ENT Flashcards

1
Q

Nasal congestion with discharge, sneezing, cough and sore throat is called _________ and is commonly caused by ______ , ______ , or _______

A

Nasopharyngitis (common cold)

Caused by:
- Rhinovirus
- Influenza virus
- Coronovirus

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2
Q

Croup (laryngotracheitis) presents with ______ and is caused by _____

A

Croup (laryngotracheitis) is an upper respiratory tract infection that presents with hoarseness, barking cough, stridor, and possibly respiratory distress.

Most commonly caused by Parainfluenza virus.

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3
Q

A patient with a sore throat, dysphagia, drooling and respiratory distress likely has _______ , which is most commonly caused by _____ .

A

This is likely epiglottitis and this is commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae.

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4
Q

A patient with and upper respiratory tract infection that is followed by wheezing, cough, and respiratory distress is likely ______ , which is caused by ________ .

A

This is likely bronchiolitis

commonly caused by

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

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5
Q

What is the name for the medication that prevents RSV in neonates?

A

Palivizumab

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6
Q

A patient has ear pain, canal edema and discharge, and pain with auricle manipulation.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the treatment?

A

Diagnosis: otitis externa
Treatment: otic antibiotic drops
Topical antibiotic/glucocorticoid preparations decrease canal inflammation and may speed symptom resolution.

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7
Q

A patient has a smooth, glossy tongue that lacks normal filiform papillae. Name 3 nutritional deficiencies that may be the cause.

A

Iron, vitamin B12, or folate deficiency

Causes include atropic gastritis, celiac disease and protein calorie malnutrition.

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8
Q

Choanal Atresia is often associated with ____ and ______

A

Associated with CHARGE and Treacher-Collins

CHARGE:
Coloboma
Heart defects
Retarded growth and development
Genital hypoplasia
Ear abnormalities

Unilateral choanal atresia is most common and may initially present with mucopurulent discharge, but will mainly will reveal later in life during childhood with unilateral nasal discharge and obstruction.

Bilateral: Presents in infancy mainly as a neonate, with cyclic cyanosis, worse with activities not allowing for mouth breathing (feeding) and improves with crying. There is a failure in ability to pass a catheter through nares.

Dx: CT scan (confirms narrowing of pterygoid plate in posterior nasal cavity)

Initial tx is establishing an oral airway and feeding tube. Establishing an airway is an acute otolaryngologic emergency. While this should be done in the operating room, a Montgomery nipple can be used as an interim measure prior to surgery. Correction can be done endoscopically or surgically.

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9
Q

What condition causes an infection in the floor of the mouth that causes the tongue to be pushed up and back, eventually obstructing the patient’s airway?

A

Ludwig’s angina

Clinical findings include fever, dysphagia, odynophagia, and drooling.

The most common cause of this abscess is infection in the teeth. This is a rapidly progressive cellulitis of the bilateral submandibular and sublingual spaces, most often arising from an infected mandibular molar.

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10
Q

What is the treatment for cellulitis of the sublingual and submandibular space … ?

A

The treatment for Ludwig’s angina requires incision and drainage of the abscess along with Abx.

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11
Q

Ludwig’s angina requires use of what type of Abx?

A

Antibiotic coverage should include oral cavity anaerobes.

Commonly used Abx are Amp-Sulbactam or Clindamycin and Vancomycin if MRSA is suspected or know to be present.

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12
Q

What if the principle cause for a patient’s Ludwig’s angina is from infected 2nd or 3rd molars?

A

Since the mylohyoid line on the inner aspect of the body of the mandible descends on a slant, and the tips of the roots of the second and third molars are behind and below this line, if these teeth are abscessed, the pus will go into the submandibular space and may spread to the parapharyngeal space. Usually, the infected tooth is not painful.

Patients with these infections present with unilateral neck swelling, redness, pain, and fever.

Treatment is incision and drainage over the submandibular swelling.

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13
Q

What if the principle cause for Ludwig’s angina is from infected 1st molar or forward?

A

Tooth roots that are above the mylohyoid line, as they are from the first molar forward, the infection will enter the sublingual space, above and in front of the mylohyoid. The infection will cause the tongue to be pushed up and back and these patients usually will require an awake-tracheotomy, as the infection can progress quite rapidly and produce airway obstruction. The firm tongue swelling prevents standard laryngeal exposure with a laryngoscope blade, so intubation should not be attempted. Even if there is no airway obstruction on presentation, it may develop after you operate and drain the pus. This results from post- operative swelling, which can be worse than the swelling on initial presentation.

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14
Q

How is acute angioneurotic edema managed?

A

Acute angioneurotic edema is dramatic swelling of the tongue, pharyngeal tissues, and the supraglottic airway and urgently requires a surgical airway.

Angioneurotic edema, can either familial or due to a functional or quantitative deficiency of C1-esterase inhibitor, can also result in swelling can progress rapidly, and oral intubation may quickly become impossible, which is why this condition urgently requires a surgical airway.

Common medical treatments are IV steroids, and H1 and H2 histamine blockers.

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15
Q

A child appears anxious with a constellation of noisy breathing, stridor, hoarseness, high fever, and drooling, while sitting upright with the jaw thrusted forward, what is the most important consideration in management of this patient?

A

Secure the airway!

This condition is likely a result of infections, and epiglottitis, should first come to mind. Once common in children, epiglottitis is now rare because of the widespread utilization of vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae. Even though this condition is still rare, epiglottitis can be caused by other pathogens, such as other strains of H influenzae, Streptococcus species (S pneumoniae, S pyogenes), and Staphylococcus aureus.

