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P&P > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Why did the cost of chicken rise and consumption drop around 2008?

A

Economic recession
Avian influenza outbreak
Increased cost of production (corn directed to ethanol)
Drought

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2
Q

What are the feed conversions of beef, pork, chicken?

A

Beef: 6-1
Pork: 3-1
Chicken: 2-1

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3
Q

Why does infectious coryza persist in chicken farms?

A

Farms are never totally depopulated

Design of industry has different ages in different barns

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4
Q

How is fowlpox spread? How is it prevented?

A

Wild birds and mosquitos

Vaccination

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5
Q

What is Marek’s disease and how is it diagnosed?

A

Herpesvirus-induced disease that transforms lymphocytes and causes tumor formation

Controlled by vaccination

Diagnosed by evaluating thickenss of lumbosacral nerve plexus

Classic picture of dead chicken with one leg forward and one back

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6
Q

What causes cannibalism?

A

Genetic predisposition

Has to be controlled by management (beak trimming, dec light intensity)

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7
Q

How is avian influenza controlled in US?

A

Infected birds are eradicated

Vaccination not done in US

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8
Q

Why does infectious bronchitis (poultry) persist in environment despite being very susceptible to disinfectants?

A

High mutation rate allows virus to persist and thrive in many tissues

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9
Q

What is the pathogenesis of ascites in poultry?

A

Metabolic disease

Heart and lungs cannot adequately oxygenate muscles-> R sided heart failure

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10
Q

What is heart attack or “flip over” caused by in poultry?

A

Overexertion

Metabolic disease in fast growing broilers

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11
Q

For poultry vaccination programs, what type of spray is best?

A

Very fine spray (penetrates deeper)

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12
Q

Which poultry vaccination program is more complex, breeder or layer?

A

Breeder

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13
Q

Can avian pox affect humans?

A

No

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14
Q

Where are vaccines for avian pox administered?

A

Chicken- wing web

Turkeys- thigh

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15
Q

Is poultry coccidiosis zoonotic?

A

No

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16
Q

What country produces the most fish?

A

China (89%)

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17
Q

What are the 3 most major components of Florida aquaculture?

A

Tropical fish
Aquatic plants
Clams

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18
Q

WHat are some advantages of extensive aquaculture?

A

Feed and aeration of water not required
Ideal for recreational pond
Little/no investment needed for equipment/feed

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19
Q

What is an example of an extensive aquaculture program in Florida?

A

Livebearer production (guppies, swordtails, platties)

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20
Q

What are some advantages of intensive aquaculture?

A

If indoors, more control and decreased predation

Increased production

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21
Q

What are some disadvantages of intensive aquaculture?

A

Increased risk of disease
System failure can lead to catastrophic loss
High start-up and operating costs
Complete diet required

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22
Q

What is an example of intensive aquaculture in Florida?

A

Angelfish production

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23
Q

What are the most common types of production systems for aquaculture in the US?

A 
Earthen ponds (54%)
Raceways (10%)
Cages or net pens
Re-circulating tank systems
Underwater lease
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24
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of pond production for aquaculture?

A

Adantages:
Free or cheap
Filtration not required
Some natural food available

Disadvantages:
Minimal control of environment
High predation
Difficult to maintain inventory
"Off flavor"
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25
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of raceway aquaculture systems?

A

Advantage: “free” source of water that filters itself

Disadvantage: unknown source of water, potential contamination, hard to treat

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26
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of cage aquaculture?

A

Advantages: “free” water exchange, easy to harvest

Disadvantages: aesthetic/environmental concerns, exposure to wild fish, contamination, disease, difficult to treat

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27
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of re-circulating aquaculture systems?

A

Advantages: complete control of environment, elimination of predation, efficient, treatment is easier

Disadvantages: very high capital investment, high risk (power failure), intensive management requirements, expensive, biosecurity critical

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28
Q

What is all-in-all-out harvest?

