Essay Flashcards

1
Q

Can gifts be made conditioned on a subsequent marraige?

A

Yes

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2
Q

If a marriage is called off, how does that affect a gift conditioned on marraige? Does the type of gift matter?

A

The gift becomes incomplete, but depends on the type of property given, conditions attached, and the intent of the donor

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3
Q

When will a waiver of alimony be held up?

A

when doing so will cause the disadvantaged spouse to become a public charge

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4
Q

Can a court be bound by provisions in premarital agreements regarding children?

A

No, the have discretion to act in the best interest of the child

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5
Q

When are premarital agreements valid?

A

Must be:

1) in writing
2) entered into voluntarily
3) full disclosure of asses OR proof that party had independent knowledge

Some courts will consider general fairness and whether the parties were represented by independent counsel

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6
Q

What are the requirements for a marriage license?

A

Some state require a medical certificate showing no disease

MOST states provide a 72-hour waiting period after the application before the ceremony can take place

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7
Q

Will a defect in the marriage license invalidate the marriage?

A

No

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8
Q

What are the requirements for marriage?

A

1) license
2) ceremony with authorized officiant
3) no legal impediments to marriage
4) capacity to consent

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9
Q

What are legal impediments to marriage?

A

When the parties are too closely related (1st cousins are permitted in some states)

Bigamy

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10
Q

When does someone has capacity to consent to marraige?

A

The mental ability to consent at the time of the ceremony

age of majority

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11
Q

Can someone under the age of 18 get married?

A

if 16-17, then with parental consent

if under 16, judicial consent is required

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12
Q

What are the three requirements to common law marriage?

A

1) Consent to marriage (not just to cohabitate)
2) cohabitation
3) holding yourself publicly as spouses (joint tax returns/joint health insurance)

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13
Q

What is the doctrine of necessities?

A

When, in the event of separation, one spouse is made liable to third parties for the other spouse’s purchases for necessary
expenses, such as food, clothing, and health care.

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14
Q

When is a marriage void?

A

When it fails to meet the essential requirements

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15
Q

Who can attack a void marriage?

A

One of the parties

OR

Collaterally by a third party (like an ins co)

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16
Q

When is a marriage voidable?

A

When an event or condition affects the adequacy of consent to marriage contract (like bigamy)

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17
Q

Can a void marriage be remedied by continued co habitation?

Can a voidable marriage?

A

Void marriage - in some states and under the Uniform Marriage and Divorce Act

Voidable Marriage - in some state only by the party who is seeking protection

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18
Q

What is the jurisdiction requirement for divorce?

A

One of the spouses must be domiciled in the state seeking to enter divorce

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19
Q

When is there a presumption of domicile for purposes of divorce?

A

If a spouse is a resident of the state for a minimum period of time (generally, 90 days - 6 mo)

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20
Q

What is the jurisdiction requirement for determining financial issues (property rights and support)?

A

The court must have personal jurisdiction over both parties

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21
Q

What are the two grounds for divorce?

A

No-fault

AND

Fault

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22
Q

When is a no fault divorce allowed?

A

Requires proof of:

1) irreconcilable differences
2) bilaterally living separate and apart for a continuous, specified time period
3) incompatiblility

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23
Q

Under what grounds will a fault based divorce be granted?

A

1) adultery
2) desertion for a specified period of time
3) cruelty
4) habitual drunkenness or abuse of drugs commencing AFTER marriage
5) insanity

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24
Q

What does desertion mean for purposes of a fault based divorce?

A

must be an unjustifiable departure from the marital home with no intent to return

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25
Q

Are there any defenses for a no fault divorce?

A

Generally no, but one spouse can claim reconciliation to restart the time clock for
living separate and apart.

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26
Q

What are the defenses for a fault based divorce?

A

1) collusion, where the parties agree to simulate the grounds for divorce
2) connivance, the plaintiff willingly consented to the other spouse’s misconduct
3) Condonation, plaintiff forgave the marital offense with full knowledge of it
4) recrimination, the plaintiff is also guilty of marital fault

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27
Q

What does condonation generally require for purposes of a fault based divorce?

A

sex after forgiveness

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28
Q

is legal separation permitted on the same grounds as divorce?

A

Often, yes

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29
Q

Can the court permanently divide marital property when legal separation is granted?

A

Yes, it MAY, and if so after acquired property is separate property

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30
Q

What are the three main approaches to divide property?

A

Community property - all property acquired during marriage owned by each spouse and property owned before is separate

Equitable division of all property owned by either spouse [min]

Equitable division of marital property [maj] - each spouse takes his separate property and the property acquired during marriage is divided equitably

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31
Q

What does separate property include?

A

All property owned by a spouse before marriage

Property acquired at any time by gift, bequest, devise, or descent

Property acquired in exchange for property acquired before marriage

income from and appreciation of separate property

pain and suffering awards/victim of crime compensation awards/future medical expenses/future lost wages

property acquired by spouse after an order of legal separation where the court has made a final disposition of property

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32
Q

WHat does marital property include?

A

All property acquired by either or both spouses during marriage up to the final divorce decree (some states use the date of separation or the date of filing for divorce)

Includes value of vested and unvested pension, vested and unvested stock option rights, retirement or other fringe benefit rights relating to employment that accrued during the period of the marriage.

actions for lost wages during the marriage

reimbursement for medical bills incurred and paid with marital property and property damage to marital property

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33
Q

When can separate property be considered marital property?

A

Commingling

transmutation of separate property

improvement of separate property

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34
Q

What is commingling for purposes of classifying marital property?

A

separate property can become marital if the property is inextricably intertwined

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35
Q

What is transmutation for purposes of classifying marital property?

A

separate property can become marital property based on the intent of the parties

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36
Q

What is improvement of separate property for purposes of classifying marital property?

A

When separate property is improved by the use of marital funds or the efforts of either spouse

UNLESS the inrease was due to market factors and not the contribution of either spouse

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37
Q

How has property acquired before marriage but paid for after marriage treated for purposes of classifying marital property?

A

[maj] - property should be apportioned between separate and marital estates in proportion to the contribution of separate and marital funds to pay for the property

[min] - asset remains separate property when title was transferred but the funds used to pay off the reimbursement exists for the non owning spouse for half of marital funds

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38
Q

How are pension dollars treated for purposes of classifying marital property?

A

they are considered marital property subject to division

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39
Q

Are professional licenses considered marital property subject to division?

A

No, but some courts will consider it when awarding alimony to avoid unfairness

Some states value the degree and then award more property or alimony to the other spouse based on the valuation

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40
Q

Is property division a taxable event?

A

No

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41
Q

What are the factors considered in making an equitable division?

A

1) Age, education, background, and earning capabilities of both
parties

2) Duration of the marriage

3) Present income of both parties, and their vocational skills and
employability

4) Health of parties
5) Provisions for the custody of minor children
6) Whether the distribution is in lieu of or in addition to alimony

7) Each party’s contribution to the acquisition of, or
enhancement of the existing marital assets

8) Whether each party has dissipated marital property
(economic fault).

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42
Q

What are the fours types of alimony?

A

1) permanent periodic support
2) lump sum support
3) rehabilitative support
4) reimbursement support

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43
Q

What type of alimony support is indefinite?

A

permanent periodic support

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44
Q

What type of alimony can be modified?

A

Permanent periodic support and rehabilitative support

UPON proof of substantial change of circumstances

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45
Q

When are lump sum alimony payments used?

A

in high acrimony cases or cases involving elders

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46
Q

When are rehabilitative support alimony payments used?

A

to allow a spouse to gain education or skills

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47
Q

When are reimbursement support alimony payments used?

A

as repayment for a supporting spouse’s contribution to the increased education provided to the other spouse

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48
Q

What are the factors considered when awarding alimony?

A

1) standard of living
2) duration of marraige
3) financial resources of each party
4) contribution to the marriage
5) time needed to obtain education or training
6) ability of payor spouse to meet needs and pay support
7) age and physical emotional conditions of both parties

NOTE: some courts consider marital fault

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49
Q

What are the two primary considerations when awarding alimony?

A

the need of the claimant spouse

AND

ability of the other spouse to pay

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50
Q

When is spousal support modifiable?

A

based on the substantial and continuing change of circumstance affecting the needs of the recipient spouse or the ability of the other spouse to pay

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51
Q

Will a voluntary reduction in income be sufficient to reduce the obligation (like leaving a job or incarceration)?

A

No

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52
Q

When do periodic payments terminate?

A

remarriage, death of wither spouse

In some jd, cohabitation with another person

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53
Q

Do lump sum awards survive death? are they modifiable?

A

Yes

No

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54
Q

Are spousal support payments income/deductible for purposes of tax liabilty?

A

Support payments arising after 2019 are NOT

Support payments arising before 2019 ARE, unless the instrument is modified to comport with the new rule

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55
Q

What is required for separation agreements?

A

full and fair disclosure

AND

entered into voluntarily

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56
Q

What provisions of a separation can parties waive?

A

alimony & property division

They can agree on child custody, but the court is not bound by it

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57
Q

When does a separation agreement become merged into a divorce decree?

Can it be modified? Any contempt implications?

A

If the divorce decree includes the terms of the agreement or
expressly merges them, the provisions become part of the court
order.

It is modifiable by the court and subject to contempt.

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58
Q

When does a separation agreement not merge with a divorce decree and rendered nonmodifiable?

Is it enforceable?

A

If the parties do not submit the agreement to the court. In such case, it is rendered nonmodifiable

It is enforceable only by contract remedies

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59
Q

When are contracts to cohabitate invalid?

A

When sex is the only consideration

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60
Q

What are the duties owed by parents to support their children?

A

to support the kids based on the kid’s need and ability of the parent to pay

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61
Q

What approach is generally applied when determining child support? How does it work?

A

The income shares approach, which considers the number of children and the income of the parents to determine the base line of child support

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62
Q

Is child support paid independent of visitation?

A

yes

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63
Q

When does child support generally terminate?

A

age of majority

death of child

emancipation of child

termination of parental rights

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64
Q

Will child support ever continue past the age of majority?

