ELDERLY, NEURO&MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Members of an MDT you would expect to see in the chronic neurological conditions?

A

PDNS
Consultant neurologist
PT
OT
SALT
Specialist nurses
Social worker
Nutritionist/dietician/GI
Pharmacist
Primary care physician
Clinical neuropsychologist
Stroke liaison sister
Caters
Case manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Charities for neurological conditions to be aware of?

A

MS society
Parkinson’s UK
Motor Neurone disease Assocation
The Huntingtons Disease Assocation
Spinal Injuries Assocation
Stroke Association
the Neurological Alliance
Muscular Dystophy UK
Dementia UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does a clinical neuropsychologist do?

A

See people making problems with their thinking, emotions or behaviour after a stroke or neurological condition, complete assessments, carry out therapeutic interventions or advise on rehabilitation strategies to help people cope better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Psychosocial impact of cancer on the individual, family and society?

A

Anxiety & depression
Grief and loss
Body image concerns - loss of hair, mastectomy
Destruction of assumption world theory
Fatigue
Chemo brain - cognitive impairment
Stigma and social isolation
Emotion burden and role changes for care givers
Relatives misunderstanding
Balancing work and caregiving for relatives
Caregivers may neglect their own health due to demands of caregiving
Strained relationships
Uncertainty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief?

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is prolonged/complicated grief?

A

when intense, long-lasting symptoms of grief, together with ongoing problems and difficulties in coping with life, go on for more than six months after someone dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is mourning?

A

An outward expression of grief, including cultural and religious customs surrounding the death
Its also the process of adapting to life after loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is bereavement?

A

A period of grief and mourning after a loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Factors that increase the risk for prolonged grief?

A

Traumatic circumstances e.g. death of a child, death of parent in early childhood, deaths by murder
Vulnerable people e.g. low self esteem, previous psychiatric disorders, dependant attachment to deceased person, insecure attachment to parents in childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the destruction of assumptive world theory?

A

when individuals experience an event that damages their worldview (i.e., traumatic material that cannot be easily integrated with previously held worldviews), they no longer perceive the world as benevolent and predictable or themselves as competent and invulnerable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acute grief reactions?

A

Somatic or bodily distress
Preoccupation with image of the deceased
Guilt relating to the deceased or circumstances of the death
Hostile reactions
Inability to function as one had before the loss of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Worden’s task of mourning?

A

Accept the reality of loss
Work through the pain of grief
Adjust to na environment in which the deceased is missing
Emotionally relocate the deceased and move on with life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pathological grief reactions?

A

Extended grief reaction
Mummification
Major depressive disorder >2 months after the loss o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is anticipatory grief?

A

A type of grief for a loss you know is coming e.g. when a loved one is diagnosed with a terminal illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is disenfranchised grief?

A

Grief that happens after a loss that others dont see as valid e.g. lacking sympathy for deaths by suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Arguments opposing physician-assisted dying?

A

It is currently a criminal offence under the 1961 Suciide Act to help someone take their own life
Laws send social messages e.g. would alters society’s attitude towards the elderly, seriously ill and disabled
Potential for abuse - It is impossible to ensure that decisions are truly voluntary and that any coercion or family pressure is detected
For most pt, high-quality palliative care can alleviate all distressing symptoms associated with dying so what is the need for physician-assisted death?
May undermine trust in the doctor-patient relationship as pt will worry about raising their worries without a doctor considering bringing about their death
The process of death will become normalised and it will become easier to accept wider eligibility criteria = slippery slope
Religious concerns - life is the ultimate gift - sanctity of life
Medical prognosis is not always accurate so individuals would have to potential to make irreversible decisions based on flawed information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Arguments for supporting physician-assisted dying?

A

Relief from suffering: Even with access to specialist palliative care, some dying people will still experience severe unbearable physical or emotional distress that cannot be relieved
It is lawful in many places around the world
In the UK we have safegaurding to ensure decisions are voluntary, not coercive and potentially vulnerable people are protected - there is no reason why these safegaurds could not be used effectively in assisted dying legislation
Current law is not working as UK citizens travel to Switzerland if they have the funds too. Often leads to people ending their lives sooner than they would have wishes
Patients who know they are dying want to be able to exercise their autonomy and determine for themselves when and how they die, but need medical advice and support to achieve this
The existence of legislation for assisted dying allows for reassurance and peace of mind for many with terminal illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

where is physician assisted death legal in the world?

