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1

True/False: Compounded drugs have been tested for safety and efficacy.

False

2

You have a patient with chronic diarrhea. You have ruled out infectious disease causes. Which of the following would be a therapeutic option to treat the diarrhea?

a. Cholinergic drugs
b. Anticholinergic drugs
c. Adrenergic drugs
d. Alpha agonist
e. Beta agonist

b. Anticholinergic drugs

3

Which of the following is not an effect of beta receptors on the heart when they're activated?

a. Increased contractility
b. Increased heart rate
c. Accelerated cardiac impulse
d. Decrased GFR in the kidney
e. Bronchodilation of the lungs

d. Decrased GFR in the kidney

4

What is renal clearance?

a. A mathematical formula on how quickly the kidney can metabolize a drug
b. A calculation that indicates how much drug is excreted in the bile
c. The volume of blood cleared of a substance by the kidney per unit of time
d. The amount of drug that is excreted by the kidney per unit of time

c. The volume of blood cleared of a substance by the kidney per unit of time

5

Which of the following is not listed as a Schedule IV drug?

a. All benzodiazepines
b. Phenobarbitol
c. Clenbuterol
d. Butorphanol

c. Clenbuterol

6

True/False: Disease states or conditions have no effect on a drug's pharmacokinetic parameters once administered.

False

7

Drug X is rapidly metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidney, therefore you can accurately predict:

a. The drug's T1/2 is relatively short
b. The drug's T1/2 is relatively long
c. The drug would be an ideal therapeutic agent for treating severe systemic infections
d. The drug would easily cross the blood brain barrier

a. The drug's T1/2 is relatively short

8

The half-life of a drug is dependent upon?

a. The ability to bind alpha and beta receptors in the vascular tissues
b. Both the extent of a drug's distribution in the body and its rate of clearance
c. The drug's bioavailability
d. The molecular size and weight of the drug

b. Both the extent of a drug's distribution in the body and its rate of clearance

9

The veterinary drug handbook monograph for pentobarbital states that the drug has a dose-dependent effect. What does this mean?

a. The higher the dose, the more profound the effect
b. The lower the dose, the more profound the effect
c. The drug is highly protein bound and requires high mg/kg dosing in patients
d. The drug can only be administered orally, because only oral drugs have dose dependent effects

a. The higher the dose, the more profound the effect

10

True/False: Jose has a small herd of meat goats. Several of his goats are sick and he goes to Tractor supply and buys a 250L bottl eof injectable penicillin. Jose's goats present signs of pneumonia (nasal discharge, depressed, coughing, lethargic, not eating) and he decides to use OTC drug at a dosage higher than indicated on the label. Such activity is legal under federal law.

False

11

Which of the following is not listed as a Schedule IV drug?

a. Butorphanol
b. Alprazolam (Xanax)
c. Midazolam
d. Methadone
e. Tramadol

d. Methadone

**Schedule II drug

12

True/False: Sweat glands in equine patients are regulated by adrenergic responses.

True

13

Which of the following is not listed as a Schedule II drug?

a. Morphine
b. Fentanyl
c. Buprenorphine
d. Pentobarbital
e. Methadone

c. Buprenorphine


**Schedule III drug

14

True/False: All OTC drugs must be used exactly as directed on the label of the drug by the owners/ laypersons.

True

15

The calculated Vd for drug X is 4 L/kg. This implies which of the following?

a. It will have a high plasma concentration and favor accumulation in the intravascular period
b. The drug has a very high molecular weight and is a large drug molecule and therefore restricted to the plasma
c. The drug has a wide distribution to tissues with little in the circulating plasma
d. The patient is likely very dehydrated
e. None of the choices are correct

c. The drug has a wide distribution to tissues with little in the circulating plasma

16

Which of the following drugs or drug classes is not prohibited for use in food producing animals per AMDUCA?

