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A&P > exam 1 > Flashcards

exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four types of cells and what do they do

A

epithelial- covers and lines
connective- provides support
muscle- enables movement
nervous- controls work

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2
Q

what do epithelial cells cover

A

the body, organ surfaces, cavities, and tubes

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3
Q

epithelial cells are found ________ and _________ around the body

A

internal, external

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4
Q

what are the epithelial cells main functions

A

protect, secrete and absorb

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5
Q

what is endothelium

A

epithelial cells that line the heart and blood vessels

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6
Q

define avascular

A

without blood cells

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7
Q

define innervated

A

with nerves

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8
Q

true or false: epithelial cells are avascular and innervated

A

true

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9
Q

epithelial cells vary in _______ and ________

A

shape, layer

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10
Q

define simple

A

one layer

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11
Q

define stratified

A

more than one layer

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12
Q

what does stratified cells do

A

provide protection

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13
Q

define squamous

A

flattened

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14
Q

define cuboidal

A

square/cube

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15
Q

define columnar

A

rectangular

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16
Q

describe simple squamous epithelium

A

one thin layer
flat and smooth

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17
Q

what does simple squamous epithelium do

A

lines surfaces involved in passages of gas or liquid

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18
Q

describe simple cuboidal epithelium

A

one cube-shaped layer
nuclei arrange in a single row
in areas where secretion and absorption occur

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19
Q

describe simple columnar epithelium

A

elongated and closely packed
nuclei align in a row at the base of the cell
associated with absorption and secretion

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20
Q

describe stratified squamous epithelium

A

multilayered to protect
occurs in areas subject to mechanical and chemical stresses (mouth and skin)
the outer layer is worn off
replaced at equal rates

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21
Q

describe stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

two layers to protect underlying tissue
found in excretory ducts (sweat, mammary, saliva)

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22
Q

describe stratified columnar epithelium

A

rare type
in the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive system
along excretory ducts
functions in secretion and production

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23
Q

describe pseudo-stratified columnar epithelial

A

nuclei are at varying levels
each cell is attached to the basement membrane
found in cilia in the trachea and uterine horn
propels material (such as sperm)

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24
Q

describe transitional epithelium

A

the basal layer of cuboidal or columnar cells
the superficial layer of squamous cells
leek proof membrane
in regions required to expand and contract
in uterus, urethra, bladder

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25
Q

describe the basement membrane/basal layer

A

foundation for epithelial tissue
network of fibers
cements cells to tissue
prevents cells from being torn off
partial barrier

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26
Q

describe glands

A

modified epithelial tissues
secretes a product
unicellular or multicellular

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27
Q

describe exocrine glands

A

process ducts
discharge secretion
unicellular or multicellular
ie: sweat, saliva, liver, pancreas

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28
Q

describe endocrine glands

A

no ducts
produces and secretes hormones into bloodstream
ie: pituitary and adrenal glands

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29
Q

describe connective tissue

A

supports and holds all organs
transport system
embedded in an extracellular matrix
most abundance tissue by weight
vascularized
creates obstacles for invading microorganisms

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30
Q

what are types of connective tissue

A

blood, hemopoietic tissue, areolar/loose connective tissue, adipose tissue, fibrous/dense connective tissue, cartilage, bone.

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31
Q

what does hemopoietic tissue do

A

produce blood cells

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32
Q

what are fibrous/dense connective tissue

A

tendons and ligaments

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33
Q

connective tissue is ___________, meaning it has no structure

A

amorphous

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34
Q

describe collagenous fibers

A

strong, thick strands of protein
bundled
surrounds organs
tendons and ligaments

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35
Q

describe reticular fibers

A

thin, delicate, branched networks of collagen
shape and support for organs
endocrine glands, lymph nodes, spleen, bone marrow, liver.

