A
  • If sputum cytology is positive, resection is the best next step.
  • For central lesions, use bronchoscopy.
  • For peripheral lesions, use transthoracic needle biopsy.
94
Q

What characteristic of a lung nodule increases the accuracy of PET scan?

A

PET scan is most accurate with larger lesions (>1 cm).

95
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of transthoracic needle biopsy?

A

Pneumothorax

96
Q

What is both the most sensitive and specific test for lung nodule diagnosis?

A

Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) is the most sensitive and specific test. Frozen section in the OR allows for immediate conversion to an open thoracoscopy and lobectomy if malignancy is found.

97
Q

What is the best initial test for interstitial lung disease? Most accurate test?

A

Best initial: CXR

Most accurate: Lung biopsy

98
Q

In a pt with interstitial lung disease, what would you see on:

  • High resolution CT scan
  • Echo
A
  • High resolution CT scan shows thick walls between alveoli (due to long-standing fibrosis) that give the appearance of honeycombing.
  • Echo will often show pulmonary HTN and possibly RVH.
99
Q

What are PFT results in interstitial lung disease?

A
  • Restrictive lung disease with decrease of everything proportionately.
  • FEV1/FVC ratio is normal
  • DLCO is decreased in proportion to the severity of the thickening of the alveolar septum.
100
Q

Most types of interstitial lung disease are untreatable. What should be used if biopsy shows white cell or inflammatory infiltrate?

A

Prednisone

101
Q

Which of the pneumoconioses is most likely to respond to Rx with steroids?

A

Berylliosis responds to steroids due to the presence of granulomas, which are a sign of inflammation.

102
Q

What is the best initial test for sarcoidosis? Most accurate test?

A

Best initial: CXR shows hilar adenopathy in > 95% of pts. Parenchymal involvement is also present in combination with lymphadenopathy.

Most accurate: Lymph node biopsy shows noncaseating granulomas.

103
Q

What is the treatment for sarcoidosis?

A

Prednisone - few pts fail to respond.

*Asymptomatic hilar adenopathy does not need to be treated.

104
Q

What does bronchoalveolar lavage show in sarcoidosis?

A

BAL shows an elevated number of T helper cells in sarcoidosis.

105
Q

What are the best initial tests for PE? What is the most accurate test?

A

The best initial tests are CXR, EKG, and ABG

The most accurate test is angiography, but it is fatal in 0.5% of cases. Instead, spiral CT scan is used to confirm PE.

106
Q

What is the most common abnormality found on CXR in PE? What other findings may be present?

A

CXR is usually normal in PE. The most common abnormality is atelectasis.

Other findings include wedge-shaped infarction, pleural-based lesion (Hampton hump), and oligemia of one lobe (Westermark sign). These are much less common than simple atelectasis.

107
Q

What is the most common abnormality on EKG in PE? What other findings might be seen on EKG?

A

EKG usually shows sinus tachycardia. The most common abnormality is nonspecific ST-T wave changes.

Only 5% will show right axis deviation, RV hypertrophy or RBBB.

108
Q

What does an ABG look like in PE?

A

Hypoxia and respiratory alkalosis (high pH and low pCO2). This finding, along with a normal CXR, is highly suggestive of PE.

109
Q

When is V/Q scan used to diagnose PE?

A

V/Q scan is only preferable to spiral CT in pregnancy. In other pts, V/Q scan is done if spiral CT is negative. Even then, you could just do a LE Doppler instead.

V/Q scan is only accurate if the CXR is normal.

110
Q

When is D-dimer taken to diagnose PE?

A

D-dimer is a very sensitive test but isn’t very specific. A negative test excludes a clot, but a positive test means nothing.

D-dimer is used when the pre-test probability of PE is low and you need a simple, noninvasive test to exclude thromboembolic disease.

111
Q

If you suspect PE and a LE Doppler study is positive, what is the next step in management?

A

If LE Doppler is positive, no further testing is needed. You don’t need to confirm PE because it doesn’t change management. The pt will still need heparin and 6 months of warfarin.

112
Q

What is the best initial therapy for PE?

A

Heparin is the best initial therapy. Warfarin should be started at the same time in order to obtain a therapeutic INR of 2-3 times normal as quickly as possible.

Fondaparinux is an alternative to heparin.

113
Q

When is IVC filter used for thromboembolism?

