everything Flashcards

1
Q

what are the main negative and positive neurotransmitters?

A

GABA and Glutamate

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2
Q

what are bundles of axons called in the PNS and CNS?

A

PNS: nerves
CNS: Tracts

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3
Q

what is a unique characteristic on the DRG neurons

A

They are the only ones with circular cell bodies

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4
Q

CNS 5 main glia?

A

NG2 cells: discovered when using antigens to study NG2 which was linked with glia driven re-myelination these are oligodendrocyte precursors.

Ependymal cells: these line the fluid filled cavities of the brain. in the choroid plexuses (produce CSF).

Oligodendrocytes: CNS version of the schwann cells, but, these can myelinate several neurons.

Microglia: the macrophages of the brain, they exist in a ramified (dormant state) with large patrolling processes. upon the detection of a pathogen they undergo hyperplasia and enter an active state.

Astrocytes: the most abundant glia, these have a major role in regulating the BBB, removal of NT at synapses, gliotransmission (ATP, GLUTAMATE, usually driven by calcium conc increase.)

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5
Q

Microglia relation to aging brain and some diseases:

A

Microglia can enter an irreversible active state in which they can become neurotoxic and destructive contributing to neurodegeneration. this has been related to aging brains and some neurodegenerative diseases.

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6
Q

spine fluid cavities and blood vessels?

A

The spine has:
1 large ventral artery
2 small dorsal arteries
1 central fluid filled canal which is surrounded by stem cells.

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7
Q

What are the mininges?

A

These are protective layers that surround the brain.

Dura mater: thick outer layer attached to the skull

Arachnoid: thinner but tough layer attached to the duramater

Pia mater: thinner layer that covers the cortex into the grooves (gyri) aswell. this attached to the arachnoid by the denticulate ligament

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8
Q

What is the denticulate ligament?

A

this attaches the pia mater to the arachnoid.

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9
Q

Where is the CSF in the brain?

A

In the subarachnoid space inbetween the pia mater and the arachnoid. also in the ventricles of the brain.

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10
Q

What is the function of the CSF?

A

Buoyancy: the Brain almost floats in the CSF preventing the brain crushing its self under its own weight

Protection: the CSF acts a fluid buffer reducing damage to the brain when there are blows to the head. (When someone is knocked out the brain hits the side of the skull, CSF is suppose to prevent this.)

Homesostais: the ventricular system allows fro the spreading of things like neurendocrine molecules.

Waste removal: things like metabolites can be rapidly diffused into the CSF and then into the blood stream.

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11
Q

outline the ventricular system?

A

There are 2 lateral ventricles, one in each hemisphere.
These collect in the 3rd ventricles.
Csf flows via the Cerebral aqueduct into the 4th ventricle which lies between the cerebellum and the Brain stem.
CSF flows out into the sub-arachnoid space via the median aperture.

CSF is then reabsorbed into a large vein onto of the brain via arachnoid villi.

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12
Q

what are the 4 lobes of the brain?

A
front to back: 
frontal
under side: temporal 
topside: parietal
ocipital.
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13
Q

danger related to ventricular blockage?

A

a block of CSF flow through the median aperture can cause a build up of pressure in the brain. this is HYRDROCEPHALUS.

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14
Q

Lumbo sacral and cervical enlargement

A

enlargements ins spinal cord to facilitate larger supply (of nerves) to lower and upper limbs respectively

Lumbo sacral : T11- L1/2
Cervical : C3- T1/2

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15
Q

white vs grey matter

A

grey: largely contains the cell bodies of neurons

White matter contains long myelinated processes and fibers.

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16
Q

3 types of shape and size of neurons?

A

Unipolar: 1 short process, found in spinal ganglion
Bipolar: also found in the spinal ganglion, these can be seen to have 2 processes emerging from the same point and diverging or emerging from opposite sides of the cell. (axon and dendrite)
Multipolar: these are very large with multiple processes, axon or dendrite. these are stellate or pyramidal in shape.

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17
Q

What does the forebrain form?

A

Telencephalon: 2 cerebral hemispheres

Diencephalon: the thalamus and subthalamus, hypothalmus.

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18
Q

Role and site of pre-central and post central gyrus

A

theses are found on the lateral surface of the brain either side of the central sulci.

Precentral gyrus is the primary motor cortex thus controlling the motor output to the contralateral side of the body.

Post-central gyrus: primary sensory cortex: information form the contralateral sensory receptors. inputs from the thalamus have a maintained somatotopic map.,

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19
Q

what separates the central gyri?

A

the central sulcus

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20
Q

what separates the temporal and frontal lobes?

A

the sylvian fissure = lateral fissure

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21
Q

3 frontal lobe gyri (on lateral surface)

A

superior, middle, inferior frontal gyri

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22
Q

3 temporal gyri ( lateral surface)

A

superior( next to lateral fissure), middle and inferior temporal gyri.

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23
Q

2 Gyri on caudal side of brain (lateral surface)

A

sub marginal gyrus

angular gyrus: this has been associated with reading and writing.

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24
Q

Role and site of cingulate gyrus?

A

this is found on the medial surface above the corpus callosum.

the cingulate gyrus is a key part of the limbic system, it relyas information from the thalamus and neocortex to the entorhinal cortex. thus this plays keys roles in behaviors and memory.

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25
Q

Role and site of corpus callosum

A

the corpus callosum can be found on the medial surface beneath the cingulate gyrus.

its is a large bundle of myelinated fibres and allows fror communication between the hemispheres

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26
Q

Role and site of paracentral lobule

A

this is found on the medial surface and is the continuation of the pre/post- central gyri.

Anterior represents the supplementary motor area, an area activated by thinking about a movement and contains motor maps for things like posture.

posterior: this is related to somatosensation for the distal limbs (below knee)

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27
Q

What separates the parietal and occipital lobes

A

the parieto-occipital sulcus, this is seen on the medial surface.

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28
Q

Role and site of calcarine sulcus

A

the calcarine sulcus is seen on the medial surface, this goes through the occipital lobe.

the primary visual area exists within the boundaries on the calcarine sulcus and the V2 (visual association) area is around V1. central vision enters at the posterior and peripheral at the anterior ends.2 primary processes out of V1, 1 goes to the parietal and leads to an understanding of ‘where’ and one goes to the occipital and gives an understanding of ‘what’ both may not be lesioned.

lesions to the calcarine sulcus can lead to what is called ‘cortical blindness’ the inability for basic processing of the visual stimuli means patients are blind. However, studies show that many patients can avoid obstacles and guess what an object is in front of them more often than chance would allow. this is thought be due to V2 still being intact to carry out the more complex analysis’s.

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29
Q

Role and site of fusiform gyrus

A

this is found on the medial surface below the parahippocampal gyrus and above the inferior temporal gyrus. exists in both hemispheres

Fusifrom gyrus has a key role in facial recognition. lesion to what is known as the fusifrom face area will result in Prosopagnosia, in which individuals can not recognise people based off their faces.

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30
Q

Role and site of uncus

A

this is found on the medial surface of the brain on the anterior end of the parahippocampal gyrus.

this contains some of the olfactory cortex,

in the case of tumours or hemorrhage a common issue involves in the uncus applying pressure on the 3rd cranial nerve.

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31
Q

Role and site of parahippocampal gyrus

A

this is found on the medial surface of the brain above the fusiform gyrus.

the parahippocampal gyrus is involved in the memory of enviroments, hence why it surround the hippocamus.

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32
Q

Role and site of wernickes area

A

the wernickes area can be found on the medial surface around the posterior end of the lateral fissure. it stretches cross both the parietal and temporal lobes.

this area plays a key role in the understanding of language and is found often on one hemisphere, this being the dominant hemisphere which is often the left hemisphere.

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33
Q

Role and site of brocas area

A

this is found on the medial surface above the lateral fissure in the frontal lobe.

this plays a key role in the formation , word selection, of language.

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34
Q

site of frontal eye field control

A

this is found in an area anterior to the pre-motor cortex, in the frontal lobe.

stimulating this area was found to cause both eyes to look to the side contralateral to the hemisphere of stimulation.

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35
Q

Role and site of Fornix

A

the fornix is another bundle of myelinated axons attached to the corpus callosum via the septum pellucidum. this is found ventral (under)to the corpus callosum, running over the 3rd ventricle

its function is not yet fully understood but its exists as part of the limbic system and lesion down the fornix, seen in split brain patients can cause to memory loss.

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36
Q

role of prefrontal cortex?

A

this is involved in cognition and personality.

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37
Q

Role and site of thalamus?

A

the thalamus exists beneath the corpus callosum, runs either side of the 3rd ventricle.

the thalamus acts as a primary relay and input station of peripheral information entering the cortex.

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38
Q

Role and site of insular cortex

A

the insular cortex is on the inside of the brain, under the cortex.

its has roles linked to conscieness and awareness of self.

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39
Q

What connects the wernickes and brocas areas?

A

they are connected by the arcuate fasciculus.

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40
Q

What connects the wernickes and brocas areas?

A

they are connected by the arcuate fasciculus.

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41
Q

what is SUMS?

A

Intra-parietal sulcus, construction ability of the brain, right hand side.

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42
Q

cause of epidural hematoma

A

fracture of the temporal lobe can rupture meningeal arteries causing the release of blood into the epidural space ~(between skull and periosteal dura mater)

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43
Q

pyramidal vs inter neurons

A

pyramidal neurons are the most abundant and excitatory, use glutamate.

interneurons: everything else, bipolar cells, basket or stellate cells.
these have heteromorphic (varying ) structures and there processes are almost completely contains in the grey mater.

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44
Q

types of connections in the brain (4) example

A

: projection :efferent and afferent connections are motor going out or sensory coming in. these relate to projections going out (to terminate in thalamus, brain stem , spine) or into the cortex.

diffused: diffused projections are wide spread and non-specific. examples are that of the Noradrenaline release form the locus coerulus.

serotonin from the nucleus basilis: this is degenerated early on in AD.

association: these connect the inputs and the outputs of the system. for example the connection between wernickes and brocas area via the arcuate fasciculus.

or the connection between V1-V5 or to the inferotemporal lobe or the prefrontal cortex.

Commisural: connection between the hemispheres. corpus callosum.

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45
Q

changes in PV cells associated with schitzophrenia

A

PV cells are parvalbumin cells.
these are a small inhibitory neuron found throughout the cortex. a genetic mutation in the ERBb4 receptor in schizophrenia. The mutations prevent its role in the growth and migration of these neurons.

In addition other inhibitory interneurons like the BASKET and CHANDELIER neurons have reduced synapses and numbers.
overall there is a reduced inhibitory function in the brain.
resulting in increase cortical excitation and gamma wave release.

