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Amy ACVPM Study > Environmental/Toxicology > Flashcards

Environmental/Toxicology Flashcards

1
Q

100g/ton of drug = how many ppm?

A

110 ppm

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2
Q

1ppm is equal to how many mg/kg or mg/L

A

one

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3
Q

1 ton = how many pounds?

A

2000

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4
Q

1% = How many ppm

A

10, 000

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5
Q

1ppm = how many ppb

A

1000

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6
Q

1g/tn = how many ppm

A

1.1

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7
Q

1 gallon = how many liters

A

3.8

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8
Q

100g/ton = how many ppm

A

110

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9
Q

1 ounce = how many grams or mL

A

30

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10
Q

How are course particles in air pollution defined?

A

> 2.5 um and < 10 um in diameter

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11
Q

How are fine particles in air pollution defined?

A

< or equal to 2.5 um in diameter

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12
Q

How are ultrafine particles in air pollution defined?

A

< 0.1 um in diameter

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13
Q

How big do particles have to be to translocate into circulation in the body?

A

< 2.5 um in diameter

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14
Q

Where do course air particles come from mostly?

A

Mechanical Operations (construction, agriculture)

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15
Q

What size of particles are in Woodfire smoke?

A

Fine (90% of its make up)

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16
Q

What are the greatest particle risks to public health?

A

Ground level ozone and airborne

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17
Q

What are polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons?

A

Class of chemicals produced when food, coal, oil, gas, wood, garbage or tobacco are burned (high temperature cooking of meat) - bind to or form small particles in the air

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18
Q

How can exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons occur?

A

Inhalation, ingestion, dermal absorption

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19
Q

What are the health impacts of PAH?

A

skin, lung and stomach cancers (Benzo A pyrene is one of the most) and CVD

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20
Q

What are the top 10 toxic threats according to the Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (Dose is the critical factor)?

A
  1. Arsenic
  2. Lead
  3. Mercury
  4. Vinyl Chloride
  5. Polychlorinated Hydrocarbons
  6. Benzene
  7. Cadmium
  8. Benzopyrene
  9. Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons
  10. Benzofluoranthene
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21
Q

What is the Conservation Reserve Program?

A

Conversion of previously cultivated cropland into perennial vegetative cover for wildlife populations (Development of wildlife habitats) (Under FOREST Service)

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22
Q

What is the Clean Water Act (AKA Federal Water Pollution Control Act)?

A

Sets minimum standards for waste discharge for each industry as well as regulations for specific problems (toxic chemicals or oil spills) to maintain water quality
- Issue permits

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23
Q

Who regulates it if pollution comes from a specific source?

A

EPA

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24
Q

Who forms the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)?

A

EPA and the clean water act (issue permits)

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25
Q

How does chemical exposure after a disaster happen?

A
  1. Ingestion
  2. Skin Absorption
  3. Inhalation
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26
Q

What does the Comprehensive Environmental and Liability Act do (or Superfund)?

A

CERCLA is informally called Superfund. It allows EPA to clean up contaminated sites. It also forces the parties responsible for the contamination to either perform cleanups or reimburse the government for EPA-led cleanup work.

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27
Q

What are the two types of responses that the CERCLA Act authorize?

A
  • Short-term removals, where actions may be taken to address releases or threatened releases requiring prompt response.
  • Long-term remedial response actions, that permanently and significantly reduce the dangers associated with releases or threats of releases of hazardous substances that are serious, but not immediately life threatening. These actions can be conducted only at sites listed on EPA’s National Priorities List
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28
Q

What does integrated pest management mean?

A

Smart, Sensible, Sustainable (Effective and Environmentally Sensitive)

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29
Q

What are the 4 tiers in the integrative pest management approach?

A
  1. Set Action Thresholds
  2. Monitor and Identify pests (population, vulnerable areas, efficacy of prevention)
  3. Prevention (Crop rotation, past resistant varieties, cleaning, removing barriers, keeping records)
  4. Control (Start with less risky first - pheromones, then targeted, then broad
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30
Q

What causes red tide?

A

Karena Brevis (Algae)

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31
Q

What kind of toxin does Karena Brevis Produce?

A

Brevetoxin (Neurotoxic Shellfish Poisoning) (lipophilic)

32
Q

Where does Red Tide occur?

