Dx and Rx Flashcards

0
Q

What are the two parts of urinalysis? What does each part detect/measure?

A

Dipstick or urine test strip - detects and measures leukocyte esterase, blood, nitrites, glucose, urobilinogen, bilirubin, ketones, specific gravity and pH.

Microanalysis - used to count WBCs (total and eosinophil count), RBCs, casts, and crystals.

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1
Q

What is the best initial test for any renal disease?

A

Urinalysis and BUN/Cr (from BMP)

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2
Q

What is the normal amount of protein excreted per 24 hours? What specific proteins are detected?

A

Protein < 300 mg per 24 hours is normal. 1+ protein means 1 gram (1000 mg) of protein excreted per 24 hours.

Urine dipstick for protein only detects albumin.

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3
Q

What are the two tests that can accurately measure proteinuria AFTER it is detected on urinalysis? Which test is preferred?

A

Transient proteinuria is present in 2-10% of the population, so the two best methods of calculating total protein per day are:
- Single protein to creatinine ratio
- 24-hour urine collection
P/Cr ratio is favored because it is faster, easier to perform, and more accurate. A P/Cr of 1 is equivalent to 1 gram of protein excreted per 24 hours, so a normal P/Cr is < 0.3.

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4
Q

What are the etiologies of elevated proteinuria? What confirmatory diagnostic test is done if proteinuria persists?

A

Elevated amounts can be associated with either tubular or glomerular disease, but may also be due to physical activity or prolonged standing (orthostatic proteinuria). Very large amounts can only be excreted with glomerular disease.

Kidney biopsy must be performed if proteinuria persists and is not related to prolonged standing.

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5
Q

What is microalbuminuria and why is it measured? What is the next step in management?

A

Microalbumin is a tiny protein that is too small to be detected by UA. Microalbuminuria = 30-300 mg per 24 hours.

It is very important to detect microalbuminuria in diabetic pts because long-term microalbuminuria leads to worsening renal function. It is found very early in the disease, long before albumin can leak out and be detected on UA in nephrotic syndrome (>3.5 protein) caused by DM.

When any degree of proteinuria, even microalbuminuria, is detected in a pt with DM, the best initial Rx is an ACEI or ARB, which decrease the progression of proteinuria and delay the development of renal insufficiency.

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6
Q

What do WBCs on UA indicate? Which types of leukocytes are most significant? What can persistent WBC on UA with negative culture indicate?

A

WBCs indicate inflammation, infection, or allergic interstitial nephritis (AIN). Urine dipstick cannot distinguish between types, but microanalysis can.

  • Neutrophils indicate infection.
  • Eosinophils indicate AIN.

Persistent WBC on UA with negative culture can be TB.

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7
Q

What are the best tests for acute (allergic) interstitial nephritis (AIN)?

A

Wright stain or Hansel stain will detect eosinophils in the urine.

*NSAID-induced nephropathy does not show eosinophils in urine.

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8
Q

Can urinalysis be used to test for multiple myeloma?

A

No, because the Bence-Jones protein is not detectable on urine dipstick (only albumin is). Instead, the BJ protein is detected using electrophoresis.

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9
Q

What test is important in a diabetic pt with kidney disease but no ophthalmic findings?

A

Kidney biopsy

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10
Q

What is the criterion for hematuria on UA? What does hematuria indicate?

A

Normal UA has < 5 RBCs per high power field (HPF). Hematuria (> 5 RBCs) is indicative of:

  • Stones in the bladder, ureter or kidney
  • Cancer of the bladder, ureter or kidney
  • Hematologic disorders that cause bleeding (coagulopathy)
  • Infection, e.g. cystitis or pyelonephritis
  • Drugs, e.g. hemorrhagic cystitis with cyclophosphamide
  • Trauma
  • Glomerulonephritis
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11
Q

What is the best next test after a urine dipstick is positive for blood?

A

If blood is found on the dipstick, you must do a microscopic analysis of the urine to see if there are actually RBCs. If not, the result was a false positive.

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12
Q

What cause false positives on urine dipstick?

A

Hemoglobin or myoglobin in the urine yield false positives for hematuria. Dipstick cannot distinguish them from RBCs.

False positives are confirmed by microanalysis showing no RBCs.