A

Area is drained and all fish are collected, pond is disinfected

Allows for good control of inventory, avoid build up of organic material, can produce multiple crops in same pond, much better for biosecutiry

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29
Q

What is continuous harvest?

A

Fish are removed and replaced with younger fish

Advantage: practical for large ponds

Disadvantage: loose track of inventory, massive accumulation of organic matter, major disease control can be difficult

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30
Q

What are two major concerns for channel catfish?

A

Water quality- Low dissolved oxygen and “Off flavor”

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31
Q

What is important to know about tilapia?

A

They are thermal limited

Temperature less than 50 F is fatal

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32
Q

What are two health concerns for tilapia?

A

Streptococcus innae

Francisella

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33
Q

What is the #1 fish produced in china?

A

Carp

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34
Q

What are special health concerns for carp/koi?

A

Spring viremia of carp (SVC)- depopulation required
koi herpes virus (KHV)- no action taken

REPORTABLE DISEASES!

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35
Q

What are the basic components of a fish health management program?

A

Water quality/life support
Nutrition
Sanitation
Quarantine/biosecutiry

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36
Q

What are the most important water quality parameters?

A

Dissolved oxygen
Total ammonia nitrogen
Unionized ammonia nitrogen (toxic ammonia)

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37
Q

What is a common cause of fish kills following big storms?

A

Stratification- cold water with low oxygen mixes with warm water

Cold water had high oxygen demand, when water mixes, oxygen is used up -> die off

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38
Q

What are sources of ammonia in aquaculture?

A 
Fish (primary source in aquarium setting)
Feed
Decomposition of organic matter
Uneaten food
Heterotrophic bacteria
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39
Q

At what level may there be toxicity due to unionzed ammonia?

A

0.05 mg/L

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40
Q

How does pH affect ammonia levels?

A

Higher pH = increased ammonia

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41
Q

What are the effects of increased levels of ammonia in blood (fish)?

A

Osmoregulation is affected
Blood pH increased
Oxygen demand increased
Oxygen transport decreased

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42
Q

What are the effects of chornic low level ammonia (fish)?

A

Inhibits growth

Increases susceptibility to disease

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43
Q

What is the #1 aquaculture product in US?

A

Catfish

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44
Q

What are the regulatory standards for ruminant dairy production?

A

Higher counts than cow’s milk

Somatic cell count: 1 x 10^6 cells/ml
Standard plate count: 100,000 cells/ml

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45
Q

What is the most economically important part of sheep industry?

A

Selling lambs

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46
Q

T/F? Worldwide, there are more goats than cattle

A

True

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47
Q

What are the most popular goat meat breeds in US?

A

Boer, spanish, and kiko

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48
Q

What are the most common uses for sheep in US?

A

Meat and wool

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49
Q

What things should you assess on a small ruminant physical exam?

A

Udder, LNs, feet, legs, fecal consistency, urine, skin, BCS

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50
Q

How do you estimate the age of sheep?

A

permanent teeth / 2 = age

Worn teeth = over 4 years

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51
Q

Why is water consumption so important for male goats?

A

Prone to urolithiasis

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52
Q

At what BCS is it ideal for a male goat to enter breeding season?

A

BCS 3-4/5

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53
Q

What BSC should a female goat be in early gestation?

A

3-3.5

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54
Q

When do lambs/kids start eating solid feed?

A

3 weeks

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55
Q

What do you do to avoid rumen acidosis in feedlot situations for small ruminants?

A

Diet should be >10% roughage
Include rumen buffers in ration
Avoid sudden dietary changes
Feed whole (uncracked) grains

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56
Q

When does toxicity from toxic plants most often occur (sheep/goats)?

A

Alternative feeds are not available
When very hungry animals are turned out into areas containing toxic plants
When animals are confined in an area containing toxic plants

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57
Q

Toxic shrubs and trees are more of a concern for what animals?