A

Switzerland
Oregon USA
The Netherlands
Belgium
Canada
New Zealand and Australia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Euthanasia and assisted suicide law UK?

A

Assisted suicide is illegal under The Suicide Act 1961 and is punishable by up to 14 years imprisonment
Euthanasia is regarded as mansluaghter or murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is voluntary vs non-voluntary euthanasia?

A

voluntary euthanasia – where a person makes a conscious decision to die and asks for help to do so

non-voluntary euthanasia – where a person is unable to give their consent e.g. in a coma and another person takes the decision on their behalf, perhaps because the ill person previously expressed a wish for their life to be ended in such circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do palliative care clinical nurse specialists do?

A

Support pt and families who are experiencing life-limiting illnesses
They are registered nurses with specialist knowledge and qualifications in cancer and palliative care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who can refer to the specialist palliative care team?

A

Community referrals by GP, district nurses ans consultants
Urgent referrals can be made by ward doctors and clinical nurse specialists
In hopsital referrals can be made by ward teams and specialist services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What was the Gold Standards Framework?

A

A model that enabled good practice to be available to all people nearing the end of their lives, irrespective of their diagnosis
A way to raise the level of care to the standard of the best
It also had a prognostic indicator to help identify pt that require supportive and palliative care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the National service framework?

A

The first ever comprehensive strategy to ensure fair, high hollistic, integrated health and social care services for older people
A 10 year programme of action linking services to support independence, promote good health, provide specialised services for key conditions and aid culture change so older people and their carers are always treated with respect, dignity and fairness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How to assess the mental capacity of a person with dementia?

A

Step 1: are you concerned that a person with dementia is unable to make a certain decision? If yes move on
Step 2: can the person make the decision with help and support e.g. give more time and communicate appropriately. If no then move on
Step 3: does the person meet all the following - they understand the information, they can retain the information for long enough to make the decision, they can weight it up and they can communicate a decision in some way. If not then the person lacks capacity for this decision at this time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the mental capacity act 2005?

A

It provides a comprehensive framework for decision making on behalf of adults aged 16 and over who lack capacity to make decisions on their own behalf.

The Act applies to all decisions taken on behalf of people who permanently or temporarily lack capacity to make such decisions themselves, including decisions relating to medical treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 5 principles of the MCA 2005?

A

A person must be assumed to have capacity unless it is established that he lacks capacity
A person is not to be treated as unable to make a decision unless all practicable steps to help him to do so have been taken without success
A person is not to be treated as unable to make a decision merely because he makes an unwise decision
An act done, or decision made, under this Act for or on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be done, or made, in his best interests
Before the act is done, or the decision is made, regard must be had to whether the purpose for which it is needed can be as effectively achieved in a way that is less restrictive of the person’s rights and freedom of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you assess capacity?

A

Do they have an impairment of, or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain AND unable to understand the information, retain it, weight it up and communicate a decision
Note it’s time and decision-specific!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What should be considered when assessing what is in the patient’s best interests?

A

Consider…
Are they likely to regain capacity and can the decision wait?
How to encourage and optimise the participation of the person in the decision
Their past and present wishes, feelings, beliefs, values of a person and any other relavent factors
Views of other relevant people e.e. Family, friends or carers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a lasting power of attorney?

A

This is when a person appoints an attorney to act on their behalf should they lose capacity in the future
These can be for property and finance, or health and welfare decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are advanced decisions?

A

Advance decisions can be drawn up by anybody with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. They may be made verbally unless they specify refusing life-sustaining treatment (e.g. Ventilation) in which case they need to be written, signed and witnessed to be valid. Advance decisions cannot demand treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the exceptions to the best interests principle of the MCA?

A

When a person has previously made an advanced decision to refuse medical treatment whilst they had capacity and it is still valid and applicable, then it should be respected

Involvement in research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Types of restraints?

A

Physical
Mechanical e.g. mittens or bed rails
Chemical e.g. sedating meds
Psychological e.g. telling them they are not able to do something o removing their walking aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When are restrictive measures lawful?

A

Must be the last resort and alternatives to restraint must always be considered
Must have objective reasons to justify it is necessary and the pt is likely to suffer harm unless used
You must use the least intrusive type and minimum amount of restraint
The restraint must not amount to a deprivation of liberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is deprivation of liberty?