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13
Q

After UA confirms hematuria, what is the best test if you suspect stones? When do you do IV pyelogram?

A

Renal CT is used to detect stones, e.g. hematuria with flank or groin pain, dysuria, Hx of stones, etc.

IVP is never used because it is slow and the contrast is renal toxic.

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14
Q

When is cystoscopy used?

A

Cystoscopy is the most accurate test of the bladder. It is done when there is hematuria without infection or prior trauma and:

  • the renal US or CT does not show an etiology
  • bladder sonography shows a mass for possible biopsy (bladder cancer presents with painless hematuria)
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15
Q

How do casts in the urine help narrow down the differential diagnosis? Are casts sensitive or specific findings?

A

Casts in the urine indicate the pathology originated in the kidneys. They are often not present, but are very useful if found because they are a specific finding and thus can be used to answer “most likely diagnosis” questions.

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16
Q

What diseases are associated with the following types of cast:

  • RBC
  • WBC
  • Eosinophil
  • Hyaline
  • Broad, waxy
  • Granular, “muddy brown”
A
  • RBC casts indicate glomerulonephritis
  • WBC casts indicate pyelonephritis
  • Eosinophil casts indicate acute (allergic) interstitial nephritis
  • Hyaline casts indicate dehydration*
  • Broad, waxy casts indicate acute tubular necrosis; they are collections of dead tubular cells

*Dehydration concentrates urine and the normal Tamm-Horsfall protein precipitates into a hyaline cast.

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17
Q

What is the best initial test for acute kidney injury (AKI) aka acute renal failure? How does it help distinguish between prerenal, intrinsic renal, and postrenal disease?

A

BUN and Cr is the best initial test. Their ratio is most important.

BUN:Cr is above 20:1 in prerenal and postrenal disease.
BUN:Cr is closer to 10:1 in intrinsic renal disease.

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18
Q

In postrenal azotemia, how many kidneys need to be obstructed for Cr to increase?

A

Both kidneys must be obstructed for Cr to rise; this is why stones can present without elevated Cr.

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19
Q

For BUN:Cr > 20:1, how do you distinguish between prerenal and postrenal disease?

A

Prerenal azotemia is usually the clear diagnosis when BUN:Cr > 20:1 AND the pt has a Hx of hypoperfusion or hypotension

Postrenal azotemia is usually the clear diagnosis when BUN:Cr > 20:1 AND the pt has a distended bladder or massive release of urine with catheter placement AND bilateral or unilateral hydronephrosis on sonogram (US).

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20
Q

How much does creatinine rise with completely dead kidneys?

A

About one point (1 mg/dL) per day

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21
Q

What is the best initial imaging test for AKI?

A

Renal sonogram is the best initial test because it does not require contrast, which should be avoided in renal insufficiency.

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22
Q

When the cause of AKI is unclear, what is the next best diagnostic step?

A

Urinalysis is the next best step.

*If urinalysis is not one of the choices then urine sodium, fractional excretion of sodium, and urine osmolality can be used.

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23
Q

How can urine sodium, fractional excretion of sodium, and urine osmolality be used to determine the etiology of AKI?

A

Urine sodium and fractional excretion of sodium give you the same info. Urine osmolality is inversely proportional to them.

Prerenal azotemia:
- low UNa (500 mOsm/kg)

Postrenal or interstitial azotemia:

  • high UNa (>20%) = high FeNa (>1-2%)
  • low urine osmolality (<300 mOsm/kg)
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24
Q

Does urine specific gravity correlate with UNa, FeNa, and/or osmolality?

A

Specific gravity is correlated with osmolality; thus, they are directly proportional.

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25
Q

Can a kidney be transplanted from a pt with prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal disease?

A

A kidney in prerenal and postrenal disease would function normally if transplanted into another person.

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26
Q

Explain the findings for UNa, FeNa, and urine osmolality in prerenal disease

A

In prerenal disease:

  • low BP or low intravascular volume –> increased aldosterone release –> increased Na reabsorption –> decreased UNa and FeNa.
  • low intravascular volume –> increased ADH release –> increased water reabsorption –> increased urine osmolality.
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27
Q

Explain the findings of UNa, FeNa, and osmolality in interstitial renal disease

A

In ATN, for example:

  • tubule cell damage –> decreased Na reabsorption –> inappropriate Na loss –> increased UNa and FeNa
  • tubule cell damage –> decreased water reabsorption –> inability to concentrate urine –> decreased osmolality
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28
Q

Why is dehydration a problem in a pt with ATN?

