Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

A patient is sedated to relieve anxiety and pain. The patient is easily wakened by normal soft spoken verbal commands and is oriented and awake. The patient is able to respond normally to verbal commands, there is no change in vital signs. Pt is able to maintain pre-procedure mobility.
What level of sedation is the patient experiencing:

A

Minimal sedation.

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2
Q

What is the role of the RN during moderate sedation?

A

Relieve pain and anxiety, promote relaxation.
Monitor skin perfusion and skin turgor
Focus on this patient only, delegate other patients as appropriate.
Maintain venous access, monitor VS/LOC, cardiac rate/rhythm, have oxygen available, keep code cart at side
Administer medications and know potential complications.

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3
Q

Would it be appropriate for the RN to assist the physician with the procedure?

A

NO, RN is solely responsible with monitoring the well-being of the patient.

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4
Q

Would it be appropriate for the RN to get supplies during the procedure?

A

NO, the RN should stay with the patient and request someone else to gather supplies.

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5
Q

What qualifications should the RN have?

A

KNOW basic life support/ACLS/PALS
Have knowledge of A&P, IV therapy
KNOW reversal agents
KNOW sedation scoring card, cardiac measures and ventilation.

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6
Q

Should the RN document during the procedure?

A

YES- cover your ASSets

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7
Q

What are the advantages to using Propofol for moderate sedation?

A

Propofol is ultra-short acting hypnotic, sedative effect with no analgesic properties. Propofol has a rapid onset that enhances the GABA effects, post-op use and rapid distribution.

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8
Q

What are some of the disadvantages of using Propofol?

A

Long-term use of Propofol causes an increase in lipid levels, and decreases the patient’s BP.
Propofol also encourages bacterial growth–which is a potential source of infection.
Plasma levels decrease quickly when discontinued.

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9
Q

What are the effects of Ketamine on the nervous system?

A

The patient will turn BRIGHT RED
Will see disassociative anesthesia, analgesia, and hallucinations.
Stimulates the myocardium and Central Nervous System- increased BP, increased cardiac output, and tachycardia.

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10
Q

What are the most common complications of conscious sedation and what are appropriate interventions?

A

Complications- hypotension, neuroleptic toxicity, extra pyramidal S/Sx, buccolingual dysphasia, Parkinsonism, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, seizures, hypothermia, cardiac complications and respiratory depression.

Interventions- Apply oxygen, reposition to near flat position to promote tissue perfusion, PROTECT AIRWAY, and administer either Narcan or flumazonil.

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11
Q

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexiril) is prescribed for a client with muscle spasms of the lower back. Appropriate nursing interventions would include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A. Assess the heart rate for tachycardia
B. Assess the home environment for client safety concerns
C. Encourage frequent ambulatory
D. Provide oral auctioning for excess secretions
E. Provide assistance with ADLs such as reading

A

A. Assess the heart rate for tachycardia
B. Assess the home environment for client safety concerns
E. Provide assistance with ADLs such as reading

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12
Q

A client has been prescribed clonazepam (Klonopin) for muscle spasms and stiffness secondary to an automobile accident. While the client is taking the drug, what is the nurse’s primary concern?
A. Monitor hepatic lab work
B. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
C. Assess for drowsiness and implement safety measures
D. Provide social services referral for the client concerns about the cost of our the drug

A

C. Assess for drowsiness and implement safety measures

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13
Q

A female client is prescribed dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) for painful muscle spasms associated with MS. The nurse is writing discharge plans for the client and will include which of the following teaching points? Select all that apply:
A. If muscle spasms are severe, supplement the medication with hot baths or shower 3 times per day.
B. Inform the healthcare provider if she is taking any estrogen products
C. Sip water, ice, or hard candy to relieve dry mouth
D. Return periodically for lab work
E. Obtain at least 20 min. Of exposure per day to boost Vitamin D levels

A

B. Inform the healthcare provider if taking any estrogen products
C. Sip water, ice, or hard candy to relieve dry mouth
D. Return periodically for lab work

*** do NOT use if liver disease, notify of estrogen or cardiac med use, wear sunscreen, caution dizziness

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14
Q

A client who has been prescribed baclofen (Liorseal) returns to the health care provider after a week of drug therapy, complaining of continued muscle spasms of the lower back. What further assessment data will the nurse gather?
A. Whether the client has been taking the medication consistently or only when the pain is severe
B. Whether the client has increased consuming alcohol
C. Whether the client has increased the dosage without consulting the PCP
D. Whether the client’s log of symptoms indicates that the client is telling the truth

A

A. Whether the client has been taking the medication constantly or only when the pain is severe.

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15
Q

A 46 year old male quadriplegic patient has been experiencing severe spasticity in the lower extremities, making it difficult for him to maintain his position in his electric WC. Prior to the episode of spasticity, the patient was able to maintain a sitting posture. The risks and benefits of therapy with dantrolene (Dantrium) have been explained to him, and he has decided that the benefits outweigh the risks. What assessment should the nurse make to determine whether the treatment is beneficial?