A

Some states will do so if the child is still in high school or until they complete college

Most states wont extend child support to pay for college unless agreed on by the parties or provided by statute

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65
Q

What state has original jurisdiction over child support?

A

the jurisdiction in which the petition was filed

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66
Q

What jurisdiction can enforce a child support order?

A

the issuing court has issuing jd

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67
Q

When can a court other than the issuing court enforce child support?

A

Via direct enforcement, when the obligee mails the order to the obligor’s employer in another state and the employer withholds the obligor’s wages

via registration, when thec child support order is registered in another state and is then subject to enforcement in that state

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68
Q

Are state required to give full faith and credit to child support awards from other states?

A

Yes, under fed law and the UIFSA

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69
Q

When cant an issuing state modify a child support order? What happens?

A

when no parties reside in the issuing state or the parties consent to another state’s jd - a nonissuing state has jd to modify

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70
Q

What standard is applied when modifying child support orders?

A

there must be a substantial and continuing change of circumstances based on the needs of the child or the ability of the parents to pay

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71
Q

What court has jurisdiction for the initial award of child custody?

A

The home state

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72
Q

How is the home state determined?

A

EIther:
1) where the child has lived with a parent for at least 6 consecutive months

OR

2) the state that was the child’s home state within the last 6 mo and the child is absent from the state , but the parent continues to live in that state

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73
Q

What if there is no home state?

A

a court can assume jd if the child has a significant connection with the state and there is substantial evidence of the child’s well-being in the state

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74
Q

What if the the home state and the state w/ significant connections denies jd?

A

a state may exercise deferred jd

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75
Q

What if no other state exercises jd?

A

any state can exercise jd by default

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76
Q

When cant a court exercise jd for child custody?

A

1) a proper proceeding was already pending elsewhere when petition is filed, unless the other court defers

OR

2) the person seeking to invoke the ct jd has engaged in unjustifiable conduct

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77
Q

When can a court decline to exercise jd?

A

if it determines it is an inconvenient forum

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78
Q

What are the requirements for temporary emergency jd?

A

1) child physically present

AND

2) child has been abandoned OR it is necessary to protect child because child, sibling, or parent is subject to abuse

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79
Q

What is the hallmark consideration in any custody or visitation case?

A

Best interest of the child

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80
Q

What are the factors considered when determining child custody?

A

1) The wishes of the parents
2) the preference of the child
3) the relationship of the child with the parents and siblings and others involved with the parents
4) the child’s adjustment to home, school, and community
5) the mental and physical health of the parties
6) parent who was the primary caregiver

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81
Q

Does the trial court have discretion to determine custody and visitation?

A

yes, a great deal

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82
Q

What right regarding child custody is constitutionally protected?

A

The wishes of the parent

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83
Q

What are the standards for determining the preference of a child for purposes of child custody?

A

Children under the age of 8 get no consideration

Children over the age of 12 are given great consideration

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84
Q

What are the four types of custody and visitation awards?

A

1) joint custody
2) sole custody
3) custody to a nonparent
4) visitation

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85
Q

When will joint custody be awarded? When wont it be?

A

Encouraged in most jd ad awarded if parents agree

Not awarded when parents are openly hostile or unable to communicate

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86
Q

When will sole custody be awarded?

A

When strong evidence demonstrates that it is in the best interest of the child in the best interest of the child

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87
Q

When wont a parent be entitled to visitation in a sole custody case?

A

when harm to the child will result

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88
Q

When will custody be given to a nonparent?

A

when the nonparent can show harm to the child or unfitness

ex// abondonment, neglect, abuse, surrendered custody

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89
Q

When will courts deny or restrict visitation?

A

if injury to the child may result

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90
Q

when will a court grant non parent visitation?

A

in extraordinary cases such as divorce, separation, or death

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91
Q

What was the holding of Troxel v. Granville

A

if a parent is fit, their wishes on non-parent visitation are constitutionally protected and must be given “special weight”

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92
Q

When will custody be modified?

A

when there is substantial and material change of circumstances affecting the child’s well-being

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93
Q

Is there a waiting period for modifying a child custody order?

A

Generally, state require a certain amount of time (1 to 2 years) to lapse since entry of the order UNLESS the child’s present environment is harmful to the child

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94
Q

How can biological relationships and issues of paternity be settled?

A

via parentage action

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95
Q

What happens when parentage is established?

A

the parent owes support and has rights of custody and visitation

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96
Q

When is parentage presumed?

A

The husband of the mother is presumed to be the father if:
1) the child is born during the marriage; OR

2) The child is born within 300 days of termination of the marriage; OR
3) The child is born during a void or voidable marriage

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97
Q

How can a presumption of parentage be rebutted?

A

Clear and convincing evidence

But such rebuttal can be overcome if in the best interest of the child

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98
Q

When will a child of an unwed father be considered his child?

A
  1. After the birth of the child, the father marries the mother.
  2. The father holds the child out as his biological child
  3. The father consents to his name on the birth certificate.
  4. The father acknowledges paternity (usually requires formality)
  5. There is a judgment decreeing paternity (see paternity suits below)
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99
Q

When will father be protected by the due process clause and have rights to custody to their child?

A

if they demonstrate parental responsibility

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100
Q

Will a father be entitled to tort recovery for the death of a child if he did not legally recognize the child?

A

no

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101
Q

Is testimonial and other medical evidence sufficient for a paternity suit?

A

yes

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102
Q

When can a state interefere with family decision making?

A

when the decision endangers the well-being of the child

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103
Q

Under what circumstances may a court terminate parental rights?

A

a. Infliction of serious physical harm on the child or other children in the household.
b. Abandonment
c. Neglect or deprivation
d. Failure to provide support for the child without cause for a specified time period (usually one year)
e. Mental health of the parent that results in inability to care for the child or

f. Parental unfitness
(can be physical or psychological).

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104
Q

Can parents seek to terminate the rights of the other parent?

A

No

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105
Q

What is the purpose of adoption?

A

to provide the children a suitable home until the parents get their shit together

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106
Q

What are the requirements of adoption?

A

1) termination

2) creation of new parent rights

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107
Q

When is the consent of biological parents not required for adoption?

A

their rights were already terminated

if unreasonably withheld against best interest of the child

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108
Q

When is the consent of an unmarried father required?

A

if he is actively involved in the child’s life - demonstration of parental resposnibility

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109
Q

When is the consent of an unmarried father not necessary?

A

if the parent has abandoned the child, failed to support for a certain length of time, or never attempted to establish a relationship

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110
Q

Must an adoptee (the child)

consent to adoption?

A

In some state yes, if the child is over a certain age (12 or 14)

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111
Q

Is payment of money prohbited in adoption?

A

yes, except for medical costs of preganacy

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112
Q

WHat are the consequences of adoption?

A

it severs all rights and obligation of biological parents to child and creates duties to adoptive parents and child

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113
Q

How is agency defined?

A

the fiduciary relation resulting from the manifestation of consent by one person to another that the other shall act on his behalf subject to his control, and consent by the other to so act

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114
Q

What is the requisite level of control for agency relationships?

A

generally when the principal has specified the task that the agent should perform

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115
Q

What parties to the agency need to have contractual capacity?

A

The principal NOT the agent

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116
Q

Does the equal dignities rule apply to agency relationships?

A

Yes

ex// agency relationships for the sale of land or for a period exceeding one year must be in writing

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117
Q

What duties does the agent owe to the principal?

A

The fiduciary duties of care and loyalty and obedience

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118
Q

What is the duty of care for agency relationships?

A

A duty to carry out the agency with reasonable care (kind of like negligence)

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119
Q

What is the duty of loyalty for agency relationships?

A

The agent must put the interest of the principal first

this includes:

1) accounting to principal any profits earned while carrying out principal’s instructions
2) acting solely for the benefit of the principal
3) refarain from dealing with his principal as an adverse party or from acting on behalf of an adverse party
4) to not compete
5) using principal’s property for anyone other than the principal

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120
Q

WHat are the remedies available for a breach of the duty of loyalty?

A

damages caused by the breach and disgorgement of any profits made by the agent

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121
Q

What is the duty of obedience?

A

an agent must obey all reasonable directions of the principal

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122
Q

What obligations do the principal have?

A

indemnify for any expenses or lossess suffered in the carrying out of the principal’s instructions

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123
Q

What are the two types of authority?

A

actual and apparant

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124
Q

what is actual authority?

A

when the principal’s words or conduct would lead a reasonable person in the agent’s position to believe that the agent has authority to act on the principal’s behalf

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125
Q

When will actual authority be terminated?

A

(1) after a specified time or event, or after
a reasonable time (if there is no specified time or event);
(2) by a change of circumstances (e.g., the subject matter of the
agency is destroyed);
(3) by a breach of the agent’s fiduciary
duty;
(4) by a unilateral act of either the principal or the agent;
or
(5) by death or incapacity of the principal or the agent.

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126
Q

WHat is apparant authority?

A

when the principal’s words or conduct would lead a reasonable person in the third party’s position to believe that the agent has authority to act on the principal’s behalf

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127
Q

Can apparant/actual authority be established through an agent’s title or position?

A

yes

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128
Q

Can apparant authority be established through mere representations of the agent?

A

No, there must be some action on behalf of the principal

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129
Q

What is ratification?

A

Even when authority does not exist, a principal will still be bound by the actions of the agent if the principal ratifies the actions

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130
Q

What are the requirements of ratification?

A

1) The principal must have knowledge of all material facts regarding the contract
2) the principal accepts the entire transaction (NOT a portion)
3) cannot be used to alter the rights of intervening parties

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131
Q

When is the agent liable on the transaction?

A

Agent is liable when the principal is undisclosed (3P has no notice of principal)

or

partially disclosed (3P has notice of principal, but they are not identified)

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132
Q

When is a master liable for torts committed by a servant?

A

When the servant is an EMPLOYEE was acting within the SCOPE of employment

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133
Q

What is the general test of determining whether someone is an employee or an independent contractor?

