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HSC 381: Pathology > exam 1 > Flashcards

exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

whats in ECF?

A

NA, CL, CA

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2
Q

whats in ICF?

A

K, P, proteins

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3
Q

what is ischemia reperfision therapy?

A

when blood flow is restored; in myocardial and cerebral infarctions

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4
Q

what is the biomarker of CABF?

A

CKMB and troponin

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5
Q

atrothy?

A

dec in cell size

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6
Q

hypertrophy?

A

inc in cell size

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7
Q

hyperplasia?

A

inc in cell number

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8
Q

metaplasia?

A

change in cell type

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9
Q

steatosis?

A

fatty changes that impair cell functioning in liver and skeletal muscle

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10
Q

lipofusion?

A

brown spots associated with aging due to free radical injury

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11
Q

pnuemconiosis?

A

silica, duct, or C in lungs; black lung disease

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12
Q

plumbism?

A

lead poisoning

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13
Q

argyria?

A

silver poisoning

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14
Q

dysttrophic calcification?

A

normal Ca levels in dead/dying tissue

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15
Q

metastatic calcification?

A

in normal tissues with hypercalcemia in blood

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16
Q

autolysis?

A

when enzymes are derived from cells themselves

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17
Q

herterolysis?

A

when enzymes are derived from lysosomes or other inflammatory cells

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18
Q

what are the 3 types of nuclear change?

A

karyolysis, pyknosis, karyorrhexis

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19
Q

what is karyolysis?

A

chromatin dissolves due to DNAse activity

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20
Q

pyknosis?

A

nucleus shrinks

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21
Q

karyorrhexis?

A

nucleus breaks into fragments

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22
Q

5 types of necrosis?

A

coagulative, liquefactive, gangrenous, caseous, fat

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23
Q

coagulative necrosis? give an example

A

denaturation of proteins; myocardial infarction

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24
Q

liquefactive necrosis? give an example

A

enzymes digest cell; bacterial and fungal infections

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25
Q

gangrenous necrosis? give an example

A

form of coagulative thats wet; diabetes

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26
Q

caseous necrosis? give an example

A

cheesy white within granulomatous tissue; TB

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27
Q

fat necrosis? give an example

A

chalky white; pancreatitis

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28
Q

2 components of acute inflammation?

A

vascular changes and cellular events

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29
Q

chemotaxis?

A

WBC attracted to injury

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30
Q

opsonins?

A

serum proteins that recognize and attach to foreign particles

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31
Q

4 types of inflammatory cells?

A

neutrophils, macrohpages, lymphocytes, eosinophils

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32
Q

histamine?

A

in mast cells, cause arteriolar dilation

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33
Q

serotonin?

A

in platelets, released during platelet aggregation

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34
Q

neuropeptides?

A

transmit pain signals

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35
Q

interleukin 1 and TNF?

A

produced by macrophages, leads to fever, lethargy, and cachexia

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36
Q

acute inflammation outcomes?

A

resolution, tissue destruction/fibrosis, chronic inflammation

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37
Q

granulomatous inflammation?

A

wall off inert foreign objects

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38
Q

atelectasis?

A

collapse

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39
Q

fibrinous inflammation?

A

bread and butter appearance

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40
Q

suppurative (purulent) inflammation?

A

contains pus like in abscesses

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41
Q

ulceration?

A

epithelial surface erodes like in ulcers

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42
Q

necrotizing/gangrenous inflammation?

A

black, bacterial

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43
Q

normal WBC count?

A

4,000-10,000 cells/microL

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44
Q

leukocytosis WBC count?

A

15,000-20,000 cells/microliter

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45
Q

neutrophilia?

A

inc. polymorphonuclear cells usually in bacterial infections

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46
Q

lymphocytosis?

A

inc. lumphocytes in mono, mumps, rubella

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47
Q

leukopenia?

A

dec WBC in viral infections like rickettsia, protozoan infections, typhoid

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48
Q

parenchymal cells?

A

cells doing function

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49
Q

stroma cells?

A

cells in structure

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50
Q

3 types of proliferative cells?