Epiglottitis is cellulitis of the epiglottis, aryepiglottic folds, and other adjacent tissue. Swelling of these structures often leads to rapid airway deterioration. Epiglottic or supraglottic edema prevents swallowing. Early recognition of the constellation of noisy breathing, hoarseness, high fever, drooling, and the characteristic posture—sitting upright with the jaw thrust forward—may be lifesaving. Relaxation and an upright position keep the airway open. These patients must not be examined until after the airway is secured, therefore, airway management is the main priority. In patients unable to maintain adequate oxygen saturations, bag-valve-mask ventilation (BVM) with 100% oxygen (to keep oxygen saturation ≥88%) should be initiated. If BVM does not result in adequate oxygenation (ie, oxygen saturation remains low), endotracheal intubation using a video laryngoscope (to facilitate direct visualization of the epiglottis) should be attempted. Given the risk of rapid respiratory deterioration, failure of a single attempt at endotracheal intubation with a video laryngoscope should immediately prompt the establishment of a surgical cricothyrotomy by the most experienced provider available (preferably an otolaryngologist or general surgeon). Cricothyrotomy establishes an airway below the epiglottal swelling and potential obstruction.

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16
Q

Does epiglottitis have any obvious pharyngeal signs?

A

Lateral neck radiographs are often obtained for suspected epiglottitis. Although epiglottitis can present with fever, dysphagia, severe sore throat, and muffled voice, pharyngeal findings are typically normal.

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17
Q

what condition is marked by fullness of the anterior tonsillar pillar, uvular deviation away from the side of the abscess, a “hot potato” voice, and, in some patients, trismus (difficulty opening the jaws)

….

what is the most likely condition?

A

This is most likely a peritonsillar abscess, which is caused by purulence in the space between the tonsil and the pharyngeal constrictor.

This typically occurs when the patient has a history of untreated sore throat for several days, which has now gotten worse on one side.

Treatment includes drainage or aspiration, adequate pain control, and antibiotics. Tonsillectomy may be indicated, depending on the patient’s history.

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18
Q

Foreign bodies in the pharynx or laryngeal inlet can often be extracted by

A

Magill forceps

These are used after laryngeal exposure with a standard laryngoscope. The patient will usually vomit, so suction is mandatory.

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19
Q

hyperinflation of the obstructed lobe or segment following an aspiration is due to to a … ?

A

ball-valve obstruction

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20
Q

If a ball-valve obstruction results, hyperinflation of the obstructed lobe or segment can occur and this is easier to visualize on __________ .

A

inspiration-expiration films

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21
Q

Bronchial foreign bodies will require ______ for removal.

A

Operative bronchoscopy

Occasionally, a tracheotomy will be required, such as for a patient who has aspirated a partial denture with imbedded hooks.

These patients can present as airway emergencies, although they more typically present with unexplained cough or pneumonia.

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22
Q

A fungal infection of the sinonasal cavity that occurs in immunocompromised hosts is called … ?

A

Mucormycosis

Typically it appears in patients receiving bone marrow transplantation or chemotherapy. It is a devastating disease, with a significant associated mortality. Mucor is a ubiquitous fungus that can become invasive in susceptible patients, classically those with diabetes with poor glucose regulation who became acidotic. If there is any other system failure (e.g., renal failure), mortality goes up significantly. The fungus grows in the blood vessels, causing thrombosis and distal ischemia and, ultimately, tissue necrosis. This also leads to an acidic environment in which the fungus thrives.
The primary symptom is facial pain, and physical exam will show black turbinates due to necrosis of the mucosa. Diagnosis is made by biopsy. Acutely branching nonseptate hyphae are seen microscopically. Usually the infection starts in the sinuses, but rapidly spreads to the nose, eye, and palate, and up the optic nerve to the brain. Treatment is immediate correction of the acidosis and metabolic stabilization, to the point where general anesthesia will be safely tolerated (usually for patients in diabetic ketoacidosis who need several hours for rehydration, etc.). Then, wide debridement is necessary, usually consisting of a medial maxillectomy but often extending to a radical maxillectomy and orbital exenteration (removal of the eye and part of the hard palate) or even beyond. Amphotericin B is the drug of choice. Many patients with mucormycosis also have renal failure, which precludes adequate dosing. Newer lysosomal forms of amphotericin B have been shown to salvage these patients by permitting higher doses of drugs. If the underlying immunologic problem cannot be arrested, survival is unlikely. In patients who are neutropenic, unless the white blood cell count improves, there is no chance for survival.

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23
Q

What part of the nose is most commonly known to bleed?

A

The most common bleed is from the anterior part of the septum, which accounts for 90% of the nose bleeds.

The anterior region of the Kiesselbach plexus is formed from the internal carotid artery, which produces an ophthalmic artery, which then terminate to the ethmoid and septal arteries. Specifically, the Kiesselbach plexus is the anastomosis of the septal branch of the anterior ethmoidal artery and the lateral nasal branch of the sphenopalatine artery. Another vessel from the facial artery joins the network from the superior septal branch.

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24
Q

Posterior epistaxis occurs from which branches?

A

This is less common (10% of the nose bleeds) and may result in significant hemorrhage. The posterior bleeding occurs from the posterolateral branches of the sphenopalatine artery, which is the terminal branch of the maxillary artery (which comes from the external carotid). Rarely the external carotid artery can cause this hemorrhage.

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25
Q

What are the causes for epistaxis?

A

Local causes of epistaxis include mucosal irritation (eg, nose picking, dry air, rhinitis, foreign body), facial trauma, intranasal drugs (cocaine, intranasal corticosteroids), or tumors (nasopharyngeal carcinomas). Systemic conditions or drugs may also cause epistaxis (eg, anticoagulation, antiplatelet medications, alcohol, bleeding disorders [eg, von Willebrand disease], vascular malformations [nasal hemangioma], or hypertension).

The most common initiating event for these kinds of nosebleeds is digital trauma from a fingernail. Children’s fingernails should be trimmed, and adults should be informed about avoiding digital trauma. Another consideration may be an occult bleeding disorder; therefore, adequate coagulation parameters should be studied if the patient continues to have problems.

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26
Q

What is a common cause for epistaxis in an adult?

A

Cocaine abuse is a possible etiology in any patient and must be considered. A perforated nasal septum can be a warning sign.

Other causes are trauma, Afrin, or prior surgery.

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27
Q

Recurrent bleeding from the back of the nose in an adolescent male is considered to be _______ until proven otherwise.

