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Physiology > Exam 1: Review > Flashcards

Exam 1: Review Flashcards

1
Q

Explain how one calculates Gain of a Controlled System

A

Gain= Correction
—————-
Error
Correction: Difference between the intact/normal and inactive systems
Error: range of the intact or normal system

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2
Q 
A large volume of blood is transfused inside a person who's baroreceptor pressure control system is not functioning and their atrial pressure rises from 100 mmHg to 175 mmHg. The same volume of blood is transfused to a person with a normal control system and their blood pressure rises from 100 to 125 mmHg. What is the gain of the control system?
A. -1
B. -2
C. -4
D. -5
A

-2

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3
Q

Baroreceptors (pressure receptors) in the carotid system sense changes (increases) in the arterial pressure. These baroreceptors send signals to the brainstem where the cardiac centers are located. A feedback system then activates a number of responses that result in a lowering of arterial pressure. Two dogs are used in a study to test the effects of a drug that causes hypertension as a possible side effect. In one of the dogs the baroreceptor feedback system has been inactivated. In the dog with the intact feedback
system the arterial pressure increases from 100 to 110. In the animal with the inactivated control system, the pressure increases from 100 to 150. What is the effectiveness with which the baroreceptor system controls increase in blood pressure?

A. -1
B. -2
C. -4
D. -5

A

-4

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4
Q

What is the Nernst equation used to determine?

A

Determine the diffusion potential that opposes the net diffusion of a specific ion

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5
Q

All of the following must be true when using the Nernst equation EXCEPT:
A. Investigate one ion type at a time
B. The membrane must be permeable to the investigated ion
C. The ion must be at equilibrium
D. All the above are correct

A

All the above are correct

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6
Q

What is the simplified Nernst equation?

A

EMF= 61.5mV log (Concentration outside/Concentration inside)

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7
Q

What are the major cations found in the extracellular fluid? Specify the most abundant

A

Na+ is the most

C++

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8
Q

What are the major cations found in the intracellular fluid? Specify the most abundant

A

K+ is the most

Mg++

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9
Q

What are the major anions found in the intracellular fluid? Specify the most abundant

A

Phosphate is the most

Proteins

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10
Q

What are the major anions found in the extracellular fluid?

A

Cl-

Bicarbonate

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11
Q 
Which of the following is/are secondary active transport antiporters?
A. Sodium-hydrogen pump
B. GLUT transport
C. Sodium-Calcium pump
D. Both A and C
A

Sodium-hydrogen pumps

Sodium-calcium pumps

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12
Q 
Which of the following are secondary active transport symporters?
A. GLUT transporter
B. Sodium-Calcium pump
C. Sodium-Glucose pump
D. Osmosis
A

Sodium Glucose pump

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13
Q 
All of the following drugs deactivate acetylcholinesterase EXCEPT: 
A. Neostigimine
B. Physostigmine
C. Methacoline
D. Nicotin
E. Both C and D
A

Methacoline and Nicotin

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14
Q 
Which of the following drugs acts on muscle fibers like acetylcholine?
A. Methacoline
B. Neostigimine
C. Curare
D. Physostigmine
A

Methacoline

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15
Q 
Tension is 0 when there is no actin filament and myosin overlap, and the sarcomere is at what length?
A. 2.2um 
B. 1.65um
C. <1.65um
D. 3.5um
A

3.5 um

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16
Q

Which of the following is the best description of the sarcomere when the muscle fiber is at maximum tension?
A. Sarcomere is at 2.2 um and actin and myosin completely overlap
B. Sarcomere is at 1.65 and the actin filaments begin to touch
C. Sarcomere is <1.65 and the actin filaments over lap
D. Sarcomere is 3.5um and the actin filament does not overlap

A

Sarcomere is experience max tension at 2.2um when the actin and myosin completely overlap AND when the sarcomere is at 1.65um and the actin filaments begin to touch

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle components?

A. T-Tubules in the cardiac muscle are found at the Z line, while T-tubules are located at the distal ends of thick filaments in skeletal muscles
B. Cardiac muscle T-tubules form triads on the SR, and Skeletal muscle T-tubules form triads with the SR
C. T-tubules have 1 cisternae in cardiac muscles and 2 cisternae in skeletal muscles
D. All of the above are correct

A

All of the above are correct

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18
Q 
Which of the following would HAVE to be a transmembrane protein? Select the correct answer and explain why the others are false. 
A. A receptor protein
B. A protein binding to the cytoskeleton
C. A channel protein
D. A phosphorylase
A

A channel protein

Why Incorrect:
Receptor: not all are transmembrane proteins
Proteins binding to the cytoskeleton and phosphorylase are found INSIDE the cell