A

Goats (they are browsers)

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58
Q

What percent of a goats diet is browsing/grazing?

A

80% from browsing

20% grazing

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59
Q

Re urine acidifiers used for in pet goat feed?

A

Prevention of urolithiasis in males

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60
Q

When do small ruminants reach puberty?

A

Generally 5-12 months

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61
Q

When do small ruminants start breeding?

A

~70% mature size, ideally 7-10 months

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62
Q

What is the gestation length for sheep and goats?

A

Sheep- 147 days

Goats- 150 days

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63
Q

What type of breeders are small ruminants?

A

Seasonal polyestrus, short day breeders

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64
Q

What is the Whitten effect?

A

Induction of cyclicity in small ruminants by abrupt introduction of a male

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65
Q

What are signs of heat in does and ewes?

A

Does: flagging, vocalizing, mounting
Ewes: subtle, will stand for ram to mate

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66
Q

What do bucks do during breeding season to attract females?

A

Spray urine

Increased scent gland activity

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67
Q

How do you diagnose pregnancy in ewes and does?

A

Low serum or milk progesterone >5 days after breeding = not pregnant

Pregnancy-specific protein B (Biopryn) 30 days post breeding

Ultrasound (>45 and /90 days)

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68
Q

When is castration in male sheep/goats done?

A

4-14 days

Pets- >3 months to prevent obstructive urolithiasis

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69
Q

What are the two techniques for castrating small ruminants?

A

Elastrator bands (best if done at <1 week old, sloughing in 7-10 days)

Burdizzo emasculatome

Surgical (post-pubertal males)

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70
Q

When is tail docking done for small ruminants?

A

Common for wool breeds, best 24 hrs- 7 days old

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71
Q

How long should the tail be after you dock it (small ruminants)?

A

Should cover vulva (ewes) or anus (rams), no shorter than distal end of caudal tail fold

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72
Q

What happens if you dock tail of a small ruminant too short?

A

Vaginal or rectal prolapse

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73
Q

Why do you have to be careful using lidocaine for local nerve block in disbudding of small ruminants?

A

Can be toxic if a high dose is given

Dilute if needed- no more than 5mg/kg, 0.5%

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74
Q

What nerves do you need to block for disbudding procedure?

A

Cornual branch of intratrochlear n.

Cornual branch of lacrimal n.

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75
Q

Males castrated before what age do not develop scent glands?

A

7.5 months (before puberty)

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76
Q

When should kids be disbudded?

A

Generally in the first week of life except for breeds like Nubian, Pygmy and Angora kids (10-14 days)

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77
Q

How often should small ruminant hooves be trimmed?

A

2x per year

78
Q

What are common neonatal problems of small ruminants?

A 
Mismothering
Starvation
Failure of passive transfer
Septicemia
Naval infection
Diarrhea
79
Q

What are the causes of starvation/mismothering in small ruminants?

A

3 + offpsirng, overcrowding
Insufficient colostrum/milk
Hypothermia

80
Q

What are the signs of starvation/mismothering in small ruminants?

A 
Hypothermia
Hunched stance
Empty belly
Bleating
Weakness
Approaching multiple females to nurse
81
Q

What is the treatment for starvation/mismothering in small ruminants?

A

Assist to nurse or bottle/tube feed colostrum and milk
Resuscitative care for hypothermia
Oral or IV dextrose for hypoglycemia

82
Q

How can you prevent starvation/mismothering in small ruminants?

A

Careful monitoring after birth (and early intervention if needed)
Prevent overcrowding

83
Q

What are the causes of failure of passive transfer in small ruminants.

A

Anything that leads to insufficient ingestion or absorption of colostrum

84
Q

How do you diagnose failure of passive transfer in small ruminants?

A

History
Low serum IgG
Low serum protein

85
Q

How do you treat failure of passive transfer in small ruminants?

A

Gve colostrum

86
Q

How do you prevent failure of passive transfer in small ruminants?