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46
Q

what is the risk of an unbalanced function of interneurons and pyramidal neurons?

A

a 25% reduction of interneurons in mice was shown to cause several issues involving epileptic seizures.

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47
Q

What is wallerian degeneration?

A

this is the result on a lesion of a neuron.

the central end will degenerate up to other first node of ranvier, whilst the peripheral end will degenerate all the way

in the end there is only fragments of axon that are surrounded by fatty deposit, forming due to the breakdown of myelin.

the axons are then reabsorbed.

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48
Q

what are the main vessels in the circle of willis (draw)

A

the basilar artery (lying over the pons) will split froming the posterior cerebral arteries.

ahead: over the mid brain is the actual circle of willis

at the most anterior end are the anterior cerebral arteries.
the anterior cerebral arteries are connected to eachother by the anterior communicating arteries.
the anterior cerebral arteries and the middle cerebral arteries are fed by the internal carotid arteries.
the anterior end and the posterior end of the circle are connected by the posterior communicating arteries.

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49
Q

what is the main area that the anterior cerebral arteries feed?

A

the anterior cerebral arteries will cover most of the medial surface of the cortex. they are key in supplying the motor cortex and thus occlusion can lead to a loss of motor function.

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50
Q

What does the middle cerebral artery feed?

A

the middle cerebral artery runs along the lateral fissure having a key role in the perfusion of the brocas area. hence occlusion can cause a loss of speech.

bifurcations after leaving the fissure feed the basal ganglia. (via lenticulostriate arteries)

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51
Q

what does the posterior cerebral artery feed?

A

the posterior cerebral artery runs along the calcarine sulcus (medial occipital cortex) and thus occlusion can result in cortical blindness. also covers alot of the inferior and middle temporal lobe.

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52
Q

what are the ganglionic and cortical systems and what are the main arteries feeding them.

A

the 3 cerebral arteris branch off to feed 2 major vacualr systems.

The ganglionic system feeds the thalami and the corpura striata. there are 6 groups:
The antero-medial: formed of the anterior cerebral arteries and the anterior communicating artery.

The postero-medial: formed of the posterior cerebral artery and the posterior communicating artery.

antero lateral: this is the middle cerebrals alone (one for each hemisphere)

postero lateral: just the posterior cerebral arteries (one for each hemisphere.

there is also the cortical system: this ramifies(splits) in the pia mater to supply the cortex and the subadjacent areas.

these can be long, penetrating into the subadjacent area a with little inter-communication, these will from there own circuits.

short: concentrated perfusion the middle zone of grey matter.

occlusions in these areas will result in the ‘softening’ (degen) of mal-nourished areas. in addition the poorly nourished areas between these systems are seen to soften with age.

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53
Q

What are terminal arteries?

A

terminal arteries are used to refer to the large arteries like the cerebral arteries. these have poor perfusion areas due to limitted anastomotic branches. (blood vessel that connects 2 vessels.

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54
Q

primary site of anuerysms and treatment?

A

these can commonly occur on the basilar artery and the subsequent loss of blood into the CSF can cause death.

commonly a balloon of blood on the vessel will appear first that can be clipped, this often causes bursting its self. alternatively a contraption that busts the balloon and then plugs the hole is used.

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55
Q

what are the anterior choroid arteries?

A

this is a thin artery that is fed by the internal carotid artery.

it travels to the choroid plexus in the lateral ventricle and also feeds deep brain areas like the globus pallidus and putamen on the way.

however due to being a thin vessel supplied by a high pressure large vessel this is at risk of rupture.

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56
Q

what is the role of the limbic cortex?

A

integration of taste and smell, decision making, assessing risk and reward

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57
Q

What are the intracranial venous sinuses

A

these are veins found in the cranial cavity from the folds of the dura. most of the eventually collect in the internal jugular vein

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58
Q

site and role of the superior and inferior coliculi

A

the coliculi can be found on the posterior (back) side of the mid brain. they exist dorsal (above) the 4th ventricle as 4 bumps.

the 2 most dorsal bumps are the superior colliculi. these are involved in the association of eye motor movement in response to visual stimuli.

the 2 most ventral,smaller, bumps, are the inferior colliculi and they are related to associated motor movement in response t visual stimuli.

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59
Q

what are the cerebellar peduncles? (afferent and efferent tracts.)

A

the 3 cerebellar peduncles can be seen on the inferior lateral surface of the cerebellum and they connect the cerebellum to the pons.

looking at the inferior lateral surface of the brain you can only see the large middle peduncle, the inferior (lower) and superior (higher) peduncles can be seen by looking at the posterior surface of the pons, they are situated around the floor of the 4th ventricle.

superior peduncle: Afferent- anterior spinocerebelar tract
Efferent: dentato and dentatorubro thalamic tract

middle: this only contains 1 tract and that is the afferent pontocerebellar tract (feedback information from the cortex.

inferior : afferent: posterior spinocerebellar tract,olivocerebellar tract, vestibulocerebellar tract.
Efferent: cerebrocerebellar, cerellovesitbular and cerebellar olivary tracts

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60
Q

outline the layers of the cortex what is the general role of the cortex?

A

the cortex has a role of processing and integrating data of multiple modalities to achieve an understanding of the stimuli. this allows for us to come up with the best response to said stimuli.

the majority of the cortex is NEOCORTEX. This has 6 core layers:
I: this is sparsely populated by neurons. did contain horizontal neurons but these are almost non-existent in adults.

II: this layer is densely populated with small neurons.

III: this is the outer pyramidal layer and has medium sized pyramidal neurons. these are excitation multi polar neurons. they have a apical dendrite projecting to layer 1 and a basal axon projecting to layer 6 where it the projects laterally.

IV: this is full of small neurons. these tend to be inter neurons like stellate and granule cells. these can be both inhibitory and excitation. ( This is the main afferent input layer)

V : this is full of large pyramidal neurons. this is the main efferent output layer of the cortex and is the origination site of the corticospinal tract and the corticostriatal tract.

VI: thisis full of polymorphic neurons. this is commonly populated by fusiform neurons that project to the thalamus. (hence site of corticothalamic tract)

the main layer will vary throughout the cortex based on function (Motor, Sensory, Association cortex.)

exceptions to the 6 layer rule are the olfactory cortex and the cortical part of the limbic system.

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61
Q

What are the mammillary bodies?

A

These are found directly attached to the hypothamus and can be seen below the 3rd ventricle on the inferior surface of the brain.

they are involves in the PAPEZ circuit and damage due to them ,by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency or lesion, has been related to anterograde amnesia. ( cannot form memories)

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62
Q

outline the lateral view structure and general function of the cerebellum

A

in general the cerebellum is though to play a key part in the coordination of complex movements and the correction of movement aswell as stabilty.

On the superior lateral surface a central part of the cerebellum is the VERMIS, this is flanked by the PARAVERMIS.

on the inferior lateral surface there is the several observable structure. still down the center is the vermis but at the base of the vermis is the NODULE.
to either side of the nodule is the FLOCULUS
at the very base of the cerebellum are the CEREBELLAR TONSILS

The surface can be seperated into 3 lobes, the anterior, posterior and flocullonodular (floculus and nodule)

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63
Q

layer structure of cerebellum

A

The cerebellum consists of many folds to allow the immense storage of nerve cell bodies. a cross sectional view shows 4 distinct layers ( 3 grey matter 1 white matter.

Molecular layer: the outermost layer consist of parallel
fibres (longitudinal communication) and inhibitory inter neurons, stellate and basket cells.

Purkinkje layer:these are inhibitory (GABAergic) neurons will large process to the fourth layer. these are the primary output of the cerebellum (go to deep nuclei). large dendritic tree in the molecular layer is weakly excitated by glutamatergic synapses with parallel fibres.

Granule layer: this consists of excitatory granule neurons. these synapse with 1 prukinje cell after excitation by mossyfibres.

white matter layer: apart form the movement of processes this does have climbing fibres. these travel up the layers and excite the purkinje cells at the dendrites and soma. (these arise from the inferior olive in the medulla)

Golgi cells also exist that inhibit the granules cells to keep the signalling of purkinje fibres short and meaningful.

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64
Q

outline functional areas of the cerebellum with relation to functional loops

A

There are 3 main functional areas of the cerebellum and each is associated to a specific functional loop.

Spinocerebellum: this is the vermis and the paravermis.

input from the IPSILATERAL spine influences the spinocerebellum.
this is relayed to the deep brain nuclei by (spinocerebellar tract (anterior ,superior peduncle, posterior, inferior peduncle)
the deep brain stimuli relay this to the reticular formation, red nucelei and the vestibular nuclei, who in turn relay it to the spine, this is to control trunk stability.

(Spinocerebellar tract from spine originates in the Ipsilateral CLARKES COLUMN)

The deep nuclei also relay this to the thalamus and then onto the cortex. this information is fed back to the spine after analysis in the cortex, this is for corrections of movement. ( key for walking gait)

Vestibulocerebellum: this is the floculus and the nodule and paravermis

the vesitbulocrebellum receives inputs from the vestibular nuclei ( via the vestibular- cerebellar tract through the inferior peduncle)

the vestibulo cerbellum sends information back to the vestibular nuclei (via the fastigial nucleus or the cerebello-vestibular tract via the inferior peduncle) and to the reticular formation. this information is relayed (via reticulo spinal or vestibulospinal tracts)to the spinal nuclei to control trunk stability and influence anti-gravity muscles.

cerebrocerebellum: this is most of the posterior cerebellum.

the cerebellum send information to the dentate nucleus via the dentatorubrothalamic tract through the superior peduncle.

the dentate nucleus relays this to the ventral anterior or ventral lateral thalamus and then that onto the motor cortex.

the cortex can then feedback this information to cerebellum via the pontine nuclei ( relay info back to cerebrocerebellum via the pontocerebello tract through the middle peduncle) (intention tremor)
or
relay back to the spinal cord. via the cortical spinal tract.

this is all to streamline cortical output.

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65
Q

Where does Clarkes column begin and end?

A

the clarkes column begins at L2/3 and finsihes beside T1.

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66
Q

Do the vestibulospinal and reticulospinal tracts deccusate.

A

the reticulospinal tract decussates but the vesitbulospinal tract does NOT.

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67
Q

Which vestiblar nuclei connections are used by the vestibulocerebellum?

A

the vestibular nuclei can give feedback to the spine to control trunk stability.

The vestibulo spinal also aims to influence head and eye movements via the vestibular nuclei’s communication with cranial nerve III,IV and VI (oculor motor, trochlear, abducens)

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68
Q

How is an ipsilateral intention tremor caused?

