Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Arboviruses

A

Bunyaviruses
Flaviviruses
Togaviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Enteric Viruses

A

Caliciviruses
Rotaviruses
Adenoviruses
Picornaviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hepatitis Viruses

A

Hepatitis A-G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sexually Transmitted Viruses

A

Herpes Virus
Papillomavirus
Retrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Respiratory Viruses

A
Coronavirus
Rhinovirus
Orthomyxovirus
Paramyxovirus
Some Adenoviruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DNA Viruses

A
Hepatitis B
Herpes
Poxvirus
Papovavirus
Parvovirus
Adenovirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

RNA Viruses

A
Paramyxovirus
Arenavirus
Orthomyxovirus
Picornavirus
Calicivirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enveloped DNA viruses

A

Hepatitis B
Herpes
Poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Enveloped RNA viruses

A

Paramyxovirus
Arenavirus
Orthomyxovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Naked DNA viruses

A

Papovavirus
Parvovirus
Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Naked RNA viruses

A

Picornavirus

Calicivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Poxviridae

A
DNA
smallpox
vaccinia virus
linear dsDNA
replication in cytoplasm
envelope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

herpesviridae

A
DNA
HSV1
HSV2
VZV
EBV
CMV
Herpes 6, 7, 8
linear dsDNA
envelope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

adenoviridae

A

DNA
adenovirus
linear dsDNA
naked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hepadenaviridae

A

DNA
hepatitis B (HBV)
circular dsDNA
envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

papovaviridae

A
DNA
SV40
JC
BK
papilloma virus
circular dsDNA
naked
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

parvoviridae

A

DNA
Parvovirus B19
ssDNA
naked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

paramyxoviridae

A
RNA
parainfluenza
measles
mumps
RSV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

orthomyxoviridae

A

RNA

Influenza Viruses A, B, C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

arenaviridae

A

RNA
lassa fever
lymphocytic choriomeningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rhabdoviridae

A

RNA
Rabies
vesicular stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Filoviridae

A

RNA
ebola
marburg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bunyaviridae

A

RNA
california encephalitis
hanta
hemorrhagic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

retroviridae

A

RNA
HIV
human T cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

reoviridae

A

RNA
rotavirus
colorado tick fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

picornaviridae

A
RNA
rhinovirus
poliovirus
echovirus
coxsackie
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

togaviridae

A

RNA
rubella
equine encephalitis (east, west, venezuelan)
ross river virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

flaviviridae

A

RNA
yellow fever
dengue
st. luis encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

caliciviridae

A

RNA

norwalk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

virus sense

A

+ means mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

lateral bodies contain:

A

enzymes needed for replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

isocapsidic

A

all fragments for the genome are in the same virion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

heterocapsidic

A

each fragment of the genome is in a different virion (successful infection requires at least 1 RNA of each type in the host cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

replication cycle of a virus

A
attachment
entry (penetration)
uncoating
macromolecular synthesis (genome rep and protein synth)
assembly
budding
release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

recognition and attachment are targeted and blocked by:

A

antibody receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

viral replication drug targeting uncoating

A

amantadine
arildone
rimantadine
tromantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

viral replication drug targeting transcription

A

interferon

antisense oligos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

viral replication drug targeting replication

A

nucleoside analogs

phosphonoformate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

viral replication drug targeting assembly

A

protease inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

basic steps in viral disease

A

acquisition
initiation of infection
incubation
prodrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

abortive infection

A

viral infection of a cell where viral components may be synthesized without the production of infective viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

oncogenic viruses

A

EBV
Hepatitis B & C virus
human papilloma virus
human T cell leukemia virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

EBV associated diseases

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma
burkitt lymphoma
thymic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

primary hepatocellular carcinoma

A

hepatitis B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

cervical cancer

A

human papilloma virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DNA viruses have ________ symmetry except for ______ virus

A

icosahedral

Pox (complex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

DNA viruses all have DOUBLE stranded DNA except for ________

A

parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

DNA viruses replicate in the ________ except for ______

A

nucleus

poxvirus (cytoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

DNA virus life cycle

A
attachment and penetration by fusion
latent phase
active replication
late protein synthesis
assembly and release by exocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

slapped cheek fever
virus infects immature RBCs (aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients)
facial rash
lacy body rash

A

parvoviridae

51
Q

6 pediatric diseases

A
1-measles virus (measles)
2-strep pyogenes (scarlet fever)
3-rubella virus (rubella/german measles)
4-staph aureas (scalded skin syndrome)
5-parvovirus B19 (erythema infectiosum)
6-HHV6-B/HHV7 (roseola infantum)
52
Q

plantar warts
genital warts
condyloma acuminatum (behind the ear)
cervical cancer

A

papovaviridae

human papilloma virus

53
Q

virus leading to infection of the epithelial cells lining the oropharynx, respiratory, or GI tract
diarrhea
acute hemorrhagic cystitis
conjunctivitis
fecal oral route transmission, fomites, person to person (crowds, classrooms, military barracks)