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36
Q

describe elastic fiber

A

stretchy
composed of elastin
complex networks
aka microfibrils
occurs in tissue subject to stretching
vocal cords, lungs, skin, walls of blood vessels

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37
Q

describe blood

A

atypical connective tissue
carries nutrients, oxygen, and waste products

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38
Q

describe the matrix

A

plasma makes up ground substance
protein makes up fibers components
visible upon clotting

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39
Q

what are the three types of blood cells

A

erythrocytes- rbc
leukocytes- wbc
thrombocytes- platelets

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40
Q

describe hemopoietic tissue

A

where blood cells and platelets are produced
jelly-like connective tissue formed in bone marrow

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41
Q

describe areolar tissue

A

loose connective tissue
abundant
beneath the skin, around blood vessels and nerves
has collagen and elastic fiber
fat and microphage is also present
fibroblast is predominant

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42
Q

describe adipose tissue

A

loose connective tissue
fat
adipocytes are predominant
located through body
vascularized
reserved energy
insulates and protects

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43
Q

define lymphoma

A

benign fatty tumor common in dogs

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44
Q

describe reticular tissue

A

lattice worked, loose connective tissue
thin, loosely arranged reticular fibers and fibroblasts
spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow

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45
Q

define stroma

A

forms frame work for organs

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46
Q

describe dense regular connective tissue

A

tightly packed, parallel collagen fibers
fibroblasts form rows
relatively avascular
slow to heal
tendons and ligaments
sheets of fascia

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47
Q

define fascia

A

thick covering of muscle

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48
Q

describe dense irregular connective tissue

A

thick bundles of collagen
fibers interwoven into single sheets
move in multiple directions to withstand forces
dermis of skin
fibrous covering of organs
kidney testes liver and spleen
tough capsule of joints

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49
Q

describe elastic connective tissues

A

elastic fibers
parallel and interwoven patterns with fibroblasts and collagen
spaces between vertebrae
in body regions that require stretching
ligaments
walls of arteries, stomach, bronchi, bladder, and heart

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50
Q

describe cartilage

A

rigid and flexible
no innervation and its avascular
can handle compressive forces
framework for bone formation

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51
Q

define hyaline

A

articular surfaces between bones

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52
Q

describe elastic cartilage

A

ear, epiglottis

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53
Q

______________ is the strongest type of cartilage

A

fibrocartilage

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54
Q

describe bone

A

hardest, most connective tissue
specialized matrix: organic collagen fibers and inorganic calcium salts
well vascularized
skeletal frame
protects organs
calcium reserve
blood cell production
fat storage

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55
Q

define potential space

A

places where liquid can accumulate

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56
Q

define parietal

A

surface adjacent to the outer body

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57
Q

define visceral

A

surface adjacent to the organ

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58
Q

describe the thoracic cavity

A

made up of heart, lungs, and other associated structures (esophagus and trachea)
boarders ribs, sternum, thoracic vertebrae and diaphragm

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59
Q

define pleura and give examples

A

serous lining
parietal, visceral, and mediastinal

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60
Q

define pleuritis

A

inflammation in the thoracic region

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61
Q

define mediastinum

A

potential space that separates the left and right pleura

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62
Q

describe the abdominal cavity

A

caudal to the thoracic cavity
contains abdominal organs
boarders diaphragm, pelvic inlet, lumbar vertebrae, and abdominal muscles
parietal and visceral peritoneum

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63
Q

define peritonitis

A

inflammation in the abdominal region

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64
Q

describe the pelvic cavity

A

caudal to the abdominal cavity
contains urinary bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs
no distinct barrier between abdominal and pelvic cavity
boarder pelvic inlet, sacrum, pelvis

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65
Q

define anatomy

A

form and structure of the body and its parts

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66
Q

define regional

A

components of a region of the body that are examined (ie: nervous system)

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67
Q

define systemic

A

separate body systems evaluated together (ie: GI tract)

