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EX Flashcards

1
Q

State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps team as instruments to support national policies?

A

READINESS
FLEXIBILITY
SELF SUSTAINABILITY
MOBILITY

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2
Q

When is the U.S. Navy birthday?

A

13 OCTOBER 1775

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3
Q

Discuss the conditions that led to the creation of the Seabees?

A

During WWII - Armed construction workers were critical needed in the combat (builders who can fight)

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4
Q

What is the purpose of ORM?

A
  • ORM – Operational Risk Management
  • Decision making tool used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks.
  • OPNAVINST 3500.39C - Operational Risk Management
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5
Q

3 Types of ORM Controls?

A

Engineering Control
Administrative Control
PPE – Personal Protective Equipment

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6
Q

3 Types of ORM?

A

Time-Critical
Deliberate
In-Depth

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7
Q

5 Steps of ORM?

A 
I - AM - IS
Identifying hazards
Assessing hazards
Making risk decisions
Implementing controls
Supervise
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8
Q

4 Principles of ORM?

A
  1. Accept Risk when Benefits Outweigh the Cost
  2. Accept No Unnecessary Risk
  3. Anticipate and Manage Risk by Planning
  4. Make Risk Decisions at the Right Level
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9
Q

What does M. I. S. T. stand for and why is it used?

A

M - Mechanism of Injury
I - Injuries or illness
S - Symptoms and Vital Signs
T - Treatment Given

Given after a 9 Line MEDEVAC.

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10
Q

What is the special gauze used in the field to aid in the control of bleeding?

A

Combat Gauze: Used on extremities only, do not use on head, abdomen or chest. It should be applied with at least 3 minutes of direct pressure.

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11
Q

Discuss the speed of service objectives for the following message precedence?

A

Routine (R) - 6 hours or less
Priority (P)- 3 hours or less
Immediate (O) - 30 minutes or less
Flash (Z) - ASAP, 10 minutes

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12
Q

What is meant by the term Two-Person Integrity (TPI)?

A

Two-person integrity (TPI) is the security measure taken to prevent single-person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals.

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13
Q

First Person to receive the EXW warfare?

A

MA2 Carl P. Hurt

Dec. 15 2006

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14
Q

EXW PIN/parts of Significance?

A

Cutlass - Enlisted Force
M16 Rifle - NECC Mission Area
Boat - 34ft. Sea Arc
Waves - Navy’s Heritage

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15
Q

SEABEE Birthday?

A

March 5, 1942

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16
Q

Congress Authorized Dept. of War?

A

August 7, 1789

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17
Q

Congress Established the Dept. of the Navy?

A

April 30, 1798

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18
Q

Father of the SEABEEs?

A

Admiral Ben Moreell

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19
Q

Pearl Harbor?

A

December 7, 1941

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20
Q

First 6 Frigates?

A 
Constellation
Constitution
Congress
Chesapeake
President
United States
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21
Q

Discuss the important of BATTLE OF CORAL SEA?

A 
MAY 4-8, 1942 
2 fleets never saw each other
Battle fought by h aircraft only
Admiral F. J Fletcher
Navy lost USS Lexington
93 Planes launched
3 Carriers/ 1 Destroyer
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22
Q

Discuss the important of INVASION OF NORMANDY?

A 
JUNE 6, 1944 
Largest amphibious operation in history. Completed D-Day landings successfully and eventually pushed on into Germany. Operation Overload.
Beaches involved:
OMAHO BEACH - US
UTAH BEACH - US
JUNO BEACH - Canada
SWORD BEACH - British
GOLD BEACH - British
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23
Q

Deadly Force?

A

Force that is likely to cause, or that a person know or should know would create a substantial risk of causing death, serious bodily harm or injury.
DoD Directive 5210.56

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24
Q

SALUTE?

A 
S - Size
A - Activity
L - Location
U - Unit
T - Time
E - Equipment
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25
Q

SPOT?

A

S - Size
P - Position
O - Observation
T - Time

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26
Q

List and explain the six steps in the escalation of force?

A
  1. Presence
  2. Verbal
  3. Soft control
  4. Hard control
  5. Intermediate weapons
  6. Deadly force
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27
Q

List and explain the circumstance that deadly force is authorized?

A
  1. Inherent right of self-defense
  2. Defense of others
  3. Assets vital to national security
  4. Inherently dangerous property
  5. National critical infrastructure
  6. Serious offence against persons
  7. Arrest or apprehension
  8. Escape
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28
Q

Deadly Force Triangle?