A

If a person is subject to the control of another as to the means used to acheive a particular result, then he is a servant

If person is subject to the control of another as to his results only, then he is an independent contractor

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134
Q

WHat are the factors used to determine the right to control?

A
  • if the servant provided his own tools and facilities, then he is likely a k’er
  • if the servant is paid by the job rather than regularly, then he is likely a k’er
  • If the period of employment is longer or indefinite, then he is likely an employee
  • if the servant was hired to further the business purpose of the principal then he is likley an employee
  • if the servant has a business distinct from the master’s, then likley a k’er
  • if great skill is required, then likley an employee
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135
Q

WHen is a master liable for intentional torts committed by an employee?

A

When the conduct is:

1) natural form the nature of the job
2) motivated to serve the employer
3) specifically authorized or ratified by the employer

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136
Q

If a servant commits a tort in a loaned role (borrowed servant to another principal), which principal is liable for torts committed by the servant?

A

The princiapl with the primary right of control

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137
Q

When is a partnership created?

A

As soon as two or more persons associate to carry on as co-owners in a business for profit

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138
Q

What’s the key for determining if a partnership was created? exprss agreement? filing

A

Neither, simply the intent of the parties

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139
Q

What are important factors in determining if a partnership is formed?

A

The sharing of profits

AND

a person’s right to participate in the control of the business

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140
Q

So then when is a person presumed to be a partner?

A

When they receive a share of the profit UNLESS received in payment of:

1) a debt
2) as wages or other compensation
3) as rent
4) as interest on a loan

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141
Q

How can a presumption of a partnership be rebutted?

A

evidence suggesting the lack of a co-ownership relationship (lack of control or no sharing of losses)

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142
Q

What is partnership by estoppel?

A

if no pship was formed in fact, parties can be estopped from denying pship to protect reasonable reliance by 3P

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143
Q

WHat are the default rules for voting in a pship?

A

unless otherwise agreed, all partners have equal rights in the management of the biz and equal votes

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144
Q

WHat are the default rules for voting requirements on decisions of the pship?

A

matters within the ordinary course of biz require majority vote

matters outside the ordinary course of biz require the consent of all parties

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145
Q

What are the default rules for compensation to partners?

A

Unless otherwise agreed, partners get no compenation

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146
Q

Is amending the pship agreement outside the ordinary course of biz?

A

yes

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147
Q

When is a partnership liable for tort committed by partners?

A

When the tort is committed within the ordinary course of biz

OR

with authority of the pship

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148
Q

Filing of a statement of pship authority granting authority to a partner charges 3P with constructive knowledge of such authority. When are 3P charged with restrictions on authority?

A

When it is a restriction on the authority to transfer real property and is recorded in the county where the property is located

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149
Q

What is statutory apparant authority?

A

a partner is an agent of the pship and has apparante authority to bind the pship to transaction in the ordinary course of biz UNLESS the 3P is aware that the partner lacks actual authority

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150
Q

Can statutory apparant authority be contracted around?

A

No

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151
Q

Are partners liable for obligations of the pship?

A

Yes, they are held jointly and severally liable

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152
Q

WHen can plaintiffs collect from partners?

A

Only after they first exhaust pship resources (partners are essentially guarantors)

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153
Q

Can partners limit liability to third parties? (ex// agreeing that one out the three partners will be liable)

A

no

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154
Q

Are newly admitted partners liable for debts incurred by pship before his admittance?

A

No

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155
Q

What duties are owed by partners?

A

duties of loyalty, care, and disclosure

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156
Q

what is the duty of loyalty in pships?

A

each partner must put the pship and fellow partners first and treat them fairly

like:

1) accounting to the pship any benefit derived by the partner in conducting the pship biz/using pship property
2) refraining from being adverse to the pship or acting as such
3) refrain from competing with the pship

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157
Q

What is the duty of care in the pship?

A

refrain from acting grossly negligent or reckless conduct, intentional misconduct, or a knowing violation of law

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158
Q

What is the duty of disclosure?

A

requires the pship to furnish to a partner:

  • without demand, any info concerning the pship biz and affairs reasonably required for the proper exercise of the partner’s rights and duties
  • with reasonable and proper demand, any other info concerning pship biz
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159
Q

WHat duties can be eliminated by the pship agreement?

A

Duty of disclosure NOT the duty of loyalty or care

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160
Q

WHen is property considered pship property?

A

If acquired in the pship name or in a partner’s name where it is apparant from the document that she is acting for the pship

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161
Q

WHen is property presumed to belong to the pship? to a partner?

A

pship - pship funds are used

partner - acquired in partner name without pship funds and there is no sign she is acting for the pship

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162
Q

Do partners have an interest in pship property?

A

No

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163
Q

WHat is a partner’s ownership interest in the pship?

A

1) management rights

2) financial rights

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164
Q

Can a partner unilaterally transfer their management interest?

A

No, only their financial interest (unless otherwise agreed)

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165
Q

Is admitting a new partner a matter outside the course of ordinary biz?

A

yes

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166
Q

What is dissociation?

A

when one partner withdraws from the pship

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167
Q

What are some events of dissociation?

A

1) partner giving notice to the pship of his desire to withdraw
2) partner’s expulsion, death, or bnki
3) an agreed upon event
4) the appointment of a receiver for a partner

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168
Q

When is a dissociation wrongful?

A

when the partner is in breach of an express term in the pship agreement

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169
Q

What are the liabilities of a partner who wrongfully dissociates?

A

He’ll be liable for any damages caused by the dissociation

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170
Q

What is a term pship?

A

where the partners agree explicitly or implicitly to remain partners for a definite term or until the completion of a particular undertaking

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171
Q

what is the default form of a pship?

A

an at will pship - where there is no agreed to definite expiration

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172
Q

WHat are the two consequences of a dissociation?

A

dissolution and buyout

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173
Q

When is dissolution required?

A

WHen a partner dissociates by express wil in an at-will pship

If in a term pship, one partner dissociates wrongfully or dissociation occurs b/c of death or bnki, then dissolution required iff, w/in 90 days after dissociation, one half of the remaining partners agree to wind up

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174
Q

When can a buyout occur?

A

if dissociation does not cause dissolution, then that dissociating partner is entitled to recieve a buyout of their pship interest

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175
Q

What if the dissociation is wrongful? how does that impact a buyout?

A

damages caused by the dissociation will be offset against the dissociating partner’s interest

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176
Q

A partner is generally liable for pre dissociation debts (unless released by creditor), can he liable for post dissociation debts?

A

Yes, if they incur within 2 years of dissociation UNLESS he notifies creditors directly of the dissociation OR files stmnt of dissociation (effective 90 days after filing)

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177
Q

Can dissociating partners participate in wind up?

A

Yes, if they have not wrongfully dissociated

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178
Q

DO partners have apparant authority after an event requiring dissociation? can it ever be cut off?

A

Yes

Yes, by notifying creditors of the dissolution or filing public stmnt of dissolution

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179
Q

WHat is a limited pship?

A

A pship with at least one general partner and one limited partner

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180
Q

How do you form a limited pship?

A

file a certificate with the SoS with the following info:

1) name of lp with the phrase limited pship or LP or L.P.
2) name and address of agent for service of process
3) the name and address of each general partner

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181
Q

As a general matter, who manages the LP?

A

The general partner (limited partners can manage if agreed to)

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182
Q

What are the default voting rules for limited partnerships?

A

Matters within the ordinary course of biz require majority of general partners

Matters outside ordinary course of biz require vote of ALL partners (limited and general)

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183
Q

How are distributions made in limited partnership?

A

pursuant to the contributions of the partners, unless otherwise agreed to

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184
Q

WHat are the liability rules in a limited pship?

A

General partners are laible for the obligations of the pships

Limited partners are not personally liable for an obligation of the lp solely by reason of being a limited partner (they can lose their investment tho)

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185
Q

Is a limited partner liable for torts they committed?

A

yes

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186
Q

Does a limited partner owe any fiduciary duties?

A

generally, no

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187
Q

what is an llp?

A

A general pship where all partners have limited liabilty

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188
Q

How do you form an llp?

A

Same as an lp: file stmt of qualification with SoS with:

1) name and address of pship (some iteration/abbreviation o registered limited liability pship pr limited liabilty pship),
2) statement electing to be an llp
3) deferred effective date if any

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189
Q

What is an llc?

A

hybrid of corp and pship where owners, or members, have limted liabilty and the benefits of pship tax treatment

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190
Q

How do you form an llc?

A

file articles/certificate of organization with SoS with:

1) name of llc (some indication that it is an llc)
2) address of llc registered office
3) name and address of its registrered agent

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191
Q

What are the default rules of management in an llc?

A

management is presumed to be by all the members, unless otherwise specified in operating agreement

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192
Q

How are profits and losses allocated in an llc?

A

unless otherwise agreed, based on the contributions of the members

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193
Q

WHat fiduciary duties are owed by members of an llc?

A

duty of care and loyalty

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194
Q

WHat is the duty of care for purposes of an llc?

A

members (or managers) must act with the care that a person in a like position would exercise under similar circumstances in a manner reaosnably beleived to be in the best interests of the llc

THe biz jmnt rule shields acts of negligence but not acts of gross negligence or higher

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195
Q

How can breach of the duty of loyalty be excepted in llc’s?

A

If there is evidence of disclosure of all material facts to all members/managers and they authorized/ratified a specific act that would otherwise violate the duty of loyalty

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196
Q

WHat are the dissociation rules in an llc?

A

a member can dissociate at any time, wrongfully or rightfully, by expressly withdrawing

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197
Q

Are the rules for triggering dissociation in a pship same for an llc?

A

yes

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198
Q

What triggers dissolution of an llc?

A

1) event or circumstance that the operating agreement states
2) consent of all members
3) passage of 90 consecutive days during which the llc has no members

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199
Q

When will a court grant judicial dissolution of an llc?