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68
Q

define physiology

A

function of the body and its parts
how things work and what they do

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69
Q

define saggital plane

A

divides body into left and right parts

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70
Q

define medial plane

A

divides body into equal left and right halves

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71
Q

define transverse plane

A

divides body into cranial and caudal parts

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72
Q

define dorsal plane

A

divides body into dorsal and ventral parts

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73
Q

define cranial

A

towards the head

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74
Q

define caudal

A

towards the rear

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75
Q

define rostral

A

towards the tip of the nose, only used when talking about the head

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76
Q

define dorsal

A

on the back

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77
Q

define ventral

A

toward the stomach of the standing animal

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78
Q

define medial

A

towards the central line of the body

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79
Q

define lateral

A

away from the medial plane

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80
Q

define deep

A

toward the center of the body

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81
Q

define superficial

A

towards the surface of the body

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82
Q

define proximal

A

towards the body (extremities)

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83
Q

define distal

A

away from the body (extremities)

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84
Q

define palmar

A

back surface of the front leg distal to the carpus

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85
Q

define plantar

A

back surface of hind leg distal to the carpus

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86
Q

left and right halves are _________ images

A

mirror

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87
Q

give examples of paired structures

A

lungs, kidneys, adrenal glands, hands

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88
Q

what does the dorsal cavity contain

A

brain and spinal cord

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89
Q

what does the cranial thoracic cavity contain

A

soft organs

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90
Q

what is the level of organization

A

cell
tissue
organs
system

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91
Q

what percent of the body weight is made up of blood

A

8-10%

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92
Q

why is knowing what percentage of the weight is blood important?

A

it is used to determine amount of blood to donate

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93
Q

how much blood can be donated without adverse effects

A

10%

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94
Q

what is normal pH of blood

A

7.4

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95
Q

what pH is venous blood and why

A

7.3-7.2, because CO2 is acidic.

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96
Q

what can changes in pH mean?

A

a significant change in hydrogen ion concentration

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97
Q

pH is ___________ regulated

A

precisely

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98
Q

what are the two types of leukocytes

A

granulocytes and agranulocytes

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99
Q

what are granules

A

vacuoles in the cytoplasm that can destroy bacteria

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100
Q

what are the 3 types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils

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101
Q

what are the 2 types of agranulocytes

A

monocytes, lymphocytes

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102
Q

describe neutrophils

A

produced in bone marrow
high in number
first line of defense
nucleus changes shape as cell matures
dead neutrophils make up pus

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103
Q

how long do neutrophils circulate in the blood? in the tissue?

A

6-20 hours
2-3

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104
Q

where are neutrophils found

A

urinary, GI, repro, and respiratory systems.

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105
Q

describe eosinophils

A

produced in bone marrow
low in number
raspberry-like pink granules in cytoplasm
used in O2 transfer

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106
Q

how long do neutrophils circulate in blood? in tissue?

A

6-20 hours
2-3 days

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107
Q

what are these wbc commonly associated with

A

allergic reactions and parasites

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108
Q

describe basophils

A

produced in bone marrow
lowest in number
blackberry-like granules in cytoplasm
least common
minimal phagocytosis activity

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109
Q

define phagocytosis

A

first line of defense

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110
Q

how long do basophils circulate in blood? in tissue?

A

6-20 hours
2-3 days

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111
Q

what are basophils associated with

A

allergic reactions and parasites

112
Q

describe monocytes

A

produced in bone marrow activity
largest wbc with u-shaped nucleus
low nucleus:cytoplasm ratio
strong phagocytosis
aka macrophages

113
Q

how long do monocytes circulate in blood? in tissue?

A

24 hours
several months

114
Q

describe lymphocytes

A

produced in lymphatic tissues
small wbc
high nucleus:cytoplasmic ratio

115
Q

where are lymphocytes found

A

blood, tissue, and lymph structures

116
Q

what are lymphocytes made up of

A

T and B cells

117
Q

how long do T cells live

A

100-200 days

118
Q

how long to B cells live

A

2-4 days

119
Q

what do b and T cells make up

A

memory cells, which can live for years

120
Q

define cytosis or Philia

A

increase

121
Q

define penia

A

decreased

122
Q

what is a manual count

A

100 wbc counted as a percentage and determined by a person

123
Q

what is an absolute count

A

the total number of wbc, determined by taking the total number and multiplying the percentage on the differential