A

Scandinavia, Japan, Caribbean, South Pacific, Gulf Coast US

33
Q

What is the public health impact of red tide?

A
  1. Tainted Shellfish (toxic)
  2. Irritation to eyes, ears, nose and throat
  3. Coughing, wheezing and shortness of breath (particularly in those who are at risk for Airway Disease)
34
Q

What causes Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning?

A

Saxitoxin (brevetoxin) generated by dinoflagellates
- Associated with muscles and bivalves (any shellfish or crab cause they eat shellfish)
- Can occur in 30 minutes
Tetrodotoxin from Puffer fish also causes PSP (made by symbiotic bacteria) - blocks sodium channels
- Cooking does not destroy it
- Water soluble
- Can be fatal

35
Q

What causes Amnestic Shellfish Poisoning?

A

Domoic Acid (produced by red algae)
- Shellfish (bivalves), sardines and anchovies (fin fish)
- Onset 24-48 hours
- NE and NW coasts of US
- PSEUDO-NITZSCHIA DIATOM
- Sea Lion Deaths

36
Q

What causes Diarrhetic Shellfish Poisoning?

A

Okadaic Acid (marine sponges and shellfish)
- Hepatopancreatic toxins
- Passive loss of fluids
- Can last 30minutes to 3 hours
- Not life threatening

37
Q

What is Cigauatoxin?

A

GRAMBIERDISCUS TOXICUS
- 2 to 6 hours
- Snapper, barracuda, grouper, mackerel
- Can return if eat those fish in the next 6 months

38
Q

What is scrombroid toxin?

A

Histamine fish poisoning
- Improperly handled or stored fish
- Onset 10-30 minutes
- Self limiting
- Dark meat fish (tuna, mahi mahi, mackerel)
- Rapid chilling of fish is the prevention

39
Q

What are mycrocystins (aka cyanobacteria)?

A
  • FRESHWATER TYPICALLY
  • HEPATOTOXINS
  • DIFFUSE ICTERUS OF ORAL MUCOUS MEMBRANES AND
    CARTILAGE STRUCTURES; SWOLLEN AND HEMORRHAGIC LIVER
    CYTOPLASMIC VACUOLATION, NECROSIS OR APOPTOSIS,
    PARENCHYMAL HEMORRHAGE
40
Q

The clean air act requires the EPA to set Air Quality standards for which pollutants?

A
  1. Carbon Monoxide (Primary)
  2. Lead (Primary & Secondary)
  3. NO2 (Primary & Secondary)
  4. Ozone (Primary & Secondary)
  5. Particle Pollution (Primary & Secondary)
  6. Sulfur Dioxide (Primary & Secondary)
41
Q

What is the first step of water treatment used in Public Water Systems?

A

Coagulation - During coagulation, chemicals with a positive charge are added to the water. The positive charge neutralizes the negative charge of dirt and other dissolved particles in the water. When this occurs, the particles bind with the chemicals to form slightly larger particles. Common chemicals used in this step include specific types of salts, aluminum, or iron.

42
Q

What is the second step of water treatment used in Public Water Systems?

A

Flocculation
Flocculation follows the coagulation step. Flocculation is the gentle mixing of the water to form larger, heavier particles called flocs. Often, water treatment plants will add additional chemicals during this step to help the flocs form.

43
Q

What is the third step of water treatment used in Public Water Systems?

A

Sedimentation
Sedimentation is one of the steps water treatment plants use to separate out solids from the water. During sedimentation, flocs settle to the bottom of the water because they are heavier than water.

44
Q

What is the fourth step of water treatment used in Public Water Systems?

A

Filtration
Once the flocs have settled to the bottom of the water, the clear water on top is filtered to separate additional solids from the water. During filtration, the clear water passes through filters that have different pore sizes and are made of different materials (such as sand, gravel, and charcoal). These filters remove dissolved particles and germs, such as dust, chemicals, parasites, bacteria, and viruses. Activated carbon filters also remove any bad odors.

45
Q

What is the fifth step of water treatment used in Public Water Systems?

A

Disinfection
After the water has been filtered, water treatment plants may add one or more chemical disinfectants (such as chlorine, chloramine, or chlorine dioxide) to kill any remaining parasites, bacteria, or viruses. To help keep water safe as it travels to homes and businesses, water treatment plants will make sure the water has low levels of the chemical disinfectant when it leaves the treatment plant. This remaining disinfectant kills germs living in the pipes between the water treatment plant and your tap.