A

1) conduct of atleast substantially all of the LLC’s activities are unlawful
2) carrying on biz not reasonably practicable in conformity with the certificate of organization and operating agreement
3) managers/member-managers:
(i) are or will acting illegally or fraudulently; OR
(ii) are acting oppresively or directly harmful to the member applying for judicial dissolution

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200
Q

How are llc’s taxed?

A

on a pass through basis, meaning there is no entity level tax, biz income passess through to owners and reported on their individual tax returns

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201
Q

What are the requirements of a will?

A
T over 18
In writing
T have testamentary intent
Signed by T
Two attesting witness
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202
Q

Can T acknowledge a previous attestation of witnesses or acknowledge will to witnesses?

A

yes

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203
Q

Under the UPC does a notarized will need to be signed by witnesses?

A

No

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204
Q

Under the UPC, will a court ever validate a defectively executed will?

A

yes if there is clear and convincing evidence that T intended the doc to be their will

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205
Q

Does it matter where T signs?

A

maj - no

min - T must sign at bottom, any clause under the signature is not given effect

206
Q

WHat is a holographic will? WHere is it allowed?

A

When T executes a handwritten will a with 1 or less witnesses

valid in about half the states

207
Q

Does a witness must be in T presence when T executes? How is this determined?

A

Yes

Conscious presence test (maj) - must be conscious of where T is and what T is doing

Scope of vision test (min) - must actually see T sign

208
Q

Where do probate proceedings happen?

A

In T domicile state

ancillary proceedings occur in every state T own real property

209
Q

When ancillary proceedings occur to probate real property, when will a will be given effect?

A

Under common law, If it complies with a given state’s formalities

Under UPC, if it meets any of the following:

1) complies with law of state executed in
2) complies with domicile state of T
3) complies with domicile state of T at time of execution

210
Q

Would an interested witness invalidate the will?

A

Under common law, only is:

1) theres at least 2 other distinterest witnesses, OR
2) she wouldve been an heir (she gets lessor of inheritance compared with intestate)

Under UPC, no

211
Q

Whats a self proved will?

A

A will that prevents challenges to formalities by having T and W sign an affidavit under oath before notary public

212
Q

WHat are the requirements of revocation?

A

Must be express and signed with witnesses

213
Q

Are there alternatives to express revocation?

A

Yes,
Physical act
Inconsistency
Operation of Law

214
Q

What does revocation by physical act require?

A

Intent to revoke, AND

physical act (burn, torn, canceled, obliterated, destroyed)

  • across some of the will [maj]
  • anywhere on the will [UPC]
215
Q

When is revocation by physical act presumed?

A

When the will was in T possession from execution to death and found in mutilated state

When will is not found after T death

216
Q

How can the presumption of revocation by destruction be rebutted?

A

evidence showing will wasnt secure, that someone else had access, and might done have done the act involved

217
Q

When will revocation by physical act by a 3P be found?

A

if the act is done in T presence and at T direction

218
Q

What if the will is lost? will it terms ever be probated?

A

iff they can be proven by clear and convincing evidence

219
Q

How can a will be modified?

A

reexecution (sign w/ witnesses) or republication by codicil

220
Q

What happens when a will and codicil are inconsistent?

A

the later document is given effect and inconsistent provisions are read pursuant to it

221
Q

What happens when a first will is inconsistent with a second will?

A

If the second will has no residuary clause, then it will be considered a codicil

If the second will has a residuary clause it will revoke the first will in its entirety

222
Q

How does divorce affect a will?

A

divorce following execution revokes all provisions in favor of the ex spouse

223
Q

What is the doctrine of dependent relative revocation

A

When theres a revocation/change made by based on a MoL or MoF, then the change or revocation will be disregarded if but for the mistake, T would have never made it

224
Q

What does DDR result in?

A

undoing the revocation/cancellation if the revocation/cancelation results in a larger gift

225
Q

If there are 2 wills, and will 2 is revoked, can will 1 be revived without reexecution or republication?

A

Only under the UPC if:

1) will 1 still exists
2) T intended revive will 1
3) Will 2 revoked by physical act

226
Q

Can DDR be used to revive a second will after it was revoked?

A

Yes, if T would not have revoked will 2 had he known will 1 would not be revived

227
Q

WHen will writings be incorporated by reference?

A

If:

1) the writing was in existence at the time will was executed
2) Will manifest intent to incorporate
3) Will describes sufficiently to permit its identification (date, time, place executed, specific title of doc, etc)

228
Q

Can lists of tangible personal property be incorporated after the will was written?

A

yes, if it was signed by T and describes the property with reaosnable certainty

229
Q

What is the doctrine of acts of independent significance?

A

Gifts susceptible to change after revocation will not be honored unless there is some independent lifetime motive

230
Q

When does a lapse occur?

A

When a beneficiary dies before (or within 120 hours in UPC states) T, the gift fail and falls to the residue UNLESS saved by an anti lapse statute

231
Q

WHen does an antilapse statute apply?

A

when predeceasing bene is T grandparent or a lineal descendant of grandparent who leaves issue (NOT spouses or close friends)

232
Q

How do anti lapse statutes apply to class gifts?

A
If the antilapse statute doesnt apply, then the remaining class members get the gift
If the antilapse statute applies, then the dead class member's issue joins the class
(same rule applies for residue benes)
233
Q

When will a gift be considered adeemed?

A

when the specific gift is not present at death, the bene gets nothing

234
Q

What is the general exeception to ademption?

A

• T incompetent and conservator uses specific property of the estate to care for T, some statutes give bene a general cash legacy to the fruits of the transfer, UNLESS T deemed competent and competency survives conservatorship for a year

235
Q

What are the additional exceptions to ademption provided by the UPC?

A

Bene has a right to:
o balance of purchase price when sale k executory at T death

o Condemnation award for taking of property

o Fire or casualty insurance proceeds unpaid at T death

o Property acquired as replace for specific property

o Property acquired as a consequence of foreclosure of specifically devised note

236
Q

Is a bene entitled to take stock, also entitled to take increases in that stock?

A

Under common law, if the increase was b/c of stock split then yes, if b/c of dividend then no

Under UPC, yes unless it resulted from T giving consideration to get the shares

237
Q

How does a merger affect a gift in stock in the company existing prior to the merger?

A

o Under common law the gift is adeemed

o Under UPC, a beneficiary gets securities owned as a result of merger, consildation, or reorganization, or other similar action initiated by the entity itself

238
Q

When is a gift of shares considered a specific gift subject to admeption?

A

When the language of the gift is something like “my 100 shares of X company”

If language is something like “100 share in x company” then gift is not specific and will not be considered lapsed (if not present, then executor will have to purchase shares to fund the gift)

239
Q

Is the bene of a specific gift entitled to exoneration of liens?

A

Under common law [min] - yes

Under UPC [maj] - no unless intent to do so shown in the will

240
Q

What happens if theres an ambiguity in the will?

A

extrinsic evidence will be admissible to clear it up

241
Q

WHat if there’s no extrinsic evidence to clear up an ambiguity?

A

THe gift fails

242
Q

What is the intestate share of a surviving spouse?

A

If no issue/parent - spouse takes all

If stepkids/spouse kids - spouse gets all

if legit kids and spouse kids - spouse gets a fixed amount and then a fraction of any excess

243
Q

Order of share not going to spouse?

A

issue (kids/grandkids)
parents
parents issue (siblings, then neices and nephews)

244
Q

What are the rules for intesetate inheritance by representation?

A

 Per capita with representation (UPC rules AND maj) property is divided at the first generational level at which there are living takers, with the share of each deceased person at that level passing to his issue by representation

 Common law applies per stirpes, where the stirpal shares are always determined at the first generational level regardless of whether there are living takers

245
Q

WHat property is not included in the estate?

A

life insurance proceeds

property held in trust

survivorship property

accounts “payable on death” or “transfer on death”

property not owned by decedent

246
Q

WHen can non marital children inherit from the father?

A

If the parents are married OR

theres an adjudication of paternity

247
Q

When can step children inherit from step parent?

A

When there’s adoption by estoppel, or an unperformed agreement to adopt

248
Q

when doesnt adoption sever inheritance rights from biological family?

A

when:

1) the kid is adopted by a step parent, OR
2) both parents die and the kid is adopted by a close family memeber

249
Q

What is the simultaneous death act?

A

If a bene and T died close in time, and there is no evidence as to who died first, then bene treated as predeceasing T

250
Q

What is the UPC rule for simultaneous death?

A

120 hours rule - Person deemed to have predeceased decedent unless person survived by 120 hours (unless otherwise stated in will)

251
Q

When will a gift during the lifetime of a bene be considered an advancement?

A

Under common law, any lifetime gift to a child or descendant will be considered an advancement of their intestate share

Under the UPC, there is no advancement unless it is declared in writing by decedent or heir

252
Q

When is a testate gift considered satisfied (testate word for advancement)?

A

WHen:

1) evidenced by will
2) acknowledged in writing by T
3) acknowledged in writing by bene

253
Q

WHat happens if a will is executed after marriage?

A

Under common law, theres no effect

Under the UPC, the spouse may claim an intestate share UNLESS

  • intentionally omitted, OR
  • T provided for spouse outside the will with intent that the provision was to be in lieu of will
254
Q

WHat is the elective share?

A

WHen a spouse is intentionally omitted, they are generally allowed to take a percentage of the elective estate, which is the net testamentary estate

255
Q

WHat is the percentage of the elective share?

A

Under common law, generally 1/3

Under UPC, depends on the length of the marriage
- for every year of marriage add 3% - marriages of 15 years or more are capped at 1/2

256
Q

When must a spouse waive elective share, homestead exemption, or family allowance?

A

Must file the election to claim with a set period of time (generally 6 mo), otherwise its considered waived

257
Q

Are children born or adopted after execution entitled to an intestate share?

A

Yes, unless:

  • intentionally omitted
  • T left substantially all of the estate to child’s other parent
  • T provided for child outside of the will
258
Q

When do pretermitted children get the entire etate?

A

If theres no spouse or parents

259
Q

Are will’s republished by codicil redated as of the date of the codicil?

A

Yes

260
Q

Are are children believed to be dead treated?