a. Chloramphenicol
b. DES in dogs with urinary incontinence
c. Certain sulfa drugs in lactating cows
d. Fluoroquinolones in an off-label manner in food animals

b. DES in dogs with urinary incontinence

17

Carprofen (Rimadyl) is a commonly used NSAID indicated for pain and inflammation. The monograph in the Veterianry Drug Handbook states: the drug is 90% bioavailable and 99% protein bound. What does this mean to you?

a. The drug will have a very good absorption via the IV administration route
b. The drug will have a very good absorption rate via the IM administration route
c. The drug demonstrates linear elimination kinetics
d. The drug will have good absorption via the oral route and good penetration into tissue exudate

b. The drug will have a very good absorption rate via the IM administration route

18

Preganglionic neurons release:

a. Ach onto nicotinic receptors of postganglionic neurons
b. Nitric oxide onto nicotinic receptors of postganglionic neurons
c. Ach onto muscarinic receptors of postganglionic neurons
d. Ach onto opioid receptors of postganglionic neurons
e. None of the above are true

c. Ach onto muscarinic receptors of postganglionic neurons

19

Which of the following is false regarding alpha receptors?

a. They are found in blood vessels and result in constriction
b. They are found in the bronchioles and result in dilation
c. Their primary action is constriction
d. They are found in the iris/radial muscle and result in mydriasis
e. They are found in the piloerector muscles and their contraction results in the hair standing up

b. They are found in the bronchioles and result in dilation

20

Parasympatholytic means:

a. An action that could augment the effects of Ach
b. An action that would block or inhibit the effects of epi and norepi
c. An action that would block or inhibit the effects of GABA
d. An action that would block or inhibit effects of Ach

d. An action that would block or inhibit effects of Ach

21

Which of the following factors can alter the distribution of a drug?

a. Zero order kinetics can rely on an energy dependent process and/or saturation of an enzyme system
b. Deficiency in phase II drug metabolizing enzymes such as glucaronide
c. Diseases that can alter the pH of a body tissue, acidic drugs getting trapped in basic environments (and vice versa)
d. Significant first pass metabolism
e. All the above

e. All the above

22

Adrenergic receptors mediate the effects of:

a. Norepi and epi
b. Nitric oxide
c. Alcohol dehydrogenase
d. Acetylcholine
e. Alpha and beta receptors

e. Alpha and beta receptors

23

True/False: Avoid the use of abbreviation SID becasue it is not known by most pharmacists and has the potential to result in a medication error. Instead write out "once a day"

True

24

In terms of patietn safety, which would be dangerous or have the potential to casue harm with prescription orders or writing in a patient's chart?

a. Use of abbreviation SID
b. Use of "U" as the abbreviation for units, such as units of insulin
c. Failing to ask a pharmacist to repeat back to you all the information you communicated to them whien calling in a prescription to a pharmacy
d. Use of trailing zeros when writing out volumes of medication
e. All the above could be detrimental to patient safety

e. All the above could be detrimental to patient safety

25

Drug A and B are both antibiotics approved for use in dog/cats. Drug A follows a one-compartment model. Drug B follows a two-compartment model with extensive distribution to the site of action. Which drug is the better choice for treating a severe, lower respiratory infection in a cat?

a. Drug A
b. Drug B
c. Neither drug is a good therapeutic option for this type of infection
d. Both would work equally well for this type of infection

b. Drug B

26

What is the chemical relased from all parasympathetic and sympathetic autonomic preganglionic nerves?

a. Dopamine
b. Ach
c. Epinephrine
d. Nitric oxide
e. Norepinephrine

b. Ach

27

True/False: According to AMDUCA, the FDA can prohibit a veterinarina from using drugs in an extra-label manner.

True

28

True/False: Extra label drug use only applies to prescription drugs, not to OTC drugs.