A

In a healthy pt with dehydration, urine osmolality is increased (urine is concentrated) because water is reabsorbed.

In ATN, tubule cells die and lose the ability to reabsorb water; thus, the pt cannot concentrate their urine, so water that is necessary to maintain blood pressure and volume is lost via dilute, high-volume urine.

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29
Q

What is the treatment for ATN?

A

There is no specific therapy proven to benefit ATN. Treating the underlying cause is always the best method.

Patients should be managed with hydration (if they are volume depleted) and correction of electrolyte abnormalities.

Common incorrect answers are low-dose dopamine, diuretics, mannitol, and steroids.

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30
Q

Why is it critical to know the causes of ATN in order to diagnose it?

A

There is no specific diagnostic test to confirm the etiology of ATN or distinguish ATN from other causes of intrinsic renal disease. You cannot do a blood level of a drug or a biopsy to prove that a particular toxin caused the renal failure.

The clues to answer “What is the most likely diagnosis” questions are simply acute renal failure and a toxin in the pt’s history; diagnosis can be assumed and treatment can be initiated based on this info alone. A confirmatory diagnostic test is unnecessary because there isn’t one.

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31
Q

How is rhabdomyolysis diagnosed?

A

The best initial test is UA showing blood on dipstick but no RBCs on microscopic analysis. CPK levels will be markedly elevated, but it isn’t necessary to do them after the UA indicates myoglobin in the urine.

The most specific test is urine test for myoglobin; it may not be necessary if the history and UA were enough to go on.

Other findings are hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia.

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32
Q

How does the onset of ATN help you determine the cause?

A

Contrast media cause immediate renal toxicity.

Drugs such as aminoglycosides, amphotericin, cisplatin, vancomycin, acyclovir, and cyclosporine have a slower onset of 5-10 days.

Hyperuricemia (e.g. from tumor lysis syndrome) takes about 2 days (e.g. after treatment is started).

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33
Q

How is ATN from tumor lysis syndrome prevented?

A

Allopurinol, hydration, and rasburicase should be given prior to chemotherapy to prevent renal failure from tumor lysis syndrome.

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34
Q

How does contrast-induced ATN differ from the other etiologies?

A

Contrast causes spasm of the afferent arteriole that leads to renal tubular dysfunction. There is tremendous reabsorption of sodium and water, leading to profoundly low urine sodium.

Contrast ATN results in very high specific gravity and osmolality and very low UNa and FeNa. The usual findings of ATN are the opposite.

Contrast media also has a very rapid onset of injury.

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35
Q

What is the treatment for contrast-induced ATN?

A

Only saline hydration has proven benefit.

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36
Q

Describe the lab values in hepatorenal syndrome

A

The lab values in HR syndrome are the same as prerenal syndrome:
- Very low UNa ( 20:1

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37
Q

What is the treatment for hepatorenal syndrome

A
  • Midodrine
  • Octreotide
  • Albumin (albumin is less clear)
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38
Q

What is the treatment for rhabdomyolysis?

A

Rhabdomyolysis is treated with saline hydration, mannitol, and bicarbonate.

  • Saline hydration and mannitol (as an osmotic diuretic) increase urine flow rates to decrease the amount of contact time between myoglobin and the tubular cells. Myoglobin is a severe oxidant stress on these cells.
  • Bicarbonate - drives potassium back into cells and may prevent precipitation of myoglobin in the kidney tubule

*Don’t treat hypocalcemia in rhabdomyolysis unless it is symptomatic. In recovery, the calcium and will come back out of the muscles.

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39
Q

When is dialysis used for ATN?

A

Initiating dialysis is not based on a specific level of BUN or Cr; it is based on the development of life-threatening conditions that cannot be corrected another way, including:

  • Fluid overload
  • Encephalopathy
  • Pericarditis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Hyperkalemia (symptomatic)
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40
Q

When is kidney biopsy done for AKI?

A

Kidney biopsy is the most accurate test for AIN or poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, but it is rare for either of these to actually require biopsy for diagnosis.