A

When a person has their freedom limited in someway e.g. the person is under continous supervision and control and is not free to leave and the person lacks capacity to consent to these arrangements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an independant mental capacity advocate?

A

These work to support and represent particularly vulnerable adults who lack capacity to make certain decisions where there are no family members or friends available or willing to be consulted about those decisions
They are independant of the HCP making the decision and represent the pt in discussion about whether the decisions is in the pt best interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

mental health act vs mental capacity act?

A

MHA applies if you have a mental health problem and sets out your rights if you’re sectioned under this act
The MCA applies if you have a mental health problems and you dont have the mental capacity to make certain decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The psychological and emotional impact of dementia?

A

Emotional effects - mood changes, depression, anxiety, shock, disbelief, grief, helplessness, isolated, and some may feel relieved to have received a diagnosis
May cause feelings of insecurity and loss of confirndece in themselves and their abilities
Impact on family and friends - sadness, fear, irritation, embarrassment, confusion about role reversal, sense of loss, anger, rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Caregiving burden amongst caregivers of people with dementia

A

Family caregivers are often called the invisible second patients
Studies have shown that compared to other caregivers, dementia caregivers are more likely to consider the caregiving activities as highly stressful, have higher levels of burden & psychological distress and report higher levels of burdens on finance/emotions/physical health

Common daily issues for caregivers: health decline, exhaustion, fear of the future, violence, financial issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

economic burden dementia uk

A

It’s a significant public health issue in the Uk and is projected to be the costliest health condition by 2030
In 2021 the estimated cost was £25 billion and this is expected to reach £47 billion by 2050
£10.2 billion is the total cost of informal care for dementia in the UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Examples of stigma and discrimination for dementia?

A

Many people assume dementia does not affect younger people so people will think the person is diffiuclt or unpredictable
In minority ethnic groups there may be stigma and discrimination due to lack of understanding about the disease, traditional myths, cultural beliefs about caring etc
Employment discrimination
Inappropriate labelling
Public misunderstanding
Media portrayals as negative
Reduced access to services

42
Q

The impact of back pain?

A

Reduces QOL
Affects family and social relationships
Can impact the ability to work and compromise earning capacity
Direct healthcare costs are huge - costs the NHS over a billion each year
Second commonest cause of long-term sickness absence in the UK and the commonest for people in manual occupations

43
Q

MDT for stroke

A

Doctors.
Specialist stroke nurses,
HCAs and rehabilitation assistants.
PT
SALT
Dietitians.
OTs
Eye specialists such as optometrists and ophthalmologists.
Psychologists.
Social workers.
Pharmacists.

44
Q

Can a pt with epilepsy get a blue disability badge for the car?

A

Only if they can show that any fits they have previously experienced are likely to occur when they are walking and that parking close to their destination would reduce the likelihood of them occurring

45
Q

How long do you need to be seizure free to drive with epilepsy?

A

1 year
(If no seizures for 5 years even with meds then a til 70 licence can be restored)

46
Q

Can you join the army if you have seizures?

A

Not if you have been diagnosed with epilepsy
Not if you have had more than 1 seizure since the age of 6
Not if you have had a single seizure in the last 5 years

47
Q

Management of contacts of a pt with bacterial meningitis?

A

Chemoprophylaxis to household and close contacts within 7 days before onset - oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin
Meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available, including booster doses for those who had the vaccine in infancy

48
Q

Is meningitis a notifiable disease?

A

Yes bacterial meningitis and meningococcal disease are

49
Q

When is meningitis contagious?

A

Risk is highest in the first 7 days and persists for at least 4 weeks

50
Q

What is NICE’s role in technology appraisals of current and new treatments?

A

NICE evaluates the clinical and cost-effectiveness of healthcare interventions
Conducts comprehensive reviews of available evidence on the effectiveness and safety of new and existing treatments
Mandatory for a CCG to fund

51
Q

What are the 3 forms of technology appraisals that NICE can do?

A

A single tech appraisal - a single technology for a single indication
A cost comparison
A multiple tech appraisal

52
Q

What is the process of a technology appraisal?