False

29

Which of the following drugs is not listed as a Schedule III?

a. Anabolic steroids
b. Buprenorphine
c. Telazol
d. Ketamine
e. Etorphine

e. Etorphine

**Schedule II

30

Dr. X is a licensed veterinarian practicing in the state of Texas. He is a Texas A&M graduate so we should immediately question his competency. Anyways, Dr. X routinely crosses the border into New Mexico and Oklahoma to examine and consult on feedyard cattle and cow/calf ranches every 2-3 months. He will prescribe and use drugs in an extra-label manner. Under this scenario, Dr. x is:

a. Practicing illegally because he does not have a state controlled substance registration from the state of Texas
b. Practicing illegally because he cannot cross into neighbouring states to provide care
c. Is not in violation of valid VCPR as long as he also has a licence to practice in New Mexico and Oklahoma and meets the definition of a valid VCPR
d. None of the choices re correct

c. Is not in violation of valid VCPR as long as he also has a licence to practice in New Mexico and Oklahoma and meets the definition of a valid VCPR

31

All of the following can prolong a half-life and therefore cause a food animal veterinarina to assign a longer withdrawal time except:

a. Dehydration resulting in decreased renal perfusion
b. A diseased liver and kidney
c. Time of day the drug is administered
d. None of the above

c. Time of day the drug is administered

32

True/False: When writing out insulin dosages, always write out the word "unit" becasue the abbreviation "U" can easily be missed as an additional zero, resulting in a patient receiving ten times the intended dose.

True

33

Which of the following is not a result of Beta 2 receptor activation?

a. Constriction of vascular smooth muscles
b. Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
c. Vasodilation in vascular smooth muscle
d. Dilation of bronchioles

a. Constriction of vascular smooth muscles

34

Activation of ___ receptors of the pilomotor muscles results in erection of the hair on the skin. This is evident particularly in carnivores during rage or fear reactions.

a. Alpha 2
b. Alpha 1
c. GABA
d. Ach
e. Beta 2

b. Alpha 1

35

Postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system release:

a. Acetylcholine (Ach) onto adrenergic receptors in the effector tissues
b. Norepinephrine (NE) onto adrenergic receptors in the effector tissues
c. Norepinephrine (NE) onto mu receptors in the effector tissues
d. Norepinephrine (NE) onto kappa receptors in the effector tissues

b. Norepinephrine (NE) onto adrenergic receptors in the effector tissues

36

Which of the following statements about controlled substances are TRUE?

a. Schedule V controlled substances have the highest abuse potential
b. All controlled substances to be ordered for use in a vet clinic must utilize a DEA 222 form
c. Midazolam is the only benzodiapine that is NOT in Schedule III
d. A DVM is required to have a federal and possibly a state registration (depends upon the state) in order to write a prescription for a controlled substance

d. A DVM is required to have a federal and possibly a state registration (depends upon the state) in order to write a prescription for a controlled substance

37

This legislation provided for the use of prescription drugs in feed without invoking state pharmacy regulations. It has extensive record-keeping requirements for DVMs and animal owners

a. Veterinary feed directives (VFD)
b. AMDUCA
c. MUMS
d. Food safety inspection service (FSIS)
e. New animal drug application

a. Veterinary feed directives (VFD)

38

You read in the Veterinary Drug Handbook that drug A has “extensive first pass metabolism.” What are the concerns you might have about administering it orally to a patient?

a. No cause for concern, first pass metabolism is not clinically significant
b. Since there are no drug administration sites that avoid first pass metabolism, I am out of options
c. No concern, I will just increase the dose 100-fold in order to get enough drug absorbed despite first pass metabolism
d. The drug will likely be metabolized by the liver before it has a chance to be absorbed, therefore rendering it ineffective because it cannot reach therapeutic levels

d. The drug will likely be metabolized by the liver before it has a chance to be absorbed, therefore rendering it ineffective because it cannot reach therapeutic levels

39

True/False: Parasympathomimetics is a term used to describe Ach-like effects on effector cells innervated by postganglionic neurons of the PSNS nervous system.