A

Under common law, no relief unless mistake appears in the will

Under the UPC, child treated as pretermitted

261
Q

What is the slayer rule?

A

Person who feloniously and intentionally kills decedent not entitled to benefit from the estate

262
Q

Is acquittal in criminal law controlling for purposes of the slayer rule?

A

No, the standard is a civil standard (preponderance of evidence), not a criminal standard

263
Q

Can a bene renounce or disclaim an interest in the estate?

A

Yes in writing within 9 mo of death - treated as predeceasing

264
Q

What is a living will? What is required?

A

A written statement of an adult’s desires w/ respect to healthcare

requires:

  • signature by adult or someone at their direction
  • most states require 2 witnesses
265
Q

What is required for the revocation of a living will?

A

Any manifestation of intent, at any time, without regard to mental or physical condition

266
Q

WHat is a durable healthcare power?

WHat is required?

A

Used by principal to designate an agent to make healthcare decisions for the principal

requires:

  • agent to be anyone who isnt an unrelated person associated with the principal’s healthcare facility
  • Signature by principal or another at his direction
  • 2 witnesses
267
Q

When does a durable healthcare power become effective?

A

When the principal loses capacity

268
Q

When is a durable healthcare power revoked?

A

by written or oral notice given to agent or healthcare provider

OR

when a later one is executed

269
Q

What is the priority of appointment of a personal rep?

A

Person nominated in the will

surviving spouse

will bene or heir

270
Q

What are the rules for giving notice to creditors when probating a will?

A

Personal rep must publish notice of administration (if creditors unknown) and give actual notice to known creditors

271
Q

What is the effect of giving notice to creditors for purposes of probate?

A

It creates a 3 to 4 mo SoL for presenting a claim on the estate

272
Q

Who has standing to challenge a will?

A

Any person whose share in the estate would increase if the contest was successful

273
Q

What are the requirements of testamentary capacity?

A

1) T must understand the nature of the act
2) T must know the natural objects of his bounty
3) T must know the nature and character of his property
4) T must understand the disposition he wished to make

274
Q

WHat are the requirements for evidence challenging testamentary capacity?

A

the evidence must relate to circumstances at the time the will was executed

275
Q

Is evidence of an adjudication in incompetancy conclusive to testamentary capacity?

A

No, but it may be relevant (the standard of deeming someone incompetant is much higher than capacity for executing wills)

276
Q

What is an insane delusion? When will it invalidate a gift?

A

A belief with no basis in reason or evidence to which T adheres despite all evidence to the contrary

It will invalidate a gift when it is the cause of the gift

277
Q

What are the elements of undue influence when making a will?

A

1) Existence and exertion of influence
2) overpowering mind and will of T
3) will would not have been executed but for influence

278
Q

What is insufficient evidence to establish undue influence?

A
  • an opportunity to do so
  • mere susceptibility due to illness or age
  • unnatural disposition
279
Q

When does a presumption of undue influence arise?

A

When a principal bene who stands in confidential relationship to T draws or procures the execution of a will

Ex// atty who drafts will is a bene under the will

280
Q

When wont a no-contest clause be enforced?

A

unless the contestant has probable clause for the contest

281
Q

What are the types of gift given under a will?

A
  • specific gift
  • general legacy (gift of specific pecuniary amount)
  • demonstrative legacy (gift of specified pecuniary amount with funding instructions)
  • residuary bequest
282
Q

What is the order of payout in probate?

A

1) intestacy property
2) residuary
3) general legacies
4) demonstrative gifts
5) specific gifts

283
Q

When does a recognition of jmnt question arise?

A

1) when a jmnt has been entered by a court in one jd

2) A party is seeking to have that jmntrecognized by a ct in a different jd

284
Q

What are the two considerations when determining if a sister state should recognize a jmnt?

A

1) are the requirements of full faith and credit satisfied?
2) Are there any valid defenses?

If yes to 1) and no to 2) then recognition is requied

285
Q

What are the requirements of full faith and credit?

A

1) rendering jd had jd over the parties and smj of the case
2) jmnt of rendering state must have been on the merits
3) jmn entered by the rendering court was considered on the merits for purposes of recognition

286
Q

For purposes of determining whether to recognize a jmnt, what happens if the issue of jd has been fully and farily litigated in the rendering court?

A

then the determination is entitled to full faith and credit in the recognizing court

287
Q

WHat are some examples of jmnt not on the merits for purposes of recognizing jmnts?

A

Lack of jd

misjoinder

improper venue

failure to state a claim, without prejudice

288
Q

Is a default jmnt a jmnt on the merits for purposes of recognition?

A

yes, so are consent jmnts entered after a settlement

289
Q

Is a modifiable decree a final jmnt?

A

A modifiable decree is final as to the past payments but not final as to payments to accrue in the future

290
Q

What are valid defenses to full faith and credit?

A

1) penal jmnts not entitled to full faith and credit

2) extrinsic fraud (fraud that could not be corrected during the regular course of proceedings leading to the jmnt)

291
Q

is public policy a valid defense to full faith and credit?

A

No

292
Q

Is a mistake in the application of law a valid defense to full faith and credit?

A

No

293
Q

When does a choice of law question arise?

A

1) lawsuit involves multiple states

2) the multiple states will have different laws leading to different results

294
Q

What choice of law rules apply?

A

the law of the forum state (unless a fed diversity case or a transferred diversity case)

295
Q

What restrictions occasionsally limit a forum court’s choice of law?

A

Due Process and Full Faith and Credit

A statute of the forum state directing choice of law

296
Q

What is the first paragraph of a choice of law analysis?

A

“The issue presented is which state’s law will govern the outcome of this litigation. The governing law will be selected by the forum court using the [insert applicable choice of law approach]”

297
Q

What is the second paragraph for a vested rights (1st rstmt) choice of law analysis?

A

“under this approach the court will apply the law of that state mandated by the applicable vesting rule. That rule is selected according to the relevant substantive law”

298
Q

What is the second paragraph for an interest analysis choice of law analysis?

A

“Under this approach the court will consider which states have a legitimate
interest in the outcome of the litigation. The forum court will apply its own law
as long as it has a legitimate interest. If the forum state has no legitimate
interest, it will apply the law of another interested state.”

299
Q

What is the second paragraph for a most significant relationship (2nd rstmt) choice of law analysis?

A

“Under this approach the court will apply the law of the state which is most
significantly related to the outcome of the litigation. To determine this, the
court will consider connecting facts and policy principles.”

300
Q

What are the applications of the choice of law rules in tort cases?

A

1st: governing law is where the injury occurred

2nd: consider:
- the factual connections (place of injury, place parties are at home, place of conduct causing the injury, place where the relationship is centered)
- policy principles (relevant policies of the forum state, relevant policies of other connected states)

301
Q

WHat is the exception to tort cases (under the two modern approaches) that require applying the law of the parties domicile?

A

When the rule at issue is a loss distribution (loss limitations, vicarious liability, immunity) AND the parties share a common domicile

302
Q

When will a choice of law provision be invalid?

A

1) the law selected has no reasonable relationship to the contract
2) the provision was included without true mutual assent

303
Q

Whats the choice of law analysis for contract cases?

A

1st: if formation, apply the law of the place of formation. if performance, apply the law of the place of performance

2nd consider:
- factual connections (place of contracting, place of negotiations, place of performance, place parties at home)

  • policy principles (relevant policies of forum state, relevant policies of other connected states, reasonable expectations of the parties)
304
Q

Whats the choice of law analysis for property cases?

A

If immovable property, apply law of situs

If movable property, and:

  • inter vivos transaction art issue, apply law of situs at time of transaction
  • inheritance at issue, apply law of decedent domicile at date of death
305
Q

WHats the chouce of law analysis for family law?

A

Marraige - if valid where performed, valid everywher. Unless marriage performed in other state to avoid prohibitory rule in home state, then invalid in home state.

Divorce - forum state applies own rules

Legitimacy - status governed by mother’s domicile; validity of subsequent acts of legitimation governed by father’s domicile

306
Q

WHat are the defenses to choice of law?

A

1) forum court wont apply a law that is against its own fundamental public policy
2) forum court will apply its own procedural rules

307
Q

Is SoL considered procedural for choice of law purposes?

A

yes, apply the forum state SoL rules unless theres a borrowing statute

308
Q

How does a borrowing statue affect analysis of SoL for choice of law?

A

If foriegn court law applies under normal choice of law analysis, then look at forum ct and foreign ct SoL rules and apply the shorter period

309
Q

WHat are the domicile rules for children?

A

1) newborns assigned domicile of their parents

2) In divorce cases, children assigned domicile of custodial parent

310
Q

WHat are the domicile rule for mental incompetants?

A

1) assinged domicile of parents

2) if deemed incompetant after acquiring domicile by choice, then apply chosen domicile

311
Q

What are the classifications of goods?

A

Consumer goods - used or bought for use primarily for personal, family or household purposes

Equipment - used or bought for use in business

Farm products - crops or livestock used or produced in farming operations; or products of crops or livestock in their unmanufactured states

inventory - held by a person who holds them for sale or lease or to be furnished under service contracts; materials used or consumed in a business in a short period of time

312
Q

What are the classifications of intangibles?

A

documents - representation fo a right to payment

Chattel paper - record/records evidencing both a monetary obligation or a security interest in or lease of specified goods

investment property

accounts - right to payment not evidenced by instrument/chattel paper for property sold or services rendered

Commercial tort claim - a claim arising in tort with respect to: (1) claimant being an organization or (1) individual claimant’s business or profession

general intangible - catch all

Payment intangible - a general intangible under which debtor’s principal obligation is a monetary obligation

313
Q

How are computer programs classified?

A

If sold separately, a general intangible

If embedded into the computer, it follows the computer’s classification

314
Q

What does art 9 apply to?

A

A transaction, regardless of form, that creates a security interest in personal property or fixtures by contract

A secured sale disguised as a lease

315
Q

Are the words “security interest” required for grant of an SI?