A

liable cells, stable cells, permanent cells

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51
Q

liable cells?

A

from stem cells, continuously divide, in oral cavity and vagina

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52
Q

stable cells?

A

normally dormant but divide in response to injury, in liver

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53
Q

permanent cells?

A

terminally differentiated, neurons and cardiac cells

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54
Q

primary union/1st intention healing?

A

occurs in surgical incisions like sutures

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55
Q

secondary union/2nd intention healing?

A

when tissue loss is extensive like ulcers

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56
Q

3 hemodynamic disorders?

A

thrombosis, embolism, and hemorrhage

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57
Q

edema?

A

abnormal accumulation of fluid in interstitial space; named at site of collection like hydrophorax, hydroperitoneum

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58
Q

causes of edema?

A

inc hydrostatic pressure, inc capillary permeability, lymphatic blockage, dec osmotic pressure, in sodium retention

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59
Q

transudate?

A

low protein, noninflammatory edema fluid, from intravascular or osmotic pressure, specific gravity <1.012`

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60
Q

exudate?

A

high protein, inflammatory edema fluid, vascular permeability, many WBC, specific gravity >1.012

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61
Q

hematoma?

A

hemorrhage enclosed within a tissue

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62
Q

pinpoint/petichae?

A

1-2mm hemorrhage on skin ex: platelet disorders or clotting factor deficiencies

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63
Q

purpura?

A

3-5mm hemorrhages ex: trauma

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64
Q

ecchymosis?

A

1-2cm hemorrhages

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65
Q

jaundice?

A

large amounts of RBC degraded

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66
Q

thrombosis?

A

localized blood clot that interrupts blood flow predisposed by polycythemia, oral contraceptives, smoking

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67
Q

intrinsic pathway measured by?

A

partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

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68
Q

extrinsic pathway measured by?

A

prothrombin time (PT)

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69
Q

PTT?

A

28-35 sec clotting time, monitors efficacy of heparin

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70
Q

PT?

A

11-13 sec clotting time, expressed in INR, monitors efficacy of coumadin

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71
Q

what is the fate of the thrombus?

A

propagation, embolism, dissolution, organization/recanclization

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72
Q

pulmonary thromboembolism?

A

begins at great saphenous vein in leg and goes to inferior vena cava then to lungs

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73
Q

paradoxical emboli?

A

begins in venous circulation but gains access to arteriolar circulation through patent foramen ovale or atrial septal defect

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74
Q

infarction?

A

necrosis due to ischemia

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75
Q

2 types of infarcts?

A

anemic and hemorrhagic

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76
Q

anemic infarct?

A

white, occurs in heart, spleen, kidney

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77
Q

hemorrhagic infarct?

A

red, occurs in lungs, GI tract

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78
Q

shock?

A

circulatory collapse due to decreased cardiac output and peripheral vasodilation

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79
Q

5 types of shock?

A

cardiovascular, hypovolemic, septic, neurogenic, anaphylactic

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80
Q

3 cells of the immune system?

A

lymphocytes, APC, effector cells

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81
Q

what do lymphocytes consist of?

A

B cells, T cells, NK cells

82
Q

T cells?

A

originate in bone marrow and differentiate in thymus, in lymph nodes and spleen, 60-70% of lymphocytes, only detect peptide portion of antigen on HLA, consist of CD4 and CD8 cells

83
Q

CD4 cells?

A

helper T cells, play central role in immunity, produce antibodies, secrete cytokines

84
Q

CD8 cells?

A

cytotoxic T cells, kill virus infected cells and tumor cells

85
Q

B cells?

A

originate and differentiate in bone marrow, in spleen and lymph nodes, have surface Ig that recognize proteins, lipids, polysaccharides, nucleic acids, 15% of lymphocytes

86
Q

plasma cells?

A

differentiated B cells that secrete antibodies/ Ig

87
Q

IgA?

A

in all secretions

88
Q

IgG?

A

most of these (80%), in fetus, crosses placenta

89
Q

IgE?

A

in allergies, parasites

90
Q

NK cells/large granular lymphocytes?