A

this results from the a lesion in the cerebrocerbellar loop (pontocerebellar tract)

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69
Q

Ventral anterior and ventral lateral thalamus projections

A

these are part of the ventral lateral complex of the thalamus. VL project to the premotor and primary motor cortex and VA to th supplementary motor cortex, they are used by the spinocerrebellar loop of cerebellum.

difference between VA nuclei and VL nuclei, is VA is mainly innervated by the globus palidus, whilst VL involves most of the basal nuclei including the substantia nigra.

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70
Q

3 sections of the brainstem

A

medulla, pons, midbrain

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71
Q

What are the primary ascending and descending tracts in the brain stem?

A

Ascending: spinocerebellar, dorsal column medial lemniscus, anterolateral system, spinothalmic

Descending: cortico spinal

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72
Q

What is the site and role of the olives?

A

the olives can be seen either side of the pyramids on the anterior surface of the muddulla.

They contain the superior and inferior olivary nuclei.

inferior: though to be related to the olivio-cerrebellar system and is related to the motor learning function of the cerebellum. climbing fibers arise from here.
superior: this is thought to be part of the pons and has a role in the perception of auditory stimuli.

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73
Q

outline the anterior surface structure of the brain stem?

A

at the base of the brain stem is the mudulla. down the center are a thick rod which represents the pyramids, containing descending spinal tracts. (cortico spinal decussates at the base)

either side of the pyramids are the olives.

above this is the pons. the 2 cerebral peduncles can be seen branching out of the top.

between the cerebral peduncles and below the 3rd ventricle are the mammilary bodies, which are attached to the hypothalamus which cannot be seen.

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74
Q

outline the posterior surface of the brain stem

A

on the posterior surface although not visible the 2 gracilus fasciculus run up the center of the medulla and the 2 fsciculus cuneatus run adjacent to these up the mudulla. they will synapse with their nuclei.

above the mudulla is the pons. the floor of the fourth ventricle is visible with the superior and inferior cerebellar peduncles adjacent to it. adjacent to these peduncles is the large middle cerebellar peduncle.#

above the fourth ventricle on the mid brain the 4 bumps representing the 2 superior and 2 inferior coliculi are observable.

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75
Q

where does the spinal cord terminate?

A

the neonatal spinal cord terminates at L1/L2

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76
Q

what is the filum terminalae

A

this is an extension of the pia at the caudal end of the spinal cord. this connects the caudal end of the spinal cord to the coccyx.

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77
Q

breakdown of spinal vertebrae? (segments numbers)

A

there are 31 vertebrae in total, top to bottom-

Cervical-8
Thoracic-12
Lumbar-5
sacral-5
coccyx-1
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78
Q

outline the main land marks on cross-sectional view of the spine?

A

the spine grey matter has a butterfly like shape, with a smaller dorsal horn and larger ventral horn on either side.

grey matter is surrounded by white matter.

there 2 paired smaller dorsal arteries and 1 larger ventral artery.

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79
Q

what is the change in white matter levels as you travel from caudal (bottom) to rostral (top) spinal cord? why?

A

the white matter levels increases as you travel from the caudal to the rostral end. this is because all the processes from lower ganglia are also travelling through this section of the spinal cord.

(grey matter is larger in the cervical and lumbar sections)

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80
Q

What are the segmental arteries?

A

these are arteries deviating from the vertebral basilar system. they feed the spinal arteries and the 2 dorsal arteries and the ventral artery of the spine.

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81
Q

how many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs, 1 pair for each vertebrae.

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82
Q

Which vertebrae contribute to the sympathetic and parasymapthetic NS?

A

the sympathetic nervous system is associated with T1-L2

the parasympathetic is associated with S2-S4 (also in brainstem)

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83
Q

What is the substantia gelatinosa

A

the substantia gelatinosa represents the first and second laminae of the spinal grey matter, they contain most of the secondary afferent mediating nociceptive signalling.

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84
Q

Whats the difference between alpha and gamma motor neurons?

A

alpha innervate the extrafusal (muscle contracting fibres)

the Gamma innervate the intrafusal fibres, found in muscle spindles.

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85
Q

what is the consequence of a lower spinal cord neuron lesion?

A

a lower spinal cord lesion results in neuron death and a flacid paralysis which will result in muscle wasting.

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86
Q

outline the stretch muscle reflex

A

the stretching of the muscle is detected by the intrafusal fibres in the muscle spindle. this send a signal via the Ia afferent to the dorsal horn of the significant vertebra. the

the Ia afferent synapses on the alpha motor neuron for the flexor muscle to contract it. the Ia afferent will also synapse on an inhibitory interneuron that in turn inhibits the motor neuron associated with the flexors extensor muscle to relax it. this causes movement of the arm away from the stimuli.

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87
Q

What is the consequence of a an upper (brain stem or brain) motor lesion?

A

this results in the death of the axon.; here we get spastic paralysis (constant contraction) this results in limited muscle wasting.

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88
Q

which artery feeds the corticospinal tract

A

the basilar artery

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89
Q

where does the corticospinal tract decussate?

A

at the base of the pyramids in the medulla.

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90
Q

What is locked in syndrome

A

this is a state of complete loss of voluntary movement. a state of conscious paralysis.

this can result from the rupturing of the basilar artery.

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91
Q

What are the folds of the cerebellum called?

A

folia

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92
Q

draw a diagram of a transectional view of the brain stem at the level of the superior coliculi

A

check with drawn diagram

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93
Q

which lamina are the motor neurons found

A

lamina IX

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94
Q

which spinal tract controls voluntary movement?

A

the corticospinal tract or the corticobulbar tracts. contain info from motor cortex pyramidal neurons.

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95
Q

what is a nucleus?

A

this is a group of neuronal cell bodies

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96
Q

outline the spinothalamic tract?

A

the spinal thalamic tract confers information on pain and temperature. it is part of the anterolateral system.

C-fibres from the periphery enter the IPSILATERAL side of the spinal cord and rise 1-2 segments before synapsing on a secondary interneuron in layer 2 (part of substantia gelatinosa)

the interneuron will decusate to the contralateral side via the anterior white commisure.

the processes will rise via the spinothalamic tract that travels up in the lateral column.

this will go up through the brain stem and eventually synapse with the ventral post lateral thalamic nuclei where the signal is relayed to the primary sensory cortex. this is a 3 neuron pathway.

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97
Q

role and site of periaqueductal grey?

A

the periaqueductal greay can be seen at the top of the brain step (transectional view).

this is involved in acting via descending tracts on nocicpetion via the use of endogenous opioids. activity is observed in placebo)

also innervates the raphe nuclei to use there 5HT tracts to influence the superficial dorsal horn

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98
Q

beginning of gracilus and cuneatus fasiculus

A

the gracilus fasciculus transmits info from the lower limbs and is ever present.

The cuneatus fasciculus transmits info from the upper limbs and is first seen at the thoracic 6 segment.

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99
Q

where are most c-fibre found?

A

mostly found to terminate in the 2nd layer of the spinal grey matter.

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100
Q

where are most A delta fibres found?

A

mostly found in the laminae 1 of the spinal grey matter.

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101
Q

what is allodynia?

A

this is when non-painful stimuli cause pain. often follows recovery to a traumatic injury and touch/mechanoreceptors activate nociception.

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102
Q

major cause in individuals that cant feel pain?

A

nocieptors nerve ending in the periphery are activated by a large concentration of NAv1.7 CHANNELS.

genetic mutations show offspring without this and thus nociceptive signalling is not initiated. this can lead to major problems with joints. Mutation in SCN9A gene

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103
Q

What is syringo myelia?

A

this usually occurs in the cervical region as it is the most mobile. there is the developement of a syrinx (fluid cavity)

damage here results in the loss of feeling from the upper limbs. (damage to spinothalamic tracts

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104
Q

What is a ventrolateral cordotomy and what is it used for?

A

this is commonly used in the case of cervical tumours. the spinothalamic tract can be lesion to prevent nociceptive signalling from pressured areas and thus reduce pain.

pain returns due to other signalling pathways and regeneration.

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105
Q

outline the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway?

A

This is influenced with proprioception and fine touch.

A beta fibres come from skin and synapse on secondary afferents. depending on the level these will travel up the spine in the fasciculus gracilus or cuneatus. this occurs on the side ipsilteral to the stimulus

this will travel up to the base of the muddula passed the decussation of the pyramids and then once in the upper closed muddula they will synapse with their significant nuclei (gracile or cuneatus)

the nuceli will project to the medial lemniscus ( gracile to the left and cuneatus to the right)

the medial lemniscus will deccusate to the contralateral side and rise up through the brain stem. at the level of the pons they will appear flattened.

eventually the medial lemniscus will synapse with the thalamic nuclei which then projects to the primary sensory cortex.

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106
Q

outline the cortico spinal tract?

A

this is involved with the control of voluntary movement.
it will eventually break into two tracts the anterior and lateral cortico spinal tracts, these are for postural adjustment and skilled movements respectively.

this arises in layer V of the primary motor cortex.

tracts will travel as one sole cortico spinal tract down the posterior limb of the internal capsule.

once at the top on the brain stem the tract will continue this ipsilateral flow via the crus cerebri, and then breaking into multiple fascicles at the level of the pons

at the level of the open muddula the coticospinal tract has entered the pyramids and will travel down to their base where the tracts decussate. it is the lateral tract that deccusates, mean while the anterior tract continues on the ipsilateral side.

after this point the both tracts travel down the spine. the lateral will synapse with motor neurons on the contralateral side whilst the anterior will synapse with motor neurons on both sides.

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107
Q

What is the babinski sign?

A

this is a sign that can be seen in individuals with upper spinal lesions.

stroking the underside of the foot results in the toe pointing down rather than up. (this is also seen in babies due to incomplete spinal myelination)

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108
Q

what do c-fibres and A beta fibres confer?

A

C-fibres confer pain

A beta confer touch

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109
Q

what is the anterolateral system?

A

the antero lateral system consists of the anterior and lateral column. it works to both signal pain via the spinothalamic tarct and to modulate the nociceptive signalling via smaller tracts.

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110
Q

what is the somatotopic organisation of the tracts

A

the ascending tracts can be broken down into groups of nerves based on where they arise from.

i. e the cuneatus most central from thoracic and then cervical
gracilus: most cental from sacral and then lumbar

lateral corticospinal tract and spinothalamic can be seperated into cervical most central and sacral least

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111
Q

what vessel supplies the spinothalamic tract?

A

the large ventral spinal artery

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112
Q

What vessels supplies the dorsal column?

A

the 2 paired small dorsal arteries.

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113
Q

which vessels supply the cotico spinal tracts ? (in the spine)

A

the lateral is fed by the paired dorsal arteries and the anterior is fed by the large ventral artery.