A

adenoviridae

54
Q

oral and/or genital herpes

A

HSV-1 (HHV-1) (orofacial)

HSV-2 (HHV-2) (genital)

55
Q

vericella zoster virus (VZV)

A

chickenpox and shingles

HHV-3

56
Q

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

A

mononucleosis
burkitt’s lymphoma
HHV-4

57
Q

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

mononucleosis like syndrome
retinitis
HHV-5

58
Q

roseolovirus

A

roseola infantum

HHV-6,7

59
Q

KSHV

A

HHV-8

60
Q

HHV-1, 2

A

transmission via saliva, vaginal secretions, and cold sore
can cause oral and genital lesions
painful lesions
HHV-2 is the STD

61
Q

HSV-1 resides in the _____

A

trigeminal ganglion

when dormant virus reactivates, attacks the oral/facial region

62
Q

HSV-2 resides in the ____

A

sacral ganglia

when dormant virus reactivates, attacks the gential area/buttock

63
Q

treatment for HHV-1 & HHV-2

A

Viral DNA polymerase inhibitors
acyclovir (ACV)
viral thymidine kinase phosphorylates ACV –> synthesis inhibited

64
Q

drugs used to treat herpes keratitis and the complicated form dendritic corneal ulcer

A

trifluridine

65
Q

maternal transmission of HSV-2 occurs _______ and results in ____

A

mostly during delivery and some in uterus

HSV-2 neonatal infection

66
Q

vesiculopustular rash
latent in dorsal root ganglia
virus replicates in respiratory tract and spreads to blood
after secondary viremia, virus spreads to skin
spreads via contact with skin vesicles and respiratory aerosols
contagious before symptoms appear

A

Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) (HHV-3)

67
Q

maculopapular rash, turns vesicular within hours
more severe in adults with interstitial pneumonia
necrotizing fasciitis
chickenpox/shingles

A

VZV

68
Q

VZV treatment

A
VZV vaccine (live attenuated)
immunization with VZV-Ig (passive immunization) for immunosuppressed individuals
69
Q

overactive immune response to EBV

A

mononucleosis

70
Q

weak immune response to EBV

A

Burkitt lymphoma

71
Q

infects B cells and apithelial cells of the oropharynx and leads to viral shedding in saliva which is contagious
kissing transmission

A

EBV

72
Q

persistent, latent infections
replicate in duct epithelial cells
infect mononuclear cells, kidney, and heart

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV) (HHV-5)

73
Q

CMV disease transmission

A

in utero (possible cutomegalic inclusion disease, CNS damage)
birth, milk (nursing babies)
sexually and blood transfusions
transplant patients (interstitial pneumonitis)
AIDS patient (CMV retinitis, pneumonitis)

74
Q

most common opportunistic infection in HIV (usually seen when CD4T retinopathy
retinal detachment

A

CMV retinitis

75
Q

CMV treatment

A

foscarnet (foscavir)

mimics pyrophosphate which selectively inhibits the pyrophosphate binding site on viral DNA polymerases

76
Q

viruses have been isolated from lymphocytes
genus of the family herpesviridae
rash
HHV6 (7)

A

roseolovirus

77
Q

hepatitis B virus that uses reverse transcriptase and RNA intermediate during replication
copies of the HBV virus are integrated into hepatocytes (latency)

A

hepadnaviridae

78
Q

HBV spread by:

A
sexual contact
blood transfusion and exchange (sharing needles)
perinatal transmission (vertical)
79
Q

HBV clinical syndromes

A
  • acute infection (jaundice stage with bilirubin) and possible cirrhosis
  • chronic infection (cirrhosis and liver failure)
  • primary hepatocellular carcinoma
80
Q

HBV treatment

A

drugs targeting reverse transcriptase

-lamivudine and anti-herpes drug famciclovir

81
Q

largest and most complex virus with lateral bodies

contains nucleocapsid and replicates in the cytoplasm

A

poxvirus

82
Q

pox molluscum contagiosum

A

infectious warty papule of the skin with central umbilication
transferred by direct contact
sometimes venereal disease

83
Q

pox ORF

A

disease associated with sheep and goats with scabby mouth

manifests as single painless papulovesicular lesion on the hand, forearm, or face in humans

84
Q

virus with helical structure

A

orthomyxovirus (influenza)

85
Q

positive sense RNA viruses

A
  • calici (Naked, Icosahedral, cyt)
  • picorna (N, I, C)
  • corona (E, H, C)
  • flavi (E, S, C)
  • toga (E, pleomorphic, C)
  • retro (E, P, N)
86
Q

+ stranded RNA initial event and infectivity

A
  • translation
  • infective
  • no RNA dependent polymerase
87
Q

negative stranded or double stranded RNA initial event and infectivity

A
  • transcription
  • not infective
  • has RNA dependent polymerase
88
Q

transmission of caliciviridae

A

fecal-oral route

-norwalk virus

89
Q

ss+RNA
transmission by respiratory droplets
SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)
irregular shape