A

kills infected, stressed, or damaged cells, 15% of lymphocytes

91
Q

APC consist of?

A

dendritic cells, macrophages, langerhan cells of skin

92
Q

macrophages?

A

derived from monocytes, secrete cytokines, interleukin 1, acid hydrolases, neutral proteases, prostoglandins, in delayed hypersensitivity rxns

93
Q

langerhans cells of skin?

A

form dendritic cells, have birbeck granules which are tennis racket shaped cytoplasmic structures, express class 2 antigens

94
Q

effector cells consist of?

A

NK cells, plasma cells, CD4 and CD8 cells, macrophages

95
Q

cytokines?

A

soluble proteins

96
Q

complement?

A

20 plasma proteins that form MAC (C5b-C9)

97
Q

C3a?

A

inflammation

98
Q

C3b?

A

opsonization

99
Q

HLA system?

A

group of proteins involved in organ transplant matching, genes are on the major histocompatability complex (MHC) on chromosome 6

100
Q

2 classes of HLA system?

A

class 1 antigens and class 2 antigens

101
Q

class 1 antigens?

A

HLA-A,B,C, on all human cells, tissue graft rejection

102
Q

class 2 antigens?

A

HLA-DP,DQ,DR, on immunocompetent cells like macrophages, dendritic cells, langerhan cells, and B cells

103
Q

4 types of hypersensitivity rxns?

A

anaphylactic, cytotoxic, immune/Ag+Ab complex, cell mediated (delayed)

104
Q

anaphylactic hypersensitivity example?

A

allergic rhinitis

105
Q

cytotoxic hypersensitivity example?

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

106
Q

immune/Ag+Ab complex hypersensitivity example?

A

serum sickness

107
Q

cell mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity example?

A

poison ivy or TB

108
Q

systemic anaphylaxis?

A

occurs within minutes, you’ll itch, get hives, airway obstruction, death may occur

109
Q

3 types of transplant rejections?

A

hyperacute rejection, acute cellular/humoral rejection, chronic rejection

110
Q

autoimmunity?

A

when immune system attacks you

111
Q

immune tolerance?

A

unresponsiveness to self antigens; own body wont attack itself

112
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A

CD4 and B cells failed, inflammatory cells in many organ systems, fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy, pain in joints, butterfly rash, can also be dyscoid where it’s only on skin

113
Q

RA?

A

chronic inflammation of joints, rheumatoid factor present, pannus formation that scars and calcifies

114
Q

sjogren syndrome?

A

dry eyes, dry mouth, bilateral parotid enlargement, affects salivary and lacrimal glands, more common in women

115
Q

primary sjogren syndrome?

A

no CT disorder

116
Q

secondary sjogren syndrome?

A

CT disorder

117
Q

pannus formation?

A

mix of synovial cells, inflammatory cells, granulation tissue, and fibrous tissue

118
Q

systemic sclerosis/ scleroderma?

A

excessive fibrosis on skin and GI tract; AKA crest syndrome

119
Q

what does crest syndrome stand for?

A

calcinosis, raynauds phenomenon, eosinophil dysmotility, sclerodactyliy, telanglectasia

120
Q

2 characteristics of scleroderma?

A

anti scl 70 and anticentromere antibody

121
Q

polyarteritis nodosa?

A

vascularitis of small and medium arteries, hepatitis B antigen present, more in men

122
Q

x linked agammaglobulinemia bruton?

A

in males, B cells cant mature, no immunoglobulin and plasma cells, normal T cells, recurrent bacterial infections

123
Q

isolated IgA deficiency?

A

most common primary immune deficiency, B cell defect, B cells cant mature to plasma cells, mucosal surface infections

124
Q

DiGeorge’s syndrome?

A

congenital hypoplasia of thymus, T cells dont mature, recurrent viral and fungal infections

125
Q

severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)/ swiss type gammaglobulinemia?

A

no B or T cells, caused by adenosine deaminase deficiency, bacterial, viral, and fungal infections

126
Q

immunodeficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema/ wiskott aldrich syndrome?