A

Assess for liver damage, notifying if taking HEART mess, would see decreased spasticity, increased posture, use sunscreen when outdoors.
***Assess muscle firmness, pain, and alignment. Should see improvement in 1 week, if not seen in 45 days discontinue med.

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16
Q

A 32 year old farmer injured his lower back while unloading a truck at a farm coop. His healthcare provider started him on cyclobenzaprine (Flexiril) 10 mg TID for 7 days and referred him to an outpatient PT. after 4 days the patient reports back to the office nurse that he is constipated and having trouble emptying his bladder. Discuss the cause of these side effects.

A

Flexiril causes decreased muscle function- as cyclobenzaprines work on smooth muscles.
Anticholenergic properties slow bowel and bladder functions.

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17
Q

What assessment needs to be done for patient with an epidural who is difficult to arouse, but responds to simple commands, able to move her legs, and squeeze your fingers. Her vital signs have shifted from baseline, her BP is now 90/60, P 100, and RR 14. She is now moaning in pain and is unable to rate her pain. What further assessment needs made?

A

Check dressing site, assess skin for signs of bleeding, assess drugs given for over sedation, conduct EKG.

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18
Q

A patient with an epidural who is difficult to arouse, but responds to simple commands, able to move her legs, and squeeze your fingers. Her vital signs have shifted from baseline, her BP is now 90/60, P 100, and RR 14. She is now moaning in pain and is unable to rate her pain. What further actions should the nurse initiate?

A

Stop the epidural
Place the patient in FOWLERS position to increase tissue perfussion.
Have epidural placement assessed.
Place on cardiac monitor and oxygen; assess spinal Headache/labs/breath sounds/urine/DVT.
Assess neuros and mess given.

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19
Q

What are nursing diagnoses for a patient with epidural complications/ altered LOC/ and uncontrolled pain?

A
Altered tissue perfusion
Ineffective airway
Fluid volume deficit 
Acute pain
Risk for confusion
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20
Q

What are nursing interventions for a patient with epidural complications/altered LOC/ and uncontrolled pain?

A
Assess VS q15mins for 2 hours. 
Activate RRT. 
Apply SCDs/TED hose
Monitor AIRWAY, administer oxygen as needed
Administer prescribed pain medications 
reposition patient to Fowler's position
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21
Q

What are safety concerns that need addressed for a patient with epidural complications/ altered LOC and uncontrolled pain?

A

Fall Risk
Over sedation- Monitor airway- hypoxia from sedation
Pain
Cardiac monitoring
Monitor Hemorrhage
Monitor Respiratory depression- prevent PNA

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22
Q

What patient teaching should occur for a patient with epidural complications/ altered LOC/ and uncontrolled pain?

A
Change position slowly
TCDB and A, use IS q hour
Monitor for bleeding
Education on pain medications (S/Sx, adverse effects, sedation)
S/Sx of infection
Verbalized feelings
Pain management- pain scale
No lifting
Complications of epidurals.
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23
Q

Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate for a client taking temazepam (restoril)?
A. Monitor for fever
B. Give drug intravenously only
C. Monitor daily weights
D. Tell the client to ask for help before standing

A

D. Tell the client to ask for help standing

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24
Q

Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that a client taking a sedative-hypnotic requires more teaching?
A. The client wants to listen to music on the radio
B. The client has saved her urine to be measured
C. The client says she has taken 1800mL of fluid today
D. The client requests a cup of kava kava tea to help her sleep faster.

A

D. The client requests kava-kava tea to help her sleep faster- kava-kava is an herb that may interact with CNS depressants.