True

40

Biotransformation of drugs usually results in

a. Formation of metabolites which are less polar
b. Formation of metabolites which are more polar
c. Depression of the CNS
d. Liver failure with chronic biotransformation
e. Changes to drug absorption

b. Formation of metabolites which are more polar

41

The local humane society down the street from you has run out of morphine.. They use a pre-anesthetic mix of morphine and Acepromazine for all dogs undergoing sterilization at the facility. They call you at your clinic two blocks away and ask to borrow a bottle of injectable morphine sulfate 15mg/mL. You know and trust the humane society DVM. What must you do to document the movement of this drug from one DEA licenced practitioner (you) to another DEA licenced practitioner (the humane society DVM)?

a. Obtain a verbal promise from the humane society DVM to replace the bottle of morphine
b. You should call the Board of Veterinary Medicine and file a complaint because that is an illegal request
c. Use a VFD form to document the movement of this drug out of your controlled substance inventory and into the inventory of the humane society DVM
d. Use a DEA 222 form to document the movement out of your controlled substance inventory and into the inventory of the humane society DVM
e. Get a confirmation of the transaction via text message on your iPhone

d. Use a DEA 222 form to document the movement out of your controlled substance inventory and into the inventory of the humane society DVM

42

To establish withdrawal time for a drug used in an extra label manner n pot bellied pigs, what is the best resource for you as a DVM?

a. Environmental protection agency (EPA)
b. Food Safety Inspection Service (FSIS)
c. Food Animal Residue Avoidance Database (FARAD)
d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
e. United States Department of Ag (USDA)

c. Food Animal Residue Avoidance Database (FARAD)

43

A ___ drug is one that is not recognized/ FDA approved in the US and doesn't meet purity quality standards.

Adulterated drug

44

A ___ drug is when the federal label doesn't accurately represent the drug.

Misbranded drug

45

Which of the following drugs is not prohibited for use in food animals by AMDUCA?

a. Clenbuterol
b. Dimetridazole
c. Phenylbutazome
d. Phenoxybenzamine
e. Cephalosporins

d. Phenoxybenzamine

46

Which of the following was passed in 1962 and states that if a substnace were found to cause cancer in man/ animals then it can't be used as a food additive?

a. AMDUCA
b. Delaney ammendment
c. Mobility act
d. MUMS

b. Delaney ammendment

47

True/False: All sulfonamide drugs except sulfadimethoxine are prohibited to use in lactating dairy cattle.

True

48

Which of the following is not a requiment for extralabel drug use in animals under AMDUCA?

a. ELDU are permitted only by or under the supervision of a veterinarian and need a valid VCPR
b. ELDU is allowed only for FDA approved animal and human drugs
c. ELDU is for therapeutic and production purposes if the animal's health is suffering or threatened
d. ELDU is feed prohibited and is not permitted if it results in violative food residues that may present a risk to public health

c. ELDU is for therapeutic and production purposes if the animal's health is suffering or threatened

**allowed for therapeutic purposes but not for production use

49

Which of the following is false?

a. The target tissue for the tolerance is generally the edible tissue from which residues most slowly deplete
b. The withdrawal time is the time between the last administered dose and when the drug residues drop below the safe concentration
c. Concentration of the marker redisue must be measured with the same FDA approved analytical method that will be used for the regulatory inspections
d. All the above are true

d. All the above are true

50

What was enacted to increase the availability of new animal drugs fro minor species and for minor uses, while still ensuring appropriate safeguards for animal and human health?

MUMS - Minor Use and Minor Species Animal Health Act of 2004

51

True/False: VFD (Veterinary Feed Directives) can be used without DVM oversight.

False

**CANNOT be used without DVM oversight

52

Which DEA form must be filled out for disposal of expired controlled drugs that have been rendered non-retrivable in the presence of two witnesses?