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19
Q 
Which of the following ordanelles is directly associated with synthesis of proteins for secretion?
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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20
Q 
Pits coated with which of the following are often associated with endocytosis?
A. Clathrin
B. COPI
C. COPII
D. Coatamers
E. Vinculin
A

Clathrin

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21
Q

Which of the following processes does not require the presence of mitochondria?
A. Oxidative Phosphorylation
B. Production of carbon dioxide water
C. Breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid
D. Electron transfer between cytochromes
E. Utilization of oxygen as a final electron receptor

A

Breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid

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22
Q 
Which of the following transport mechanisms requires energy other than kintetic energy?
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Active Transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
A

Active transport

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23
Q 
Of the following ions, which is most concentrated in the extracellular environment?
A. Sodium 
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
A

Sodium

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24
Q 
The sodium-potassium pump is an example of which of the following kinds of transport?
A. Diffusion
B. Primary active transport
C. Secondary active transport
D. Facilitated Diffusion
A

Primary Active transport

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25
Q 
The sodium-glucose pump is an example of which of the following kinds of transport?
A. Diffusion
B. Primary active transport
C. Secondary active transport
D. Facilitated Diffusion
A

Secondary Active transport

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26
Q 
The sodium-calcium pump is an example of which of the following kinds of transport?
A. Diffusion
B. Primary active transport
C. Secondary Active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
A

Secondary active transport

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27
Q 
Glucose transporters (GLUT transporters) employ which of the following kinds of transport?
A. Diffusion
B. Primary active transport
C. Secondary active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
A

Facilitated diffusion

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28
Q

Which of the following mechanisms would most likely be used to move water from an extracellular environment across an epithelial layer into an extracellular environment on the opposite side of the epithelial cell layer?
A. sodium channels and sodium ATPase pumps
B. calcium channels and sodium ATPase pumps
C. calcium channels and calcium ATPase pumps
D. Sodium channels and calcium ATPase pumps

A

Sodium channels and ATPase pumps

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29
Q

Briefly explain cells affinity for calcium in their membrane

A

Not a fan

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30
Q 
The action potential for both a ventricular cardiomyocyte and a Purkinje fiber exhibit a plateau phase (phase 1 and 2). Conductance of which of the following ions is responsible for phase 0?
A. calcium ions
B. potassium ions
C. sodium ions
D. both potassium and calcium ions
E. both sodium and calcium
A

Both sodium and calcium

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31
Q

Which of the following characteristics would be true of cardiac muscle cells but NOT skeletal muscle fibers?

A. cells have the sarcomeric band
B. cells utilize T-tubules
C. Cells are mononucleated
D. Cells utilize ryanodine channels

A

ONly cardiac muscle cells are mononucleated

32
Q 
The resting potential of -85mV is characteristic of which of the following phases of the cardiac fast action potential?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
A

Stage 4

33
Q 
Which of the following correctly characterizes Stage 3 in a fast action potential?
A. -80 mV
B. rapid depolarization
C. Repolarization
D. resting potential
A

Repolarization

34
Q

The action potential for both a ventricular cardiomyocyte and a Purkinje fiber exhibit a plateau phase (phase 1 and 2). Which of the following ions is/are responsible for this occurrence? Explain your choice

A. calcium ions
B. potassium ions
C. sodium ions
D. both potassium and calcium ions
E. both sodium and calcium
A

Calcium ions and potassium ions; The calcium channels are slow to close following depolarization and the potassium channels are slow to open

35
Q

The sodium-calcium exchanger in the sarcolemma (SERCA) of the cardiac muscle cell is an example of which of the following mechanisms?
A. Primary active transport involving an antiporter
B. Primary active transport involving a symporter
C. Secondary active transport involving a symporter
D. Secondary active transport involving an antiporter

A

Secondary active transport involving an antiporter

36
Q 
Left ventricular isolvumic contraction occurs immediately  following which of the following events?
A. Closure of the aortic valve
B. Opening of the aortic valve
C. Closure of the AV valve
D. Opening of the AV valve
A

Closure of the AV valve

37
Q

Which of the following statements is true for the period of rapid ejection?

A. It occurs when the left ventricular pressure is above
80mmHg
B. The semilunar valves are closed during this phase
C. It occurs during the last two-thirds of ejection
D. It results in the ejection of about 90% of the total volume of blood

A

It occurs when the left ventricular pressure is above the 80mmHg

38
Q

Immediately prior to the ventricular isolvolumic contraction, there is a slight but marked elevation in atrial pressure. Which of the following is responsible for this elevated pressure?