A

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

These patients frequently also have nasal obstruction.

Diagnosis is made by physical examination with nasal endoscopy.

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28
Q

What are the initial steps in management for epistaxis (either anterior or posterior)?

A

ABC’s: Assess and treat for airway, breathing, and circulation
(fluid resuscitation, redundant large-bore IV lines as indicated).

Position the head forward.

Provide oxymetazoline or phenylephrine nasal spray (and possibly lidocaine) and digital pressure for 5–10 minutes.

Cold compress.

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29
Q

What labs are indicated for nosebleeds?

A

A targeted history can help to rule out other conditions that predispose to bleeding, but in general the labs that are indicated are, Coags (for anticoagulated patients), CBC, type-screen or cross-match.

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30
Q

Patients with hypertension and arthritis (for which they are taking aspirin), who have frequent nosebleeds, are treated with … ?

A

Topical vasoconstriction (oxymetazoline, phenylephrine), which almost always stops the bleeding. These patients should also be treated with medication to lower their blood pressure. The diastolic pressure has to be reduced below 90 mm Hg.

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31
Q

What is the approach to nose bleeding if the nosebleed is anterior and the source can be seen?

A

If anterior and a bleeding source is seen, it can be cauterized with either electric cautery or chemical cauterization with silver nitrate and packing (nasal tampons, ribbon gauze, nasal balloon catheter).

Nasal endoscopes permit identification of the bleeding site, even if it is not immediately seen on the anterior septum.

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32
Q

Brisk bleeding even after adequate nasal packing may indicate

A

a posterior source of bleeding

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33
Q

What is the measure performed for epistaxis when the bleeding will not stop and can not be seen?

A

When posterior nosebleeds can not be stopped, treatments include:

  • Packing (nasal tampons, ribbon gauze, nasal balloon catheter)
  • Balloon catheter is preferred or a Foley catheter can be used

These patients may require hospitalization and ENT consultation.

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34
Q

Once a patient presents with a nosebleed and is properly managed, when can a patient be discharged home?

When would they needed to be admitted for observation?

A

Patients who undergo anterior packing on one side may go home.

Many patients can then go home, using oxymetazoline for a few days. Furthermore, methylcellulose coated with antibiotic ointment can be placed into the nose to prevent further trauma and allow the mucosal surfaces to heal. This is usually left in place for 3 to 5 days.

Bilateral nasal packing is used or if a posterior pack is placed, patients will need to be admitted to the hospital and carefully watched, because they can suffer from hyperventilation and oxygen desaturation.

In general, the packing is left in place for three to five days and removed. During this time, prophylactic oral or parenteral antibiotics should be administered to decrease risk of infectious complications.

If the patient re-bleeds, the packing should be replaced, and arterial ligation, endoscopic cautery, or embolization can be considered. As always, these patients should be worked up for bleeding disorders.

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35
Q

A patient with a severe nosebleed can develop

A

Hypovolemia, or significant anemia, if fluid is being replaced.

These conditions necessitate increased cardiac output, which can lead to ischemia or infarction of the heart itself.

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36
Q

What are the major complications of epistaxis?

A

Prolonged retention of nasal packing (>72 hours) increases the risk of complications, including necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, sinus or nasolacrimal infections, and dislodgement.

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37
Q

A patient subsequently presents with fever, hypotension, desquamation, and mucosal hyperemia after receiving nasal packing, what is the likely issue?

A

toxic shock syndrome

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38
Q

What is the name for the infection spreads due to a severe infection of the external auditory canal to the temporal bone leading to osteomyelitis of the temporal bone?

A

Necrotizing otitis externa.

This is a severe infection of the external auditory canal, usually caused by Pseudomonas organisms. The infection spreads to the temporal bone and, as such, is really an osteomyelitis of the temporal bone. This can extend readily to the base of the skull and lead to fatal complications if it is not adequately treated. This disease occurs most commonly in older patients with diabetes, and can occur in AIDS patients. Any patient with otitis externa should be asked about the possibility of diabetes. It can be caused by traumatic instrumentation or irrigating wax from the ears of patients with diabetes.

Patients with necrotizing otitis externa present with deep ear pain, temporal headaches, purulent drainage and granulation tissue at the area of the bony cartilaginous junction in the external auditory canal and facial nerve followed by other cranial neuropathies.

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39
Q

What is required to diagnose necrotizing otitis externa?

A

To diagnose an actual infection in the bone, a computed tomography (CT) scan of the bone, with bone windows, must be obtained.

A technetium bone scan will also demonstrate a “hot spot,” but is too sensitive to discriminate between severe otitis externa and true osteomyelitis.

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40
Q

What is the treatment regimen for necrotizing otitis externa?

A

The standard therapy is meticulous glucose control, aural hygiene, including frequent ear cleaning, systemic and topical anti-pseudomonal antibiotics (quinolones are the drugs of choice as they are active against Pseudomonas organisms).

Hyperbaric oxygen is used in severe cases that do not respond to standard care.

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41
Q

Is sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) considered an emergency?

A

Yes, SSHL is a medical emergency that warrants urgent consultation and follow-up with an otolaryngologist. The prognosis is variable and depends on the patient’s age, initial severity of the hearing loss, and promptness of medical treatment. SSHL is usually idiopathic, unilateral, with sensorineural hearing loss over a period of less than 72 hours. The most common theories for the etiology are a viral infection or a disorder of inner ear circulation due to vascular disease. The most common treatment for SSHL is a tapered course of oral corticosteroids and/or intratympanic corticosteroid injections, yet there is no clear-cut evidence that shows a significant treatment effect. There are a wide variety of treatments have been used to treat SSHL, including oral and intratympanic steroids, hemodilutional agents, anticoagulants, antivirals, hyperbaric oxygen, and vitamins.

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42
Q

Inflammation of the middle ear space is called … ?

A

Otitis media

This is the second most common disease diagnosed in children.