A

Prevent predisposing conditions,
Good supervision
Store extra colostrum

87
Q

What cause neonatal septicemia or navel infections in small ruminants.

A

FPT or massive bacterial challenge

E. Coli, Strep, Trueprella

88
Q

What are the signs of neonatal endotoxemia/navel infection in small ruminants?

A

Transient fever, obtundation, anorexia, dehydration

Local signs- swelling/pain at navel, diarrhea, swollen joints

89
Q

How do you treat neonatal septicemia/navel infections in small ruminants?

A

Broad-spectrum antimicrobials, NSAIDs, fluids, supportive care

90
Q

How do you prevent neonatal septicemia/navel infections in small ruminants?

A

Prevent FPT
Excellent hygiene
Dipping naval (iodine or chlorhexidine)

91
Q

What causes neonatal diarrhea complex in small ruminants?

A

E. Coli
Rotavirus
Cryptosporidium
Predispoding factors (FPT, unsanitary conditions, inadequate nutrition)

92
Q

What are the signs of neonatal diarrhea complex in small ruminants?

A

Profuse watery diarrhea without fever

Signs of dehydration

93
Q

How do you diagnose neonatal diarrhea complex in small ruminants?

A

CLinical signs

94
Q

How do you treatneonatal diarrhea complex in small ruminants?

A

Oral/IV fluid

Nutritional support

95
Q

How do you prevent neonatal diarrhea complex in small ruminants?

A

Prevent FPT
Vaccinate ewes for E. coli
Excellent hygeine

96
Q

What causes clostridial diseases in small ruminants and how does it present?

A

C. Perfringens Type C (Enterotoxemia)- weakness

Tetanus- stiffness

97
Q

How do you prevent clostridial diseases in small ruminants?

A

Vaccination

98
Q

When do we commonly see Blue Tongue virus in small ruminants in FL?

A

Introduced sheep in spring, summer, and fall

99
Q

What are the signs of Blue Tongue virus in small ruminants?

A

Almost all cases in goats are subclinical!

Fever, erosions on lips/gums/tongue, salivation, lameness, swollen face/ears, nasal d/c, sudden death, abortion, abnormal lambs

100
Q

How do you treat Blue Tongue virus?

A

Supportive care

101
Q

What is caprine arthritis-encephalitis?

A 
Lentivirus of goats
5 clinical syndromes:
1. Arthritis
2. Leukoencephalomyelitis
3. Pneumonia
4. Mastitis
5. Weightloss
102
Q

What is Maedi-visna?

A

Lentivirus of sheep
Progressive pneumonia
Neulogic form is rare

103
Q

What is scrapie?

A 
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
CS- pruritus of increasing intensity with self-mutilation, neuro signs
Mainly affects sheep
Fatal and irreversible
REPORTABLE!
104
Q

What is Border Disease?

A

Basically BVD of sheep
Causes abortion
Persistently infected lambs have congenital malformations (long curly wool, small size, tremors, short legs, domed head)… need to eliminate these lambs

105
Q

What are the 4 common GI diseases of small ruminants?

A

Parasites
Coccidiosis
Rumen acidosis
Johne’s disease

106
Q

What is the biggest production limiting problems of small ruminants?

A

Nematode parasites

107
Q

What are the most common nematode parasites of small ruminants?

A

“HOT”
Haemonchus
Ostertagia
Trichostrongylus

108
Q

What is the common name for haemonchus?

A

Barber poll worm

109
Q

What systemic effects are caused by nematode parasites?

A

Anemia (haemonchus)
Hypoproteinemia
Maldigestion
Malabrosption

110
Q

What is an important test in assessing the seriousness of nematode parasites or the effectiveness of a dewormer in small ruminants?

A

Fecal egg count reduction test

111
Q

What is the proper protocol for antihelmintic use in small ruminants?