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114
Q

somatotopic arrangement of cortico spinal tract in posterior limb of internal capsule

A

it can be seen that there are specific subgroups on the tract that are for the arm, trunk and legs

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115
Q

Name and number all 12 cranial nerves (also give general function (Motor, sensory both)

A
I- olfactory- sensory
II-optic-sensory
III-oculomotor- motor
IV-Trochlear- motor
V-Trigeminal- Both
VI- Abducens- Motor
VII-Facial- Both
VIII- vestibulocochlear- Sensory
IX-Glossopharyngeal- Both
X-Vagal- Both
XI-Spinal accessory- motor
XII- Hyperglossal- motor
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116
Q

what are the crus cerebri

A

cerebellar peduncles

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117
Q

what are the changes observed in the position of motor and sensory nuclei seen between the closed muddulla and the mid brain?

A

The sensory nuclei exist in what is known as the alar plate and motor nuclei in the basal plate.

as you ascend through the brainstem the alar plate rotates to more lateral positions from a more posterior position. when the 4th ventricle begins to narrow in the cerebral aqueduct in the upper pons the alar plate rotates back to this posterior position.

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118
Q

Draw a diagram of the positions of the cranial nerves in the brain stem

A

check with diagram

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119
Q

Which cranial nerves contribute to the nucleus solitarius?

A

the caudal part seen at the level of the open muddulla this is mainly the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerve gastointestinal and repiratiory changes

The rostral part in the lower pons is mainly the glossopharyngeal and facial nerves. (taste)

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120
Q

which cranial nerves contribute to the nucleus ambiguous? what is the function

A

seen at the level of the open muddula, this is formed of the glossopharyngeal and vagal nerves.

motor control of larynx, pharynx and upper oesophagus to control swallowing.

lesion results in nasal speech.

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121
Q

which cranial nerves are involved in the spinal trigeminal sulcus

A

the spinal trigeminal, this is seen in the closed mudulla and is the trigeminal, vagal, glossopharyngeal and facial nerves.`

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122
Q

What is the artery of adamkowitz

A

this is the largest segmental artery feeding the lumbar and sacral region.

occlusion of the artery can result in a loss of lower motor control.

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123
Q

What is lateral mudullary syndrome?

A

the lesion or rupturing of the Posterior-inferior- cerebral artery results in the loss of contralateral trunk sensation and loss of ipsilateral cranial nerve function.

sensations of pain and temperature are severely reduced.

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124
Q

what is the role of the nucleus ambiguous

A

this supplies the muscles of the larynx an pharynx via the glossopharyngeal and vagal nerves.

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125
Q

What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve (significance of 3)

A

opthalmic, mandibular, maxillary

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126
Q

What information do the trigeminal tracts carry?

A

this is the main sensory nerve and caries both pain, temperature, fine touch. (pontine/chief trigeminal

the c-fibres mediating the pain and temperature signalling signals the thalamus by the trigeminothalamic tract. (spinal trigeminal

A beta fibres signal he fine touch by the trigeminal lemniscus.

also carries motor efferents to the muscles driving mastication.these exist in the mandibular branch.(tirgeminal motor)

mescenphalic trigeminal will send info to trigeminal motor forjaw reflex and send info on proprioception.

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127
Q

What are the function of the facial nerve and which brain stem nuclei mediate them?

A

This will activate the lacrimal glands, submandibular and sublingual glands (submandibular and pterygopalatine ganglion), this is the part of the facial nerve in the superior salivary nucleus

the facial motor nuclei loops around the abducens nucleus and will go on to activate the facial muscles for expressions. the cortical activate is via the cerebrobulbar tract

facial nerve also receives somatosensory taste from tthe anterior 2/3rd s of the tongue and projects to the nucleus solitarius. this relays info onto the amygdala and and hypothalamus (arousal) and th ventral post lateral thalamic nuclei which wil relay the info to the tatse cortex on the insula cortex.

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128
Q

result of upper and lower facial motor lesion have varying effects, why?

A

an upper motor lesion in the cortex will result in the paralysis of the contralateral lower face. the upper face is bilaterally innervated so doesn’t get paralysed

the lower motor lesion of the facial motor projection results in ipsilateral paralysis of the whole face

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129
Q

what is abducens palsy relate to abducens function?

A

The abducens causes contraction of the rectus eye muscle to cause it to look to the lateral median.

a lesion of this tract prevents this.

130
Q

in which cranial nerve can shingles lie dormant

A

trigeminal nerve ganglion.

131
Q

What does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery feed?

A

this feeds the dorsolateral mudulla and thus the spinothalamic and spinal trigeminal tracts

132
Q

What is the result of corticospinal tract lesion?

A

spastic paralysis as most of these neurons synapse on inhibitory interneurons.

133
Q

What is the result of corticospinal tract lesion?

A

spastic paralysis as most of these neurons synapse on inhibitory interneurons. (1a inhibs interneurons)

134
Q

which tract mediates red nucleus- spinal communication?

A

rubrospinal tract this will deccusate at the deccusation of forel before continuing to spinal nuclei.

135
Q

relationship between the vestibulocochlear and facial nerve?

A

these both migrate via the same canal.

tumours in the vestibulochclear auditory tract can put damaging pressure on the facial nerve.

136
Q

which cranial nerves are involved in eye movement (3)

A

oculomotor pupil constriction, trochlear up an down, abducens movement of lateral rectus of eye

these are all connected by the medial fasciculus.

137
Q

what info is derived from the vestibulocochlear nerve?

A

this provides information of the sensory info fro the inner ear

138
Q

what info is derived from the optic nerve?

A

this provides sensory info from the retina.

139
Q

what is the result of a upper lesion (cortical) feeding the hyperglossal nuclei?

A

this results in the tongue pointing to the contralateral side of the body in relation to the lesion.

140
Q

what is the result of a lesion in the hyperglossal nuclei?

A

this results in the tongue pointing out to the ipsilateral, same side, of the body as the lesion.

141
Q

what is the function the spinal accessory nerve, how is this achieved?

A

this is related to motor function of the trapezius in the neck.

142
Q

which 3 cranial nerves exit the skull via the jugular foramen

A

spinal accessory, vagus, glossopharyngeal.

143
Q

where do the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves emerge from?

A

the rostral/open medulla

144
Q

what are the functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

this is related to somatosensation and taster form the posterior 3rd of the tongue.

and it aids swallowing

145
Q

what is the function of the vagus nerve?

A

this gives somatosensation of skin on the back of the ear and info from thoracic, abdomial and aortic strecth receptor.

also acts as the primary efferent for the parasympathetic system, feeding back onto the heart myocardium to slow the heart rate via a diffuse release of acetyl choline.

146
Q

what is the function of the vagus nerve?

A

this gives somatosensation of skin on the back of the ear and info from thoracic, abdomial and aortic strecth receptor.

also acts as the primary efferent for the parasympathetic system, feeding back onto the heart myocardium to slow the heart rate via a diffuse release of acetyl choline.

147
Q

outline the parabrachial pathway

A

the parabrachial nuclei sit in the rostral/upper pons. they project nociceptive signals to the amygdala and hypothalamus to associate emotion and memorys with pain.

148
Q

where is te brachial plexus formed

A

the brachial plexus has nerve roots in the C5-8 and T1 vertebrae. this is fed by the axillary artery.

149
Q

how is the reticular formation connected to the spinalthalamic tract

A

By collaterals from the spinothalmic tract

150
Q

role and site of the raphe nuclei?

A

the raphe nuclei exists in the mid brain. it recieves inputs from the PAQ and sends SHT projections down to the superficial dorsal horns of the spinal cords to modulate nociceptive signaling.

151
Q

what are the special senses mediated by the cranial nerves

A

vestibulocochlear: vestibular nuclei:balance, cochlear hearing.

Facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus :TASTE

152
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia

A

this is a form of neuropathic pain which is exprienced in the areas innervated by the trigeminal nerve.

153
Q

cortico spinal tract synapsing on motor neurons…?

A

diverge to synapse with many or many nerve fibres converge onto one. this means one pyramidal neuron does not innervate 1 motor neuron.

154
Q

what is a renshaw cell?

A

this is another type of inhibitory interneuron found in the spine. it is activated by collateral of the motor neuron to autoinhibit the motor neuron.

155
Q

What causes decerebrate rigidity

A

this is caused by a brin stem lesion above the vestibulr nuclei. this causes a loss of the descending inhibition of vestibulospinal tracts and results in a rigid posture that prevents movement. extensor muscles contract.

156
Q

what is the origin of the reticulo spinal tract

A

part of the retiular formation this originates in the GIGANTOCELLUAR NUCLEUS and will be used by cerebellum for posture.

157
Q

outline the light reflex?

A

light activates the neurons in the retinal ganglion and the processes travel via the optic nerve to synapse on the pretectal nucleus. this has sends processes to both edinger westphal nuclei which in turn activates the pupil constiction muscle. pupils dilate.

158
Q

outline the structure of the basal ganglia?

A

The caudate runs paralel to the lateral ventrical between its anterior and inferior termini. this is the largest part of the basal ganglia.

below the caudate and lateral to the internal capsule is the globus palidus. this has an internal and external segment.

lateral to the palidus is the putamen.

the substantia nigra and subthalmaic nuclei are ventral to the thalamus.

the putamen and the caudate are seperated by the internal capsule, although their anterior most ends fuse to from the the nucleus acumbens or anterior striatum.

associating projections between the caudate and putamen give them striped anatomies.

159
Q

what is the striatum composed of?

A

the putamen and the caudate

160
Q

what is the lentiform nucleus composed of?

A

the putamen and globus palidus

161
Q

where is the nucleus acumbens situated?

A

the anterior putamen and chordate

162
Q

outline the direct and indirect pathways through the basal ganglia

A

Direct: This drives movement by disinhibting the thalamus.

the striatum send gabaergic inhibitory processes to the internal segment of the globus plaidus.
the globus plaidus usually send gabaergic inhibitory stimuli to the thalmus, this is prevented
so the ventral anterior thalamus can excite the supplementary motor cortex via glutaminergic processes.

INDIRECT: this turns off movement. used to stop unwanted movements. disinhibts the subthalamic nuclei excitation of the internal globus plaidus.

gabaergic inhibitory processes from the striatum inhibit the external segment of the globus plaidus.
This prevents inhibitory gabaergic processes from the palidus inhibting the subthalamic nuclei.
this allows the subthalamic nuclei to send excitatory glutaminergic processes to the internal segment of the globus plaiduus
this activates the palidus and allows its inhibitory action of the thalmus to occur, inhibting thalamic stimulation of the supplmetory motor cortex.

163
Q

where is the amygdala situated?