A

No, the transaction just must be in substance a debtor granting a contingent interest in property to the seller that kicks in upon default

316
Q

What’s retention of title?

A

if a seller
and buyer of goods agree that the seller will retain title to the goods after they are delivered until the buyer has paid for them, the agreement will be treated as the
seller’s retention of a security interest.

317
Q

WHat is the determination of whether a transaction is a “true lease” or a “disguised sale”?

A

If the lessor is going to receive the goods back at the end of the term when the item still has meaningful economic value, then it is a lease

318
Q

What are some examples of a disguised sale?

A
  • “lessee” has an option to buy for little or no consideration
  • “lessee” is bound to purchase the goods at the end of the lease OR to renew the lease for the remaining economic life of the goods
  • the lease is for the entire economic life of the leased goods
319
Q

What are the three requirements of attachment of a security interest?

A
  • a written security agreement
  • value given
  • debtor has rights in the collateral
320
Q

What is an exception to the written security agreement requirement for attachment?

A

Possession by the sellor pursuant to an oral security agreement

321
Q

What types of collateral must be attached via control?

A

nonconsumer deposit accounts, electronic chattel paper, investment property

322
Q

What are the requirements of a written security agreement?

A
  • intent to create a security interest
  • authentication by the debtor
  • description of the collateral
323
Q

What are the requirements for a description of the collateral for a security agreement?

A

It must reaonsably identify the collateral

Supergeneric descriptions (i.e. “all the debtor’s property”) are not allowed

324
Q

What is the general rule for after acquired clauses?

A

unless explicitly said otherwise, the security interest only reaches the collateral the debtor had rights in at the time he executed the security agreement

325
Q

What is the exception to the general rule for after acquired clauses?

A

An after acquired clause will be assumed when the type of property is of a type that is rapidly depleted and replenished

326
Q

When will insurance payments be considered proceeds of collateral?

A

If the collateral was insured and damaged and money is received from the insurance company as a result of the damages, unless payable to someone other than the debtor or secured party

327
Q

When does a security interest attach to proceeds?

A

Automatically if the proceeds are identifiable, unless otherwise agreed

328
Q

How to you determine what part of comingled mass is identifiable proceeds?

A

Use the lowest intermediate balance test
- when looking at the balance of the account from the time the proceeds entered to the time the test applied, the proceeds are the lowest balance during that time period, but the secured party cannot claim more than the value of the proceeds originally deposited

329
Q

When is a security interest automatically perfected?

A

When it is a purchase money security interest

330
Q

Can you perfect a si by possession?

A

yes, provided it isnt impossible (i.e. accounts, deposit accounts, general intangibles, electronic chattel paper)

331
Q

What interest may be perfected by control? What interest MUSt be perfected by control?

A

May: investment property and electronic chattel paper

Must: nonconsumer deposit accounts

332
Q

How do you perfect a nonconsumer deposit account by control?

A

1) the bank maintaining the account if the secured party, then the bank automatically has control
2) putting deposit account in secured party’s name
3) control agreement - bank, secured party, and debtor agree in authenticated record that the account is subject to the secured party’s orders without further consent from the debtor

333
Q

What is the exception tot he certificate of title rule?

A

If the item that normally would be subject to the certificate of title statute os held as inventory (i.e. car dealer), then perfection must simply be evidenced by filing a UCC-1 stmnt

334
Q

What are the requirements of a UCC-1 filing stmnt?

A

1) debtor’s name
2) description of the collateral
3) secured party’s name
4) authorization by debtor to file

335
Q

What additional requirements for filing a financing statement is imposed when real property is the collateral?

A

the stmant must:

1) indicate that it is to be filed in real property records
2) describe the property so that it is reasonably identified
3) name the record owner if not the debtor

336
Q

WHat is the majority rule for individual’s names on a UCC-1 filing stmnt?

A

Name as indicated on an unexpired driver’s license

if not, the debtor’s individual name

337
Q

What if there is a mistake on the name of a debtor on a UCC-1 filinf stmnt?

A

errors are okay if they are not seriously misleading

if a search under the correct name will return the correct statement, then the name is not seriously misleading

338
Q

What if the debtor moves or changes their name? will the UCC-1 stmnt still apply to the collateral?

A

Yes, provided the secured party refiles within 4 months of the move or name change

339
Q

Will an error in the secured party’s name be seriously misleading?

A

No

340
Q

What happens when the outstanding debt of a securtiy agreement is paid and there is no commitment on the part of the secured party to make further advances?

A

Upon receiveing an authenticated demand by debtor, must within 20 days provide debtor with a termination stmnt to the effect that the secured party no longer claims an interest under teh financing stmnt

If consumer goods, then the secured party must file such termination stmnt

341
Q

Generally, a security interest in proceeds is effective for 20 days, after which the secured party must take action to perfect (refile). When does this rule apply?

A

1) the proceeds are identifiable cash proceeds

2) same office rule applies

342
Q

Whats the same office rule for purposes of perfection of a security interest in proceeds?

A

when:
- the security interest in the original collateral was perfected by filing
a financing statement,

  • a security interest in the type of collateral
    constituting proceeds would be perfected by filing in the same place
    as the financing statement for the original collateral, and

-the proceeds were not purchased with cash proceeds of the collateral

343
Q

If the debtor changes the use of collateral (i.e inventory to equipment) does the secured party have a duty to amend the financing statement?

A

`No

344
Q

What is the general rule for priority of security interest?

A

The first to file OR perfect (can be one or the other)

345
Q

Whats the rule for priority b/w unperfected secured creditors?

A

First to attach wins

346
Q

When does a pmsi holder have priority? (non inventory/livestock)

A

Once the interest is perfected at the time debtor recieves possession OR within 20 days of debtor receiving possession

347
Q

When does a psmi holder have priority? (inventory/livestock)

A

Before the debtor receives possession, the creditor must:

  • perfect, AND
  • send an authenticated notification to holders of previously filed conflicting security interests in the collateral, AND
  • holders of conflicting interests receive such authentication within five years of delivery to the debtor
348
Q

Who has priority, a seller-financed pmsi or a financer-finance pmsi?

A

seller financed

349
Q

What the the priority rules for deposit accounts?

A

1) control beats proceeds
2) first to control wins
3) control via own name beats other types of control
4) bank with control b/c it maintains the account beats all except sp who has account in their name

350
Q

Can a seller authorize the sale of collateral?

A

Yes either expressly or impliedly from the type of sale or the seller’s conduct

351
Q

What is a buyer in the ordinary course of business?

A

A person who

1) buys goods in good faith
2) without knowledge the sale violates the rights of another person (can be aware of the existence of the si)
3) and in the ordinary course of biz from a merchant

352
Q

Whaen does a buyer in the ordinary course of biz take free of a security interest?

A

When it is created by the seller (seller is the debtor)

353
Q

When does a buyer NOT in the ordinary course of business take free of the si?

A

When the si is unperfected

354
Q

What’s the consumer-to-consumer rule for priority?

A

A consumer-buyer takes free fo a security interest when purchasing goods for personal/household use from a consumer-seller, if he buys without knowledge of the security interest
UNLESS the sp files a financing stmnt covering the goods prior to the purchase

NOTE: the goods must be consumer goods in the hands of both the buyer and the seller

355
Q

When does a jmnt creditor have priority?

A

If the si is perfected before the sheriff levies, then si wins

If the si is unperfected when the sheriff levies, jmnt creditor wins

356
Q

What if a levy precedes a pmsi that is filed within 20 days after possession?

A

pmsi wins

357
Q

When does a future advance beat a lien creditor?

A

If the future advance was made:

1) without knowledge of the lien
2) within 45 days of the lien arising
3) pursuant to a commitment entered into without knowledge of the lien

358
Q

When can a secured party avoid the judicial process and recover collateral via self help?

A

When self help wont breach the peace

359
Q

When is the peace breached for purposes of self help?

A

Any conduct that has the potential to lead to violence (ex// )

360
Q

Examples of breached peace?

A

taking the collateral over the debtor’s objection breaches the peace

Unauthorized entry into a home, even through an open window (less likely for commercial buildings)

Entering a dwelling pursuant to a term in the sa without permission (even if permission isnt contemplated by sa)

picking a lock

361
Q

WHat is required for self help in accounts?

A

the secured creditor can notify in writing the persons owing money under the accounts to pay the creditor rather than the debtor. Upon such notification, the account debtor must pay the creditor

362
Q

When can a secured party retain possession of the colalteral rather than dispose of it by sale?

A

1) sending notice to all secured parties who have notified the foreclosing party of a claim and ones who have perfected by filing
2) no other secured party objects
3) debtor consents either: expressly in authenticated writing, or failing to make an objection within 20 days of notice sent

363
Q

Does a purchaser at a foreclosure sale take the collateral free of all security interest?

A

not superior ones. a forsclosure sale only discharges subordinate security interests

364
Q

What are the requirements of a foreclosure sale?

A

Reasonable notification (time and content)

must be commercioally reasonable

365
Q

What is a commercially reasonable foreclosure sale?

A

One in which every aspect of the sale (method, manner, time, place, and terms) is commercially reaosnable

366
Q

When can a secured aprty purchase the collateral at a foreclosure sale?

A

if public, then no restrictions

If private, then only if the collateral is of a type customarily sold in a recognized market or is of a type which is the subject of widely distributed standard price quotations

367
Q

What if a secured party fails to comply with any of the code rules for foreclosure sale?

A

They are liable for the actual damages caused by the failure to follow ANY of the rule

368
Q

Whats the minimum recovery for consumer goods when a secured party violates the code?

A

10% of the cash price plus an amuont equal to all of the interest charges to be paid over the life of the loan

369
Q

How does a code violation effect a deficiency jmnt?

A

If the secured party fails to follow the
Code’s rules on default, there is a rebuttable
presumption that the sale proceeds equal the
amount of the debt. In other words, the secured party
presumptively loses any deficiency.

370
Q

When does a debtor have the right to redeem collateral after default?

A

WHen he satifies all conditions under the security agreement (generally paying the entire balance)

371
Q

What is the general rule for identifying fixtures?