A

Targeted selective deworming! Individual basis

Never deworm at regular intervals or on calendar basis- will contribute to resistance

112
Q

How do you identify animals that need to be dewormed in a population of small ruminants?

A

FAMACHA scoring

Five Point Check (eye, back, tail, jaw, nose)

113
Q

How often should you check small ruminants to assess the need for deworming?

A

Every 3-4 weeks in winter

Every 2 weeks in summer

114
Q

What is a main management practice to control internal parasites of small ruminants?

A

Don’t feed on ground
Multi-species grazing with cattle or horses
Genetic selection of parasite-resistant populations

115
Q

How can you maximize the efficacy of deworming treatments in small ruminants?

A

Don’t rotate treatments

Feed only dry hay or fast 12-24 hours before and 12 hours after oral dewormer (slow transit time)

Never under dose (dose based on heaviest animal)

116
Q

What are common clinical signs of internal parasitism in small ruminants?

A

Bottle jaw
Poor BCS
Pale MM

117
Q

What parasite load is the FAMACHA system useful for identifying?

A

Haemonchus

118
Q

In what type of pasture would you have the worse nematode parasite problem?

A

Short grass

119
Q

What are the clinical signs of coccidiosis in small ruminants?

A

Diarrhea (+/- blood)
Weight loss
Death

120
Q

How do you diagnose coccidiosis in small ruminants?

A

Fecal flotation- oocysts appear in feces 2 weeks after infection

121
Q

What is the prognosis for coccidiosis in small ruminants?

A

10-50% morbidity

10% mortality

122
Q

How do you treat coccidiosis in small ruminants?

A

Sulfa drugs

Supportive care

123
Q

Coccidiosis is mainly a problem in what class of small ruminants?

A

Feedlot lambs or newly weaned kids

124
Q

How resistant are coccidia oocysts in the environment?

A

Very resistant

125
Q

What are the clinical signs of rumen acidosis in small ruminants?

A 
Off feed
Depression
Weakness
Circulatory shock
Colic
Diarrhea
126
Q

How do you diagnose rumen acidosis in small ruminants?

A

Rumen pH <5.5

127
Q

What is the treatment for rumen acidosis in small ruminants?

A 
IV fluids
Oral alkalinizing agents
Rumenotomy
Transfaunation
Thiamine supplementation
Supportive care
128
Q

How do you prevent rumen acidosis?

A

Introduce concentrates into diet slowly and keep crude fiber >20% of total digestible nutrients

129
Q

What is Johne’s disease?

A

Paratuberculosis

Causes weightloss, diarrhea, anorexia, illthrift of older animals

130
Q

How can you prevent Johne’s disease?

A

Vaccination! Effective, used in Australia

131
Q

What are the two main types of external parasites in small ruminants?

A

Mites

Lice

132
Q

What is contagious ectyma?

A

Orf- parapox virus
Blisters on lips that eventually scab over
Vaccine exists
Zoonotic

133
Q

What is caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Abscesses of external lymph nodes caused by corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Prevention- sanitation

134
Q

What is foot rot in small ruminants?

A

Causes- Dichelobacter nodosus, Fusobacterium necrophorum
Prevent with regular foot trimmings and baths
Cull animals with chronic problems
Avoid muddy or rocky areas
Treatment- foot baths

135
Q

What is white muscle disease?

A

Nutritional muscular dystrophy due to selenium and/or vitamin E deficiency

Florida- Se deficient soils, animals need supplementation

136
Q

What are the causes of pneumonia in small ruminants?

A

CAE/MV
Bacterial- pasturella, manheimia
Mycoplasma

137
Q

What differentials should you consider for small ruminants with respiratory disease?

A

Pneumonia

Lungworm

138
Q

What is one of the most common problems of pet castrated male goats?

A

Obstructive urolithiasis

139
Q

What is the most common site of obstructive urolithiasis in goats?

A

Urethral process

140
Q

What are the clinical signs of pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants?