A

the amygdala is situated at the tail end of the caudate nucleus.

164
Q

What is the influence of the substantia nigra on the striatum?

A

the substantia nigra send dopaminergic processes to the striatum via the nigro-striatal pathway. dopamine is released onto excitatory D1 receptors at the direct site (Driving movement even more), dopamine ia alternatively released onto inhibitory D2 receptors at the indirect pathway (preventting the stopping of movement)

165
Q

what is the braak staging of PD?

A

this refers to the fact that the pathology spreads in stages.

the PD pathology degeneration starts in the dorsal vagal nucleus-locus coerulus-substantia nigra-cortex.

by the time it reaches the SN and the symptoms are observable the dorsal vagal nucleus is almost completely gone.

166
Q

what is the limbic loop of the basal ganglia?

A

the limbic part involves the nucleus acumbens.

the VTA plays a key part with axons going to the nucleus acumbens via the mesolimbic pathway. this then goes to the pre-frontal cortex, the release gives the sense of reward.

167
Q

what is the hyper direct pathway through the basal ganglia?

A

This is a method of rapidly turning off movement. cortex excites the subthalamic nuclei which in turn excites the globus palidus external segment which will inhibit the thalamus.

168
Q

how are the basal ganglia involved in eye movement

A

the basal ganglia are part of the oculomotor loop.

the frontal eye field projects to the caudate nucleus which inturn excites the inetrnal segment of the globus plaidus or the substantia nigra.

these project to the dorso medial thalamic nucleus and this will project back to the frontal eye field (in pre-frontal cortex).

(they can also project to the superior colliculi, related to motor response to visual info.

169
Q

how is deep brain stimulation used for PD?

A

electrodes are planted in the brain to stimulate the subthalamic nuclei facilitates movement even though it should stop it.

170
Q

what seperates the insular cortex from the basal ganglia?

A

the claustrum

171
Q

difference between the 2 main pops of striatal neurons?

A

those project to the direct and indirect pathways. i.e those that project to the internal segment of the globus palidus and those thast project to the external segemnt.

172
Q

what is the pars compacta?

A

this is the part of the SN that has a large density of the PARS pigmented neurons.

173
Q

what would be visble in the membrane at a synapse in the SN of a PD patient?

A

a vacuole in the membrane as the neuron undergoes wallerian degeneration.

174
Q

outline the PD pathology

A

PD involves the nerurodegenration of the subtsantia nigra. this results in an inabiltiy fro it to drive movement.

as a result patients experience hypokinesia and a resting tremor. in addition, the VTA is lossed and many patients can become depressed.

175
Q

outline HD pathology

A

huntigtons is an autosomal dominant disease. a mutation in the IT15 gene results in the neurodegneration of the striatum and a loss of the indirect pathway. this means that we cannot stop unwanted movements. (IT15 mtation rpresents too many CAG repeats (over 40) in the huntigtin gene.0

hence this result in hyperkinesia, until the pathology has spread so far it effects the cardiovascular system.

176
Q

cause of PD (genetic, MPTP,others)

A

mutations in the synuclein genes.

mutation in the SCNA gene.

age is the greatest risk.

MPTP is in the making of heroin. this is converted to MPP+ which prevents the mitochondrial oxidation going to cell death of the SN.

177
Q

what is the pathology and causes of AD?

A

AD has many different pathologys. the formation of amyloid beta plaques. these are related to mutation in the presenelin gene (cuts thee precursor protein).
duplication in the APP protein (precursor).

there is also the formation of neurfibilliary tangles from hyperphophorylated MAPT (microtubule associated protein tau).
atrophy is prominent in the entorhinal cortex, the amygdala and the cerebral association areas.

178
Q

methods of diagnosing and tracking AD pathology

A

wee can diagnose this by looking at reduced spatial memory, as this is inhibited from the earliest stages, and this can be done invitro using alternative reality.

also can track the pathology by using compounds like the pitsburgh compund to track the progression of the plaque pathology, or others for the tau pathology.

this allows us to see what stage the disease is at. starting off in frontal cortex and slowly spreading to rest and brainstem.

179
Q

what is the pathology of fronto-temporal lobe dementia and ALS?

A

these usually coincide as FTD has tau pathology and TDP pathology, whereas ALS jsut has TDP pathology. (TDP-43 cytoplasmic inclusions)

FTD results in issues with language and speech.

ALS ro motor neuron disease will result in the degeneration of corticals and spinal motor neurons. this causes flacid paralysis. often muscle fasciculations is experienced as axons fire causing small contractions.

180
Q

what are muscle fasciculations?

A

as the axons degenerate they fire resulting in small contractions.

181
Q

what are the prion like mechanisms of disease progression?

A

this relates to the fact that disease pathology spreads in stages.

aggregation of cellular proteins that fold in a beta pleated sheet shape. cam cause others to aggregate this way as well.

182
Q

What are the circumventricular organs?

A

these are organs found in the in the walls of the 3rd and 4th ventricles.

these have no BBB and are used to sense whats in the blood and release into the blood.

examples are the AREA POSTREMA-vomitting
POSTERIOR PITUITARY, PINEAL GLAND, MEDIAL EMINENCE.

183
Q

What are the 3 main tracts going through the thalamus

A

the somatosensory: spinothalamic, medial lemniscus
the dentate nucleus of cerrebelum-thalamus
globus plaidus -thalamus (part of basalganglia signalling)

184
Q

which artery feeds the thalamus?

A

the posterior cerebral artery

185
Q

Name the nuclei of the thalamus?

A

the anterior nucleus
the dorsalmedial nucleus
on ventral side :ventral anterior, ventral lateral, ventral posterior (normal split into the ventral posterolateral and ventral postero-medial , afferents from body and head respectively)

at posterior end there is the posterior (pulvinar)
off main thalamus:
medial and lateral geniculate nuclei

intralaminar thalamic nuclei

thalamic reticular nuclei.

186
Q

what are the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus?

A

this is a nuclei innervated by the reticular formation of the brainstem. this feeds the nucleus with collaterals going to the striatum.

bilateral damage of this tract will result in a sudden deep coma.

187
Q

What is the thalamic reticular nucleus?

A

this is a nucleus that has a unique capacity fro regeneration. it recieves input from collaterals coming from the corticothalmic tract.

it send purely inhibitory gaba processes back to the dorsal thalamus to control its output.

188
Q

What is the cingulum?

A

this is the tract that allows for communication between the cingulate gyrus and the entorhinal cortex.

189
Q

Where is the hippocampus located? what the risk of this location?

A

in the medial cranial fossa.

this is susceptible to the accumulation of infection.`

190
Q

outline the circuit of papez?

A

this is part of the limbic system.

the cingulate gyrus comunicates the entorhinal cortex via the cingulum.

the entrohinal cortex comunicates the hippocampus via the alvear and perforant pathways. the entorhinal cotex also communicates the neocortex.

the hippocampus communicates the mamilary bodies via the fornix.
fornix also allows communication with lateral septum. the medial septum communicates back to the hippocampus via the fimbria.

the mamilary bodies communicate the anterior thalamic nuclear. via the mamilothalamic tract

the naterior thalamic nuclear sends communicates the cingulate gyrus. this recieves coimmunication back from the cingulate gyrus.

191
Q

what do the septal cholinergic nuclei supply?

A

this comes from the septal nuclei and goes to the hippocampus via the the septohippocampal tract.

192
Q

where is the limbic cortex?

A

on the medio-temporal lobe

193
Q

roles of thalmic nuclei?

A

the dorsal medial nucleus.: this is an association nucleus relays info to the prefronbtal cortex for decision making, has olfactory and limbic inputs.

the pulvinar- this receives inputs from the superior colliculus. this is part of an extra geniculate pathway ton help draw our attention to objects in out peripheral vision.

ventral lateral- this send inputs to the premotor and motor cortex. has pallidal and SN inputs.

ventral anterior- projects to the supplementary motor are and prefrontal cortex.

The ventral posterior receives sensory inputs from the whole body and head, info is from medial, spinal and trigeminal lemnisci. the ventral posterolateral is related to the body and the ventral posteromedial is related to the head.

the anterior nucleus receives input from the mamilary bodies and projects to the cingulate gyrus. this is part of the limbic circuit.

194
Q

what are the medial and lateral geniculate nuclei?

A

the medial geniculate nuclei is the auditory nucleus of the thalamus, it receives info about both ears from the inferior colliculi

the lateral geniculate nucleus is related to the visual system.it receives inputs from the optic tract and it relays info to the whole of the visual cortex.

195
Q

What are the components of the hippocampal formation? outline

A

entorhinal cortex, dentate gyrus, hippocampus

196
Q

result of bilateral damage to the circuit of papez

A

this results in loss of episodic memory.

197
Q

what are the major roles of the hippocampus?

A

related to leaning via LTP and memory.

198
Q

what is korsakoffs and kluver bucy syndrome.

A

korsakofs is a condition in which the mamilary bodies and the anterior thalamic nucleus have degenerated. results in profound amnesia.

Kluver bucy syndrome is a condition follwoing the removal of the temporal lobe. profound amnesia is experienced. other symptoms like hypersexuality and placidity can be related to the loss of the amygdala.

199
Q

what is the role of place cells and grid cells.

A

these are found in the hippocampal formation and are what allows us to remember places. a place cell (hippocampus) will fire whenever an animal is in a specific place. grid cells these form a uniques place independant map of the environemnt. the coactivation of neigbouring grid cells goes through an area close in the actually environment allows a uniques spatial mapto be created. this is encoded into the place cell.

200
Q

where are the taste pupilae found?

A

these contain the taste buds.

2/3 are on the anterior tongue, 1/3 are on the posterior tongue.

201
Q

what are the 3 types cells involved in taste

A

supporting cells. this have microvilli that project into the lumen of taste buds and secrete substances.

sensory receptors: this also have microvilli that project into the lumen of taste cells.and are involved in transduction.

Basal- these form new sensory receptors.

202
Q

what is a tastant?

A

this is the substance that is detected by the taste buds. these are dissolved in the saliva.

203
Q

what are the 5 types of taste receptor?

A

sweet (energy), umame (Amino acids), sour (vitamins), bitter (poisons), salt (electrolytes)

204
Q

where does the fornix terminates?

A

on the mammilary bodies

205
Q

what are the major cells types in CA1 AND 2, CA3 and the dentate gyrus.

A

the CA regions have pyramidal cells. the dentate gyrus has densely packed granule cells.

206
Q

what part of the hippocampal formation degenerated in AD

A

the place cells, hence reduced spatial memory.

207
Q

what is the fimbria?

A

the runs along the tong of the fornix from the medial septum to the hippocampus (fornix runs the other way going to the lateral septum)

208
Q

what at the 2 pathways of entorhinal to hippocampus communication.