A
  • Contraindication to the use of anticoagulants (melena, CNS bleeding, etc.)
  • Recurrent emboli while on heparin or fully therapeutic warfarin (INR of 2-3)
  • Right ventricular dysfunction with an enlarged RV on echo. In this case, disease is so severe that IVC filter must be placed because the next embolus, even if seemingly small, could be potentially fatal.
114
Q

When are thrombolytics used for PE? What is the time limit for their use?

A
  • Hemodynamically unstable pts, e.g. hypotension (systolic BP < 90) and tachycardia.
  • Acute RV dysfunction

There is no time limit for thrombolytic use as there is in MI or stroke.

115
Q

When are direct-acting thrombin inhibitors used for PE?

A

Argatroban or lepirudin are used to treat PE for:

- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

116
Q

When is aspirin used to treat PE?

A

NEVERRRRRRRR

117
Q

When is prophylaxis started for PCP? What drug is used?

A

TMP/SMX is started in pts with AIDS whose CD4 count is < 200 uL.

If there is a rash or neutropenia from bactrim, use either atovaquone or dapsone.

118
Q

What is pulmonary HTN?

A

Systolic BP > 25 mmHg, diastolic BP > 8 mmHg.

119
Q

What is the best initial test for pulmonary HTN? Most accurate?

A

Best initial: CXR and CT show dilation of the proximal pulmonary arteries with narrowing or “pruning” of distal vessels.

Most accurate: Right heart or Swan-Ganz catheter

120
Q

In pulmonary HTN, what findings would you expect on EKG and echo?

A

EKG - right axis deviation, RAH and RVH.

Echo - RAH and RVH; Doppler estimates pulmonary artery pressure.

121
Q

In pulmonary HTN, when is V/Q scan used? What would a CBC show?

A

V/Q scan identifies chronic PE as the cause of pulmonary HTN.

CBC shows polycythemia from chronic hypoxia.

122
Q

What is the treatment protocol for pulmonary HTN?

A

1) Correct the underlying cause when one is clear.

2) Idiopathic disease is treated, if there is vascular reactivity, with:
- Prostacyclin analogues (PA vasodilators), e.g. epoprostenol, treprostinil, iloprost, or beraprost.
- Endothelin antagonists, e.g. bosentan.
- Phosphodiesterase inhibitors, e.g. sildenafil.
* These are all better than CCBs, hydralazine, and NG.

3) Oxygen slows progression, particularly with COPD.

123
Q

What is the best test for obstructive sleep apnea?

A

The most accurate test is polysomnography (sleep study), which shows multiple episodes of apnea. Arrhythmias and erythrocytosis are common.

124
Q

What is the treatment protocol for obstructive sleep apnea?

A

1) Weight loss and avoidance of alcohol
2) CPAP
3) Surgical widening of the airway (uvuloplatopharyngoplasty)
4) Avoid use of sedatives
5) Oral appliances to keep the tongue out of the way

125
Q

What is the best initial test for ARDS?

A

CXR - shows bilateral infiltrates that quickly become confluent (“white out”). Air bronchograms (signs of dense consolidation) are common.

126
Q

How is ARDS defined? What test confirms the diagnosis? What are the criteria to classify it as moderately severe and severe?

A

ARDS is defined as having a pO2/FIO2 ratio < 300. For example, if a pt has a pO2 of 60 on room air, then the ratio is 60/0.21 = 286 = ARDS. An ABG will tell you pO2; thus, it is used to confirm diagnosis.

Moderate ARDS = pO2/FIO2 < 200
Severe ARDS = pO2/FIO2 < 100

127
Q

In ARDS, what findings would you expect on right heart catheterization?

A

Normal findings on right heart catheterization. The wedge pressure is normal, but it is not necessary to measure.

128
Q

What is the treatment for ARDS?

A

1) Treat the underlying cause.
2) Low tidal-volume mechanical ventilation is the best support while waiting to see if the lungs will recover. Use 6 mL/kg of tidal volume.
3) PEEP is used when the pt is undergoing mechanical ventilation to try to decrease the FIO2. Levels of FIO2 > 50% are toxic to the lungs. Maintain the plateau pressure of less than 30 cm of water. This is measured on the ventilator.

*No treatment is proven to reverse ARDS. Treat the underlying cause as soon as possible.

129
Q

Are steroids beneficial in ARDS?

A

Steroids may be beneficial in late-stage disease in which pulmonary fibrosis develops. It is unclear if they have any benefit early on.