A 
Off feed
Depression
Recumbency
Ketonuria
Hypoglycemia
141
Q

What is the treatment for pregnancy toxemia?

A

C-section, dextrose, calcium

142
Q

How do you prevent pregnancy toxemia?

A

Good nutrition
Maintain proper BCS
Avoid stressors in late gestation
High energy density diet for animals >1 fetus

143
Q

How do you prevent obstructive urolithiasis in small ruminants?

A

Dietary management- Ca:P ratio >2:1
Feed anionic salts
Maximize water intake
Avoid early castration of pets

144
Q

What are routine vaccinations for small ruminants?

A

Enterotoxemia (C. Perfringens C and D)
Tetanus toxoid
Orf (if existing problem)

145
Q

What is colony immunity?

A

Resistance of the group of animals to invasion and spread of infectious disease

146
Q

What are two of the most important guidelines for kennels/catteries?

A
  1. Easy/economical to clean and maintain

2. Adequate space for the animal’s comfort

147
Q

In what order should you handle animals in kennel/cattery?

A

Start with the most vulnerable, end with those with known diseases

Puppies/kittens -> pregnant females -> young adults -> adults -> quarantined animals -> isolation/sick

148
Q

What are some guidelines for cages in kennels?

A

Building materials- nonpourous and can be disinfected

Walls at least 4 ft high with fence extending two feet beyond

Adequate drainage

Vermin control

149
Q

What are some general guidelines for catteries?

A 
Separate from dogs
Draft free
8hr min of light
Litter pan
Resting shelf
Cage fronts 4 ft apart
1 cat per cage (except litters, nursing mothers, etc.)
Cages are nonporous
Colony cages
150
Q

What is immunoprophylaxis?

A

Enhancement of a specific immune response in an attempt o protect an animal from a specific disease

Vaccines, passive transfer

151
Q

What are characteristics of passive immunization?

A 
Artificial transfer of specific antibodies
Provides immediate protection
Allergic/immune reactions
Short-lived resistance 
Transfer of disease possible
152
Q

What are characteristics of active immunization?

A

Giving of an Ag to produce an immune response
Costs less than passive immunization
Takes time to produce immunity
Long-lived immunity

153
Q

What percent of maternal antibodies are colostral vs transplacental?

A

Colostral-82-98%

Transplacental- 2- 18%

154
Q

At what age does an animal have an “adult immune system”?

A

16 weeks

155
Q

When is the window of susceptibility of a young animal in the process of getting immunized?

A

6-12 weeks

Between minimum level of Ab to block virulent virus and minimum level to block vaccine

156
Q

What are the advantages of a modified live vaccine?

A 
Replicates in host
More rapid protection
Long-lasting immunity
Lower Ag mass- fewer reactions
Better stimulated CMI
157
Q

What are the disadvantages of modified live vaccines?

A

Revert to virulence

Can cause immuno suppression

158
Q

What is a recombinant vector?

A

Genetic code for key immunologic proteins is inserted into a non-pathogenic vector

Merial- rabies, FeLV (cats), distemper (dogs)

159
Q

What are the differences between intranasal/oral and parenteral modified live vaccines?

A 
Intranasal/oral:
Immune response within 3-5 days
Higher levels of IgA
Readily reverts to virulence
Ore post vaccinal signs
Parenteral:
Immune response within 7-10 days
High levels of IgG
Does not revert to virulence as easily
Fewer post-vaccinal signs
160
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of inactivated vaccines?

A

Advantages:
Does not replicate in host
No reversion to virulence
Safe in immunosuppressed or neonates

Disadvantages:
Require more vaccinations
More allergenic due to higher Ag mass
Requires adjuvant
Shorter duration of immunity
161
Q

What are adjuvants?

A

added to increase duration and amount of immunostimulation

Types: aluminum hydroxide, mycobacteria/endotoxins, carbopol, oil, liposomes

162
Q

What factors contribute to vaccine failure?