A

stellate neurons communicate with the dentate gyrus via the perforant pathway.

pyramidal cells will follow the alveus to the CA region in the ALVEAR pathway.

209
Q

what is the alveus?

A

this is the white matter surrounding the CA regions of the hippocampus.

210
Q

how does the dentate gyrus communicate with the CA3 region?

A

this is via mossy fibres.

211
Q

what is the schafer collateral

A

this is the pathway of communication between the CA3 and CA1 regions.

212
Q

what makes up the limbic lobe?

A

the cingulate gyrus, the parahippocampal gyrus and the uncus.

213
Q

how can the entorhinal cortex be identified by its surface?

A

it has bumps and hollows on its surface.

214
Q

what are the periventricular,middle and lateral zone hypothalamus cell groups associated with?

A

the periventircuar involves the cell groups beside the lateral ventricle. these are associatted with endocrine release from the anterior pituitary

the middle zone involves those associated with the ANS.

the lateral zone involves those tasked with integrating limbic, hippocampal and midbrain information.

215
Q

what are the main roles of the hypothalamus?

A

memory, neurendocrine release, sexuality, appetite, circadian rhythms like sleep.

216
Q

who are patient BJ and NA?

A

these are 2 individuals that suffered extensive mamilary body damage and as a result has severely damaged memorys (struggled to recall the story given. (anterograde amnesia.)

217
Q

what are the 2 outputs of the hippocampal formation

A

the subiculum and the entorhinal cortex.

218
Q

What influences the communication between the mammilary bodies and the anterior thalamus? (diagram maybe better)

A

the medial mam comunicates with the anterior medial thalamic nuclei. this receives inpits from the subiculum, the septum, the supra mam nuclei and tuberomam nuclei, and the ventral tegemental nuclei (tegemntal communication is bidirectional.)

the lateral ma nuclei communicate with the dorsal anterior thalamic nuclei. this recieves inputs from the para/post/pre subiculum. the dorsal tegemental area (bidrectional, and the septum, tubero and supra mam nuclei.

219
Q

what does the septal nuclei secrete?

A

GNRH

220
Q

what are the magnocelluar neurosecretory neurons of the hypothalamus?

A

the paraventricular, supraoptic

221
Q

2 examples of posterior pituitary release

A

oxytocin, vasopressin

222
Q

4 examples of anterior pituitary release

A

FSH/LH, GH, ACTH,prolactin

223
Q

what are the parvocelluar neurons of the hypothalamus.

A

paraventicular, periventricular, arcuate, medial preoptic nucleus.

224
Q

with relation to appetite outline how first order hypothalamic nuclei work?

A

leptin is the bodies satiety hormone it is released in response to fatty deposits.

leptin acts on the first order hypothalmic neurons, the arcuate cells. it will inhibit the NPY processes (NPY drives eating) and excite the POMC proceses (POMC inhibits eating behaviour)

this influences the arcuates action via these processes on the secondary hypothalamic neurons.
the paraventricular neurons release oxytocin which inhibits eating, other areas like the pre fornical area release orexin which drives eating.

225
Q

what areas of the brain are part of the limbic system?

A

nucleus acumbens

cingulate cortex

hypothalamus

hippocampus

medial septum

mam bodies

amygdala (emotional memory and fear)

prefrontal cortex

ventral palidus

226
Q

draw ant label the amygdaloid complex? outline the communication in and out of the complex

A

check with diagram?

227
Q

outline the roles of the amygdaloid nuclei?

A

the basolateral nuclei: this is related to creating the emotional significance of a stimuli. associating he stimuli to adaptive behaviors. this involves outputs to the: Basal meynert nucleus, the central nucleus, the cortico-limbic asscoaitions and the hippocampus, the dorso-medial thalamic nucleus.

the central nucleus is related to the the control of the automnomic system via projections to the brain stem and the hypothalamus. projections to the autonomic centres of the brain stem occurs via the ventra amygadalo fugal pathway. (VAPT) helps medaite emotions.

the cortico medial nucleus is related to the control of neurendocrine secretion, with primary projections to the ventro medial hypothalamusvia the stria terminalis tract.

228
Q

what are the 4 main cranial nerve nuclei in the brain involved in the parasympathetic ANS? (include ganglion

A

endinger westphal nuclei (oculomotor), light response
goes through ciliary ganglion.

Superior salivary nuclei (facial) innervate submadibular and sublingual glands. goes through submandibular and pterygopalatine ganglion

inferior salviary galnd (glossopharyngeal) tiggers salvation by innervating parotid gland. otic gangliuon)

dorsal motor nucleus of the vagal nerve: goes to organs in periphery, heart lungs, gut.

229
Q

the ANS is affected by descending pathways from which 4 complexes?

A

amygdala, septal area, hippocampus, medial prefrontal cortex

230
Q

outline key importance of sympathetic NS

A

Mainly seen in conditions of stress.

primarily the flight or fight response.

heart rate and respiration rate increase.
gut motility is decreased
blood vessels dilate.
clotting factor is released into blood plasma.

231
Q

outline key roles of parasympathetic NS

A

this mainly has its role when the body is at rest.

involved in sex drive, defecation, salivation

232
Q

difference in ganglionic and pre-ganglionic signalling in sympathetic and para NS?

A

both have the transmission of ACh at the ganglionic synapse. this is a fast trasnmission synapse using nicotinic receptors.

both have slow metabotropic transmission at the post-ganglionic synapses.
BUT…
sympathetic using noradrenaline.
Parasympathetic uses ACh

233
Q

which parts of the hypothalamus are associated with the SNS and PSNS

A

the anterior/medial hypothalamus is related to the SNS.

the lateral or posterior is related to the PSNS

234
Q

outline the pathways of neurendocrine, somatic and autonomic control. (in relation to hypothalamus)

A

Neurendocrine: this control originates in the amygdala. the corticomedial nuclei will project to the ventro medial hypothalamus. here is acts on the first order neruons like the arcuate nucleus which inturn will project to the anterior pituitary gland to influence the release of neruendocrines.

Autonomic: control or this is again related to the amygdala. the Central nuclei can either project directly to the autonomic centres of the brain stem or to the hypothalmus and this inturn to the brain stem.

somatic control: this role is shared between the hypothalamus, the amygdala and the septal nuclei. descending tracts project to the peri aqueductal grey and then project along side projections from the lateral hypothalamus to the reticulo formation. the formation sends projections to the spinal nuclei via the reticulo spinal tract

235
Q

what are the key areas of connection related to hypothalamus control of the ANS?

A

medial forebrain to dorso medial tegmentum projection.

these influence the dorsal motor nuclei of the vagus nerve, the sacral spinal cord, and the intermediolateral nuclei .

dorso longitudinal fasciculus.: projections influence the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagal nerve and the solitary nuclei.

parabrachial nuclei. projections influence the solitary nuclei and the nucleus ambiguous.

236
Q

what are the 2 main types of memory?

A

declaritive: this is memory of facts and events, this involves conscious recovery 3 types

Semantic: information about facts

episodic: information about events

working memory: acts as a temporary storage for memory

Procedural: this is the other type and it is of stuff that have non-conscious recall. tend to be motor procedures like riding a bike.

procedual

237
Q

long term vs short term memory

A

short term memory requires maintained rehearsal as it is subject to degradation.

longterm memory does no have this fragility. usually requires some sort of internal structural change in order to be remembered.

the formation of each have 2 models:

the paralel processing: this suggest that data is stored in the STM and LTM at the same time if consolidation is present.

The serial processing: this suggests that memory is first stored in the STM and then following consolidation it is then stired in the LTM.

238
Q

who is patient HM?

A

HM was a man that had severe temporal lobe epilepsy. to stop this he had a bilateral removal of his temporal lobes. many of the important memory complexes lie on the medio temporal lobe. this mean although his epilepsy was cured , he suffered from partial retrograde amnesia and severe anterograde amnesia. his completed lossed his declaritive memory ability.

interestingly his procedural memory was fine. ( mirror writing

239
Q

what s the delayed non match to sample test and its relation to the perirhinal cortex?

A

the delayed non match to sample test was a method used on monkeys to investigate the effects of bilateral temporal lobe removal on memory.

monkeys would be presented with a object with a raisin under it. after a delay the monkey is replaced with 2 objects, the NOVEL object had the raisin under it. this ment that the monkey hadto remeber the last object to know to avoid it.

sdhort delays testing short term memory showed little change. but over longer periods the monkeys success got worse and worse. showing that there declaritive memory had been damaged.

perirhinal cortex damage was seen to be a significant influencer here.

240
Q

what was the change in ideas about declaritive memory critical areas?

A

orginally it was though that the hippocampus and amygdala where the key output areas for memory.

however now the rhinal and perirhinal cortex have also been associated with reciprocal connections to allow output through the cortical association regions.

241
Q

key parts of medio-temporal lobe for memory?

A

Hippocampus, rhinal and peri-rhinal regions, thalamus, parahippocampal gyrus, fornix, hypothalamus, mamilary bodies.

242
Q

why does damaging the anterior or dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus effect memory?

A

the medio temporal cortex has projections going to the prefrontal cortex via the dorsomedial thalamic nucleus.

the medio-temporal lobe also communicates the peri-rhinal and parahippocampal gyrus. this allows i to communicate the anterior nucleus of the thalamus via the fornix. the anterior nucleus will communicate with the cingulate cortex.

there involvement in these memory circuits mean damge to them affects memory.

243
Q

what is the working memory?

A

this is a temporary storage fro new sensory information or information recently recalled from the LTM.

this often stores information we dont want to have to commit to the LTM, like where the car is parked.

this has been demonstrated in the radial maze.

244
Q

which area of the brain is important for working memory?

A

the prefrontal cortex has been implicated here.

delayed response studies show deficits of performance in individuals will prefrontal lesions.

we observe that in the prefrontal cortex there are neurons that fire on the present of the stimuli and those that fire during the delay period (hold it in the working memory.)

this is why memory is something encoded all over the shop

245
Q

What forms after axon lesion?

A

an axonal stump forms and from this axonal sprouts emerge to fix the pre-existing nerve fibre.

246
Q

what is the evolutionary hierachy of axonal regen?

A

fish>amphibians>reptile>mammals

with mammals having almost NO CNS regen

247
Q

how does the consequence of a motor neuron lesion depend on the location of the lesion?

A

if the legion is in the periphery then the axon can regernate and the neuron does not die.

if this is a lesion proximal top the cell body the neuron dies,.

NOTE: in neonates wherever the lesion is the neuron dies as it is not conducive of regen yet.

248
Q

name a method of repairing distal motor neuron lesion?