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41
Q

What is the renal manifestation of sickle cell trait? What is the best advice for pts?

A

A defect in renal concentrating ability, or isothenuria, is actually the only significant manifestation of sickle cell trait. The pts will continue to produce inappropriately dilute, high-volume urine despite dehydration. As such, they must avoid becoming dehydrated.

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42
Q

What are the physical findings in atheroemboli? What are the important diagnostic findings?

A

PE shows:

  • Blue/purplish skin lesions in fingers and toes
  • Livedo ritcularis
  • Ocular lesions
  • Peripheral pulses are normal

Diagnostic tests show:

  • Eosinophilia
  • Eosinophiluria
  • Low complement levels
  • Elevated ESR
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43
Q

What is the most accurate test for atheroemboli? What does it show? What is the Rx for atheroemboli?

A

Biopsy of one of the purplish skin lesions is the most accurate diagnostic test. It shows cholesterol crystals, but this does not change management because there is no specific therapy to reverse atheroembolic disease.

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44
Q

What do UA and BUN/Cr show for AIN? What is the most accurate test for AIN?

A

Initial labs show:

  • WBCs and RBCs in the urine
  • Eosinophilia on CBC
  • Elevated BUN and Cr with a ratio below 20:1 (intrinsic renal disease)

The most accurate test is either the Hansel stain or the Wright stain, which show eosinophils in the urine. Microanalysis is not sufficiently accurate to prove there are eosinophils in the urine.

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45
Q

What is the treatment for AIN?

A

AIN usually resolves spontaneously with stopping the drug or controlling the infection. If the creatinine continues to rise after stopping the drug, giving glucocorticoids (prednisone, hydrocortisone, methylprednisone) is the best answer.

Severe disease is managed with dialysis, which may be temporary.

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46
Q

What are the findings for UNa, FeNa, and osmolality in AIN?

A

Variable - they cannot help establish the diagnosis.

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47
Q

How is analgesic nephropathy from NSAIDs diagnosed? What is the Rx?

A

There is no specific diagnostic test to determine NSAIDs caused the disease. Exclude other causes and look for NSAIDs in the Hx.

Stop NSAIDs and correct hypoperfusion.

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48
Q

What is the best initial test for papillary necrosis? Most accurate? What are the findings?

A

Best initial: UA shows RBCs and WBCs, and may show necrotic kidney tissue.

Most accurate: CT scan shows the abnormal internal structures of the kidney from the loss of the papillae.

49
Q

What is the treatment for papillary necrosis?

A

None - you cannot reattach the sloughed-off part of the kidney.

50
Q

What diagnostic findings are common among all forms of glomerulonephritis?

A
  • UA with proteinuria, hematuria and red cell casts; dysmorphic RBCs
  • UNa and FeNa are low
  • HTN
  • Edema
51
Q

How is Goodpasture syndrome similar to Wegener’s? How are they different?

A

Both affect the lung and kidney (glomerulonephritis), but Wegener’s affects the upper respiratory tract as well (e.g. nasal polyps, otitis media).

52
Q

What is the best initial test for Goodpasture syndrome? What is the most accurate test?

A

Best initial: Antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies.

Most accurate: Lung or kidney biopsy.

54
Q

What do CXR and CBC show in Goodpasture syndrome?

A

CXR will be abnormal but it’s insufficient to confirm diagnosis.

CBC shows anemia from hemoptysis.

55
Q

What is the Rx for Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Plasmapheresis and steroids.

56
Q

What is the MCC of acute glomerulonephritis in the US?

A

IgA nephropathy

57
Q

What are the unique physical findings in IgA nephropathy?

A

There are no unique physical findings in IgA nephropathy.

58
Q

How can you tell the difference between IgA nephropathy and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Berger disease follows URI by 1-2 days.

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis follows pharyngitis by 1-2 weeks.

59
Q

What diagnostic tests are used in IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)?

A

IgA levels are increased in only 50%.

Kidney biopsy is the most accurate test.

60
Q

What is the Rx for IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)?

A

There is no Rx proven to reverse the disease. Around 30% will completely resolve. Between 40-50% will slowly progress to end-stage renal disease.

Severe proteinuria is treated with ACEIs and steroids.

61
Q

After UA, how is PSGN confirmed?