A

Host: immunodificiency, age, pregnancy, stress, illness

Vaccine: improper storage/handling, strain differences, biological variation, overwhelming exposure

Human: hospital protocol, vaccine interference, improper mixing/amount, improper administration

163
Q

What are the core vaccines for cats and dogs?

A

Dogs- distemper, parvo, infectious canine hepatitis, rabies

Cats- panleuk,herpes, calici, rabies, FeLV (kittens)

164
Q

What are the non-core vaccines for cats and dogs?

A

Dogs: corona, parainfluenza, lepto, bordetella, lyme, influenza

Cats: FeLV (core in kittens), FIV, FIP, chlamydophila, bordetella

165
Q

What are the main clinical signs of distemper?

A

Respiratory signs

Neuro signs- seizures

166
Q

What vaccines should you give on intake into shelter?

A 
Dogs: 
Distemper 
Infectious canine hepatitis 
Infectious tracheobronchitis
Parvo

Cats:
Herpes/calici
Panleuk
Rabies

167
Q

What virus is resistant to inactivation and disinfection?

A

Infectious canine hepatitis (Canine adenovirus 1)

168
Q

What are clinical signs of infectious canine hepatitis?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain
Corneal edema - Blue eye***
Anterior uveitis
CNS signs

169
Q

What vaccine can be highly allergenic (esp. miniature dachshunds)?

A

Lepto

170
Q

Can bordetella be zoonotic?

A

yes

171
Q

What is the more virulent strain of canine influenza?

A

H3N2

172
Q

How do you diagnose parvo?

A

ELISA (SNAP) test

173
Q

Why is canine coronavirus vaccine not recommended?

A

Disease is primarily in puppies <6 weeks old that will already be protected by maternal Ab

174
Q

Is the incidence of rabies more numerous in cats or dogs?

A

Cats

175
Q

What are the phases of clinical signs with rabies?

A

Prodromal phase
Furious phase
Paralytic phase
Atypical

176
Q

How do you diagnose rabies?

A

Submit animal’s head (chilled not frozen) for DFA to look for nigri bodies

177
Q

Why does there need to be 4 feet between the faces of cat cages?

A

A sneeze can be propelled 4 ft

178
Q

T/F? Vaccination only reduced clinical signs of disease with feline herpes/calicivirus?

A

True

179
Q

What causes cerebellar hypoplasia in neonatal kittens?

A

Panleukopenia

180
Q

What is the best protocol for FIV + cats?

A

Isolation

Test all cats in house prior to introduction

Test before vaccination!

181
Q

What is a main goal of vaccination?

A

Increase # individuals vaccinated

Decrease # vaccines each individual gets

182
Q

What is avian infectious bronchitis caused by?

A

Coronavirus

183
Q

What is tone of the most pathogenic coccidia of chickens that causes marked typhilitis?

A

Eimeria tenella

184
Q

How do you control coccidiosis in chickens?

A

Anticoccidial compounds in feed

Immunization

185
Q

What causes infectious coryza?

A

Avibacterium paragallinarum

186
Q

What are the two forms of fowlpox?

A

cutaneous

Diphtheritic

187
Q

How is fowlpox diagnosed?

A

Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in stained sections of the lesions

188
Q

What is the most common pathotype of avian influenza?

A

Low pathogenic AI

189
Q

What are natural reservoirs of avian influenza?

A

Wild waterfowl
Shorebirds

Also- Livebird markets and commercial swine facilities

190
Q

When was ascites/pulmonary hypertension syndrome first reported in birds?

A

Broilers raised at high altitudes

191
Q

What is the diurnal oxygen cycle?

A

dissolved oxygen concentration in ponds fluctuates on a 24-hour basis

Dissolved oxygen increases during daylight hours when photosynthesis is occurring and decreases at night when respiration continues but photosynthesis does not

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