46
Q

What is the most common indicator organism that water has been contaminated?

A

E. coli/fecal coliforms

47
Q

What are the most common bacterial toxins?

A

Endotoxins - Cell Associated Toxins (LPS)
Exotoxins - Extracellular diffusible toxins (proteins)

48
Q

What are the gases that contribute to the Greenhouse Effect?

A

H2O (greatest), CO2, CH4 (Methane)

49
Q

What are the most harmful air pollutants?

A

CO, Sulfur Dioxide, CO2, Nitrogen, Water

50
Q

What are tertiary treatment methods for waste water?

A

(a) ion-exchange method

(b) reverse osmosis

(c) chemical oxidation method

51
Q

In ruminants, in the therapy of hydrocyanic acid poisoning (=prussic acid poisoning) when speed, method of administration, and potentiation of effects are considered, the choice of antidotes is what?

A

sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulfate.

52
Q

Sanitary/municipal fills and waste heaps are unavoidably hazardous due to which of the following?

(a) leachates

(b) emanating gases

(c) rodents and wandering animals

(d) plastic lining breakdown

A

(a) leachates

(b) emanating gases

53
Q

Which of the following is the common indicator organism used in the evaluation of wastewater?

a) Total coliform
b) Fecal coliform
c) Algae
d) E. coli

A

b) Fecal coliform

54
Q

Consider the diurnal (daily) cycle of temperature at the surface. Which of the following is the temperature maximum in the mid-to-late afternoon?

(a) There is a net energy gain at the surface from dawn to midafternoon.

(b) Clouds form in mid-to-late afternoon, cutting down the solar heating and cooling the surface.

(c) The intensity of solar radiation is at a maximum at this time.

(d) Late in the day, evaporation from the surface increases and this cools the surface.

A

(a) There is a net energy gain at the surface from dawn to midafternoon.

55
Q

The most common target organ of acute toxicity is which of the following?

a) heart
b) lung
c) CNS (brain and spinal cord)
d) skin

A

c) CNS (brain and spinal cord)

56
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning aflatoxins is NOT correct?
A. Aflatoxins are potent carcinogens and liver toxins and constitute a potential threat to human as well as animal health
B. Aflatoxin B1 and B2 are converted to M1 and M2 toxins in milk
C. There is a direct correlation between aflatoxins levels in feed and the resulting aflatoxin levels in milk.
D. Aflatoxins will be found in milk for several weeks after the toxin is eliminated from the diet.
E. Removing cracked kernels, “fines”, weed seeds, storage below 14% moisture, and regular aeration significantly lower or prevent aflatoxin buildup in stored grain.

A

D. Aflatoxins will be found in milk for several weeks after the toxin is eliminated from the diet.

57
Q

Your local County Extension Agent calls to get any information that you may have to help him with bee producers in the county that have experienced 30-90% colony losses in their apiaries. How might you differentiate Colony Collapse Disorder from other causes of colony loss?
A. There would be few dead bees near the hive with CCD.
B. The queen and brood would be dead with only worker bees left with CCD.
C. There would be many dead bees near the hive with CCD.
D. CCD usually follows an acute cold snap.

A

A. There would be few dead bees near the hive with CCD.

58
Q

The most frequent carcinogenic effect of high levels of total body irradiation is which of the following:
a. thyroid carcinoma.
b. leukemia.
c. bone sarcoma.
d. skin carcinoma.
e. gum carcinoma

A

a. thyroid carcinoma.

59
Q

The effective dose is best described as which of the following:
a) the dose at which 50 % of all test animals die
b) the dose at which some of the animals demonstrate a response to the chemical
c) the dose at which all of the animals demonstrate a response to the chemical
d) the dose at which 50% of all test animals demonstrate a response to the chemical

A

d) the dose at which 50% of all test animals demonstrate a response to the chemical

60
Q

During the physical treatment process of wastewater, what is the correct order of following operations to be followed?