A

we can suture the lesion.

however only 50% of patients report functional recovery

249
Q

in wallerian degen what accumulates in the distal stump and what removes the myelin?

A

macrophages will arrive and accumulate in the distal stump. the schwann cells will dediferentiate and proliferate. this is involved in the removal of myelin and debry.

250
Q

what is the band of bungner?

A

the band of bungner is a antomical structure consisting of many scwhann cell processes surounded by a basal laminar.

regenerating axons grow through the band of bunger back to their original targets.

251
Q

which 2 molecules are upregulated to aid the isolated regeneration of axons?

A

theres is a upregulation of adhering molecules (NCAM) on schwann cells so that they can adhere to the regenerating axon and better control there growth.

there is also an upregulation in repulsive factors like NG2 that exist on the basal laminar, these repel the growing axon to keep its growth within the band of
bungner.

greater expression of neurtophic factors like NGF also promote growth.

252
Q

what is the response of the cell body to axotomy? give 2 TFs responsible

A

there is changes in the expression of many genes.

genes for growth cones are increased.

genes fro neurotransmitters and neurofilaments are down regulated.

TFS like AF3 and STAT3 are involved here.
creates conditions for vigorous regeneration.

253
Q

interesting reliance of dorsal root nerve recovery on the cell response

A

cleaving the dorsal root nerve in the periphery results in vigorous regen, meanwhile lesion in the ganglia results in feeble regen.

however if we cleave the in the periphery and the ganglion we see CNS recovery. this suggests that many CNS neurons are not aware of their lesion, and thus the peripheral lesion triggers a usefull celll body response.

254
Q

what is the relation of inflammation to axon regen?

A

lesion results in observable inflammation around the axons and the cell bodies. the accumulation of macrophages and microglia can be observed around the cell bodies of motor and dorsal neurons. these play a role in recovery as well as immune system surveillance during recovery.

255
Q

what are the suggested reasons for a lack of regen in the CNS?

A

lack of neurotrophic support.

lack of healing. cells die around CNS lesions, gets worse.

CNS myelin produce inhibitory molecules. (like NOGO or MAG)

poor cell body response.

256
Q

CNS regen nerve graft exceptions?

A

to observe the ability of different CNS to neurons to regenerate a nerve graft is used to by pass the lesion. retrograde tracers are used to induce growth into the graft. in the MAJORITY of cases, liker purkinje cells, no growth is observed.

most spinal nerves can
thalamic reticular nuclei nerves will 90% of the time
retinal ganglion are very good.
rubro spinal are good..

257
Q

result of compression or contusion injuries in spine?

A

compression or contusion injuries result in a lesion in the center of the spine that grows over time. this can be fluid filled or a fibrous scar.

258
Q

give examples of repulsive molecules or molecules that inhibiting regen

A

NOGO or MAG from myelin inhibit regen.

NG2 or chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans (CSPGs) repel growth.

growth factors like ephrin B3, slit, semaphorins repel growth

259
Q

outline results of study showing CNS lesions sites are repellant to regen

A

a study showed that inplanted axons could regenerate in the white matter but they would not cross the lesion site.

later observed that miningeal fibroblasts accumulate. astrocytes also acumualte and enlarge to form astrocyte scars .

both these produce inhibitory and repulsive molecules like CSPGS semaphorins and .netrin, slit

260
Q

potential methods of spinal repair.

A

chondroitinase: this removes CAG side chains from CSPGS to inhibit there function.

NOGO: we can use antibodies to bind NOGO or peptdes to bind NOGO receptors and block function.

olfactory ensheathing glia: these have been shown to be effective 50% of the time

Newer promising methods involve the inhibition of PTEN and actiovation of MTOR.which have been shown to be effective in the optic nerve of mice..

261
Q

role of the dorsal vagal nuclues

A

mediates the parasympahtetic role of the vagal nerve by innervate the heart and thoracic muscle.

262
Q

what nuclei does the medial longitudinal nerve connect?

A

main connection of the oculomotor, trochglear and abducens nerves.

263
Q

Which nucleus degenerates early on in AD?

A

septal nuclei

264
Q

what are the nuclei of the basal ganglia?

A
globus palidus
putamen
caudate nucleus
substantia nigra pars compacta
subthamaic nuclei
265
Q

what is the somatotopic mapping of the primary sensory area.

A

lower limbs on top and in between hemispeheres

upper limbs lateral to upper

face and tongue bulk of side.

266
Q

outline the pathway of taste perception from the anterior tongue

A

the anterior tongue taste p[ercep[tion is mediated by the facial nerve. this projects to the nucleus solitarius. which in turn projects via the solitary tract TO THE VENTRAL POST LATERAL THALAMUS, HYPOTHALAMUS AND AMYGDALA.

the thalamic nuclei will project to the taste cortex on the insular cortex.

267
Q

olfactory sensory neurons (type, regen, projection)

A

olfcaotry sensory neurons are bipo9lar cells.

they have unmyelinated axons that project through the lamina propria and then the cribifom plate to synapse in specific glomeruli on the olfactory bulb.

there is a regular turn over of these neurons throughout life. this is mediated by stem cells and facilitated by olfactory ensheathing glia.

268
Q

what are the functional areas of the nasal cavity?

A

the nasal cavity is split into 3 conchae.

the upper conchae is covered in the olfactory endothelium and at its roof has the olfactory mucosa holding olfactory sensory neurons.

the lower 2 conchae are covered in cavenous tissue. this is related to swelling to oclude the right or left nostral in rotation to limit damage to neurons.

all areas of the cavity apart from the mucos have a role in warming and wetting air.

269
Q

what is orthonasal and retronasal olfaction?

A

orthonasal is the inhalation of air and thus the smell function.

retronasal is the expelled air that is used to sample the contents of food and drink.

270
Q

what is the glomeruli of the olfactory bulb? main neurons?

A

the glomeruli are specific to certain smell. the olfactory sensory neurons synapse on mitral or tufted cells in the glomeruli, these are the neurons that run in the olfactory tract.
mitral cells will also innervate periglomerular neurons and synapse at dendrodendritic synapses on granule cells to inhibit inactivate neighbouting glomeruli.

this isolates the signalling of specific smells.

271
Q

olfactory tract projections and olfactory areas?

A

the olfactory tract will project to the medial and lateral striae.

The medial stria: this has major projections to the anterior olfactory nucleus. this will project to and inhibit the other olfactory bulb. thus this enhances the significance of the more active lobe to give some spatial ques about the stimuli.

this also projects to the corticomedial nculeus of the amygdala- mediates autonomic responses like salivation.
and
the olfactory tubercle to drive reward and arousal sensation.

the lateral striae: this projects to the piriform cortex this mediates the concious appreciation of odours.

the priform cortex involves the: entorhinal, uncus, some orbital frontal (projected to from piriform via dorsal medial thalamic nuclei), limen insulae.

no apparent mapping of scent here.

272
Q

orbital frontal cortex

A

this is often refered to as the flavour center. it is activated more when taste and smell are presented together. allows distinguished of flavours.

273
Q

difference is sensitivity of primary olfactory subregions.

A

the primary olfactory cortex has subregions with varying sensitivity based on attention.

the termporal priform cortex has no slectivity for attention or no attention.

the frontal piriform cortex and the olfactory tubercle show greater activation upon intentional sniffing.

274
Q

olfactory ensheathing cells

A

These area specific type of glia that are key to the regular replacement of new olfactory sensory neurons. the sensory neurons grow back into the brain via channles formed by the processes of these glia.

275
Q

draw structure of the eye?

A

refer to diagram

276
Q

what is the function of the lamina cribrosa?

A

this prevents the formation of myelin pass the optic nerve. if this was to grow into the retinal space it would prevent the activation of photoreceptors.

277
Q

what is the blind spot?

A

this is the head of the optic nerve on the retenal surface. there are no photoreceptors present so now tranduction.

278
Q

what is the fovea?

A

this is a point on the retina used for focussed examination of objects,. it contains cones alone.

279
Q

development of the eye from the eye vesicle

A

the ye vesicle arises from the diencephalon and induces the ectoderm to from the lens and then the cilliary tissue will adapt to from the photoreceptors.

280
Q

what are the 8 layers of the retina?

A

outer most -inner most:

Pigmented layer

photoreceptor outer segemnt: this contains the outer segment or heads of the photoreceptors. this is where the disc are and where then transduction occurs.

outer nuclear layer: contains the cell bodies of the photoreceptors.

outer plexiform layer: contains the synapses between the photoreceptors and the bipolar cells.

inner nuclear layer: this contains the bipolar cell bodies, as well as the horizontal and amacrine cells.

inner plexiform layer: contains the synapses between the bipolar cells and the ganglion cells.

ganglion cell layer: contains the ganglion cell bodies.

nerve fibre layer: contains the axons from the ganglion cells projecting out of the retina.

281
Q

outline the transduction of signalling in rods and cones?

A

these contain disccs. within the dics are rhodopsin GPCRS.

this are activated by light (1 photon in rods more in cones) causing BLEACHING, conversion of rhodopsin to retenal and opsin.

bleaching will cause an internal cascade activating the cGMP phosphodiesterase. this will hydrolyse cGMP and inturn close cGMP medaited NA+ channles.

closing of sodium channels results in membrane hyperpolarisation and reduced release of GABA.

this leads to reduce inhibition of bipolar cells, exciting them, and leading to the activation of the ganglion cells.

282
Q

how do cones mediate colour vision?

A

the trichromatic theroy states there are 3 cones:

those detecting short wavelengths (blue light)

medium length (green light)

long wavelengths (red light)

this information is expressed by parvocelluar cells. the use of dichromatic on and off regions allows specific neuronal signalling dependent on light.

283
Q

what are the 2 types of ganglion cells?

A

magnocellular: these are the larger option: these a ACHROMATIC, movement dependant, and show fast adaptation.

Parvocellualar: these an chromatic and smaller, not movement dependant, adn slow adapting.

284
Q

.results of damage to visual pathway in geniculocalcarine tract (optic radiation)?

A

this results in the loss of the contralateral lower field quadrant of vision in both eyes (hemianopsia)

this is because the geniculo calcarine projects to the upper visual cortex, applying knowledge of the retinotopic mapp being flipped, this relates tothe lower retina

285
Q

differences in tracts relating to nasal and temporal retina.

A

nasal is the side of the retina closest to the nose.
they give visual info on the field closest to that eyes temple. fibres from this part of the retina will deccusate at the optic chiasm to the contralateral LGN.

temporal is the side of the retina closest to the temple. this gives info on the field of view closest to the nose. This will NOT deccusate at the optic chiasm and thus has ipsilateral signalling.