124
Q

___________ is the primary component of rbc

A

hemoglobin

125
Q

how many heme groups are combined with globulin

A

4

126
Q

each group has _ iron molecule

A

1

127
Q

each iron bonds with _ oxygen molecule

A

1

128
Q

ferrous iron (2+) binds with _________

A

oxygen

129
Q

ferric iron (3+) can not bind with __________

A

oxygen

130
Q

define nitrate poisoning

A

methemoglobin can not carry oxygen

131
Q

ruminants readily covert ________ to ___________

A

nitrates; nitrites

132
Q

describe erythropoiesis

A

occurs in bone marrow
as rbc mature the nucleus fades

133
Q

what is the first stage of erythropoiesis

A

rubriblast

134
Q

define a reticulocyte

A

stage before rbc enters circulation, nuclear material is still present

135
Q

what can cause immature rbc to enter the blood stream

A

anemia

136
Q

what controls rbc production?

A

oxygen demand

137
Q

define erythropoietin

A

a hormone with stimulates bone marrow to make rbc

138
Q

define pcv

A

packed cell volume

139
Q

define hb

A

hemoglobin concentration

140
Q

define mcv

A

mean corpuscular volume

141
Q

define mch

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin

142
Q

what does an evaluation in mcv mean

A

larger than normal cells

143
Q

what does a decrease in mcv mean

A

smaller than normal cells

144
Q

define anemia

A

decrease in number of rbc

145
Q

what can cause anemia

A

trauma, parasites, or intestinal loss

146
Q

define polythemia

A

increased number of rbc

147
Q

define relative polythemia

A

increased number of rbc because of dehydration or shock

148
Q

define absolute polythemia

A

increased rbc mass without a decrease in plasma volume

149
Q

what are thrombocytes

A

nucleated cells produced in the bone marrow and cytoplasmic fragments release into circulation

150
Q

what do thrombocytes trigger

A

the coagulation cascade

151
Q

___________ is required for majority of reactions in the coagulation pathway

A

calcium

152
Q

what are vitamin K dependents

A

prothrombin (factor 2), protein C, protein S, and factors 7, 9, and 10.

153
Q

damage to vascular endothelium results in _________ __________

A

platelet adhesion

154
Q

platelets release _________

A

calcium

155
Q

what is calcium mediated by?

A

thromboxane A2

156
Q

what does increased intracellular calcium result in?

A

micro tubular contraction

157
Q

what do granules release?

A

fibrinogen, fibronectin, vwf, factor v,

158
Q

what begins the clotting process

A

platelets

159
Q

what holds the platelets together

A

fibrin strands

160
Q

fibrin creates ________ with eachother

A

polymers

161
Q

fibrin does/does not circulate in blood

A

does not

162
Q

fibrinogen flows in _______

A

blood

163
Q

___________ convert fibrinogen into fibrin

A

proteins

164
Q

what activates thrombin

A

prothrombin

165
Q

define intrinsic

A

beginning of the clotting process

166
Q

what does it mean to catalyze something

A

converting from inactive to active

167
Q

define extrinsic

A

something activated by trauma

168
Q

what does factor 13 do?

A

helps thrombin created a net

169
Q

how much of the animals body consists of water?

A

60-70%

170
Q

how much water is intracellular? extracellular?

A

2/3; 1/3

171
Q

define intravascular

A

within a vessel (cell)

172
Q

define interstitial

A

around the cells

173
Q

what are the extracellular fluid components (3)

A

plasma, transcellular fluid, and interstitial fluid

174
Q

describe plasma

A

5% of body weight; where the blood cells are transported

175
Q

describe transcellular fluid

A

1% of body weight; cerebral spinal fluid, digestive juice, lymphatic fluid

176
Q

describe interstitial fluid

A

15% of body weight; outside the blood vessels and surrounding the cells

177
Q

interstitial fluid is formed by _____________

A

ultrafiltration

178
Q

define ultrafiltration

A

pressure in blood vessels separate large molecules and force them through capillaries

179
Q

what is interstitial fluid similar to?

