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A&P > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

bone is _________ and is able to __________

A

dynamic; repair

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2
Q

what is bone

A

specialized connective tissue

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3
Q

define osteoclast

A

removes bone

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4
Q

define osteoblast

A

produce bone

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5
Q

define osteocyte

A

osteoblast surround by hard tissue

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6
Q

what are the function of bones

A

support, locomotion, protection, storage, and hematopoiesis

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7
Q

describe compact bone

A

rigid and solid
out cortex of all bone

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8
Q

describe cancellous bone

A

spongy
composed of trabecular that are filled with red bone marrow
found in the end of long bones and in the core of short bones

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9
Q

what are lamellae

A

osteocytes trapped in lacunae as the ground substance calcifies

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10
Q

what make up Haversian canals

A

nerves and blood vessels

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11
Q

what do lamellae and Haversian canals create

A

the haversion system

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12
Q

describe long bones
give examples

A

contains a shaft with a marrow cavity filled with bone marrow
femur, humerus, metatarsal, metacarpal

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13
Q

define epiphysis

A

the end of a long bone

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14
Q

define metaphasis

A

the junction where epiphysis and diaphysis join

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15
Q

define diaphysis

A

the shaft of the long bone

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16
Q

what is the epiphysis plate

A

growth plate

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17
Q

describe flat bones and give examples

A

outer compact bone with inner cancellous bone
no medullary cavity
ie: skull, scapula, ribs

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18
Q

describe short bones and give an example

A

outer compact bone with inner cancellous bone
no medullary cavity
carpal and tarsal bones

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19
Q

describe irregular bone and give an example

A

more irregular than short bones
have projections
vertebrae

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20
Q

define sesamoid and describe it
give an example

A

a bone that lies within a tendon or ligament
reduces the wear and tear of a bone
patella

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21
Q

define pneumatic and give an example

A

contains sinuses to decrease weight of bone
maxillary bone

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22
Q

define splanchnic and give examples

A

bone within an organ
os penis
os cordis

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23
Q

define intramembranous ossification

A

flat bones of skull
no cartilage template

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24
Q

define endochondral ossification

A

hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone
occurs in the embryo

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25
Q

what is the primary center of ossification? the secondary?

A

diaphysis; epiphysis

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26
Q

define axial and give examples

A

the axis/center of the body
skull, mandible, vertebrae, sternum, limbs, pelvic and shoulder girdles

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27
Q

define splanchnic and give an example

A

a bone that is not attached to other bones
os penis

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28
Q

define tuberosity/trochanter/tubercle

A

protuberances where muscles attach

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29
Q

define trochlea

A

where tendons pass over/through

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30
Q

define condyle

A

rounded projection on bone for articulation

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31
Q

define epicondyle

A

lateral projection above the cartilage

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32
Q

define foramen

A

an opening/passage through a bone

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33
Q

define fossa

A

depression in a bone

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34
Q

define tendon

A

muscle to bone

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35
Q

define ligament

A

bone to bone

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36
Q

what are the four divisions of the skull

A

cranium, nasal chambers, mandible and hyoid apparatus

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37
Q

what is the cranium and what is it made up of

A

it is the case for the brain
parietal
temporal
frontal
occipital
sphenoid
sagittal crest
zygomatic arch
lacrimal

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38
Q

what makes up the nasal chambers

A

maxilla
nasal bones
nasal septum
nasal turbinates
ethmoid bone
hard platelet
incisive bone
plating bone

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39
Q

what does the incisive bone house?

A

incisors

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40
Q

what makes up the palatine bone

A

the ventral surface of the skull

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41
Q

describe the mandible

A

two halves join at the mandibular symphysis
can easily fracture
has a body and ramus

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42
Q

describe the hyoid apparatus

A

lies between the mandible
fine bone and cartilage
how the larynx and tongue are suspended from the skull

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43
Q

what are the types of skull shapes? describe them

A

mesoticeptialic is a medium skull, like a Labrador
brachycephalic is a short skull, like a bulldog
dolichocephalic is a long skull, like a collie

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44
Q

what are the regions that make up vertebrae

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and caudal/coccygeal

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45
Q

what does the cervical region make up

A

neck

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46
Q

what does the thoracic region make up

A

thoracic

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47
Q

what does the lumbar region make up

A

the lower back

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48
Q

what does the sacral region make up

A

the pelvis

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49
Q

what does the caudal/coccygeal region make up

A

the tail

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50
Q

what is the number of bones in the vertebrae in cats and dogs

A

C7, T13, L7, S3, cd varies

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51
Q

what is the number of bones in the vertebrae in horses

A

C7, T18, L6, S5, cd 15-21

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52
Q

what is the number of bones in the vertebrae in cattle

A

C7, T13, L6-7, S5, cd 18-20

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53
Q

define body

A

cylinder-shaped and convex cranial end with a concave caudal end

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54
Q

define vertebral arch

A

form the foramen for the spinal cord

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55
Q

define the spinous process

A

dorsal projection off the vertebral arch

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56
Q

define the transverse process

A

lateral projections off the vertebral arch

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57
Q

define the cartilaginous invertebrate disc

A

between vertebral bodies

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58
Q

how many cervical vertebrae are in mammals

A

7

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59
Q

C1 represents __________ and C2 represents __________

A

atlas, axis

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60
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae are in mammals