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25
Q

Riker’s Score for sedation: score 7

A

Dangerous agitation- pulling tubes/catheters, climbing over bed rails, violence toward staff, trashing

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26
Q

Riker’s Score for sedation: score 6

A

Very agitated- doesn’t calm with frequent verbal cues, requires physical restraints, bites endotracheal tube

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27
Q

Riker’s Score for sedation: score 5

A

agitated- anxiety or mild-agitation, attempts to sit up, calms with verbal cues

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28
Q

Riker’s Score for sedation: score 4

A

Calm and co-operative: calm, awakes easily, follows commands

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29
Q

Riker’s Score for sedation: score 3

A

Sedated- weakens briefly to verbalized stimuli or gentle arousal, follows simple commands

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30
Q

Riker’s Score for sedation: score 2

A

Very sedated- arouses to physical stimuli, does not communicate or follows commands, moves spontaneously

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31
Q

Riker’s Score for sedation: score 1

A

Unarousable- no response to any stimuli

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32
Q

Nursing process: Assessment

A

Subjective or objective data
Gather information on current health Hx & mess, allergies, tobacco/nicotine/street drug use, readiness to learn, financial resources, limitations, symptoms, past medical Hx, language & communication, etc.

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33
Q

To enhance ADHERENCE: ask…

A

What things help you take you medicine?
What prevents you from taking your medications?
What would you do if you forgot/missed a dose?

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34
Q

Factors of non-adherence:

A
Forgetfulness
Knowledge deficit
Side effects
Low self-esteem
Lack of motivation
Depression/anxiety
Lack of trust
Language barriers 
Cost
Values/religion
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35
Q

Nursing Process: Nursing Diagnosis

A

Pain r/t hesitancy- fear of addiction
Acute Confusion r/t adverse reaction
Ineffective health maintenance- no preventative care
Deficit knowledge r/t effects of anticoagulants
Noncompliance r/t forgetfulness
Risk for Injury r/t side effects
Ineffective self-health management r/t lack of finances/insurance
Readiness for enhanced knowledge r/t meds

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36
Q

Nursing Process: Planning

A

Goal setting, develop nursing interventions

  • patient centered
  • SMART goals
  • acceptable to patient and nurse
  • shared with healthcare providers and family
  • identify evaluation components
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37
Q

Nursing Process: Implementation

A

Complete interventions at this time
Provide education
Administer medications
***monitor drug administration and effectiveness

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38
Q

Nursing Process: Evaluation

A

Where goals obtained- if not revise
Follow-ups
Provide resources

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39
Q

Nursing role in Readiness to learn

A

Be sensitive to motivation to learn and attention span, level of frustration
Be an active listener and observer
Involve the family or caretakers

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40
Q

Patient Education to give:

A
Take meds as prescribed
Monitor values as needed 
Psychomotor skills and abilities 
Give written instructions 
Advise foods to include or avoid 
Instruct to report unusual symptoms 
Give instructions to decrease side effects including changes in urine or stool, dizziness, etc. 
Be aware of cultural considerations
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41
Q

Cultural Sensitivity

A

Flexible in scheduling appointments
Language barriers- use interpreters, speak slow and clear
Provide education at a 4th grade level, avoid abbreviations

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42
Q

5 Rights of Medication Administration:

A
Right Patient 
Right Drug 
Right Dose 
Right Route 
Right Time 
**6th- Right Documentation
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43
Q

Pharmacokinetics-

A

What happens to the drug in the body

44
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

What the drug does to the body

45
Q

Pharmacotherapeutics

A

Use of drug and clinical indications

** monitor effectiveness of drug therapy

46
Q

Bioavailability

A

The amount of drug that enters in circulation and has an ACTIVE effect
Measured in percentage
** IV is 100 percent bioavailability

47
Q

First pass effect

A

The process of the liver metabolizing some of the medication BEFORE absorption occurs

48
Q

Water Soluble drugs

A

Small volume of distribution and high blood concentration

Strongly binds to the protein in the blood

49
Q

Fat Soluble drugs

A

Large volume of distribution and low concentration in the blood

50
Q

Pharmacology

A

The study of the science of a drug

51
Q

4 pharmacokinetic phases of a drug:

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism (bio transformation)
Excretion

52
Q

Half-life

A

The length of time required for the concentration or amount of the drug to be decreased by 1/2
** after 4-5 half life’s– 97% of the drug has been removed

53
Q

Steady State

A

The length of time to make absorption and elimination equal

** takes 4-5 half life’s

54
Q

Therapeutic effects

A

The drug has a positive effect by changing the psychologic system

55
Q

Agonist

A

Binds to a receptor and CAUSES a result

56
Q

Antagonist

A

Binds to a receptor to BLOCK a response

57
Q

Enzymes

A

Substances that cause a biochemical reaction without changing itself

58
Q

Pharmacognosy

A

The study of natural drug sources and determines the exact chemical to produce the desired effect