A

x linked disease characterized by eczema, thrombocytopenia, and recurrent infections

127
Q

neoplasia?

A

uncontrolled cell division

128
Q

dysplasia?

A

reversible change where cells are different sizes and shapes EX: cervix

129
Q

well differentiated?

A

closely resembles tissue origin

130
Q

poorly differentiated?

A

does not resemble tissue origin

131
Q

benign tumors?

A

well differentiated, does not metastasize, grows slowly, encapsuled, ends in -oma, no pleomorphism, retains functional capacity

132
Q

malignant tumors?

A

poorly differentiated, doesnt maintain normal function, pleomorphism displayed, metasizes, grows fast, ends in -sarcoma

133
Q

papilloma?

A

benign neoplasm with fingerlike projections on squamous and transitional epithelium

134
Q

adenoma?

A

benign neoplasm of glangular epithelium

135
Q

leiomyomas?

A

smooth muscle tumor that’s spindle shaped

136
Q

choristoma?

A

nonneoplastic area where normal tissue is misplaced with another organ

137
Q

hamartoma?

A

noneoplastic tumor overgrowth of cells normally found in the affected organ

138
Q

carcinoma?

A

malignant tumor of epithelial; squamous, transitional, and adeno carcinoma

139
Q

sarcoma?

A

malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin; osteosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma (skeletal muscle), lieomyosarcoma (smooth muscle), liposarcoma (fatty tissue)

140
Q

teratoma?

A

neoplasm derived from all 3 germ layers which may contain skin, bone, teeth, malignant or benign, usually in ovaries or testes

141
Q

acquired preneoplastic disorders?

A

persistent cell replication in long unhealed skin wounds, bronchial mucosa of smokers, chronic ulcerative colitis, leukoplakia

142
Q

proto oncogenes?

A

normally off but are turned on

143
Q

routes of metastasis in carcinoma?

A

lymphatics

144
Q

routes of metastasis in sarcoma?

A

BV

145
Q

routes of metastasis in renal cell carcinoma?

A

veins

146
Q

HPV?

A

causes squamous cell carcinoma of cervix, anogenital, oropharyngeal, and genital warts

147
Q

EBV?

A

causes burkitts lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma

148
Q

hepatitis B and C virus?

A

causes most hepatocellular carcinomas, leads to hepatocellular injury where hepatocytes proliferate into reactive oxygen species (ROS)

149
Q

helicobacter pylori?

A

gram negative bacterium that cause stomach ulcers, gastritis, and duodenitis; in gastric adenocarcinomas and gastric lymphomas; leads to B cell tumors

150
Q

paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

consequences from cancer in body but not due to local cancer cells, mediated by hormones/cytokines secreted by tumor cells or the immune response ex: cushings syndrome, hypercalcemia

151
Q

TNF?

A

suppresses appetite, releases fatty acids, and breaks down skeletal muscle

152
Q

cancer cachexia?

A

loss of body fat and lean body mass with weakness , anorexia, and anemia caused by the release of cytokines (TNF)

153
Q

tumor specific antigens (TSA)?

A

cellular proteins characteristic in some tumors

154
Q

2 types of tumor specific antigens (TSA)?

A

carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and alphafeto protein (AFP)

155
Q

carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)?

A

high in colorectal, gastric, pancreatic, lung, and breast carcinomas

156
Q

alpha feto protein (AFP)?

A

high in testicular cancer, hepatocellular carcinomas, and teratomas

157
Q

grading?

A

histopathological eval of lesion based on degree of cellular differentiation

158
Q

staging?

A

assessment of the degree of localization/ spread of tumor

159
Q

3 staging systems?

A

TNM, Dukes, Ann Arbor

160
Q

lab diagnosis tools for cancer?

A

excision/biopsy, FNA, PAP smear, PSA screening, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), alpha feto protein (AFP)

161
Q

environmental diseases caused by?

A

exposure to chemical or physical agents

162
Q

lead?