A

coronaviridae

90
Q
\+ RNA
enveloped
icosahedral
mosquito as vector
dengue, SLE, west nile, yellow fever
A

flaviviridae

91
Q

5 diseases associated with flaviviruses and vectors

A
Dengue
yellow fever
St. Louis encephalitis
japanese encephalitis
west nile virus
vector for all is mosquitos
92
Q

which virus initiates productive infection of teh salivary gland in arthropods

A

flavivirus

93
Q

day feeder mosquito

A

Aedes mosquito (A. aegypti)

94
Q

bright red petechiae rash
appears in lower limbs and chest
muscle and joint pain
possible gastritis with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea

A

Dengue fever

95
Q

break bone fever
can be misdiagnosed as influenza
transmitted via mosquitoes and blood products

A

dengue fever

96
Q

vector: culex mosquito
fever and headache
stiff neck, convulsions, spastic paralysis

A

St. Louis encaphalitis

97
Q

thrombocytopenia
hemorrhagic phenomena
high mortality rate
fever lasts 6-7 days

A

dengue fever

98
Q

aseptic meningitis
severe overwhelming encephalitis with permanent neurologic damage
dead end host (cant be transmissible)

A

st. louis encephalitis

99
Q

liver involvement causes jaundice

massive gastrointestinal hemorrhages (black vomit)

A

yellow fever

100
Q

rash on the trunk
swollen lymph nodes
stupor, neck stiffness

A

west nile virus

101
Q
liver cancer
cirrhosis
transmitted by blood-blood contact and sexual contact
\+ stranded RNA, enveloped
contact sports (slam dancing)
A

Hepatitis C virus

102
Q
enterovirus (stable in stomach acid)
polio virus
rhinovirus
hepatovirus
\+ ssRNA, naked, icosahedral capsid
double stranded RNA intermediate
A

picornaviridae

103
Q

polio

A

must cross blood brain barrier

may access brain by nerves innervating skeletal muscles

104
Q

90% have no symptoms at all

<1% enters the CNS and destroys motor neurons leading to muscle weakness and flaccid paralysis

A

poliomyelitis

105
Q

most common form of paralysis characterized by asymmetric paralysis involving the legs

A

spinal polio

106
Q

type of paralysis leads to weakness of muscles innervated by the cranial nerves

A

bulbar polio

107
Q

combinatino of bulbar and spinal paralysis

A

bulbospinal polio

108
Q

vaccines for polio

A

sabin: live attenuated, oral, best, GI immunity
salk: injectable killed

109
Q

hand, foot, and mouth disease

fever, blisters on hands, palate, and feet

A

coxsackie type A16

110
Q

herpangina (vesicles on soft palate and fauces)

A

coxsackie virus A

111
Q

myocarditis bornholm disease
-pleurodynia, the Devil’s grip
URT infection with fever, sharp pains in intercostal muscles on one side of the chest

A

coxsackie virus B

112
Q

consumption of raw or undercooked shellfish

virus enters the bloodstream via the lining of the intestinal tract then migrates to the liver parenchymal cells

A

hepatitis A virus

113
Q

with hepatitis A, liver parenchymal cells have the Ig like ___ cellular receptor on their surfaces
virus replicates _____
shed into the bile and passed in the stool

A

HAV

slowly

114
Q

hand, foot, and mouth disease

fever, blisters on hands, palate, and feet

A

coxsackie type A16

115
Q
URT infection
cause of the common cold
infection through aerosols
replicates at lower temperatures
-virus binds to ICAM receptors
Zn2+ can be used to suppress inflammation
A

rhinovirus

116
Q

myocarditis bornholm disease
-pleurodynia, the Devil’s grip
URT infection with fever, sharp pains in intercostal muscles on one side of the chest

A

coxsackie virus B

117
Q

consumption of raw or undercooked shellfish

virus enters the bloodstream via the lining of the intestinal tract then migrates to the liver parenchymal cells

A

hepatitis A virus

118
Q

with hepatitis A, liver parenchymal cells have the Ig like ___ cellular receptor on their surfaces
virus replicates _____
shed into the bile and passed in the stool

A

HAV

slowly

119
Q

no chronic infections, most obvious symptom is jaundice

-hyperimmune serum for post exposure prophlaxis (passive immunity)

A

hepatitis A virus

120
Q
URT infection
cause of the common cold
infection through aerosols
replicates at lower temperatures
-virus binds to ICAM receptors
Zn2+ can be used to suppress inflammation
A

rhinovirus

121
Q

picornaviridae treatment and prevention

A
  • pleconaril
  • methylisoxazole compounds
  • vaccines (sabin-live attenuated and salk-inactivated)
122
Q

binds to a hydrophobic pocket in VP1 of picornaviruses

  • in enteroviruses this prevents the virus from exposing its RNA
  • in rhinoviruses it prevents the virus attachment to host cell
A

pleconaril

123
Q

stabilizes picornaviruses

  • coated virus remains in cytoplasm
  • inserts in capsid VP1 and covers ion channel
A

methylisoxazole compounds