59
Q

IOM article

A

to Err is Human

60
Q

Healthcare system changes in medication safety

A

Bar code labels
Computerized prescriber orders
Bar code at bedside- nurse can also scan pt wristband and check DOB

61
Q

Ethnopharmacology

A

Study of drug responses unique to an individual’s social, cultural, or biological phenomena

62
Q

National Patient Safety Goals

The Joint Commission

A
At least 2 forms of patient ID 
Give blood to correct patient 
Label all medications
Caution anticoagulants
Correct patient, correct medication 
Hand hygiene 
Infection prevention 
Suicide prevention 
Correct surgery, correct patient, correct place
63
Q

Joint Commission DO NOT USE LIST

A

Do not use: U, IU, QD, QOD, trailing zeros, lack of leading zeros, MS, MgSO4

64
Q

Transcultural Assessment Model: 6 areas

A
Communication 
Space 
Social organization
Time 
Environmental Control 
Biological Variation
65
Q

Pharmacogenomics

A

Different genes determine drug Behavior

66
Q

Cultural Factors: European

A

Direct eye contact, uncomfortable with silence, large personal space/privacy, minimal touching, small nuclear family, individualism, values the future with little focus on the past, preventative illness

Poor metabolism of antidepressants, antipsychotics, cardiovascular meds, isoniazid — have increased risk for toxicity

67
Q

Cultural Factors: African decent

A

Direct eye contact, uncomfortable with silence, small personal space, moderate touching, small nuclear family with non-related persons, values the present but connected with the past, values spirituality, focuses on the future as aging

Diminished effect of beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, warfarin

68
Q

Cultural factors: Latino and Native American decent

A

No direct eye contact with persons of authority, comfortable with silence, small personal space, values touching, large extended family, important to involve family, values the present, connects with the past with traditional healers, focuses of the future with age, spirituality oriented

High incidence of lactose intolerance, low calcium diets, increased vast motor response to alcohol

69
Q

Muscle spasms affect

A

12 million people

70
Q

Dystonia

A

Involuntary muscle contractions that force abnormal, painful movements or posturing

** affects 250,000 – is the 3rd most common disorder

71
Q

Muscle Relaxants are used to

A

Relief spasms and pain

72
Q

Spasticity

A

Increased muscle tones from hyperexcitable neurons caused by neuron stimulation and lack of response of spinal cord or skeletal muscles

73
Q

Non-pharmacological treatment for Spasms

A
Immobilization
Heat/cold
Hydrotherapy 
Ultrasound
Exercise 
Massage
Manipulation
74
Q

Pharmacological treatment for spasms:

A

Anti-inflammatory agents

central acting muscle relaxants

75
Q

Central Acting Muscle Relaxants:

A

Decrease CNS effects, altering spinal reflexes

76
Q

Baclofen (Liorseal):

A

Tx: MS, CP, spinal cord injury
DECREASES GABA
S/Sx: drowsiness, dizziness, weak, fatigue

77
Q

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexiril)

A

Tx: Acute muscle spasms
DECREASES MOTOR ACTIVITY at the brain stem
Short term use (2-3 wks)
S/Sx: drowsiness, blurred vision, dizziness, dry mouth, rash, tachycardia. Tongue swelling

78
Q

Tizanidine (Zanaflex)

A

Inhibits neurons at the spinal cord
CENTRAL ACTING ALPHA2 ADRENERGIC agonists
S/Sx: drowsiness, dry mouth, fatigue, dizziness, sleepy

79
Q

Vigabatrin (Sabril)

A

Used for infantile spasms and complex partial seizures

80
Q

Benzodiazepines:
Diazepam (Valium)
Clonazepam (Klonopin)

A

S/Sx: dizziness, sedation, ataxia, light-headed, respiratory depression

81
Q

Direct acting antispasmotics: Dantrolene (Dantrium)

A

Antispasmotics –blocks Ca+ in the skeletal muscles
Tx: Spinal cord injury, CP, MS, and malignant hyperthermia
S/Sx: muscle weakness, dizziness, diarrhea, dry mouth, tachycardia, erratic BP, urine retention. Hepatic necrosis.