286
Q

outline pathway of optic tract

A

FOR THE LATERAL PATHWAY :the optic tract projects from the ganglion cells in the retina to the optic chiasm. at this point the nasal cells deccusate and the temporal processes do not.

processes synapse at the lateral geninuclate ncueli of the thalamus. projections out of here travel via the meyers loop, if represnting the upper eye field, or opitc radiation (genticulocalcarine tract) if representing the lower visual field.

all projection go to V1,

how

287
Q

do all the optic radiation fibres go to the V1?

A

no alot of actually being send back to the LGN in a feedback.

288
Q

what is the striate cortex? what is represented here and how?

A

this is simpl V1. in layer 4 it is observable that there are ocular dominace columns with stripes intermittantly represnting the right and left eyes (has monocular neurons. ( stellate cells and other interneuons are present to modulate cortico-cortical signalling.

layers 1-3 contain binocular neurons and are separated in Blobs (parvoicelluar) or inter blobs (magnocelluar)

289
Q

excitable states of LGN?

A

Tonic: this is a state of constant signalling where the frequency indicates the stimulus strength (normal)

Burst: this occurs when the hyperpolarisation on the mem primes a slow Ca2+ mech which causes a burst fire of action potentials. this indicates soemthing HAS CHANGED.

290
Q

how does binocular depth perception work?

A

binocular neurons respond different to stimulus at certain distances. this is due to the distance influencing the angle a certain neuron see the stimulus. this allows us to make disparate measurements of depth.

291
Q

retinotopic map

A

the retinotopic mapp is flipped upside down in V1. upper visual field is at lower layers.

292
Q

outline the dorsal and ventral streams from V1?

A

Ventral stream: the ventral stream goes to areas in the inferotemporal lobe. V4. communication here is key to colour determination and ‘WHAT’ (face recognition.
mediated by the parvocellular cells
Dosral stream: this projects to areas aroun the intaparietal sulcus, like V3. this is key to motro related responses and is mediated by the magnocelluar cells.

293
Q

.results of damage to visual pathway across posterior end of both the optic radiaition and the meyers loop.

A

this results in loss of the contralateral field of vision from both eyes (hemianopsia) with macular sparring (maintained macular function

294
Q

where is the the macular (central)and peripheral vision presented.

A

the macular vision is represnted by the the ocipital pole of posterior V1

the peripheral vision is represented by the anterior V1

295
Q

where is the the macular (central)and peripheral vision presented?

A

the macular vision is represnted by the the ocipital pole of posterior V1

the peripheral vision is represented by the anterior V1

296
Q

where is the the macular (central)and peripheral vision presented?

A

the macular vision is represnted by the the ocipital pole of posterior V1

the peripheral vision is represented by the anterior V1

297
Q

outline the function of the outer ear ? what are the key structures?

A

the main part is the PINNA.

this will filter information into the ear canal to amplify the sound.

the shape of the pinna causes the sound to bounce around in it. this allows for distingushmnet of the elevation of noise, or whther its behind me or in front.

298
Q

outline the function of the middle ear what are the main structures?

A

the middle ear is where the oscicle bones are.

this has the role of increasing the pressure of the input to allow the conversion of the vibrations in air to the vibrations in the fluid of the ear.

the vibration vibrate the air and then the tympanic membrane. this moves the oscicle, the maleus, icus and stapes. the pendulum motion amplifies the force and the action onto a small membrane increases pressure.

this is because pressure=force/area.

299
Q

outline the function of the inner ear? outline the main structures (audition)

A

the inner ear have the function of transduction. the main structure is the cochlea. within the chochlea is a fluid and the basilar membrane. vibrating the fluid will vibrate the basilar membrane.

the membrane has a wide, thin, flexible end resonating low frequencies and a thick narrow stiff end resonating high frequencies. the specific vibrations activate specific hair cells by moving steriocillia on their surface. the movement of stereo cillia stretches the ‘tip-links’ in between the opening K+channles and resulting in influx and membrane depolarisation.

300
Q

outline the function of the middle ear what are the main structures?

A

the middle ear is where the oscicle bones are.

this has the role of increasing the pressure of the input to allow the conversion of the vibrations in air to the vibrations in the fluid of the ear.

the vibration vibrate the air and then the tympanic membrane. this moves the oscicle, the maleus, icus and stapes. the pendulum motion amplifies the force and the action onto a small membrane increases pressure.
if this force was not equalized the vibrations would just bounce of the fluid.
this is because pressure=force/area.

301
Q

outline the function of the inner ear? outline the main structures (audition)

A

the inner ear have the function of transduction. the main structure is the cochlea. within the chochlea is a fluid and the basilar membrane. vibrating the fluid will vibrate the basilar membrane.

the membrane has a wide, thin, flexible end resonating low frequencies and a thick narrow stiff end resonating high frequencies. the specific vibrations activate specific hair cells by moving steriocillia on their surface. the movement of stereo cillia stretches the ‘tip-links’ in between the opening K+channles and resulting in influx and membrane depolarisation.

frequency=stiffnes/mass

the effect on inner hair cells is passive.

however there is also outer hair cells that actively amplify the dispersion of the basilar membrane to amplify the signal. this increases the peak of the wave and therefore is specificity. allows us to have more accurate distinguishable frequencies..

302
Q

role and site of the vestibular labrynth.

A

the vestibular labrythn is in the inner ear and paart of the vestibular system.

there are 3 semi circular canal, posterior, anterior and horizontal, this gives a 3d sense. these contain a fluid with inertia. the movement of the heads followed by a lagged movement of the fluid will will activate hair cells. this give a sense of angular acceleration.

there is also the utricle and the saccule. these have inertia and caclium stones that move with movement, this gives a sense of linear acceleration.

303
Q

what is the function of the vestibular system?

A

proprioception

visual system in terms of tracking objects and maintaining gaze.

knowing the orientation of the body.

304
Q

outline the function of the middle ear what are the main structures?

A

the middle ear is where the oscicle bones are.

this has the role of increasing the pressure of the input to allow the conversion of the vibrations in air to the vibrations in the fluid of the ear.

the vibration vibrate the air and then the tympanic membrane. this moves the oscicle, the maleus, icus and stapes. the pendulum motion amplifies the force and the action onto a small membrane increases pressure.
if this force was not equalized the vibrations would just bounce of the fluid.
this is because pressure=force/area.

there is also the stapedius that contracts to stop the movemnt of the oscicles and thus reduce sound. this is used to protect ears from loud noises or to dampen sound during sleep.

305
Q

how can we estimate the response of a auditory nerve fibre?

A

we can use a frequency tuning curve.

this plots the log of the amplitude vs the log of the frequency.

we can see the minimum amplitude threshold for a response at specific frequency s. lower mean higher sensitivity. or we can look at the band widths. the narrower the bandwidth the better the fibre is at distinguishing between frequencys.

306
Q

what is phase locking?

A

this is the ability of a neuron to fire at specific points in the sound wave.

this ability fades with higher frequencies.

307
Q

what is the use of a cochlear implantation, how do they work?

A

this can be used when the hair cells are damged. there is an external microphone that collects the siound.

this then sends artificial projections to the cochlea to stimulate the ANFs.

308
Q

outline the auditory pathway?

A

the ANFs project to the cochlea nuclei. which nucleus with the cochlea nuclei depends on the role. The ventral stream is for fast response and goes to the contralateral supperior olivary nucleus and then to the inferior collciulus.. the dorsal is for complex responses and goes to the contralateral inferior colliculi (the majority)

some fibres remain ipsilateral (for inter aural differnces.)

all fibres will end up in the inferior colliculi and be projected to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalmaus before being relayed to the auditory cortex.

309
Q

outline the auditory pathway?

A

the ANFs project to the cochlea nuclei. which nucleus with the cochlea nuclei depends on the role. The ventral stream is for fast response and goes to the contralateral supperior olivary nucleus and then to the inferior collciulus.. the dorsal is for complex responses and goes to the contralateral inferior colliculi (the majority)

Note ANFs have tonotopic projjections. high freq goes to certain end of the cohclea nucleus and the low frequency to the other end. giving the nucleus a graded input.

some fibres remain ipsilateral (for inter aural differnces.)

all fibres will end up in the inferior colliculi and be projected to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalmaus before being relayed to the auditory cortex.

310
Q

how does binaural sound localisation work?

A

binaural sound localisation involves the superior olivary nucleus. this recieves inputs from both ears and has 2 nuclei to do comparisons.

the lateral nuclei: this compares the intensity to calculate the inter aural level differences.

the medial nucleus: this compares the timing to calculate the interaural timing differneces.

this information is integrated in the inferior colliculus.

311
Q

which coliculi contains an auditory space map?

A

the superior colliculus

312
Q

what is the significance of the inferior coliculus in the visual pathway?

A

the inferior colliculus in a point of almost all auditory inputs converge. it will integrate.the auditory info with that of other senses and integrate the interaural differneces.

313
Q

what do the ventral, dorsal and medial nuclei of the medial geniculate nuclei do?

A

the ventral is the main transmission point.

the dorsal is related to learning (plasticity)

the medial is thought ot be a polysensory site for integrating information.

314
Q

where is the primary auditory cortex and what is its simplified mapping?

A

this is found on Heschs gyri and is anterior end is associated with the apex of the cochlea and its posterior end is associated with the basal cochlea.

315
Q

how is audition mapped and adapted?

A

hierachical areas with differing sensitivities.

differing sensitivities of the hemispheres and specialised roots for sensory memory and sensory motor.

descending pathways for modulation.

316
Q

what are the e hierachical auditory areas of the cortex?

A

core- this is a main thalamic input and has connections ot the core, and belt. it is most sensitive to simple sounds. has tonotpic map.

the belt: this has thalamic input but no tonotopic mapping this is most sensitive to complex sounds like melodies.

parabelt. this has no thalamic input or tonotopic map and is mopst snesitve to melodies.

317
Q

what is the varying sensitivity of auditory cortex depending of hemisphere?

A

the right is more sensetive to pitch.

the left is more sensetive to duration.

318
Q

what is the result of a cortical lesion on audition?

A

this results in a reduced ability of spatial localisation.

319
Q

what are the roles of auditory descending feedback?

A

the auditory cortex feedback to all previous areas for learning and plasticity.

the medial oplivo nuclei projects back to the inner hair cells of the cochlea to mediate sensitivity.

the lateral olivo nucleus projects back to the outer hair cells.toe mediate the amplification.

320
Q

what are the roles of auditory descending feedback?

A

the auditory cortex feedback to all previous areas for learning and plasticity.

the medial oplivo nuclei projects back to the inner hair cells of the cochlea to mediate sensitivity.

the lateral olivo nucleus projects back to the outer hair cells.to mediate the amplification.