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43
Q

The eardrum on pneumatic otoscopy with a patient with acute otitis media will be …

A

bulging with decreased movement

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44
Q

A child presents with sudden onset of fever, ear pain, and fussiness. On physical exam, the child has an eardrum that is bulging and
yellow and white in color with dilated vessels, and there is decreased movement of with insufflation of air into the ear canal, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Acute otitis media

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45
Q

Complications of Acute Otitis Media

A

Meningitis, sigmoid sinus thrombosis, subperiosteal abscess of the mastoid, brain abscess, and facial nerve paralysis

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46
Q

Common bacteria that cause acute otitis media in children are

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Haemophilus influenzae

Moraxella catarrhalis

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47
Q

When is observation the treatment option for acute otitis media?

A

Observation for 48-hours is considered in healthy children older than two years of age who present with less severe symptoms

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48
Q

If treatment is necessary, what is the treatment option for acute otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin dosed at 80 to 90 milligrams per kilogram per day is the first-line antibiotic therapy.

Azithromycin is used to treat patients who have a penicillin allergy.

A common second-line therapy for acute otitis media is high-dose amoxicillin-clavulanate. This is to address those who do not respond to first-line antibiotic therapy, which is likely due to a beta-lactamase-producing organism or a resistant Streptococcus organism.

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49
Q

What can decrease the incidence in acute otitis media in children?

A

Breastfeeding and vaccination with a pneumococcal conjugate preparation may decrease the incidence of acute otitis media in children.

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50
Q

What factors increase the incidence of acute otitis media in children?

A

Daycare attendance, young siblings at home, and exposure to tobacco smoke, may predispose children to develop otitis media.

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51
Q

Pressure equalization (PE) tubes, or ear tubes, are indicated in children with:

A

Chronic OME for 3 months and evidence of hearing loss

or

3 to 4 bouts of acute otitis media in 6 months

or

5 to 6 bouts in a single year

An advantage of PE tubes is the ability to treat episodes of ear drainage with topical antibiotic therapy, such as fluoroquinolone ototopical drops applied to the ear canal. Fluoroquinolone drops are favored over neomycin/polymyxin B/hydrocortisone, due to the risk of ototoxicity.

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52
Q

Do pressure equalization (PE) tube, or ear tubes need to be removed?

A

The PE tubes generally extrude on their own after one to two years.

53
Q

Ear drainage in patients with PE tubes in place should be treated with

A

Ototopical fluoroquinolone drops

54
Q

What will generally occur after treatment of acute otitis media?

A

OME, or middle ear fluid without active infection, may occur after treatment of an acute episode of otitis media. This may also be due to chronic eustachian tube dysfunction.

The majority of children will clear middle ear fluid within three months of an acute ear infection, those with eustachian tube dysfunction may have problems with persistent middle ear fluid. Children with OME are often asymptomatic, although they may complain of ear fullness or muffled hearing. These patients do not have the fevers, irritability, and ear pain that are associated with acute otitis media. On physical examination, there may be an air-fluid level behind the eardrum and decreased mobility of the eardrum.

55
Q

What symptom usually accompanies OME?

A

Children with OME may have up to a 30- to 40-decibel (dB) conductive hearing loss, which in some studies affect speech development and learning.

56
Q

If a patient presents with a draining ear, appropriate therapy includes drops and _________

A

Oral Abx

57
Q

How is OME in children managed?

A

Patients with OME are sometimes treated with a short course of oral or topical nasal steroids, to decrease the swelling in the eustachian tube and allow ventilation of the middle ear space.

Antibiotic therapy is not usually indicated for children with OME.

58
Q

What is the appropriate action for a child with OME for at least 3 months?

A

When a child has at least three months of persistent middle ear effusion, referral to an otolaryngologist and placement of PE tubes is often entertained, especially for children with effusions that are associated with hearing loss.

59
Q

What helps to prognosticate the use of PE tubes in children?

A

Children usually grow out of the need for the tubes as they get older, as the eustachian tube assumes a longer and more downward-slanted course with time.

However, there are certain subsets of patients, such as children with a history of cleft palate or trisomy 21, who can have long-term problems with otitis media and eustachian tube dysfunction.

60
Q

What can possibly be done to reduce the need for pressure equalization (PE) tube, or ear tubes ?

A

An adenoidectomy, or removal of the adenoid tissue in the nasopharynx, has been shown to reduce the need for PE tubes in children, presumably by removing a focus of eustachian tube inflammation.

Adenoidectomy is often recommended if a child requires a second set of PE tubes, or with the first set of tubes if the child has significant nasal symptoms.

61
Q

Often the only sign of early nasopharyngeal carcinoma in adults is … ?

A

Unilateral OME

Later in the disease process, the tumor metastasizes to the cervical lymph nodes and extends into the skull base, causing cranial neuropathies. In the past, nasopharyngeal examination was performed with mirrors, but most otolaryngologists now routinely use rigid or flexible endoscopic instrumentation.

62
Q

What are the complications of Acute Otitis Media?

A

perforation of the eardrum
tympanosclerosis
mastoiditis
meningitis

63
Q

What are the layers of the eardrum?

A

The eardrum has three layers: cuboidal epithelium in the middle ear, a fibrous layer in the middle, and squamous epithelium on the outside.

When there is a perforation, all three layers start to proliferate, but if the squamous layer and the cuboidal layer meet, the fibrous layer will stop. This can lead to a chronic perforation in which the middle ear is constantly being exposed to the outside, and thus develops a low-grade inflammation.

64
Q

Purulent ear drainage in the setting of acute otitis media is likely due to

A

Eardrum, or tympanic membrane, perforation.

The eardrum is the path of least resistance in the ear; thus, a build-up of middle ear purulence during an episode of acute otitis media can result in spontaneous tympanic membrane (TM) rupture.

Treatment is similar to acute otitis media. Most commonly, the perforation will heal on its own within two weeks. However, persistent perforations may require surgical repair. Occasionally, eardrum perforations can be associated with chronic ear drainage, also known as chronic suppurative otitis media.

65
Q

Firm submucosal scarring that can appear as a chalky white patch on the eardrum is due to

A

This is likely tympanosclerosis and is due to Tympanic membrane perforation.