A

plasma, just without the rbc and protein

180
Q

what does ultrafiltration do?

A

supplies cells with oxygen and nutrients

181
Q

define edema

A

abnormal excess accumulation of fluids in tissue

182
Q

what is a common sight of edema

A

liquid moves from a vascular space to an interstitial space

183
Q

what is pulmonary edema

A

excess fluid in the lungs

184
Q

what is cutaneous edema

A

fluid buildup in the body (aka pitting)

185
Q

define diffusion

A

movement of molecules from high to low concentration

186
Q

how long does diffusion occur?

A

until equilibrium is reached

187
Q

what factors determine which molecules can pass through the cell membrane in diffusion

A

molecular size, lipid solubility, and molecular charge

188
Q

explain molecular size

A

water can pass easily because it is small, glucose can not because it is too large

189
Q

explain lipid solubility

A

steroids can easily pass because they are lipid soluble

190
Q

explain molecular charge

A

charged ions require pores/channels to pass through the membrane

191
Q

define osmosis

A

passive movement of water through a semipermeable membrane from dilute solution to a more concentrated one

192
Q

define osmotic pressure

A

force of water moving from one side to the other

193
Q

osmosis is the ___________ of diffusion

A

opposite

194
Q

what is the objective of osmosis

A

movement of water to achieve equal concentration

195
Q

define hypotonic

A

too much fluid in a cell; low concentration

196
Q

define isotonic

A

equilibrium/same concentration

197
Q

define hypertonic

A

not enough fluid in the cell; high concentration

198
Q

_________ and _________ constantly shift and change to make and maintain equilibrium

A

water; volume

199
Q

define isotonic fluid therapy

A

osmolarity is comparable to that of normal blood

200
Q

extracellular has _______ ____________ of dissolved substances as intracellular fluid

A

same concentration

201
Q

what is used in isotonic therapy

A

0.9% NaCl (normal saline)

202
Q

define hypotonic solutions

A

osmolality is less than that of blood

203
Q

in hypotonic solutions the cytoplasm of the cell is ______ ___________ than the extracellular fluid

A

more concentrated

204
Q

what is used in hypotonic therapy

A

0.45% NaCl

205
Q

what happens to hypotonic cells

A

they can swell and possibly burst

206
Q

define hypertonic fluid

A

osmolality is greater than that of blood

207
Q

extracellular fluid is _____ ________ the the cytoplasm

A

more concentrated

208
Q

what happens to hypertonic cells

A

they shrink and shrivel

209
Q

what may be wrong with an animal who’s hypertonic

A

they are in shock (not enough fluid in the body)

210
Q

what is the hypertonic solution

A

7% NaCl

211
Q

what makes up the total body water loss

A

20 ml/kg in urine
10-20 ml/kg in feces
20 ml/kg in expired air
totaling in 50-60 ml/kg lost per day

212
Q

what is the maintenance fluid rate

A

50-60 ml/kg of water per day

213
Q

how much water would a 20 kg dog need in one day

A

20kg x 50-60ml/kg/day= 1000-2000 ml/day

214
Q

true or false: more active animals will need more than 50-60ml/kg/day

A

true

215
Q

water is ________, meaning…

A

dynamic; it is constantly shifting location and being lost and replaced

216
Q

how can water be lost

A

respiratory, urine, feces, panting, and tears

217
Q

how can water be replaced

A

drinking and water in food

218
Q

fluid losses could be greater in what kind of animals?