A

Antistreptolysin O (ASO) and anti-DNase antibody titers are done after UA.

*Biopsy is the most accurate test, but you should not routinely do a kidney biopsy because blood titers are accurate enough to confirm PSGN and the disorder usually resolves spontaneously.

62
Q

Describe complement levels in PSGN

A

Complement levels are low in PSGN.

63
Q

What is the Rx of PSGN?

A

Management of PSGN does not reverse the glomerulonephritis. Use supportive Rx such as:

  • Antibiotics
  • Diuretics to control fluid overload

*Less than 5% of those with PSGN will progress.

64
Q

What is the Rx for Alport syndrome?

A

There is no specific therapy to reverse this defect of type IV collagen.

65
Q

What is the best initial test that has specificity for polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)? What is the most accurate test?

A

Best initial: Angiography of the renal, mesenteric, or hepatic artery showing aneurysmal dilation in association with new-onset HTN and characteristic symptoms. Angiography is clearly the best option when the most involved organ is not easily accessible for a biopsy (such as the kidney).

Most accurate: Biopsy of a symptomatic site such as skin, nerves, or muscles.

*There is no blood test to confirm PAN; p-ANCA is not present in most cases.

66
Q

What is the Rx for PAN?

A

Prednisone and cyclophosphamide are the standard of care and they lower mortality.

Treat hepatitis when it is found.

67
Q

What do CBC and other blood tests show for PAN?

A
  • CBC shows anemia and leukocytosis
  • ESR and C-reactive protein are elevated
  • ANCA is not present in most cases
  • ANA and rheumatoid factor are sometimes present at low levels
68
Q

What is the most accurate test for SLE nephritis and what does it show?

A

Biopsy is the most accurate test, and is indispensable in determining therapy based on the stage; it is not used to diagnose lupus. Kidney biopsy in long-standing SLE will show glomerulosclerosis.

69
Q

What is the Rx for lupus nephritis?

A

Severe, proliferation disease such as membranous nephropathy is treated with glucocorticoids combined with either cyclophosphamide or mycophenolate.

Glucocorticoids may be used alone for mild inflammatory disease.

70
Q

How is amyloidosis diagnosed as the cause of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Biopsy is the most accurate test. You will see green birefringence with Congo red staining.

71
Q

How is amyloidosis-induced nephrotic syndrome treated?

A

Treat amyloidosis by trying to control the underlying disease. When this is unsuccessful or there is no primary disease to control, the treatment of amyloidosis is with melphalan and prednisone.

72
Q

What kidney diseases (4) give large kidneys on sonogram and CT scan?

A

Amyloid, HIV nephropathy, polycystic kidney disease, and diabetes show enlarged kidneys on imaging.

73
Q

What is the best initial test for nephrotic syndrome? What is the most accurate test?

A

Best initial: UA shows proteinuria, but it is not sufficiently accurate. The urine albumin/creatinine (protein/creatinine) ratio which gives a measure of average protein excreted over 24 hours; it is more accurate than UA and is easier to obtain.

Most accurate: Renal biopsy

74
Q

What does urine microanalysis show in nephrotic syndrome?

A

UA shows Maltese crosses, which are lipid deposits in sloughed-off tubular cells.

75
Q

What’s the best initial therapy for nephrotic syndrome? How are proteinuria, edema and hyperlipidemia managed?

A
  • Glucocorticoids are the best initial therapy.
  • ACEIs or ARBs are used to try to control proteinuria.
  • Salt restriction and diuretics are used to manage edema.
  • Statins are used to manage hyperlipidemia.
76
Q

In end-stage renal disease, what is the treatment for:

  • Anemia
  • Hypocalcemia and osteomalacia
  • Bleeding
  • Pruritis
A
  • Anemia - erythropoietin replacement and iron supplementation.
  • Hypocalcemia and osteomalacia - replace Vit D and calcium.
  • Bleeding - DDAVP increases platelet function; use ONLY if bleeding.
  • Pruritis - dialysis and UV light.
77
Q

In end-stage renal disease, what is the treatment for:

  • Hypermagnesemia
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Endocrinopathy
A
  • Hypermagnesemia - restriction of high-Mg foods, laxatives, and antacids.
  • Atherosclerosis - dialysis.
  • Endocrinopathy - dialysis, estrogen and testosterone replacement.
78
Q

In end-stage renal disease, what is the treatment for hyperphosphatemia?