A

Topic selection – through consultation with industry, NHS and patient groups, topics agreed with Department of Health
Data submission – industry required to submit all trial data according to NICE criteria
Data review – NICE appraisal committee allocates data to an academic center to report on clinical and cost-effectiveness
NICE prepare report based on current evidence: Clinical effectiveness and cost effectiveness (NICE commissions an independent academic center to undertake this review)
Call for contributions – committee reaches a preliminary conclusion - interested parties are called to contribute e.g. Royal Colleges, patients, healthcare professionals
Funding – the reports are finalized and if issued as mandatory, CCGs must fund if service is required
Guidance issued

53
Q

How to calculate a incremental cost effectiveness ratio?

A

Cost Effectiveness Ratio = (cost A – cost B) ÷ (QALYs B – QALYs A)

54
Q

If the technology that NICE appraises becomes mandatory, which group must fund the service?

A

CCGs

55
Q

What is an incremental cost effectiveness ratio?

A

A summary measure representing the economic valence of an intervention, compared with an alternative
Incremental cost/incremental effect to provide a ratio of the extra cost per extra unit of health effect

56
Q

Why have the number of strokes increased?

A

Ageing population
Population growth
Increase in risk factors e.g. systolic bp, higher BMIs, high smoking etc

57
Q

Primary vs secondary prevention?

A

Primary prevention is action that tries to stop problems happening. This can be either through actions at a population level that reduce risks or those that address the cause of the problem.
Secondary prevention is action which focuses on early detection of a problem to: support early intervention and treatment.

58
Q

Outline an individual strategy for stroke prevention

A

Healthy diet
Regular exercise
Healthy weight
Quit smoking
Look and Optimise management of bp, hyperlipidaemia, cardiac disease and diabetes - use CHADSVASC score to calculate overall risk

59
Q

Outline a population strategy for stroke prevention

A

Raise public awareness e.g. FAST
Promote health lifestyles through community events
Community clinics and screening
Tobacco control policies e.g. higher taxes, smoke-free public spaces, anti-smoking campaigns

60
Q

Ethical issues with neurological conditions?

A

Autonomy and restraint e.g. with NG tubes
Capacity decisions with dysphasia
Maintaining pt dignity
End of life decisions
Safegaurding and best interests s

61
Q

Employment support post-neurological condition?

A

Write to employer explaining circumstances and recommendations
Encourage potential of finding a new role within the organisation
Access to work system - this works with pt and employer to find a new role which best suits the pt
Social services can help to find alternative work, help accessing disability benefits and housing suitable for their needs and help pay for transport costs

62
Q

Social implications following an epilepsy diagnosis?

A

Depression
Reduction in social participation
Stigma
Pregnancy and breastfeeding risks with AEDs
Driving
Employment restrictions

63
Q

Ways we can prevent spread of meningitis?

A

Increased awareness of symptms of disease
Good hygiene
Isolate infected individuals
Avoid sharing towels
Identify close contexts - vaccine and chemorpophylaxis

64
Q

Effects of falls and immobility?

A

Bio - fractures, soft tissue damage, pressure sores, hypothermia, rhabdomyolysis, wound infections
Psycho - loss of confidence, fear of falling, depression, anxiety
Social - isolation, increased dependance, long term care needs

65
Q

What can OTs do with fall patients?

A

Help them adapt to their life and gain independance. They carry out an ADL assessment to inform necessary levels of care
Home adaptations, ADL help, leisure and social activities, work and study skills

66
Q

What is the Barthel index?

A

measures the extent to which somebody can function independently and has mobility in their activities of daily living

67
Q

What do PTs do in a pt following a fall?

A

Assist in rehabilitation
Provide individual plans tailored to the needs of the patient
Exercises and manoeuvres to increase function and minimise the impact of the condition

68
Q

What is the national service framework? What is their role?

A

Policies set by NHS to define care standards for major disease e.g. cancer, or for specific patient groups e.g. the elderly

They set formal quality requirements based on best evidence. They offer strategies to help organisations attain these

69
Q

What are the goals of the national service frameworks for chronic conditions?

A

Person-centred service
Early recognition, prompt diagnosis & treatment
Emergency & acute management - assessed and treated in a timely manner
Early specialist rehabilitation - receive timely, ongoing, high quality rehab services both in & out of hospital
Community rehab support - increases independence and autonomy
Vocational rehabilitation - in order to help find/ regain/ remain at work
Providing equipment & accommodation - received assistive technology/ equipment to support independent living
Providing personal care & support - health and social care work to support independent living at home
Palliative care - receive comprehensive range of palliation services, when in latter stages of disease
Supporting family & carers - access to support that recognises their needs both in their role as a carer & in their own right
Caring for people with neuro conditions in hospital OR HSC settings - need to have specific neurological needs met, even when receiving care for other reasons

70
Q

MDT for rehabilitation?