82
Q

Strategies of Improvement Quality:

A

Audits: examining records, environment, accounts, to evaluate performance
Retrospective: performed after patient care
Concurrent: performed while the patient is receiving care
Prospective: future performance effect on current interventions

83
Q

RN role in medication safety, quality management, and risk management

A

Whole patient care, further care
Psychologic/psychosocial
IV meds, blood transfusions

RN is held responsible for all patient care
Delegate as necessary

84
Q

Routes of Anesthetics

A
Inhalation
IV
Topical 
Local 
Spinal 
** reposition client on side, curl in a ball of spinal anesthesia
85
Q

Hypnotic anesthesia

A

Ambien (zolpidem)

86
Q

Narcotic/benzodiazepine anesthesia

A

Morphine or Versed (midazolam)

87
Q

Anticholenergic anesthesia

A

Atropine

88
Q

Barbiturate anesthesia

A

Pentothal (thiopental sodium)

89
Q

Muscle relaxants-

A

Succinylcholine (anectine)

90
Q

Side effects of muscle relaxants:

A

Respiratory depression
Hypotension
Dysrhythmias
Hepatic dysfunction

91
Q

Anesthesia Nursing interventions:

A

Monitor LOC, VS (RR, P, BP)
Monitor urine output
Administer analgesics cautiously

92
Q

Conscious Sedation

AKA moderate or procedure sedation

A

NO loss of consciousness
Responds verbally, relaxed, maintain open airway, may have mild amnesia
Allows increased recovery and is safer

93
Q

Non-barbiturates: Propofol (diprivan)

A

Onset: 30-60 seconds
Duration: 3-5 minutes

10-50 mg bolus followed by 5 mg smaller bolus every 1-5 minutes

Total dose 30-200 mg

94
Q

Benzodiazepines:
Diazepam (Ativan)
Midazolam (Versed)

A

S/Sx: sedation, hypnotic, anti-anxiety, feel detached without LOC
Can cause cardiovascular effects and respiratory depression

Give SLOWLY over 2 minutes

95
Q

Opioids: Fentanyl

A

Onset less than 30 seconds
Duration 40-90 minutes
Used for inductions and surgical anesthesia

96
Q

Opioids: Morphine

A

Onset less than 1 minute
Duration 2-7 hours
S/Sx analgesics, drowsiness, mental clouding, decreased anxiety, sense of well-being

97
Q

Adverse effects of sedatives:

A
Respiratory depression 
Constipation 
Urine depression
Orthostatic hypotension 
Emesis 
Cough suppression
98
Q

Reversal agents: Flumazenil (Romazicon)

A

Benzo-antagonist
Reverse sedative effects but NOT respiratory depression
Onset 1-2 minutes
Duration 40-90 minutes

May cause seizures/convulsions

99
Q

Reversal agents: Narcan (Naloxone)

A

Opioid antagonist
Tx: Respiratory depression, coma, analgesia
Onset 1-2 minutes
Duration 1-4 hours

Will cause immediate withdrawal reactions

100
Q

Osmotic Diuretic: Mannitol

A

Treats cerebral edema and ICP

101
Q

Mannitol: 6 carbon sugar, 4 properties:

A

Filters at the glomerulus
Minimal absorption
Decreased metabolism
Pharmacologically inert (no direct effect on biochemistry of cell)

102
Q

Action of Mannitol:

A
Creates osmotic force in nephron lumens 
Inhibits passive reabsorption of water 
No effects on K+ or other electrolytes 
Decreased cellular edema 
Vasodilation
103
Q

Mannitol

A

Crystallizes in temp decreases, warm to redissolve

Dieresis occurs in 30-60 minutes and persists 6-8 hours

Can decrease cerebral spinal fluid and ICP in 15 minutes

104
Q

Therapeutic use of mannitol

A

Prophylaxis for renal failure
Decrease ICP
Decrease intraoccular pressure
Promotes excretion of toxins : alcohol poising

105
Q

Adverse effects of mannitol:

A
CHF and pulmonary edema
Convulsions, HA
Thrombophlebitis, tachycardia, chest pain
Nausea, vomiting 
Fluid/electrolyte imbalances
106
Q

Mannitol dosage

A

20-100 gm per 24 hours

Single dose 30-90 minutes

TEST dose- 200 mg/kg over 3-5 minutes
Should see 30-50 mL urine in 1 hour, if kidney failure decrease dose to 50-100 gm q 24 hours, should still see 30-50 mL urine per hour.