Infrequently this condition can lead to conductive hearing loss if the middle ear, and ossicles are involved extensively.

66
Q

Other rare CNS complications of AOM are … ?

A

Other less common complications of otitis media include epidural and brain abscesses, sigmoid sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

Epidural abscess or brain abscesses require surgical drainage.

Sigmoid sinus becoming infected can lead to thrombosis, and can serve as a nidus of infection. This classically leads to showers of infected emboli, causing “picket fence fevers.”

Facial nerve paralysis in the setting of acute otitis media is believed to be caused by inflammation around the nerve, and thus generally responds to appropriate intravenous antibiotic therapy as well as drainage of the pus. This can be done via either a myringotomy (an incision in the eardrum) or, if necessary, a mastoidectomy.

67
Q

What organism was the most common to cause blood-borne spread of the bacteria from the middle ear space into the meninges?

A

Historically, the most common offending organism was Haemophilus influenzae, though epidemiologic patterns have been changing since the advent of the Haemophilus influenzae vaccine.

68
Q

What is the treatment approach for meningitis caused by otitis media?

A

IV Abx

69
Q

What is a potential complication of pediatric meningitis?

A

hearing loss

70
Q

The collection of trabeculated bony cavities lined with mucosa and connected with the middle ear is called the mastoid _________

A

Air Cells

71
Q

What is the likely condition fever, ear pain, fluctuance behind the ear, and a protruding auricle ?

A

Acute mastoiditis

This is a complication of AOM.

Fluid collects in the air cells of the mastoid bone just behind the ear and often occurs when acute otitis media is present. If the fluid becomes infected and invades the bony structures, acute mastoiditis develops. Patients with acute mastoiditis present with fever, ear pain, and a protruding auricle. Over the mastoid bone, the patient may have erythema of the skin, tenderness, and even a fluctuant mass.

A CT scan is a useful diagnostic tool if acute mastoiditis is suspected.

IV Abx may initially be used to treat patients with acute mastoiditis. Surgery, including PE tube placement or mastoidectomy, may be necessary in patients who do not respond to medical therapy.

72
Q

Other rare CNS complications of AOM are … ?

A

Other less common complications of otitis media include epidural and brain abscesses, sigmoid sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

Epidural abscess or brain abscesses require surgical drainage.

Sigmoid sinus becoming infected can lead to thrombosis, and can serve as a nidus of infection. This classically leads to showers of infected emboli, causing “picket fence fevers.”

Facial nerve paralysis in the setting of acute otitis media is believed to be caused by inflammation around the nerve, and thus generally responds to appropriate intravenous antibiotic therapy as well as drainage of the pus. This can be done via either a myringotomy (an incision in the eardrum) or, if necessary, a mastoidectomy.

73
Q

A retracted pars flaccida is due to ________ and over time can grow ______ ?

A

A retracted pars flaccida is due to chronic eustachian tube dysfunction and desquamated debris that consist with of a collection of keratin.

Over time, this can grow and become a Cholesteatoma

74
Q

If ear drainage persists despite medical therapy, the patient requires referral to an otolaryngologist to rule out ______________

A

Cholesteatoma

75
Q

What condition is due to keratinous debris that gets caught in the pars flaccida retraction pocket?

A

Cholesteatoma

This can develop in some patients who do not outgrow their eustachian tube dysfunction, and they go on to suffer from chronic negative middle ear pressure. This can result in retraction of the superior part of the eardrum, known as pars flaccida, back into the middle ear space. The outside of the eardrum is actually lined with squamous epithelium, which desquamates and produces keratin. Over time, the keratinous debris can get caught in the pars flaccida retraction pocket, which continues to accumulate, expanding the pocket, creating a cholesteatoma, which often gets infected.

Another way cholesteatoma can develop is when squamous epithelium migrates into the middle ear space through a hole in the eardrum. The perforation can come from a previous otitis media infection, a PE tube hole that did not heal, or trauma. Marginal perforations, or holes along the outer portion of the eardrum, are more likely to allow migration of epithelium than central perforations.

76
Q

Patients with cholesteatoma usually present with … ?

A

Patients with cholesteatoma usually present with chronic ear pressure, drainage, and retraction of the TM.

These patients may be put on ototopical antibiotic drops due to the drainage which is often due to Pseudomonas or Proteus bacteria.

77
Q

If the cholesteatoma is left untreated, it will …. ?

A

If the cholesteatoma is left untreated, it will continue to grow and erode bony structures.

Possible sequelae include hearing loss secondary to necrosis of the long process of the incus; erosion into the lateral semicircular canal, causing dizziness; subperiosteal abscess; facial nerve palsy; meningitis; and brain abscess.

78
Q

The treatment for cholesteatoma is … ?

A

surgical removal.

While excision gets rid of the cholesteatoma, the underlying eustachian tube dysfunction is still present.

Cholesteatoma has the propensity to recur. Once patients have undergone surgery for removal of a cholesteatoma, they will need continuous monitoring of their ears for the rest of their lives.

79
Q

Tympanoplasty requires what component because the fibrous tissue will not grow with squamous epithelium meeting cuboidal epithelium … ?

A

Grafts using either:

Fascia temporalis
(the fibrous connective tissue overlying the temporalis muscle)

or

Tragal perichondrium
(the lining overlying the tragus ear cartilage)

Small, semicircular cuts in the skin of the external auditory canal (EAC) are made about five millimeters (mm) out from the annulus, which is the outermost portion of the eardrum. The surgeon scrapes the skin off the bone and sneaks under the annulus to access the medial aspect of the eardrum and the middle ear space. The middle ear is then filled with a sponge-like material made of hydrolyzed collagen, which acts as a scaffold to hold the graft up against the medial aspect of the eardrum. Then the TM and skin are replaced and the EAC is packed with more sponge-like material. The collagen substance is eventually reabsorbed; meanwhile, the fibrous layer proliferates along the scaffolding of the graft to close the hole.

80
Q

What special instruction are told to patients following a Tympanoplasty?