A

Neurologists
Specialist nurses
OTs
Pts
SALT
Dieticians
Clinical neuropsychologists
Stroke liaison sister
Care navigator

71
Q

Impact of back pain?

A

Significant time off work -> social isolation, economic impact personally/community, psychological impact
Major drain on benefits
Major loss of ADLs and ability to take part in usual activities
May feel stigmatised and lead to psychological sequelae
Become dependant on family -> care stress,s role reversal, relationship stress
Impact on the ability to care
SE from meds
Reduced libido

72
Q

Outline the STarT tool for risk stratifiying complicated lower back pain?

A

Low risk (<3)
Very likely to improve so initiate self management
Education on exercise/ staying active, analgesia, avoiding complementary therapy
Refer for PT if not resolved by 6 weeks

Medium risk
Aim to facilitate return to function
Early PT referral
Promote self management

High risk
Comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment
PT + CBT referral → identify yellow flags that will impact on recovery

73
Q

Issues with complementary and alternative medicine?

A

Allergic and non-allergic reactions e.g. irritant dermatitis
Mechanical injuries e.g. acupuncture causing pneumothorax
Severe restrictions of certain recommended diets may cause deficiency
Not all practitioners are registered or well regulated
Not cost effective
Lack of evidence

74
Q

Impact of untreated inflamamtory arthritis on function and QOL?

A

Functional impairment e.g exercise, sleep, ADLs, work, participation in leisure
Negative impact on sexual relationships
Poor self image
Psychological effects of chronic pain and illness
Fatigue impacts ability to attend social events

75
Q

Medical needs of an elderly person?

A

Mobility aids
Medication
Psychiatric and memory assessment
Nutritional support

76
Q

Social needs of an elderly person?

A

Socialisation
Transportation
Personal care support

77
Q

Risk factors for falls?

A

Drugs
Ageing - sarcopenia, decreased visual acuity or vestibular dysfunction
Medical - neurological, myopathy, arthritis
Environment - poor foot weight, slippery floor

(DAME)

78
Q

Consequences of a fall in the elderly?

A

2.3 billion GPH per year costs to NHS
Fractures occur in 5% of falls
Pain
Immobility
Loss of confidence
Loss of independance
Isolation and depression
Increased dependance on carers
20-30% mortality from hip fracture
Prolonged immobility has its own consequences
In a younger person it can cause significant changes to lifestyle e.g. can’t do hobbies

79
Q

Whats the difference between euthanasia and assisted suicide?

A

Euthanasia is a medical professional directly and deliberately ending a persons life to relieve suffering
Assisted suicide is when a medical professional deliberately assists or encourages another to commit suicide

BOTH ILLEGAL IN UK

80
Q

What are the types of ethanasia

A

Active - does the act of ending life
Passive - withholding life-prolonging treatment
Voluntary - when the person dying consents
Non-voluntary - when the person dying cannot consent so another makes the decision for them
Involuntary - against the persons wishes - murder

81
Q

Arguments for euthanasias?

A

Allows pt autonomy to control own body and how one dies
DNACPR is technically it already
Acts in beneficience of pt

82
Q

Arguments against euthanasias?

A

Religious - only god has the right to end human life
Could change attitudes towards human life
Misdiagnosis could end life when death wasn’t actually imminent
Violates non-maleficince
Detracts from instead of improving end of life care

83
Q

How should doctors respond to requests for euthanasia or assisted suicide?

A

Be prepared to listen and to discuss the reasons for the patient’s request
Limit any advice or information to:
An explanation that it is a criminal offence for anyone to encourage or assist a person to commit or attempt suicide
Objective advice about the lawful clinical options (e.g. sedation and other palliative care) which would be available if a patient were to reach a settled decision to kill them self.
Be respectful and compassionate and continue to provide appropriate care for the patient
Explore the patient’s understanding of their current condition and care plan
Assess whether the patient has any unmet palliative care needs, including pain and symptom management, psychological, social or spiritual support

84
Q

What is the end of life strategy?