A

sick or injured animals

219
Q

what could cause sick or injured animals to lose fluid

A

vomiting, diarrhea, blood loss

220
Q

what can lost fluid result in

A

dehydration, shock

221
Q

animals _____ ____ water replaced

A

must have

222
Q

what is an example of simple squamous cells

A

mesothelium and endothelium

223
Q

what is an example of simple columnar epithelium

A

SI tract and goblet cells

224
Q

what is an example of stratified squamous epithelium

A

mouth and skin

225
Q

what is an example of stratified cuboidal

A

excretory duct (sweat, saliva, and mammary)

226
Q

what is an example of stratified columnar

A

respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems

227
Q

what is an example of pseudo stratified columnar

A

trachea and uterine horn

228
Q

what is an example of transitional epithelium

A

urethra and bladder

229
Q

what happens in the exocrine gland

A

discharge secretion directly

230
Q

what happens in the endocrine gland

A

secrete hormones into bloodstream

231
Q

where is the mucus membrane

A

digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts

232
Q

what is the serous membrane

A

peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities

233
Q

what is cutaneous membrane

A

skin and body surface

234
Q

what does the visceral pleura envelop?

A

lungs

235
Q

what does the parietal pleura envelope?

A

mediastinal, costal, and diaphragmatic cavities

236
Q

what is the mediastinal space

A

space between the lungs

237
Q

what makes up the abdominal cavity

A

kidneys, digestive organs, and reproductive organs

238
Q

what makes up the pelvic cavity

A

rectum and urogenital system

239
Q

what is peritoneum

A

the lining of the abdominal cavity

240
Q

what gives plasma its color

A

bilirubin

241
Q

where are granulocytes and monocytes created

A

bone marrow

242
Q

where are lymphocytes created

A

lymphoid stem cells

243
Q

define segmented cells

A

nuclei divides into lobes/segments

244
Q

define band cells

A

nuclei are curved but not segmented

245
Q

which WBC becomes more numerous in certain types of parasitisms

A

eosinophils

246
Q

define leukopenia

A

decrease in leukocytes associated with early stages of viral infection

247
Q

define leukocytosis

A

increased leukocytes due to bacterial infection

248
Q

define leukocytosis

A

increased leukocytes due to bacterial infection

249
Q

define leukemia

A

cancer of WBC due to leukocytosis

250
Q

define monoxyhemoglobin

A

CO occupies the site normally occupied by O

251
Q

define myoglobin

A

one peptide chain and one heme group, thus binding with one O not 4.

252
Q

what is the principle chemical component of the clotting factor

A

factor 3

253
Q

what vitamin is required for the synthesis of several coagulation factors

A

vitamin K

254
Q

what element is required for hemostatic reactions

A

Ca2+

255
Q

what is the first response of platelets to disrupted endothelium

A

attachment to the surfaces

256
Q

what are the substances in the basement membrane

A

IV collagen laminin and proteoglycans

257
Q

what release calcium

A

intracellular platelets

258
Q

what substance, besides collagen, is needed for platelets to adhere

A

fibronectin

259
Q

what is the principal messenger that formed after platelet stimulation

A

thromboxane A2

260
Q

what are the four key reactions involved in the formation of a clot

A

activation of factor X
activation of factor IX
formation of thrombin
fibrin formation

261
Q

what does factor XIII do

A

forms a mesh net around trauma

262
Q

what does factor X do?

A

allows fibrin to form from fibrinogen

263
Q

what is the concentration of protein in plasma

A

6-8 g/dL

264
Q

what are the three major classes of plasma proteins

A

albumin, globulins and fibrinogens

265
Q

define facilitated diffusion

A

carrier is required for some substances (ie: protein membrane)

266
Q

define simple diffusion

A

random molecule movement

267
Q

define active transfusion

A

carrier proteins for transporting substances in direction opposite to their natural diffusion pathway

268
Q

define selective permeability

A

allows in water and certain solutes

269
Q

define hemoglobinemia

A

causes the plasma to become red due to hemolysis

270
Q

define hemoglobinuria

A

hemoglobin enters kidney tubules and appears in urine

271
Q

define fluid

A

water and solutes found in the bod y

272
Q

what is the immediate water loss from the body in dehydration

A

ECF (extracellular fluid)

273
Q

what water loss is considered severe

A

10%

274
Q

define thirst

A

conscious desire for water

275
Q

where is the thirst center located

A

in the hypothalamus

276
Q

what stimulates thirst because of lost blood volume

A

hypovolemia

A&P (4 decks)

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