A

Oral phosphate binders will prevent phosphate absorption from the bowel. Use:

  • Sevelamer or lanthanum when calcium level is high.
  • Calcium acetate or calcium carbonate when calcium is low. Treating hypocalcemia will also help because it is hyperparathyroidism that causes phosphate’s release from bone. When Vit D is replaced to control hypocalcemia, it is important to give phosphate binders; otherwise, Vit D will increase GI absorption of phosphate.
79
Q

Why are aluminum-containing phosphate binders never used in end-stage renal disease?

A

Aluminum causes dementia.

80
Q

What is the 5-year survival rate for an end-stage renal disease pt with:

  • a kidney transplant from a living, related donor
  • a kidney transplant from a deceased donor
  • dialysis alone
  • diabetes and dialysis
A
  • living, related donor - 72%
  • deceased donor - 58%
  • dialysis alone - 30-40%
  • diabetes and dialysis - 20%

The donor does not have to be related or alive, but it helps. The average survival of HLA-identical, related donor kidneys is 24 years.

81
Q

How is TTP diagnosed?

A

Blood smear showing intravascular hemolysis is the only indispensable finding to establish the diagnosis. Hemolysis is visible on smear with:

  • Schistocytes
  • Fragmented red cells
  • Helmet cells
82
Q

Describe PT and aPTT levels in HUS/TTP

A

Normal for both

83
Q

What is the treatment for HUS/TTP?

A

Plasmapheresis is generally urgent in TTP, along with severe cases of HUS. If plasmapheresis is not available, use infusions of fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

84
Q

When are steroids the treatment of choice for HUS/TTP? When is platelet transfusion the best choice?

A

Steroids do not help and platelet transfusions are never used for TTP or HUS.

85
Q

What are the characteristics of complex cysts in cystic kidney disease? What do you do if you suspect a complex cyst?

A

Complex cysts are potentially malignant. They have the following traits:

  • Mixed echogenicity
  • Irregular, thick walls
  • Lower density on the back wall (in terms of demarcation)
  • Debris in the cyst (in terms of transmission)

If any of the mentioned characteristics of a complex cyst are found, the cyst needs to be aspirated to exclude malignancy.

86
Q

What is the Rx of polycystic kidney disease?

A

No therapy exists to prevent or reverse cysts of any type.

87
Q

What is the MCC of death in PCKD?

A

Renal failure occurs after recurrent episodes of pyelonephritis and nephrolithiasis causing progressive scarring and loss of renal function.

  • Only 10-15% of pt’s have cerebral aneurysms, and most of them do not rupture.
  • *PCKD does not have malignant potential.
88
Q

What is the best initial test when you suspect diabetes insipidus? What do you do if that test is positive?

A

Water deprivation test is positive when urine volume stays high despite withholding water. This test is positive in both types of DI.

Response to ADH administration is used to differentiate between central DI and nephrogenic DI.

  • CDI - sharp decrease in urine volume, increase in osmolality; this is because CDI is defined as insufficient ADH.
  • NDI - no change in urine volume or osmolality; this is because ADH is already markedly elevated in NDI–it has just lost its effectiveness as the collecting duct of the kidney.
89
Q

What do CDI and NDI have in common diagnostically? How do they differ?

A

CDI and NDI both present with polyuria and nocturia, low urine osmolality and sodium, and a positive water deprivation test.

In CDI, ADH is low and there is a response to ADH administration.

In NDI, ADH is high and there is no response to ADH administration.

90
Q

What is the treatment for DI? What are the specific treatments for CDI and NDI?

A

In either type of DI, treat fluid loss by correcting the underlying cause of the fluid loss.

CDI - replace ADH using vasopressin (DDAVP)

NDI - correct potassium and calcium

  • stop lithium or demeclocycline if pt is taking them
  • give hydrochlorothiazide or NSAIDs for those still having NDI despite these interventions
91
Q

What is a common complication of treatment for DI? How is it avoided? How does it present?

A

Cerebral edema will occur if sodium levels are brought down too rapidly, so bring them down slowly.

Cerebral edema presents with worsening confusion and seizures.