A. Closure of the AV valve
B. Opening of the AV valve
C. Atrial contraction
D. Diastasis
E. Opening of the semilunar valve
A

Atrial contraction

39
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the cardiac cycle with regards to the diagram?

A. The pressure wave of the atrium after AV valve closes
is due to the backflow of blood at the beginning of
ventricular contraction
B. The pressure wave of the atrium before the AV valve
closes is caused by the atrial contraction
C. The pressure wave of the atrium before the AV valve
opens is caused by slow flow of blood into the atrium
while the AV valve is closed
D. Diastasis is the first period of diastole and the period
of rapid filling

A

The explanation of diastole is incorrect; it is the middle third of diastole when blood slowly slowly fills the ventricle

40
Q

The Frank Starlin law is based on which of the following principles?

A. The greater the stretching of cardiac muscle, the greater the force of contraction
B. The more calcium returned to the SR, the greater the force of contraction
C. The amount of blood received by each tissue is directly related to the immediate needs of that tissue
D. The faster the heart rate, the more likely that the period of diastasis will be eliminated

A

The greater the stretching of cardiac muscle, the greater the force of contraction

41
Q

Which of the following can lead to an increase in stroke volume output? Explain

A. Increasing EDV
B. Decreasing EDV
C. Increasing ESV
D. Decreasing ESV
E. Both A and C
F. Both B and D
A

Increasing EDV or decreasing ESV increases stroke volume

42
Q

Excess potassium in the extracellular fluid would have which of the following effects on heart activity?

A. Heart will become dilated
B. Heart rate will increase
C. Heart will go toward spastic contraction
D. Heart action potential will increase

A

Heart will become dilated, flaccid, and slows the heart rate

43
Q

Excess calcium ions in the extracellular fluid would have which of the following effects on heart activity?

A. Heart will become dilated
B. Heart rate will increase
C. Heart will go toward spastic contraction
D. Heart action potential will increase

A

Heart will go towards spastic contractions

44
Q

In typical ECG, which of the following waves occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria?

A. T
B. R
C. S
D. P
E. Q
A

P wave

45
Q

If the end-diastolic volume is 110mL and the end-systolic volume is 30 mL, the stroke volume is…?

A. 140 mL
B. 80 mL
C. 70 mL
D. 40 mL
E. 10 mL
A

80 mL

46
Q

How do you determine stroke volume

A

SV= EDV-ESV

47
Q

How do you calculate ejection fraction?

A

Ejection fraction= SV/EDV

48
Q

If the end-diastolic volume is 120 mL, and the end-systolic volume is 50mL, what is the approximate value of the ejection fraction?

A. 42%
B. 60%
C. 214%
D. 240%

A

58.3% or 60%

49
Q

Isovolumic contraction of the ventricles occurs:

A. at the beginning of systole
B. at the end of systole
C. at the beginning of diastole
D. after the opening of the semilunar vlaves

A

At the beginning of systole

50
Q

Neostigmine can be used to alleviate some of the effects of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease in which antibodies attack acetylcholine receptors. Which of the following best represents neostigmine’s effects?

A. Neostigmine can be used to alleviate some of the
effects of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease
in which antibodies attack acetylcholine receptors.
B. Neostigmine binds to the antibodies and allows more
acetylcholine receptors to participate in creating a
stronger end plate potential.
C. Neostigmine inactivates acetylcholinesterase,
allowing more acetylcholine molecules to bind to
receptors and create stronger end plate potentials.
D. Neostigmine binds to voltage-gated sodium channels
and initiates a stronger action potential.

A

Neostigmine inactivates acetylcholinesterase, allowing more acetylcholin molecules to bind to receptors and create stronger end plate potentials

51
Q

Which of the following are anchored to the presynaptic membrane and associated with synaptic vesicles to which they are tethered by short filaments?

A. Synaptic vesicles
B. Calcium channels
C. Dense bars
D. Dihydropyridine channels

A

Dense bars

52
Q

In order for an acetylcholine-gated ion channel to open, how many Ach molecules are necessary to attach to its alpha subunits?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

Two

53
Q

Which of the following represents the first thing that happens after Ach binds to the ligand-gated channels on the sarcolemma?
A. An action potential is created on the sarcolemma
B. Dihydropyridine channels allow entry of calcium ions
C. An end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber
D. Ryanodingaling channels allow calcium to escape into the myoplasm

A

An end plate potential is created

54
Q

The vesicles for acetylcholine are transported to the axon terminal from where?

A. Rough ER
B. Smooth ER
C. The axon terminal membrane
D. Golgi

A

Golgi

55
Q 
Which of the following can be used to inactivate acetylcholinesterase?
A. Methacholine
B. Neostigmine
C. Physostigmine
D. Carbachol
A

Neostigmine

56
Q

Which of the following represents an example of an eccentric contraction?