DEA form 41

53

Schedule II orders and other commercial invoices accompanying controlled drugs must be signed and dated, items must be counted, noted, and stored in a readily retrivable file for 2 years. What form must all this be documented on?

DEA 222 form

54

True/False: DEA documents of all controlled scheduled drugs must be kept together in an easily retrieved place for at least 2 years.

False

**Keep Schedule II drugs separate from Schedule III-V class drugs

55

Whom is responcible for overseeing the development and legal marketing of new animal drugs for minor uses (disease conditions that are rare) in major species (cattle, swine, chickens, turkeys, dogs, cats and horses) and for minor species that fall under teh category of all other animals?

OMUMS (Office of Minor Use and MInor Species Animal Drug Development)

56

The MUMS legisltation modifies provisions of the FFDCA in three key ways providing for all the following except:

a. Conditional approval, which allows the sponsor to market the drug without proving the drug is safe and effective
b. Indexing, which is helpful to vets treating zoo or endangered animals and to owners of minor pet species such as ornamental fish or caged reptiles, birds, or mammals
c. Designation, which gives a company an extra 7 years so they can recoup some of the marketing and research costs
d. Grants, which allow congress to apprpriate fungs to defray the cost of safety and effectiveness testing for designated drugs

a. Conditional approval, which allows the sponsor to market the drug without proving the drug is safe and effective

**They must prove that the drug is safe and establish a reasonable expectation of effectiveness of the drug

57

Which of the following is false regarding the pasteurized milk ordinance (PMO)?

a. Lists all the regulations and requirements for selling milk as Grade B status, which is the type that is approved for human consumption
b. We can only use FDA approved drugs in lactating dair cows
c. Lactating drugs should be stored separate from non-lactating drugs
d. Drugs must be labled by a veterinarian or a pharmacist

a. Lists all the regulations and requirements for selling milk as Grade B status, which is the type that is approved for human consumption

**Grade A status

58

True/False: Compounded drugs are not FDA approved in food animals but they can be used in small animals as long as it causes no harm or death in these animals.

True

**can't be used in food animals because they are NOT tested for safety or efficacy

59

A ___ drug is a mixture of approved dosage forms or drugs formulated from bulk chemicals that are not approved by FDA for use as drugs in the US.

Compounded drugs

60

Which of the following is not a record requirement for drugs dispensed for animals?

a. Identify the animals, either as indivduals or a group along with the species and number being treated
b. Identify the condition being treated and the duration the aniaml is being treated for
c. Established name of the drug and active ingredient along with the dosage prescribed or used
d. Specified withdrawal, withholding, or discard time(s) if applicable for meat, milk, eggs, or animal derived food
e. The name and address of the prescribing veteriniarna and any cautionary statements
f. Records should be kept for at least 2 years and given access to FDA to estimate risk to public health

e. The name and address of the prescribing veteriniarna and any cautionary statements

61

Which of the following is not considered a criteria that makes a chemical a drug?

a. It is an article that is not intended for the treatment use in food animals
b. It is an article recognized in the United States Pharmacopoeia/ National Formulary or the official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States or their supplements
c. It is an article intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals
d. It is an article that is intended to be used as a component of an item falling into one of the three categories above

a. It is an article that is not intended for the treatment use in food animals

**It is an article intended for the use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals

62

Which of the following types of drugs is limited to dispensing by or upon the order of a licensed prescriber within the confines of a VCPR?

a. Generic drugs
b. Adultered drugs
c. Prescription drugs
d. Misbranded drugs

c. Prescription drugs

**also called legend drugs

63

True/False: an over the counter (OTC) drug is considered a prescription drug.

False

**considered a non-prescription drug

64

True/False: A layperson cannot use an OTC drug in an extralabel manner without DVM oversight.