A

from paint and gas, causes low IQ, hyperactivity, and poor organizational skills in children, causes peripheral nephropathy in adults, lead lines on x ray, microcytic hypochromic anemia, slippage of RBC, high lead levels, lead colic, proximal tubular damage

163
Q

mercury disease/ minimata disease?

A

from contaminated fish

164
Q

acute mercury poisoning?

A

causes GI sloughing

165
Q

chronic mercury poisoning?

A

causes gingivitis, loosening of teeth, stomachitis, irrational obsession, compulsions

166
Q

acrodynia?

A

pain, swelling, pink fingers, toes, cheeks, and nose

167
Q

arsenic?

A

from soil, H20, wood preservatives, herbicides; symptoms include retching, vomiting, diarrhea, hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis,convulsions, delirum

168
Q

cadium?

A

from batteries, contaminated soil, H2O, plants; causes COPD, renal disease, osteoporosis, and osteomalacia

169
Q

chloroform CCl4?

A

causes dizziness and confusion

170
Q

benzene?

A

causes bone marrio aplasia (no cells) and leukemia

171
Q

polycyclic hydrocarbons?

A

causes scrotal, lung, and bladdar cancers

172
Q

DDT?

A

causes neurological toxicity

173
Q

Diotoxins, PCB?

A

causes acne, hyperpigmentation/keratosis

174
Q

phthalates?

A

causes hypospodias, cryptorchism, testicular abnormalities

175
Q

mineral dusts?

A

causes pneumocnoniosis

176
Q

Tobacco?

A

90% of lung cancers, 4 million deaths per year, measured by blood levels of conitine; causes emphysema, bronchitis, lung cancer, and MI

177
Q

nicotine?

A

causes ganglionic stimulation

178
Q

phenol?

A

causes tumors and mucosal irritation

179
Q

carbon monoxide?

A

impaired O transport

180
Q

formaldehyde?

A

causes cilia toxicity and mucosal irritation

181
Q

oxides of nitrogen?

A

causes cilia toxicity and mucosal irritation

182
Q

nitrosamine?

A

carcinogenesis

183
Q

200 mg/dL of alcohol?

A

causes drowsiness

184
Q

300 mg/dL of alcohol?

A

causes stupor, coma, respiratory arrest

185
Q

alcohol?

A

alcohol dehydrogenase is main enzyme; causes fatty liver, metabolic acidosis, ROS and lipid peroxidation, endotoxin release that stimulates cytokines (TNF) causing cell injury

186
Q

reyes syndrome?

A

after viral infection causes fever, in URT, use of aspirin, not for ppl under age 19, unknown cause

187
Q

curling ulcer?

A

gastric ulcer

188
Q

cushing ulcer?

A

due to stress

189
Q

marasmus?

A

growth retardation, loss of muscle, serum albumin normal

190
Q

Kwashiorkor?

A

protein deprivation more than calorie, less protein so you get edema, hyperpigmentation

191
Q

bulimia?

A

eating then vomiting, menstrual irregularities, weight maintained, cardiac arrhythmias, aspiration pneumonia, stomach rupture, psych assessment

192
Q

anorexia?

A

self induced starvation, amenorrhea, constipation, bradycardia, cold intolerance, dry/ scaly skin, lanugo hair, anemia

193
Q

vitamin A deficiency?

A

night blingness, xerophthamia (dry eyes), bitots spots

194
Q

vitamin D deficiency?

A

rickets, osteomalacia, hip fractures, hypocalcemia

195
Q

vitamin C deficiency?

A

scurvy, dec collagen, hemorrhages, free radical scavenger

196
Q

too much vitamin A?

A

headache, dizziness vomiting, stupor, blurred vision, weight loss, anorexia, pain in joints, fractures

197
Q

too much vitamin C?

A

uricosuria of iron

198
Q

too much vitamin D?

A

metastatic calcification, bone pain, hypercalcemia

199
Q

BMI calculation?

A

(weight in kg/ height in m)^2

200
Q

consequences of obesity?

A

hypertriglyceridemia, low HDL, choleithiasis (gallstones), hypoventilation, osteoarthritis, stroke, cancer

HSC 381: Pathology (1 decks)

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