A

A comprehensive framework published by the department of health and social care promoting high quality care across the country for all adults approaching the end of life

85
Q

What are the key features of the end of life strategy?

A

The opportunity to discuss personal needs and preferences and for these to be recorded in a care plan so that all services are aware of a pt’s priorities
Coordinated care and support - ensuring that pt needs are met, irrespective of who is delivering the service
Rapid specialist advice and clinical assessment wherever the pt is
High quality care and support during the last days of a patient’s life
Services which treat the pt with dignity and respect both before and after death
Appropriate advice and support for carers at every stage

86
Q

What are some end of life tools?

A

The Gold STandards Framework
The Amber Care Bundle
Supportive and Palliative Care Indicators Tool (SPICT)

87
Q

What are the 3 triggers that suggest the pt is nearing the end of life?

A

The surprise question: Would you be surprised if this pt were to die in the next few months, weeks, days?
General indicators of decline - deterioration, increasing need or choice for no further active care
Specific clinical indicators related to certain conditions

88
Q

What are the 7 key tasks “CS” of the Gold Standards Framework?

A

Communication
Coordination of care
Control of symptoms and ongoing assessment
Continuing support
Continued learning
Carer and family support
Care in the final days

89
Q

Evidence on isolation and increased risk of acute MI and stroke?

A

Isolated and lonely persons are at increased risk of aMi and stroke, and, among those with a history of aMi or stroke, increased risk of death.
Most of this risk was explained by conventional risk factors.

90
Q

What is the best practice guideline for what is included in a comprehensive geriatric assessment

A

All encounters between health and social care staff and older people should include a frailty assessment: gait speed, timed-up-and-go test and PRISMA-7 questionnaire
Holistic medical review - diagnose medical illness, medication review and a discussion about frailty

91
Q

Which sex is more likely to fall? What can explain this difference?

A

Females
They have more loss in bone mineral density than men as a consequence of menopause

92
Q

Prevalence of chronic pain?

A

Affects between 1/3rd and 1/2 of the UK population

93
Q

What is the RightCare Progressive Neurological Conditions Toolkit?

A

Used to support systems to understand the priorities in care for people living with various progressive neurological conditions
It outlines best practices for diagnosing, caring etc

94
Q

When should you consider a care home for a pt?

A

If they are struggling to love alone, had a needs assessment that suggested a care home is the best choice or has a complex medical condition that need specialist attention during the day and night

95
Q

What is the difference between a residential and a nursing home?

A

Residential care homes provide accommodation and personal care e.g. dressing, washing
Nursing homes provide personal care but there are always 1 or more qualified nurses on duty to provide nursing care 24 hours a day.

96
Q

How common are falls?

A

1 in 3 adults over 65
1 in 2 adults over 80
Every year

97
Q

What is palliative care?

A

The active holistic care of pts with advanced, progressive illness
Management of pain and other distressing Sx and provision of psychosocial, social and spiritual support
The goal is to achieve the best QOL for pts and their families
Many aspects of palliative acre can be applicable early in the course of illness in conjunction with other treatments

98
Q

What are NICE’s features of palliative care?

A

Provides relief from pain and other distressing Sx
Affirms life and regards dying as a normal process
Intended neither to hasten or postpone death
Integrates psychologically and spiritual aspects of pt care
Offers a support system to help ots live as actively as possible until death
Offers a support system to help the family cope
Uses a team approach to address the needs of pts and ther families, including bereavement counselling if indicated
Enhance QOL and may also posively influence the course of illness

99
Q

What is the Doctrine of double effect?

A

If doing something morally good has a morally bad SE then its ethically ok to do providing the bad SE wasn’t intended, even if the SE would most probably happen

Used to justify cases where a doctor gives drugs to a pt to relieve distressing symptoms even if they know doing this may shorten their life

100
Q

What are the 4 conditions for the doctrine of double effect to be applied?

A

Good results must be achieved independantly of the bad one
Action must be proportional to the cause e.g. you can’t give a dose of morphine so large you know it would kill them
Action must be appropriate i..e right med for the symptoms
Pt must be in a terminal condition

101
Q

What is the PRISMA-7 questionnaire?

A

A tool to screen for frailty in older adults based on pt questions and health problems

102
Q

what exists to ensure that research performed within the NHS complies with recognised ethical standards and to protect the rights, safety, and dignity of all actual or potential participants?

A

NHS Research Ethics Committee