A

personal property attached to real estate with the intent that it become a permanent part of the real estate is a fixture

372
Q

Can you have a si in fixtures?

A

Yes, just not ordinary building materials (bricks, lumber, shingles, etc)

373
Q

How do you perfect a si in fixtures?

A

Same as any real estate interest

374
Q

What is a secured party’s right on default in si in fixtures?

A

Removal of the fixture when the fixture has priority over all interests in the real property
- if the owner of the real property is not the debtot, then must reimburse for damages caused by the removal, but not dimination in value

375
Q

Priority rules in fixture filings?

A

1) perfected fixture filing beats all subs
2) prior perfecteds beats sub fixtures, unless the fixture is a pmsi
3) construction mortgage beats sub pmsi

376
Q

priority rules as to accessions?

A

generally same as all others, except:

certificate of title statute si beats accession

377
Q

How do you form a corp?

A

Incorporator executes articles of incorporations and delivers them to SoS

378
Q

Required contents of articles of incorporation?

A

1) name of corporation (including one the following: coppration, company, incorporated, or limited)
2) name and address of each incorporator

3) Info regarding stock
- authorized stock or max number of shares corp can sell
- if different clases then number of shares per class and voting rights of each stock

379
Q

WHen is a de jure corp formed?

A

When the incoporator delivers the articles to the SoS, pays the fee, and the SoS accepts the articles for filing

380
Q

What is the purpose of the organizational meeting?

A

To appoint officers and adopt initial bylaws

381
Q

If the bylaws conflict with the articles, which governs?

A

THe articles

382
Q

Who can amend or repeal the bylaws or adopt new ones?

A

The board or the shareholders

383
Q

WHat state governs the internal affairs of a corporation?

A

The state of incoporation

384
Q

What is an S Corp?

A

a corporation with no more than 100 sh all of whom are human US citizens or residents, with one class of stock that is not publicly traded

385
Q

What happens when owners of a corp thought they formed a corp by failed to do so?

A

they are personally liable for biz debts (b/c what they have is simply a partnership)

386
Q

When the proprietors of a corp are unaware of their failure to form such corp, when can they escape liabilty?

A

When there is:

a de facto corporation

or

COrporation by estoppel

387
Q

WHat are the requirements of a de facto corporation?

A

1) relevant corporation statute
2) the parties made a good faith colorable attempt to comply with it
3) there are some exercise of corporate privileges

388
Q

What are the requirements of corporation by estoppel?

A

A party will be estopped from denying a corporation’s existence if they do business with the corporation, thinking it is a coporation, and the copration thinks its a corporation, but it ends up not being a corporation

389
Q

What is the status of de facto corporation and corporation by estoppel?

A

Abolished in most states

390
Q

WHat is a promoter?

A

Someone who acts on behalf of a corp not yet formed

391
Q

When is a corporation laible on contracts entered into by a promoter?

A

ONLY if it adopts the contract (expressly or impliedly (accepting the benefit))

392
Q

When is a promoter liable on a contract?

A

The promoter is always liabel unless the contract says otherwise or there is a novation between the promoter, the 3P, and the corporation

393
Q

What is an issuance of stock?

A

When the corporation sells its own stock

394
Q

When is a preincorporation subscription (offer to buy stock) of irrevocable?

A

unless otherwise stated, for 6 months or until other subscribers agree to the revocation

395
Q

Is post incorporation subscribtions revocable?

A

yes, until accepted by the corp (board accepts the offer to buy)

396
Q

Is consideration required for the issuance of stock?

A

yes

397
Q

What is permissible consideration for the issuance of stock?

A

“any tangible or intangible property or benefit to the corp” including services already performed and discharges of debt

398
Q

When a corp issues stock for property or past services who determines the value of such property or past services?

A

The board, which will be conclusive if made in good faith

399
Q

Who will be liable for watered stock (stock sold below par)?

A

THe board, if they knowingly authorized the issuance

The buyer (charge with notice of par value)

400
Q

What if a buyer of watered stock transfers it to a third party? Is the third party liable?

A

Not if she acted in good faith (without knowledge of the watered stock)

401
Q

WHat is a preemptive right?

A

The right of an existing sh of common stock to maintain her percentage of ownership by buying stock whenever there is a new issuance of stock for money (cash or equivalent like a check)

402
Q

If the articles are silent, do we have preemptive rights?

A

No

403
Q

What are the statutory requirements for directors?

A

Adult natural person

one or more

404
Q

When can sh remove board members?

A

with or without cause

Unless there’s a staggered board

405
Q

When a board member resigns or is removed before their term, who elects a member to fill their spot?

A

If resignation, board or sh

If removal, sh

406
Q

How must the board memebers act when speaking for binding the corp?

A

Unanimous agreement in writing - individuals do not have he authority to speak for or bind the corporation

407
Q

Can directors give proxies or enter voting agreements for how they will vote as directors?

A

No

408
Q

WHat are the requirements for resolutions passed in board meetings

A

Unless otherwise stated in the bylaws, there must be a quorum (majority) present at the meeting and a majority vote of such quorum to pass the resolution

409
Q

Can a quorum be lost if people leave?

A

Yes

410
Q

WHat is the role of a board of directors?

A

set policy

supervise officers

declare distributions

determine when stock is to be issued

recommend fundamental changes to sh

411
Q

What is the fiduciary duties owed by a director to the corp?

A

Duty of loyalty - good faith discharge of duties with the reasonable belief that their actions are in the best interest of the corp

duty of care - use care that prudent person in the like position would reaosnably believe appropriate under the circumstances

412
Q

WHen will a director be liable for the breach of duty of care?

A

Iff the breach causes a loss to the company

413
Q

When will misfeasance breach the duty of care?

A

If the director’s actions do not meet the business judgment rule

414
Q

WHat is the business judgment rule?

A

A court will not second guess a busienss decision if it was made in good faith, was informed, and had a rational basis

415
Q

Does the business jmnt rule apply to the duty of loyalty?

A

No

416
Q

Who has the burden to establish a director’s breach of care?

A

Plaintiff

417
Q

How can a director refute self dealing (breach of loyalty)?

A

Shows either:

1) deal was fair to the corp when entered
2) the defendant’s interest and the relevant facts were disclosed/ known and the deal was approved by a majority (at least two) of disinterested directors, or majority of disinterested shareholders
- some court require a showing of fairness

418
Q

Can directors compete with the corp?

A

No - duty of loyalty issue

419
Q

When can a director take a corporate opportunity or expectancy?

A

after he:

1) tells the board about it
2) waits for the board to reject the opportunity

420
Q

Is a corporation’s financial inability to pay for a corporate expectancy a defense to the breach of loyalty?

A

Probably not

421
Q

When can a corp make a loan to a director?

A

If reasonably expected to benefit the corp

422
Q

WHen the board of directors takes a wrongful action, when is a board member presumed to concur with the decision?

A

A director is presumed to concur with board action unless her dissent or
abstention is noted in writing in corporate records.

423
Q

When is a board memeber’s dissent to a board action “in wiriting”?

A

when it is:

1) in the minutes
2) delivered in writing to the presiding officer at the meeting
3) written dissent to the corp immediately after the meeting

424
Q

What are the exceptions to the written dissent requirement for a board member to avoid liability for a board action?

A

1) absent from the meeting
2) good faith reliance on information presented by an officer, employee, committee (board member not part of), or professional reasonably believed to be competent.

425
Q

Do officers owe the same duties of care as directors?

A

Yes

426
Q

Are officers agents of a corporation?

A

Yes - ex// the president generally has inherent authority to bind the corp to k in the ordinary course of biz

427
Q

Can sh hire and fire officers?

A

No, only directors can

428
Q

When cant a corp indemnify a director?

A

When the director was held liable to the corp or to have received an improper benefit

429
Q

When must a corp indemnify a director?

A

When the director was successful in defending the merits or otherwise

  • some jd require director to win entire case
  • some say “to the extent” director wins case
430
Q

When may (permissive) a corp indemnify a director?

A

When the director acted in good faith with the reaosnable belief that they were acting in the company’s best interest

431
Q

Who determines if permissive indemnification is available?

A

Disinterested directors, disinterested shares, or independent legal counsel

432
Q

Can the articles limit director liabilty to the corp?

A

Only for duty of care NOT loyalty/intentional misconduct

433
Q

In what type of entity can sh managed the corp?

A

close corporations

434
Q

What duties are owed to other sh in a sh managed corp?

A

the duty of utmost good faith

435
Q

WHat recourse does an oppressed minority sh have?

A

THey can sue the oppressive sh for breach of the duty of utmost good faith

436
Q

WHat is peircing the corporate veil?

A

In close corps, a sh will be personally liable for abusing the privilege of incorporation in such way that fariness requires holding them personally liable

437
Q

WHat the situations in which a court will perice the corporate viel?

A

1) alter ego, treating corp assets as own

2) undercapitalization when formed

438
Q

WHat is a derivative suit?

A

WHen a sh is suing to enforce the corporation’s claim, not her own person claim

439
Q

Who get the jmnt from a derivative suit?

A

THe corp

the sh can get costs and atty fees from the jmnt (only if she wins)

440
Q

when will a sh bringing a derivative suit be liable for the defedant’s costs and atty fees?

A

If she loses

441
Q

What are the requirements for bringing a derivative suit?

A

1) Stock ownership when the claim arose (either traditionally/operation of law)
2) adequate representation of the corp’s interest

3) written demand on the corp
- some states prohibit suit until 90 days after demand given
- some state dont require if futile

4) corp joined as defendant

442
Q

Can a derivative suit be settled/dismissed?

A

Only with court approval

443
Q

When a corp moves to dismiss a derivative suit, what is it based on?

A

Independent investigation concluding that the suit is not in the corp’s best interest

444
Q

What sh can vote?

A

Unless otherwise stated, the record sh of the outstanding stock as of the record date

445
Q

WHen can a proxy vote?

A

1) writing
2) signed by record sh
3) directed to secretary of corp
4) authorizing to vote the shares

446
Q

How long is a proxy good for?