A

Opportunity
Capability
Intent

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29
Q

General Order of a Sentry 1?

A

To take charge of this post and all government property in view.

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30
Q

General Order of a Sentry 2?

A

To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on the alert and to observe everything that takes place within sight or hearing.

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31
Q

General Order of a Sentry 3?

A

To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce.

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32
Q

General Order of a Sentry 4?

A

To repeat all calls from posts more distant to the guardhouse than my own.

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33
Q

General Order of a Sentry 5?

A

To quit my post only when properly relieved.

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34
Q

General Order of a Sentry 6?

A

To receive, obey and pass on to the sentry who relieves me all orders from the CO, CDO, OOD, & OFC & PO of the watch only.

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35
Q

General Order of a Sentry 7?

A

To talk to no one except in the line of duty.

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36
Q

General Order of a Sentry 8?

A

To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder.

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37
Q

General Order of a Sentry 9?

A

To call the OOD in any case not covered by instruction.

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38
Q

General Order of a Sentry 10?

A

To salute all OFC & all colors & standard not cased.

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39
Q

General Order of a Sentry 11?

A

To be especially watchful at night & during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post and to allow no one to pass without proper authority.

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40
Q

Concept of ORM?

A

Decision making tool to increase operation effectiveness
Increase ability to make good decisions
Minimize risks to acceptable levels

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41
Q

WMSD?

A

Work-Related Musculoskeletal Disorders: Ergonomics Program was created to combat it.

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42
Q

PPE?

A

Personal Protective Equipment

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43
Q

4 Hazard Severity Codes?

A

CATI - Loss of Mission Capability, unit readiness or asset, death
CATII - Significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness, severe injury of damage
CATIII - Degraded mission capability or unit readiness. Minor damage to equipment
CATIV - Little or no impact to mission capability or unit readiness, minimal injury or damage

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44
Q

Class “A” Mishap?

A
  • Total loss damage $2M or more

- Loss of aircraft, destroyed, injury or illness result in death/permanent disability.

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45
Q

Class “B” Mishap?

A
  • Total loss of $500K or more, but less than $2M

- Injury/illness = Permanent partial disability or 3 or more hospitalized.

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46
Q

Class “C” Mishap?

A
  • Total loss of $50K or more, but less than $500K

- Event involving 1 or more personnel resulting in 1 or more days away from work.

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47
Q

HERO?

A

Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance

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48
Q

HERO Safe Ordnance?

A

Sufficiently Shielded. Safe and Reliable.

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49
Q

HERO Unsafe Ordnance?

A

No Shielding.

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50
Q

HERO Susceptible Ordnance?

A

Insufficient Shielding.

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51
Q

HERO Unreliable Ordnance?

A

Performance is degraded.

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52
Q

Lautenberg Act (Form#:2760)?

A

Illegal for anyone convicted of domestic violence to have firearm/ammo.

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53
Q

Can Unit Commander limit your inherent right to self defense?

A

Yes

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54
Q

4 Terrorist Threat Level?

A

Low - No terrorist group in area
Moderate - Present, but no anti US activity
Significant - Operationally active and attacking
High - Operationally active & uses large casualties to form attacks

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55
Q

Discuss the purpose of SROE?

A

Standing Rules of Engagement
To provide implementation guidance on the application of force for mission accomplishment and the exercise of the inherent right of self-defense. Per Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Instruction. (CJCSI 3121.01)

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56
Q

3 Types of SROE?

A

Standing
Theater
Mission Specific

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57
Q

3 Types of Vessels at the Inception of the Navy?

A

Ships-of-the-line
Sloops-of-war
Frigate

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58
Q

Discuss the conditions that led to the formation of the U.S. Navy?

A

The importance of British resupply at sea during the revolutionary war. General George Washington initiated America’s first-based offensive to cut off British resupply lines during the revolutionary war.

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59
Q

Commands fall under NECC?

A

NECC - Navy Expeditionary Combat Command
CRG/CRS - Coastal Riverine Force
EOD - Explosive Ordnance Disposal
NCF - Naval Construction Force
NEIC - Naval Expeditionary Intelligence Command
NELSG - Naval Expeditionary Logistics Support Group
ECRC - Expeditionary Combat Readiness Command

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60
Q

What led to the creation of Navy EOD?