(a) flocculation

(b) filtration

(c) screening

(d) sedimentation

Choose the correct answer from the following options:
1-(a),(d),(b), (c)

2-(c),(d),(a), (b)

3-(b),(d),(a),(c)

4-(b),(c),(d),(a)

A

2-(c),(d),(a), (b)

61
Q

Consider the following tertiary treatment methods for treatment of waste water:

(a) ion-exchange method

(b) reverse osmosis

(c) chemical oxidation method

(d) activated sludge process

Which of the above methods are correct?

1-1,2,and 4

2-1,3 and 4

3-2,3 and 4

4-1,2 and 3

A

4-1,2 and 3

62
Q

Sanitary/municipal fills and waste heaps are unavoidably hazardous due to

(a) leachates

(b) emanating gases

(c) rodents and wandering animals

(d) plastic lining breakdown

1- 1 and 4
2- 1 and 2
3- 2 and 3
4- 3 and 4

A

2- 1 and 2

63
Q

Which of the following is the common indicator organism used in the evaluation of wastewater?

a) Total coliform
b) Fecal coliform
c) Algae
d) E. coli

A

b) Fecal coliform

64
Q

The gases that contribute to the greenhouse effect on Earth are, in order of greatest to smallest in importance,

(a) CO2, H20, CH4

(b) H20, CO2, CH4

(c) CH4, CO2, H20

(d) H20, CH4, CO2

A

(b) H20, CO2, CH4

65
Q

The most harmful air pollutant produced from the complete combustion of oil or coal is:
a. carbon monoxide.
b. sulfur dioxide.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. nitrogen.
e. water.

A

c. carbon dioxide (most impact)

66
Q

Contamination of animal foods with toxic chemicals has occurred a number of times in recent years. One of the most dramatic incidents occurred in 1973 and involved dairy cattle in Michigan. The clinical signs of toxicity were abortions, breeding problems, weak calves, severe drop in milk production, curling of toes and death. The chemical involved was:
a. hexachlorobenzene
b. polychlorinated biphenyls
c. polybrominated biphenyls
d. pentachlorophenol
e. mercury

A

c. polybrominated biphenyls

67
Q

Bracken fern poisoning in the horse is characterized by:
a. motor irritability and severe icterus due to an unknown hepatoxic substance in the plant.
b. photosensitization resulting in the loss of hair and a sun-burned appearance of all unpigmented areas of the body.
c. incoordination due to a thiamine deficiency which is precipitated by an enzyme in the plant.
d. a highly fatal hemorrhagic syndrome with large subcutaneous hematomas, bleeding from the body orifices, and an elevated temperature.
e. a chronic syndrome with severe lameness and loss of the long hair of the mane and tail.

A

c. incoordination due to a thiamine deficiency which is precipitated by an enzyme in the plant.

68
Q

An air pollution control department in a city with a great many electrochemical plants receives numerous complaints from residents concerning the emission of a gas. This gas has a yellow-green color with an irritating and suffocating odor, causes damage to trees and grass in the vicinity of residences, and corrodes brass and aluminum materials on homes. This gas is most likely:
a. hydrogen sulfide
b. chlorine
c. ammonia
d. sulfur dioxide
e. methane

A

b. chlorine

69
Q

Raw garbage must be cooked at 212 degrees F for how many minutes before being fed to swine.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 25
e. 30

A

e. 30

70
Q

Which one of the following elements, used as a fungicide, may be toxic to swine and to humans eating pork from swine that have ingested the element?
a. Mercury
b. Iron
b. Copper
d. Molybdenum
e. Cobalt

A

a. Mercury

71
Q

Which species is the most sensitive to strychnine poisoning?
a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Ruminants
d. Poultry
e. b and c

A

e. b and c (cats and ruminants)

72
Q

True or False: Canids are extremely sensitive to sodium fluoroacetate.

A

True

73
Q

Which one of the four major groups of aflatoxins is the most abundant?
a. B1
b. B2
c. G1
d. G2

A

a. B1

74
Q

True or False: M1 is a metabolite of B1 found in animal urine, milk and tissues?

A

True

75
Q

Zearalenone functions as a form of which hormone (primarily in Swine)?
a. Testosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Estrogen
d. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
e. None of the Above

A

c. Estrogen

76
Q

Which species is most susceptible to fumonisin (mycotoxin) toxicity?
a. Swine
b. Dogs
c. Cattle
d. Sheep
e. Horses

A

e. Horses

Amy ACVPM Study (5 decks)

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