92
Q

What is the most accurate test for SIADH?

A

High ADH level

93
Q

Describe the levels of urine osmolality, urine sodium, uric acid, and BUN in SIADH

A

In SIADH:

  • Urine osmolality and urine sodium are inappropriately high.
  • Uric acid level and BUN are low.
94
Q

How is treatment approached for SIADH? What is the treatment of mild, moderate, and severe SIADH?

A

Treatment of SIADH is not based on sodium level; it is based on the symptoms.

Mild (no symptoms) - Restrict fluids
Moderate (minimal confusion) - Saline and a loop diuretic*
Severe (lethargy, seizures, coma) - Hypertonic saline and an ADH antagonist (conivaptan, tolvaptan); ADH antagonists are only used for urgent treatment in a hospital because no oral versions are available.

*Saline without a loop diuretic makes SIADH worse.

95
Q

How is chronic SIADH treated?

A

SIADH can be caused by an underlying disorder that cannot be corrected, such as metastatic cancer. Demeclocycline treats chronic SIADH by blocking the action of ADH at the collecting duct in the kidney.

96
Q

What is the major complication of treatment of hyponatremia?

A

Central pontine myelinolysis (or osmotic demyelinization) is caused by sodium that is raised too rapidly. As such, sodium correction must occur slowly, as in < 0.5-1.0 mEq/hr or 12-24 mEq/day.

97
Q

What is the best initial test for distal (type I) RTA? Most accurate test?

A

Best initial: UA shows abnormally high pH > 5.5

Most accurate: Infuse acid into the blood with ammonium chloride; the urine pH will remain high (> 5.5) in distal RTA.

98
Q

What is the treatment of distal (type I) RTA?

A
  • Treat the underlying cause or stop the offending drug

- Replace bicarbonate

99
Q

What is the best initial test for proximal (type II) RTA? What is the most accurate test?

A

Best initial: UA is done, but urine pH is variable–first it is high (> 5.5) as bicarbonate is excreted, it decreases (< 5.5) after too much bicarbonate is lost.

Most accurate: Give bicarbonate and test the urine pH to evaluate malabsorption of bicarbonate. The kidney cannot absorb the bicarbonate, so urine pH will increase.

100
Q

What is the treatment for proximal (type II) RTA?

A

Thiazide diuretics are used because they cause volume depletion, which will enhance bicarbonate reabsorption.

Proximal RTA is difficult to treat with bicarbonate replacement. Massive doses have to be used because it is not absorbed well in the kidney.

101
Q

How is type IV RTA diagnosed? What easily distinguishes type IV from types I and II?

A

Test for type IV RTA by finding a persistently high urine sodium despite a sodium-deplete diet.

Urine pH is < 5.5 for type IV, but can also be low in type II, so it is not the preferred test.

Hyperkalemia differentiates type IV from types I and II, which cause hypokalemia.

102
Q

What is the treatment for type IV RTA?

A

Fludrocortisone is used because it is the steroid with the highest mineralocorticoid or aldosterone-like effect.

103
Q

How is metabolic acidosis caused by RTA similar to that caused by diarrhea? How are they different?

A

Both RTA and diarrhea cause metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.

RTA has a positive urine anion gap (UAG), whereas diarrhea has a negative UAG.

104
Q

What is the most accurate test for kidney stones?

A

CT scan is used because it is more accurate than x-ray or sonogram and because, unlike intravenous pyelogram, it does not require contrast.

105
Q

What is the best initial therapy for acute renal colic? What else should be done?

A

The best initial Rx is analgesics and hydration.

CT scan and sonography are done to detect obstruction and possible hydronephrosis.

106
Q

How does the size of a kidney stone reflect management?

A
  • Stones < 5 mm resolve spontaneously.
  • Give nifedipine and tamsulosin to help pass stones 5-7 mm.
  • Lithotripsy is used for stones 0.5-2 or 3 cm, esp. ones in the proximal half of the ureter.
  • Surgery is needed for stones > 2 cm that aren’t well-managed with lithotripsy because the fragments will get caught in the ureter. Stent placement relieves hydronephrosis from stones in the distal ureter.

*Stones in the proximal half of the ureter are treated with lithotripsy, while stones in the distal half are retrieved with a basket.