A 
Volunteers worked with British UXO in the 1940's
1941 returned to form 1st class in the original mine recovery school now EOD.
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61
Q

USS Cole?

A

Oct 12, 2000
Yemen
17 died, 39 Injured

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62
Q

What ship is still commissioned & held captive & describe the story?

A

USS Pueblo (AGER-2)
Jan 23, 1968 - Captured by North Korea
After being accused of constantly entering NK territorial water. US claims attacked under false pretenses. 83 Captured/1 Died.
Remains Museum ship at Pyongyang, NK

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63
Q

Battle of Leyte Golf?

A

Oct 23-26, 1944

Japan lost control of Pacific and supply cut off.

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64
Q

Gaum Liberation Day?

A

Jul 21, 1944

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65
Q

Chuk Bomb?

A

Feb 17, 1944

Staging point for attack on Guam. Japan Pearl Harbor.

66
Q

BATTLE OF MIDWAY?

A 
Jun 4-7, 1942
The turning point of the war in the Pacific
Japan lost 4 carriers/1 destroyer
Sunk: USS Yorktown and Hammann
Commander involved:
ADMIRAL NINITZ / FLETCHER / SPRUANCE
67
Q

State the purpose of first aid?

A

To save lives and prevent further injuries

68
Q

Discuss the possible causes and treatment for Asphyxiation?

A

Drowning, choking, exposure to poisonous fumes.
Treatment: Maintain open airway, head-tilt chin lift/ jaw thrust maneuver, remove the individual from the hazardous environment.

69
Q

Discuss the possible causes and treatment for Hemorrhage (bleeding)?

A

Loss of blood from the circulatory system due to: gun shots, stab wound, puncture, and IED’s.
Treatment: Direct Pressure/ compression, elevation and pressure points.

70
Q

Discuss the possible causes and treatment for Cardiac arrest?

A

Irregular beating of the heart: lower chambers.

Treatment: CPR and AED, higher medical care.

71
Q

Discuss the possible causes and treatment for Fractures?

A

A break in a bone or cartilage due to: blunt force trauma, a fall from a high place, auto accident, or weakened bones.
Treatment: Control bleeding if present, splint as found, and seek higher medical care.

72
Q

Discuss the possible causes and treatment for Burns?

A

Caused by the sun’s rays, electricity, chemical agents, and scalding heat i.e. steam.
Treatment: remove casualty from the source, remove restricting items, treat for shock, control bleeding, and apply dry sterile dressing to affected area.

73
Q

Discuss the possible causes and treatment for Shocks?

A

Result from trauma, blood loss, heat stroke, and allergic reaction.
Treatment: Keep casualty warm and calm, treat any life threatening injuries, transport to higher echelon of care.

74
Q

Define and discuss the following types of fractures and the treatment: Simple (closed)?

A

A closed fracture is one in which the injury is entirely internal.
Treatment: Sustain fracture by splinting injury. Do not move casualty until injury has been splinted unless movement is necessary to save life or to prevent further injury.

75
Q

Define and discuss the following types of fractures and the treatment: Compound (open)?

A

An open fracture is when the broken bone protrudes through the flesh.
Treatment: Stop the bleeding by direct pressure; take care of wound before dealing with fracture; after bleeding has been stopped treat fracture.

76
Q

Discuss the following types of bleeding: Arterial?

A

Arteries. Bright red blood color, spurting bloods from the wound, pulsating flow.

77
Q

Discuss the following types of bleeding: Venous?

A

Veins. Dark red blood color, steady slow flow from the wound.

78
Q

Discuss the following types of bleeding: Capillary?

A

Capillaries. Bleeding is slow. (red/oozing).

79
Q

Direct pressure?

A

First and most effective. Used with elevation.

80
Q

Pressure Dressing?

A

Aid in blood clotting and compress the open blood vessel.

81
Q

Indirect pressure?

A

Use in conjunction with direct pressure and elevation. (pressure points)

82
Q

Tourniquet?

A

Use only on extremities as a last resort.

83
Q

Discuss the symptoms for shock?

A

Symptoms:

  • Anxiety
  • Nausea
  • Weak Pulse
  • Thirst
  • Pale Skin
  • Shallow Breathing
  • Enlarged Pupils
84
Q

Discuss the treatment for shock?