True

65

Which of the following is not required on the label for drugs prescribed to animals?

a. Name and address of teh prescribing vet
b. Established name of the drug and any specific directions for use including the spp, frequency, route of administration and duration of therapy
c. Any cautionary statements along with your DEA number
d. Your specific withrrawal, withholding, or discard time for meat, milk, eggs or any other food

c. Any cautionary statements along with your DEA number


**don't need DEA number unless its a controlled substance

66

What is a compounded drug?

a. A drug that is not recognized/ FDA approved in the US and doesn't meet purity quality standards
b. Drug that is safe and effective for use by laypersons and are sold without needing a prescription
c. Drugs that are limited to dispensing by or upon the order of a licensed prescriber because they are habit forming, toxic, or have potential for harm
d. Mixtures of approved dosage forms or drugs formulated from bulk chemicals that are not approved by FDA for use as drugs in the US

d. Mixtures of approved dosage forms or drugs formulated from bulk chemicals that are not approved by FDA for use as drugs in the US

67

Drugs that are intended for use in or on animal feed, which is limited to use under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian is known as?

VFD (Veterinary Feed Directive) drugs

68

True/False: FDA approved drugs can be used in an extralabel manner according to AMDUCA.

True

69

True/False: When writing prescriptions we can use abbreviations like q.d., q.o.d, and s.i.d.

False

**Don't use these abbreviations because they are commonly confused with other abbreviations and s.i.d is unknown to health professionsals outside vet med.

70

Which of the following is not a schedule V drug?

a. Pseudophedrine
b. PPA
c. Pentobarbitol
d. 2.4% Iodine solutions

c. Pentobarbitol

71

Which of the following is a Schedule II drug?

a. Diazepam
b. Fentanyl
c. Buprenorphine
d. Ketamine
e. Telazol

b. Fentanyl

72

List Schedule III class drugs.

Anabolic steroids
Telazol
Buprenorphine
Pentobarbitol with Lidocaine and Phenytoin
Ketamine

73

True/False: All benzodiazepines are considered Schedule IV class drugs.

True

74

True/False: There is no absorption with IV administration of drugs because it is going directly into the circulation via a needle/ syringe.

True

75

True/False: Hydrophilic or polar drugs are widely distributed and minimally excreted from the body.

False

**they're easily excreted and minimally distributed

76

True/Falase: The primary mechanism by which a chemical can be excreted from the body is by becoming more lipophilic and less hydrophilic.

False

**less lipophilic and more hydrophilic

77

What term describes the process whereby a solid dosage form physically disperses so that its constituent particles can be exposed to the GIT fluid?

Disintegration

78

Where does drug absorption of PO dosage froms occur mainly?

Small intestines

**acidity and motility of the stomach creates a hostile environmetn for drugs and influences absorption of drugs further down the tract

79

What are the three routes that bypass first pass metabolism?

Buccal, sublingual, and rectal route

80

Dissolution, which is often the rate limiting step can be enhanced by formulating the drug into a ___ form.

Salt form

81

The extent of drug absorption is defined as absolute systemic availability and is denoted in pharmacokinetic equations as the fraction of applied dose absorbed into the body. Which of the following is false regarding this concept?

a. We want a lower bioavailability of a drug within the systemic circulation
b. These parameters are used to measure systemic availability compared to the intravenous dose
c. IV dose is recommended to estimate this since its the only route of administration that guarantees 100% of teh dose is systemically available
d. The amount of drug collected after administration by the route under study is divided by that collected after IV administration

a. We want a lower bioavailability of a drug within the systemic circulation

**we want a higher bioavailability bc it tells us how much is within the systemic circulation

82

Drugs with a ___ protein bind have a longer duration of action, which means that we will have to administer more of the drug to get a pharmacological effect at the target site.

High protein bound

83

Which drugs are the only ones that we want to be highly protein bound since they accumulate in tissue exudate which is full of albumin that they can bind to allowing these drugs to get to the tissue sites more easily?

NSAID's

84

True/False: Clearance is an indicator of how much of a drug is being removed.

False

**it is not an indicator for how muhc is being removed, just measures the efficiency of drug elimination from the body