A

The patient is usually instructed not to get water in the ear for three weeks. This is the point when the surgeon will gently suction out any remaining collagen substance from the EAC.

81
Q

Cerumen impaction, swelling of the external auditory canal, tympanic membrane perforations, middle ear fluid, or ossicular chain abnormalities (otosclerosis), lead to __________ hearing loss

A

Conductive

(air conduction)

82
Q

Injury to the hair cells in the cochlea or neural elements innervating the hair cells due to persistent noise exposure, age-related changes of the eighth cranial nerve (presbycusis), genetic factors, and infectious or post inflammatory processes, and tumor growth (acoustic neuroma), lead to ______ hearing loss.

A

Sensorineural

(bone conduction)

83
Q

Cerumen, perforation, and middle ear fluid, will increase the _______ gap between ______ conduction

A

cerumen, perforation, middle ear fluid will increases the air-bone gap between the air and bone conduction

84
Q

What should be the next step for a patient with unilateral (asymmetric) SNHL, poor speech discrimination, tinnitus, and vertigo?

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with gadolinium should be considered to test for an acoustic neuroma. which is a benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve.

85
Q

An illusion of motion is called

A

true vertigo, a peripheral vestibular disorder

86
Q

What is the disorder caused by sediment, such as otoconia (calcium carbonate crystals) that have become free floating within the inner ear?

A

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), a common peripheral vestibular disorder

When the patient turns his or her head quickly or into a certain position, this free-floating material moves the balance canal fluid (endolymph) in the inner ear and stimulates the vestibular division of the eighth cranial nerve. This motion creates an intense feeling of vertigo that lasts less than 60 seconds and passes when the material settles. Patients are usually able to describe the precise motion that precipitates this intense, brief episode of vertigo. This disorder can occur without any specific inciting event, but is often seen after significant head trauma or an episode of vestibular neuronitis.

87
Q

How is BPPV diagnosed?

A

Dix-Hallpike test

88
Q

How is BPPV treated?

A

Dislodging free-floating otoliths repositioned into the vestibule (a portion of the inner ear), which is about 80 percent effective in eliminating symptoms of BPPV. After a period of time, symptoms may recur, requiring retreatment. Retreatment is equally effective in relieving symptoms.

Medical therapy with vestibular suppressants is ineffective because the episodes of vertigo are so fleeting, and should be discouraged.

Canolith reposition maneuvers include Epley or Semont maneuver, and the Brandt-Daroff exercises are a home method of treating BPPV. They can be effective, but may take more time to be effective.

89
Q

How are intractable cases of BPPV treated?

A

Surgical treatments , such as transtympanic gentamycin injections, posterior semicircular canal plugging, vestibular nerve sectioning, sacculotomy, and labyrinthectomy.

90
Q

Vertigo that is associated with recent flu is likely … ?

A

vestibular neuritis or labyrinthitis

The patient will usually awaken with room-spinning vertigo that will gradually become less intense over 24–48 hours. During this period, the patient’s hearing is generally unchanged, and nausea with or without emesis is common.

91
Q

vestibular neuritis or labyrinthitis is treated in what way?

A

Treatment is symptomatic, including vestibular suppressant medications, antiemetic medications, and a short, tapering course of oral steroids. It may take several weeks for the symptoms to completely resolve. Residual vestibulopathy that persists for months or even years is not uncommon, and is best managed with vestibular rehabilitation.

92
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient that develops intense, episodic vertigo, usually lasting from 30 minutes to four hours, and associated with fluctuating hearing loss, roaring tinnitus, and the sensation of aural fullness, where even after the episode is over, some hearing loss often remains?

A

Ménière’s Disease, believed to be secondary to a distention of the endolymphatic space within the balance organs of the inner ear.

This is different from BPPV, where in BPPV the vertigo is in short bursts of 60 seconds or less.

93
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Ménière’s Disease?

A

Salt restriction and thiazide diuretics are frequently used as first-line agents.

94
Q

How is retractable Ménière’s Disease treated?

A

Vestibular ablation by instillation of ototoxic medication (i.e., gentamicin) into the middle ear for absorption through the round window membrane and into the inner ear has also been used with success, and has a low incidence of hearing loss.

Surgical options for incapacitated patients include endolymphatic sac decompression into the mastoid cavity, vestibular nerve section, and labyrinthectomy. Labyrinthectomy disrupts the aberrant vestibular signals without the risks associated with an intracranial procedure, but it destroys any hearing in the operated ear.

Vestibular nerve section is an intracranial procedure that involves transecting the vestibular portion of the eighth cranial nerve near the brainstem. This procedure disrupts the aberrant vestibular signals from the affected ear, while preserving the patient’s current hearing thresholds.

95
Q

A runny nose that occurs with food, temperature change, or sudden bright light, is called?

A

Vasomotor rhinitis

96
Q

Both _______ and vasomotor rhinitis can mimic allergic rhinitis

A

nonallergic rhinitis

Both Vasomotor rhinitis and nonallergic rhinitis are treated with Intranasal steroid sprays

97
Q

What is the probably issue when a patient presents with inflammation, mucosal swelling, and increased mucus production, low-grade fever, facial discomfort, and purulent nasal drainage?

A

Acute viral rhinosinusitis

Treatment is symptomatic, with antipyretics, hydration, analgesics, and decongestants recommended, as needed. Spontaneous resolution occurs in 7–10 days.

98
Q

Symptoms of rhinosinusitis (inflammation, mucosal swelling, and increased mucus production, low-grade fever, facial discomfort, and purulent nasal drainage) lasting beyond 7–10 days, or worsening after 5 days, suggest …. ?

A

Acute (Bacterial) Rhinosinusitis

Patients may exhibit several of the major symptoms (facial pressure/ pain, facial congestion/fullness, purulent nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, anosmia) and one or more of the minor symptoms (headache, fever, fatigue, cough, toothache, halitosis, ear fullness/pressure).

The organisms responsible are similar to the organisms that cause acute otitis media and include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.