A

Treatment:

  • Maintain Open Airway
  • Control Breathing
  • Keep Warm
  • Elevate Legs
  • Give Nothing by Mouth
  • Request Medical Assistance
85
Q

Discuss the treatment for Chest wounds?

A

Stop the bleeding, seal wound on both side, give nothing by mouth, monitor airway and treat for shock.

86
Q

Discuss the treatment for Abdominal wounds?

A

Stop the bleeding. Keep exposed intestines moist and covered with abdominal dressing, treat for shock, place casualty in most comfortable position tolerable. “Do not push intestines back into abdomen.”

87
Q

Discuss the treatment for Head wounds?

A

Give no medications, lightly wrap injury, monitor airway, lie victim down and maintain C-spine precautions, treat for shock, seek higher echelon of care.

88
Q

Discuss the treatment for Eye injuries?

A

Cover both eyes. Do not press anything against eyes. Seek higher echelon of care.

89
Q

Discuss the treatment for Facial wounds?

A

Maintain airway, remove any obstructions such as teeth, place victim into a recover position to prevent choking on blood or other items that my induce vomiting. Give nothing by mouth.

90
Q

Define and discuss the causes, symptoms and treatment for Hypothermia?

A

Abnormally low body temperature, due to a prolong exposure to the cold elements.

  • Symptoms: Shivering, drowsiness, trouble breathing, eyes become glossy, pulse: weak or absent & shock sets in.
  • Treatment: Remove casualty from environment, observe airway: CPR if needed, treat other injuries if present, remove wet clothing warming by immersion in warm tub of water, skin to skin contact, treat for shock.
  • Do not unthaw if there is chance of refreezing. Treat as litter patients if frostbite on feet or legs.*
91
Q

Define and discuss the causes, symptoms and treatment for Frost Bite?

A

Ice crystals form in tissue.

  • Symptoms: reddens, numbness, hard to touch, loss of feeling in toes and fingers.
  • Treatment: remove wet clothing, warm thawed extremities, do not rub, sterile gauze between toes and fingers.
92
Q

Discuss the methods of transporting a victim?

A 
Stokes Stretcher
Blanket drag
Fireman carry
Arm carry
Stretchers
Pack-strap carry
93
Q

Define and discuss the causes, symptoms and treatment for Heat stroke?

A

The most important feature of heat stroke is the extremely high body temperature (105°F, 41°C or higher) accompanying it.

  • Symptoms such as headache, nausea, dizziness, or weakness. Breathing will be deep and rapid at first, later shallow and almost absent. —
  • The casualty will be flushed, very dry, and very hot.
  • The pupils will be constricted (pinpoint) and the pulse fast and strong.
  • Move casualty to cool area, remove as much clothing as possible, douse with cool water, apply either cool cloths or ice packs to head, neck, arm pits, groin and ankles, IV fluids, seek higher echelon of care.
94
Q

Define and discuss the causes, symptoms and treatment for Heat exhaustion?

A

Signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion are similar to those of shock;

  • The casualty will appear ashen gray, the skin cool, moist, and clammy and the pupils may be dilated.
  • Most common heat related injury.
  • Treat as if in shock, give cool water, loosen clothing, and apply wet cloths to head, maxilla, groin and ankles, fan if necessary.
95
Q

Define and discuss the causes, symptoms and treatment for Heat cramps?

A

Move victim to a cool place and gently massage muscles to relieve spasms, give cool water: salt (1 teaspoon/ quart water.)

  • Excessive sweating may result in painful cramps in the muscles of the abdomen, legs, and arms.
  • Heat cramps may also result from drinking ice water or other cold drinks either too quickly or in too large a quantity after exercise.
96
Q

Discuss the 9-Line MEDEVAC Request?

A
  1. Location of the pick-up site: 8 grid preferred
  2. Radio Frequency, call, sign, and suffix
  3. Number of Patients by precedence. A-urgent; B-Urgent surgical; C-Priority; D-Routine; E-Convenience
  4. Special Equipment Required. A-none; B-hoist; C-extraction; D-ventilator
  5. Number of Patients: A-litter; B-Ambulatory
  6. Security at Pick-up Site: N-no enemy troops in area; P-Possible Enemy troops in area (approach with caution); E-enemy troops in area (Approach with caution); X-enemy troops in area (armed escort required)
  7. Method of marking pick-up site: A-Panel; B-pyrotechnic signal; C-Smoke signal; D-none; E-other
  8. Patient nationality and status: A- US Military; B-US Civilian; C-Non-US military; D-Non-US Civilian; E-EPW
  9. NBC Contamination:(in peacetime-terrain description of pick-up site) N-nuclear; B-biological; C-chemical
97
Q

Types of Burns?