107
Q

What kind of stones are caused by UTIs? How are they treated?

A

UTIs cause formation of struvite stones (magnesium/ammonium/phosphate). Remove them surgically.

108
Q

What is the 5-year recurrence rate for kidney stones? What Rx is used for stone prevention?

A

50% of those with kidney stones will have another over the next 5 years. Hydrochlorothiazide prevents stones by decreasing urine calcium (it increases distal tubule reabsorption of Ca).

Dietary restriction of calcium actually increases the probability of stone formation due to increased absorption of oxalate (calcium binds oxalate in the gut to be excreted).

The risk of stones increases with dietary decrease in calcium, increase in oxalate, or decrease in citrate.

109
Q

How is stress incontinence diagnosed? How is it treated?

A

Dx - have the pt stand and cough; observe for leakage

Rx

1) Kegel exercises
2) Local estrogen cream
3) Surgical tightening of the urethra

110
Q

How is urge incontinence diagnosed? How is it treated?

A

Dx - Pressure measurement in half-filled bladder; manometry

Rx

1) Bladder training exercises
2) Local anticholinergic therapy:
- Oxybutynin
- Tolterodine
- Solifenacin
- Darifenacin
3) Surgical tightening of the urethra

111
Q

What does kidney biopsy show in Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Linear deposits

112
Q

What is considered hypertension in an otherwise healthy person? What is HTN in a diabetic pt?

A

HTN:
Otherwise healthy - systolic > 140; diastolic > 90
Diabetes or CKD - systolic > 130; diastolic > 80

113
Q

What is the best initial therapy for HTN?

A

For the first 3-6 months, HTN is treated with lifestyle modifications, such as:

  • Weight loss (most effective)
  • Sodium restriction
  • Dietary changes e.g. less fat and red meat, more fish and vegetables
  • Exercise
114
Q

Does smoking cessation lower blood pressure in pts with HTN?

A

No, but it is especially important to prevent CVD.

115
Q

What is the best initial drug therapy for HTN? When might 2 medications be best to start?

A

Thiazide diuretics are the best initial therapy.

You may start with 2 drugs if BP > 160/100 at onset.

116
Q

What medications are considered second-line therapy for HTN?

A

If diuretics fail to control HTN, the next appropriate step would be one of the following:

  • ACEI
  • ARB
  • B-Blocker
  • CCB
118
Q

What HTN drugs are safe in pregnancy?

A
  • B-blockers - try these first
  • CCBs
  • Hydralazine
  • a-methyldopa
119
Q

Name some of the HTN medications for each class:

  • Central-acting a-agonists
  • Peripheral-acting a-antagonists
  • Direct-acting vasodilators
A
  • Central-acting a-agonists include a-methyldopa and clonidine.
  • Peripheral-acting a-antagonists include terazosin, prazosin, and doxazosin.
  • Direct-acting vasodilators include hydralazine and minoxidil.
120
Q

What is the best initial therapy for HTN crisis? What are some other drugs that may be used?

A

The best initial therapy is labetalol. Nitroprusside may also be used, but it requires monitoring with an arterial line, so it’s usually not the first choice. Equally acceptable drugs that can be used are enalapril, CCBs (diltiazem, verapamil), and esmolol. Any IV drug is acceptable; the specific drug available is not as important as giving enough of it to control the BP.

121
Q

What is the target BP when treating hypertensive crisis? What is the major complication in treating hypertensive crisis?

A

Hypertensive crisis is not defined by a specific BP, so there can be no target BP for treatment. Hypertensive crisis just means there is end-organ damage associated with hypertension.

The goal of treatment is to lower blood pressure enough to alleviate the Sx of end-organ damage. You DO NOT want to lower the BP to normal because you may provoke a stroke.

122
Q

For pts with the following, what would be the best initial medication to control HTN:

  • Otherwise healthy pt
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • BPH
  • Depression
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Osteoporosis
  • Asthma
A
  • Otherwise healthy pt - Thiazides
  • Coronary artery disease - BBs, ACEIs, ARBs
  • Diabetes mellitus - ACEIs, ARBs
  • BPH - Alpha blockers
  • Depression - Not BBs
  • Hyperthyroidism - BBs
  • Osteoporosis - Thiazides
  • Asthma - Not BBs