A

11 months unless otherwise stated

447
Q

WHen is a proxy irrevocable?

A

1) proxy says its irrevocable

2) the proxy-holder has some interest in the shares other than voting (like an option to buy the shares)

448
Q

What are the requirements of a voting trust? (10 year max)

A

1) written trust agreemetn controlling how shares will be voted
2) copy to corp
3) transfer legal title to the voting trustee
4) og sh receive trust certificates and retain all sh rights except voting

449
Q

What are the requirements for a voting agreement?

A

signed writing

450
Q

When can a special sh meeting take place?

A

if called by:

1) the board
2) the president
3) the holders of at least 10% of outstanding shares
4) anyone else authorized in bylaws

451
Q

WHat do sh vote on?

A

election of directors

removal of directors

fundamental corporate changes

452
Q

Is a quorum required at a sh meeting?

A

yes - represents the majority of outstanding shares

453
Q

WHat number of votes is generally required for sh meetings?

A

1) elect directors (plurality)
2) approve fundamental corporate change (majority of shares entitled to vote)
3) remove director (majority of votes actually voting - used to be majority of shares)
4) other matters (majority of votes actually voting)

454
Q

If the articles are silent about cumulative voting does it exist?

A

No

455
Q

When are restrictions on stock transfers okay?

A

When they are reaosnable, no undue restraint on alienation

Right of first refusal okay

456
Q

When can a restriction be enforced agaisnt a transferee?

A

WHen:

conspicously noted on the stock certificate

OR

the transferee had actual knowledge of the restriction

457
Q

How does a sh demand access to non-controversial books/records of the corp? (like articles, bylaws, minutes of meetings, names and addresses of current directors, most recent annual report)

A

written demand at elast 5 days in advance

458
Q

How does a sh demand access to more controversial things of the business?

A

Written demand at least five days in advance stating a proper purpose for the demand

459
Q

What is a proper purpose for demanding access to controversial corp items?

A

On related to interest as a sh

Like:
minutes of board meeting
accounting records
record of sh

460
Q

WHen does a sh have a right to a dividend or other distribution?

A

When the board declares it

461
Q

In a suit to compel declaration of a distribution, what must a sh show?

A

very strong abus of discretion

ex// board consistently makes profits and refuses to pay a dividend while paying themselves a bonus

462
Q

When can’t a corporation make a distribution?

A

If the corp is insolvent or the distribution would make it insolvent

463
Q

What are the five fundamental changes to a corp?

A

1) Amending the articles
2) Merge or consolidate into another company
3) transfer substantially all assets
4) convert to another form of business
5) dissolve

464
Q

WHat is the process for affecting a findamental change in corporation?

A

Board action adopting resolution of change

Board submit proposal to sh

Sh approval if majority of shares entitled to vote, vote

Delivery of doc to the SoS

465
Q

WHen does a dissenting sh right of appraisal kick in for fundamental changes?

A

1) merger or consolidation
2) transferring substantially all assets
3) stock being acquired in a share exchange
4) conversion to another form of biz

466
Q

Absent fraud, is the sh right of appraisal the exclusive remedy if a sh does not like a fundamental change?

A

Yes

467
Q

What is a short form merger? Does it require sh approval?

A

If a 90 percent or more owned sub is merged into the parent

no sh approval required

468
Q

Can a creditor of a corp participating in a merger or consolidation, sue the surviiving corp?

A

Yes, the surviving corp succeeds to all right and liabilities of the constituents

469
Q

Who is going through a fundamental change when a corp transfers all/substantially all of its assets, or one other corp acquires all of its stock?

A

The tranferring corp not the transferee corp

Thus, there is only a right of appraisal for the transferee sh

470
Q

Is there successor liability in transfer of all assets or acquisition of all stock?

A

No, the selling company still exists

471
Q

WHen can a sh petition the court for involuntary dissolution?

A

Director abuse, waste of assets, misconduct

Director deadlock harming corp

sh fail at consecutive annual meetings to fill board vancancy

472
Q

WHen can a creditor petition for involuntary dissolution?

A

When the corp is insolvent, and:

1) he has an unsatisfied jmnt
2) the corp admits the debt in writing

473
Q

WHat is a trust?

A

An arrangement under which a trustee holds legal title to property for the benefit of beneficiaries

474
Q

What trusts require delivery of the corpus to the trustee?

A

Inter vivos trust, not testamentary or self declared trusts

475
Q

What is the requirement of a gift?

A

They must be irrevocable

476
Q

What intent must be evidenced by the terms of the trust?

A

The intent to put legal title to property in someone else’s name with a duty to manage it for others

477
Q

What are some provisions of a trust that might violate public policy?

A
  • Prevent marriage
  • Encourage divorce
  • Encourage crime
  • Restrain right to procreate
  • Restrain right to practice religion
478
Q

WHat is the requirement of the res?

A

It must be certain and identifiable

479
Q

Can mere expectancies be a res?

A

No, if a trust is formed on a mere expectancy, the settlor must do something to reaffirm their intent once the property interest arises

480
Q

WHen can a promise to hold property in the future be sufficient res for a trust?

A

When such promise is supported by consdieration

481
Q

When will a trust fail for want of trustee?

A

When a court finds that the settlor intended for the trust to be person to the trustee, otherwise the court will appoint someone

482
Q

What is the requirement for beneficiaries of a trust?

A

THey must be ascertainable

483
Q

Can a trust considered invalid for want of beneficiaries be given effect as a power of appointment?

A

Under traditional view, no

Under modern view, yes. If the trustee refuses to exercise, then the money is returned to the settlor’s estate

484
Q

What kind of trust does not require ascertainable bene?

A

Charitable trusts

485
Q

WHat if the trust names nonliving beneficiaries?

A

That okay, if they are dead/never born, and there’s no provision to the contrary then the money is returned to the estate via resulting trust

486
Q

Are honorary trusts valid?

A

Under common law, no

Under the UTC, yes

487
Q

Are pour over gifts valid? Does it need to be funded?

A

A gift to a trust from a will (pour-over gift) are valid even if the trust is unfunded or amended during the testator’s lifetime

488
Q

Can the pour over gift be established before the trust is created?

A

Further, although the trust may be established after the creation of the pour-over gift, it must be created before the testator’s death

489
Q

Can a totten trust be revoked by will?

A

Yes [maj]

Under the UPC. no

Otherwise it is revoked during life by any manifestation of intent to revoke - including withdrawal

490
Q

Can inter vivos trust be oral?

A

Yes, if of personalty and can be established by clear and convincing evidence

491
Q

When will a constructive trust be imposed?

A

Fraud in the inducement - trustee promising to serve as trustee to gain title but never really intended to serve as trustee

Breach of a confidential relationship - grantee-trustee served in confidential relationship to the grantor

492
Q

WHat about oral promises to make a will?

A

Maj: for personalty, can be proven with clear and convincing evidence (but NOT ok for realty)

UPC: must be shown by one of the following:

  • terms in the will itself
  • terms in a written k
  • will refers to the k and extrinsic evidence proves the terms
493
Q

If there is a secret trust (oral promise to convey property to hold for benefit of another) can its terms be proven?

A

Yes, by clear and convincing evidence

494
Q

What are the requirements of a charitable trust?

A

Must be for charitable purposes

Must be in favor of a reasonably large number of unidentified bene

Must be a mechanism for policing charitable objective - does the trust operate in fact operate pursuant to the charitable objective?

495
Q

WHat happens when the specific charitable purpose can no longer be accomplished?

A

It may be reformed pursuant to the primary intent of the settlor under the doctrine of cy pres if:

  • The primary intent is broader than the specific direction
  • The court must choose a purpose as near as possible to the primary purpose
496
Q

What is deviation for purposes of trusts?

A

allows to defy the specific direction of the trust to comport with the primary purpose of the trust when some unforseen changed circumstances warrants such deviation

497
Q

WHat is a spendthrift trust?

A

One in which the beneficiary is unable to voluntarily or involuntarily transfer their interests in the trust

498
Q

What are the exceptions to a spendthrift trust?

A
  • claims for necessities
  • alimony and child support
  • claims by US or a state
499
Q

WHat is the UTC exeception to a trustee’s wide discretion under a pure discretionary trust?

A

Court can order payment of claims by child spouse or former spouse

500
Q

What are the duties imposed on a trustee?

A

Duty of loyalty

Duty to invest prudently

Duty to preserve and protect the trust property

Duty to account and inform

Duty of fairness and impartiality

501
Q

What are the elements of the duty to invest prudently?

A

Duty not to comingle

Duty to balance return with potential risk

Duty to diversfy investments

Duty to keep trust productive (earn a reasonable rate of return)

502
Q

Can Trustees delegate their investment responsibility?

A

Yes, provided its a pro

503
Q

When there is more than one trustee, how must they act?

A

Traditional view: except in emergencies, unanimously

Modern rule [maj}: by majority

504
Q

What is a bene recourse for a trustee’s breach?

A
  • ratify the action and waive the breach
  • sue for the resulting loss (surcharge)
  • in self dealing cases, trace and recover the property for the trust
505
Q

When is a clause reliveing trustee of liability unenforceable?

A

To the extent it applies to liabilty for reckless or bad faith actions OR the clause was drafted by/at direction of trustee and settlor was not repped by independent counsel

506
Q

When is a trustee personally liable for torts?

A

Traditional rule: theyre liable - but can seek reimbursement if not personally at fault

UTC: only personally liable if personally at fault

507
Q

When is a trustee personally liable for contracts?

A

Tradittional: liable unless stipulated otherwise in k

UTC: liable if failed to reveal representative capacity when entereing into k

508
Q

When can a trust be terminated?

A

If all bene are alive and adults, then if they all consent and there is no further trust purpose to be served

Spendthrift trusts require consent of the settlor

509
Q

Are inter vivos trusts presumed revocable?

A

Traditional rule: presumed irrevocable

UTC: presumed revocable

510
Q

What is a power of appointment?

A

Gives a donee the power to distribute property to whoever they choose