A
  1. Thermal burn - Fire
  2. Electrical burn - Electrical wire
  3. Chemical burn
  4. First degree burn - Slight redness
  5. Second degree burn - Skin blisters
  6. Third degree burn - Extend through skill
98
Q

2 Types of Convoy?

A

Tactical & Administrative

99
Q

Speed of a Convoy?

A

35 mph or decided by Convoy Commander

100
Q

Duties & Responsibilities of a Convoy?

A

Planning
Preparation
Execution
Tactical Employment of Convoy

101
Q

Attack which posses greater threat to a Convoy?

A

IED

102
Q

Where is VIP in a 3 vehicle Convoy?

A

Middle

103
Q

Purpose of advanced party?

A

Route Reconnaissance

104
Q

3 Types of communication used?

A

Vehicle to Vehicle
Internal to Vehicle
External to Internal

105
Q

Element of a STRIP map?

A

Starting Point - Convoy departs
Check Point - Location of Convoy
Critical Point - Where enemy attacks possibly happen
Rally Point - Meet up location after an incident has happened

106
Q

Items that can be used to harden a vehicle?

A

Ballistic Glass
Armored Plating (windows/doors/front & back windshield & hood)
Kevlar
Sandbags

107
Q

3 Different Appropriate times when to deploy security team?

A

When Convoy departs
Sweeping for IEDs
Moving through a crowd

108
Q

Types of Convoy Formation?

A 
T-Formation
Diamond
Staggered
File
Offset
109
Q

T-Formation & Diamond Formation?

A

Adv. - Limits 3rd party vehicle infiltration
Disadv. - Required experienced driver
Weak (L) flank
Difficult to Command/Control without sufficient comms

110
Q

5 Procedures to reaching to an IED?

A 
Confirm - Is it an IED
Clear - Clear area (300m)
Cordon - Secure/Block off area
Control - Entry/Exit points (only EOD)
Check - Check for secondary devices
111
Q

Staggered & Offset Formation?

A 
Adv. 
- Allows for all around security
- Ease of maneuver during contact
- Greater headlight coverage at night
Disadv.
- More command/control & driver experienced
- More vulnerable to IED effects
112
Q

File Formation?

A

Adv.
- Simplicity
- Usable at night but interval compressed
- Minimized IED blast effects, but only when in center of road
Disadv.
- Reduces field of view
- Reduces headlight coverage at night

113
Q

Describe the following types of orders: OPLAN?

A

(Operation Plan)

Detained statement of a course to be followed to accomplish a future mission.

114
Q

Describe the following types of orders: OPORD?

A

(Operation Order)
OPORD puts the OPLAN in effect. it’s a formal statement issued by the senior commander to subordinate commanders that outlines the coordinated execution of a future operation in the field.

115
Q

Describe the following types of orders: WARNORD?

A

(Warning Order)
A brief statement outlining the patrol’s general or special organization, specific uniforms, ammo, weapons, equipment, chain of command, time schedule.

116
Q

Describe the following types of orders: FRAGO?

A

(Fragmentary Order)
An abbreviated form of an operation order issued as needed after an operation order to change or modify that order or to execute a branch or sequel to that order.

117
Q

Describe the following types of orders: EXORD?

A

(Execution Order)

Initiates supply personnel and admin procedure required for a unit movement.

118
Q

Describe the following types of orders: DEPORD?

A

(Deployment Order)
May be contained in a warning order. Is a change to alert status of units and movement of selected forces to preposition for impending operations.

119
Q

Describe the following types of orders: CONOPS?

A

(Concept of Operations)
A doctrine, defined as being the “A verbal or graphic statement that clearly and concisely expresses what the joint force commander intends to accomplish and how it will be done using available resources.

120
Q

3 types of clearances?

A

Confidential
Secret
Top Secret

121
Q

Discuss the following with respect to radio communication frequencies: HF, VHF, UHF & SATCOM?

A

HF – high frequency 3MHZ-30MHZ
VHF – very high frequency 30MHZ-300MHZ
UHF – ultra high frequency 300MHZ-3GHZ
SATCOM - satellite communication

122
Q

CODE OF CUNDUCT: ARTICLE I?