99
Q

At what point in time does a patient have Subacute sinusitis?

A

symptoms that last more than one month but less than three months

100
Q

At what point in time does a patient have Chronic sinusitis?

A

symptoms that persist more than three months

Usually has a different underlying microbiology with increased numbers of anaerobic organisms.

101
Q

What is the treatment for sinusitis?

A

10-day course of either amoxicillin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.

Resistance to amoxicillin has prompted some physicians to consider using amoxicillin/clavulanate or a second-generation cephalosporin or macrolide or a quinolone instead of amoxicillin as the
first-line therapy. More recently, the appearance of penicillin resistance in S. pneumoniae infection (which has a different resistance mechanism than beta-lactamase production) has resulted in the recommendation that higher doses of amoxicillin be used routinely.

Adjunctive measures may include topical decongestants (oxymetazoline) for three days, mucolytics (guaifenisen), and oral decongestants. Severe or recurrent cases may require systemic steroids.

102
Q

sinusitis should be referred to an otolaryngologist if

A

three to four infections per year

an infection that does not respond to two three-week courses of antibiotics

nasal polyps on exam

or any complications of sinusitis.

103
Q

What is a major complication of Frontal Sinusitis

A

Meningitis and Brain Abscesses

This is due to the penetration of organisms or the propagation of an infected clot into the posterior sinus that leads directly into the dura from the frontal sinus lining.

104
Q

How is Meningitis or Brain Abscesses treated when a patient also has acute frontal sinusitis with an air-fluid levels?

A

Pain is severe, and patients usually require hospital admission for treatment and close observation.

Aggressive antibiotic therapy to cover S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae, as well as get good cerebrospinal fluid penetration.

Topical vasoconstriction to shrink the swollen mucosa around the nasofrontal duct and restore natural drainage into the nose should begin in the clinic and continue throughout the hospital stay.

Systemic steroids may also be considered to decrease swelling. If frontal sinusitis does not greatly improved within 24 hours, the frontal sinus should be surgically drained to prevent serious intracranial infections.

105
Q

What is a major complication of ethmoid sinusitis?

A

Orbital cellulitis or abscesses

These patients present with eyelid swelling, proptosis, and double vision.

106
Q

How is ethmoid sinusitis treated?

A

A CT scan will generally show the presence (or absence) of an abscess, which is always accompanied by ethmoid sinusitis. If an abscess is present, it will require surgical drainage as soon as possible, so the patient should be referred to an otolaryngologist.

If the condition is severe ethmoid sinusitis without abscess, it may be treated with intravenous antibiotics and nasal flushes with decongestant nose drops. Severe ethmoid sinusitis will often resolve with nonoperative therapy, but if the patient’s condition worsens, then surgery is indicated

107
Q

What is a major complication of sphenoid sinusitis?

A

Sphenoid sinusitis can cause ophthalmoplegia, meningitis, and even cavernous sinus thrombosis.

Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a complication with even more grave implications than meningitis or brain abscess, and it carries a mortality of approximately 50 percent. The veins of the face that drain the sinuses do not have valves, and they may drain posteriorly into the cavernous sinus.

Infectious venous thrombophlebitis can spread into the cavernous sinus from a source on the face or in the sinus. The most common cause of this serious infection is rhinosinusitis. The nerves that run through the cavernous sinus are the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and first and second divisions of the trigeminal (V) and the abducens (VI). A patient who has double vision and rhinosinusitis should be assumed to have cavernous sinus thrombosis until it is ruled out by a CT and/or MRI scan.

108
Q

How is sphenoid sinusitis treated?

A

The preferred treatment is high-dose intravenous antibiotics and surgical drainage of the paranasal sinuses. Anticoagulation is also a consideration in the treatment regimen.

109
Q

What is the likely issue when a patient has a runny nose and a preponderance of eosinophils?

A

Allergic fungal sinusitis

Although fungal elements are commonly found in the nasal cavity of normal patients, some patients develop a sensitivity or immunoreactivity to fungi. This allergic disorder to fungi can result in severe symptoms of chronic sinusitis and significant inflammation in the sinonasal mucosa.

110
Q

How is Allergic fungal sinusitis treated?

A

Effective treatment requires surgery to remove the offending fungal mucin. Fungal spores can also get trapped in a sinus, where they germinate and fill the sinus with debris, forming a “fungal ball” or mycetoma. Typically, mycetomas do not cause a significant inflammatory response, and they are easily cured by surgical removal. If a patient is immunocompromised or has diabetes, certain fungal infections (e.g., mucormycosis) can become “invasive,” resulting in destruction of the sinus with erosion into the orbit or brain. These invasive fungal infections constitute an ENT emergency, since they are life threatening and can advance quite rapidly.

111
Q

When must this condition be corrected?

A

When the obstruction involves the nasal pyramid, it, too, must be corrected by rhinoplasty.

Rhinoplasty involves controlled chisel cuts of the bones (osteotomies) on either side of the nose and placement of the bones into the correct position. A splint is used to hold this position for a week after surgery. Rhinoplasty can be combined with trimming of the nasal cartilage to subtly change the contour of the tip of the nose. When the obstruction involves the softer, cartilaginous middle third of the nose and/or the nostril openings, then nasal valve repair may be indicated. This surgery may entail placing cartilage grafts to widen or strengthen the lateral wall of the nasal cavity to relieve the nasal obstruction. This surgery can be performed concomitantly with a septoplasty or rhinoplasty.

112
Q

What is the most common nasal mass?

A

By far the most common nasal masses encountered by physicians are nasal polyps.

Other types of intranasal masses include inflammatory etiologies, such as pyogenic granuloma, Wegener’s granulomatosis, and sarcoidosis. Neoplasms, including inverting papilloma, juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma, esthesioneuroblastoma, sinonasal undifferentiated carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and other malignancies, are fortunately not as common.

113
Q

What is the condition when a patient presents with extremely edematous nasal or sinus mucosa?