A. The triceps muscle during the throwing of a ball
B. The triceps muscle while raising the body from the floor during a push up
C. The triceps muscle while lowering the body to the floor during a push-up
D. The biceps muscle while raising the body during a pull-up

A

The triceps muscle while lowering the body to the floor during a push-up

57
Q

Ducks, geese and many other species of birds may make long migratory trips during which they fly for long periods of time. Which of the following characteristics would be expected of their flight muscles (pectoralis complex)?

A. Their flight muscle fibers would have relatively small numbers of mitochondria
B. Their flight muscle fibers would have relatively small amounts of myoglobin
C. Their flight muscle fibers would have relatively small concentrations of ATPase
D. Their flight muscles would have a more extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Their flight muscle fibers would have small concentrations of ATPase

58
Q

True or False: Large amounts of myoglobin give a red color to the tissue

A

True; that’s why slow twitch muscle fibers are red due to the extra amounts of myoglobin (oxygen store-er)

59
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin heads go through repeated cycles in which they bind to actin, swivel to produce the power stroke, release from actin, and recock to prepare for the next cycle. One ATP molecule is required for each of these cycles. Which of the following events occurs after ATP binds to the myosin?

A. The power stroke resulting in the sliding of the actin along the myosin molecule
B. Recocking of the myosin head
C. Release of the myosin head from the actin binding site
D. Binding of the myosin head to an active site on the actin

A

Releasing of the myosin head from the actin binding site

60
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a chain of sarcomeres?

A. muscle
B. Myofiber
C. Myofibril
D. Myofilament

A

Myofibril

61
Q

Which of the following sarcomeric bands does not undergo a change in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle?

A. A band
B. H band
C. I band
D. J band

A

A band

62
Q

Which of the following sarcomeric bands is composed entirely of actin filaments?

A. A band
B. H band
C. I band
D. J band

A

I band is composed of entirely actin filaments

63
Q

Which of the following sarcomeric bands is composed entirely of myosin?

A. A band
B. H band
C. I band
D. J band

A

H band is composed entirely of myosin

64
Q

Dihydropyridine DHP channels are part of which of the following structures?

A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Plasmalemma
C. T tubules
D. Z discs

A

T-tubules

65
Q

Ryanodine-sensitive calcium ion release channels are part of which of the following structures?

A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Plasmalemma
C. T-tubules
D. Z discs

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

66
Q

Which of the following events occurs first during the transmission of a signal from an alpha motor neuron to a skeletal muscle fiber? (Bonus: List them in order)

A. End plate depolarization
B. Calcium ion influx into axon terminal
C. Exocytosis of synaptic vesicles
D. Sarcolemma Action Potential

A
  1. Calcium ion influx into the axon terminal
  2. Exocytosis of Synaptic Vescicles
  3. End-plate depolarization
  4. Sarcolemma Action potential
67
Q

Which of the following represents the factor by which the concentration of calcium ion increases in the cystol after the release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A. 10
B. 50
C. 100
D. 1000

A

100

68
Q

Which of the following maintains an optimum calcium concentration gradient to facilitate return of calcium to SR?

A. Calsequestrin
B. SERCA
C. DHP
D. Ryanodine

A

Calsequestrin

69
Q

Fast twitch fibers have which of the following characteristics?

A. They are a reddish color compared to slow twitch fibers
B. They have more mitochondria than slow-twitch fibers
C. They have more myoglobin than slow twitch fibers
D. They are more fatigable than slow twitch fibers

A

Fast twitch fibers are more fatigable than slow twitch fibers

70
Q

Which of the following types of neurons would transmit an action potential the fastest?

A. small diameter, non-myelinated
B. small diameter, myelinated
C. large diameter, myelinated
D. large diameter, non-myelinated

A

Large diameter and myelinated would be the fastest

71
Q

Saltatory conduction is characteristic of which part of a typical neuron?

A. Dendrite
B. Nerve cell body
C. Axon hillock
D. Axon

A

Axon

72
Q

Define saltatory conduction?

A

The jumping of the current flow that occurs at myelinated axons

73
Q

A selectivity filter with carbonyl oxygens is associated with which of the following kinds of ion channels?

A. Gated sodium
B. Non-gated sodium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride

A

Potassium

74
Q

Describe the function of selectivity filters in terms of potassium?

A

Dehydrate the potassium ions in order to allow them to pass through the voltage gate

75
Q

The resting potential for a typical neuron, such as a motor neuron, is best represented by which of the following potentials?

A. 74 mV
B. -74 mV
C. 90 mV
D. -90 mV

A

-90 mV

Physiology (8 decks)

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