A

I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense.

123
Q

CODE OF CUNDUCT: ARTICLE II?

A

I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.

124
Q

CODE OF CUNDUCT: ARTICLE III?

A

If I am captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and to aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.

125
Q

CODE OF CUNDUCT: ARTICLE IV?

A

If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way.

126
Q

CODE OF CUNDUCT: ARTICLE V?

A

When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.

127
Q

CODE OF CUNDUCT: ARTICLE VI?

A

I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United

128
Q

Fire Team Formation: Column?

A

Need Speed/control (Woods, Fog, etc)

Vulnerable from fire, favors fire/maneuvers to flanks

129
Q

Fire Team Formation: Wedge?

A

Good control, 360 Security, Flexible & good fire in all directioins

130
Q

Fire Team Formation: Skirmishers?

A

Max fire power in front, Known enemy location

131
Q

Fire Team Formation: Echelon?

A

Heavy fire power to front, Echelon flank

Protects open or exposed flank

132
Q

Improved 2-Man fighting?

A

Feeling of more security, take turns resting, provides less coverage from tanks & bomb shelling.

133
Q

Improved 1-Man fighting?

A

Small as possible, be able to catch rain water, able to protect most of man’s body.

134
Q

Hasty/Skirmisher position?

A

Simplest, shallow pit typed provides temporary open prone fire positioning boy length pit.

135
Q

Explained Challenge/Reply?

A

Helps figure out who is friendly.

136
Q

If captured, what is required info to give?

A

Name, Rank, Service Number, Date of Birth (It is on Article V).

137
Q

What president/year for code of conduct prescribed?

A

Pres. Dwight D. Eisenhower (1955).

138
Q

Can Salute be used for land contacts?

A

Yes

139
Q

S.M.E.A.C.?

A 
Situation (Enemy Forces)
Mission
Execution
Admin/Logistics (Evacuation Procedures)
Command/Signal
140
Q

M.E.T.T.T.C?

A 
Mission
Enemy
Time
Troops
Terrain
Civilian
141
Q

B.A.M.C.I.S?

A 
Begin Planning
Arrange Recon
Make Recon
Complete Plan
Issue Orders
Supervise
142
Q

K.O.C.O.A?

A 
Key Terrain
Observation/Fields of Fire
Cover & Concealment
Obstacles to Maneuver
Avenues to Approach
143
Q

KOCOA?

A

Plan defense using your surroundings

144
Q

BAMCIS?

A

Gather info, Execute/ensure mission success.

145
Q

METT-TC?

A

Assist with CDR’s remember/prioritize what needs to be analyzed in the planning phase.

146
Q

NAVCOMPT 2276?

A

Request for Contractual Procurement.

147
Q

DD Form 200?

A

Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss.

148
Q

DD Form 448?

A

MIPR - Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request.

149
Q

DD Form 1348-6?

A

Requisitioning Non NSN Items (Outside MILSTRIP).

150
Q

NAVSUP 1149?

A

Requisition & Invoice.

151
Q

NAVSUP 1220-2?

A

ACR Allowance Change Request.

152
Q

NAVSUP 1250-1?

A

Used to order NSN Items within MILSTRIP Program.

153
Q

NAVSUP 1250-2?

A

Non NSN Items within MILSTRIP Program.

154
Q

SF-1449?

A

Solicitation/Contract/Order for Commercial Items.

155
Q

SF-364?

A

ROD Report of Deficiency.

156
Q

SF-30?

A

Amendment of Solicitation/Modification of Contract.

157
Q

TOA?

A

Table of Allowance.

158
Q

OPTAR?

A

Operational Target (Used for Budgeting).

159
Q

DRMO?

A

Defense Reutilization Marketing Office - Extra material turned in & allowed to be taken by government entity to save money.

160
Q

Departmental Budget (AFMP)?

A

Annual Financial Management Plan that sets the amount which is given to departments.

161
Q

4 Types of Shoring?

A

Sleeper - cross bracing & dunnage
Rolling - chocks/dunnage
Parking - tracked vehicle/wood parking/locking tracks in place
Approach - ramps/dunnage.

162
Q

Mission preparation (Required Gear from supply)?

A

Weapon Cases, Locks, Office Supplies, Pelican Cases Seals, Batteries, Binos, Logbook, Range Finders.

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