A

Nasal polyps

These growths are localized, extremely edematous nasal or sinus mucosa, and are a frequent cause of nasal blockage. Microscopically, they are essentially full of water. They can enlarge while in the nose, and obstruct either the nose or the ostia through which the sinuses drain.

114
Q

When a patient has nasal polyps, they should also be evaluated for … ?

A

Allergies

Polyps that are associated with chronic, grape-like swellings that protrude into the lumen, obstruct and cause anosmia are often associated with asthma.

115
Q

Samter’s triad consists of (3):

A

asthma, an allergy to aspirin, and nasal polyposis

116
Q

How are nasal polyps normally treated?

A

Polyps usually respond very well to a course of systemic steroids followed by continuous intranasal steroid sprays. Surgery may be indicated if the polyps recur frequently or do not respond to treatment.

117
Q

How are nasal polyps that are also associated with asthma treated?

A

Inhaled nasal steroids as well as short bursts of systemic steroids often produces good long-term control of the disease. Surgical removal provides relief, but unfortunately, recurrence is common.

118
Q

Unilateral nasal polyps may be a manifestation of … ?

A

Neoplasms.

Unilateral nasal polyposis associated with unilateral sinusitis suggests tumor (most commonly inverted papilloma, a benign growth caused by human papilloma virus).

119
Q

Nasal polyps in children ought to warrant a workup for … ?

A

CF (they are usually uncommon in children)

120
Q

What condition develops with repeated use of nasal decongestants that can manifest with nasal blockage?

A

Rhinitis medicamentosa is a relatively frequent cause of nasal blockage when people repeatedly use decongestant nasal sprays over a long period. This is due to the rebound effect. Cocaine abuse can also cause this problem. Cocaine may also induce ischemic necrosis in the nasal septum because of the amount of vasoconstriction. The ischemia then may result in a nasal septal perforation, which interferes with nasal airflow and is very difficult to repair surgically.

The treatment is discontinuation of the decongestant sprays. Symptoms can be reduced by intranasal steroid spray, occasionally accompanied by short bursts of systemic steroids.

121
Q

What is the likely issue with a patient who may have a very straight septum with no nasal polyposis or inflammation, but still suffers from chronic rhinosinusitis due to blockage of sinus drainage?

A

This may be due to the anatomy of the patient, where the uncinate process comes very close to the ethmoid bulla, forming the infundibulum through which the maxillary sinus drains.

Only one mm of swelling in the mucosa in this area will obstruct the sinus ostium. Patients with chronic obstruction in this area and recurrent sinusitis often undergo surgery to either dilate the osteomeatal complex with a balloon, or remove the uncinate process and open the bulla to let the ethmoid and maxillary sinuses drain more freely.

After the surgery, a small amount of swelling will not obstruct the drainage flow from these sinuses. This procedure is done completely through the nose endoscopically, and patients tolerate it very well.

122
Q

What is the likely issue when a patient has symptoms of nasal congestion, clear rhinorrhea, itchy watery eyes, and sometimes ear or palatal itching, post-nasal drip, and throat irritation?

A

Allergies

Fatigue is also a common, caused by sleep disturbance from nasal obstruction, perhaps with other immune contributors. Symptoms may occur only in certain seasons or locations.

Allergic symptoms are initiated by inhalation of dander, pollen, mold spores, or other antigens. Typically, trees pollinate and cause symptoms in the spring, grasses pollinate in the summer, and weeds, such as ragweed, pollinate in the fall. Allergens, such as house dust mites, cockroaches, animal dander, and molds, can cause symptoms year-round. Allergies represent an abnormal immune response to an environmental protein tolerated by the majority of people.

At least 20 percent of the U.S. population has the genetic capacity to produce excess immunoglobulin E (IgE), the immunoglobulin that mediates allergic symptoms. Having inhalant allergy symptoms requires an initial contact with that specific allergen, which results in development of the allergen-specific IgE.

123
Q

What is the mechanism for developing allergies?

A

Gell & Coombs Type I hypersensitivity, the allergen-IgE populates the outside of mast cells in tissues. On recontact, the allergen binds to this allergen-specific IgE on the mast cell, triggering release from the mast cell of preformed allergic mediators (histamine, proteoglycans, proteases), causing immediate symptoms, and initiating the production of further allergic mediators (leukotrienes and prostaglandins) responsible for the late-phase allergic response (3–12 hours later).

The percentage of the population with allergy problems has been increasing in developed countries. One possible explanation for this is that the infectious diseases more common in less developed countries help tilt an individual’s immune system more toward the T-helper 1 (Th1) system, minimizing the chance of developing the Th2-mediated atopic reaction, and the resulting allergic symptoms.

124
Q

Does allergies have a genetic component?

A

If one parent has inhalant allergies, a child has about a 30 percent chance of developing allergies. If both parents have allergies, this increases to about 60 percent.

125
Q

What are the three mainstays of treating inhalant allergies?

A

Pharm, avoidance, immunotherapy

126
Q

Which patients should get an allergy test?

A

Those with allergies and/or an increased level of IgE.

In vitro studies for : Pregnant, poorly controlled asthma, dermatographism, Beta-blockers, TCAs, MOAIs, Hx of anaphylaxis.

Antihistamine medications (oral or nasal) must be discontinued three to five days before testing to avoid false negative results. Antileukotrienes, nasal steroid sprays and oral and topical decongestants may be continued without interfering with allergy skin testing. Patients need to stop taking BBs, TCAs, and MOAIs before testing.

Testing can cause anaphylaxis.

127
Q

What is a concha bullosa?

A

An air cell within the middle turbinate

128
Q

What is the osteomeatal complex (OMC)?

A

The OMC is the region through which the maxillary, ethmoid, and frontal sinuses drain in the nose. An obstruction of the OMC will frequently lead to sinusitis, and is often due to mucosal edema or anatomic abnormalities.

129
Q

What is the significance of the agger nasi cell?

A

The anterior-most ethmoid sinus—the agger nasi cell—is frequently clouded. Edema in this sinus may be associated with obstruction of the nasal frontal duct and results in frontal sinusitis.

This region is best visualized on a sagittal CT scan