A

13-18

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61
Q

the thoracic vertebrae form a joint with ____

A

ribs

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62
Q

there are usually _ lumbar vertebrae in mammals

A

7

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63
Q

lumbar vertebrae are __________, and ________ and ______ transverse processes

A

large; long, flat

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64
Q

there are usually - sacral vertebrae in mammals

A

3-5

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65
Q

define the sacrum

A

where the pelvis anchors with the legs

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66
Q

what does the sacrum form a joint with

A

the ilium-pelvis-sacroliac joint

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67
Q

describe caudal bones

A

vary in number and shape
get progressively smaller

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68
Q

ribs ________ the thoracic vertebrae number

A

match

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69
Q

ribs form the …

A

thoracic cage

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70
Q

boney ______ part and a cartilaginous _______ part make up _______ cartilage

A

dorsal; ventral; costal

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71
Q

where do ribs that dont attach to sternebrae attach?

A

the xiphoid

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72
Q

how many sternebrae are there

A

8

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73
Q

what is the first sternebrae called? the eighth?

A

manubrim; xiphoid

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74
Q

what is the clavicle

A

the collarbone

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75
Q

what is the scapula? describe it

A

shoulder blade
has a prominent spine

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76
Q

define the glenoid cavity

A

it articulates with the head of the humerus

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77
Q

describe the humerus

A

articulates with the shoulder joints/elbow joints
biggest bone
allows hinged movement
under muscle
perpendicular to the ground

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78
Q

what is the olecranon fossa

A

it articulates with the oricorieal process of the ulna

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79
Q

describe the radius

A

forearm

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80
Q

describe the ulna

A

forearm
larger than radius
creates a C-shaped cavity to form a hinge joint with humerus
articulates the carpus bones distally

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81
Q

define olecranon

A

the proximal end articulates with the humerus

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82
Q

describe the carpus

A

7 short bones in 2 rows
accessory carpal bone (sticks out from the radius/ulna)

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83
Q

describe the metacarpus

A

5 small long bones
#1-5 beginning medially

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84
Q

what metacarpus do horses stand on

A

3rd

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85
Q

describe digits

A

composed of 3 phalanges/phalanx (except the dewclaw)
fingers in humans

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86
Q

describe sesamoid

A

behind the metacarpophalangeal joints
allows smooth transition

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87
Q

describe accessory gland

A

lateral
used to identify metacarpals

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88
Q

describe the pelvis

A

it connects the hind limb to the body

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89
Q

where does the pelvis join

A

at the sacrum

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90
Q

what are the 4 points of each side of the pelvis? describe them

A

ilium- hip joint
pubis- between legs
ischium- butt region
acetabulum- hip socket

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91
Q

what is the obturator foramen

A

the opening in the pelvis for blood vessels

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92
Q

describe the femur

A

the longest and largest bone of the thigh

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93
Q

what does the femur do

A

anchors the hind limb to the body

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94
Q

what does the femur articulate with and how? why?

A

the tibia and fibula distally; to form the stifle joint

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95
Q

describe the patella

A

large sesamoid bone (patella)

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96
Q

what groove does the patella run in

A

the trochlear groove of the femur

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97
Q

describe the fabella

A

the caudal surface of the distal femur
lies within the gastrocnemius muscle

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98
Q

describe the tibia

A

medial, heavy, strong

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99
Q

describe the fibula

A

thin and delicate, lateral

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100
Q

true or false: the fibula does not always go all the way down

A

true

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101
Q

the tibia and fibula articulate with the __________ proximally and the ____________ distally

A

stifle
tarsus

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102
Q

how many bones is the tarsus made up of

A

7 bones in three rows

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103
Q

what are the two largest bones in the tarsus

A

the talus and the calcaneus

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104
Q

describe the calcaneus bone

A

point of the hock

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105
Q

describe the talus bone

A

two knots

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106
Q

describe the flow of bones in the leg/arm

A

anchor bone
strong bone
paired bones
tarsus/carpus
small bones
digits

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107
Q

what are the three main types of joints

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial

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108
Q

describe fibrous joints

A

immovable
suture
held together by fibrous connective tissue
found mostly in skull
bones are fused together

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109
Q

describe cartilaginous joints

A

limited movement
formed by cartilage
ie: pubic symphysis

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110
Q

describe synovial joints

A

wide range of movement
separated by fluid-filled space

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111
Q

describe synovial fluid

A

a joint fluid
clear-yellow and thick

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112
Q

what are synovial joint types? describe them

A

gliding- between carpal and tarsal bones
hinge- elbow/stifle
pivot- atlantoaxial joint
condylar- hock
ball and socket- hip, shoulder

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113
Q

describe synovial joint movement

A

flex/extend
abduction/adduction
rotation
circumduction
gliding
protraction
retraction

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114
Q

what are the four characterisitics of the muscle system

A

excitability
contractibility
extensibility
elasticity

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115
Q

what are the 3 primary functions of muscle

A

provide motion
maintain posture
generate heat

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116
Q

describe the skeletal system

A

it is controlled by the conscious mind
moves bones of the skeleton system
started and multinucleate
voluntary

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117
Q

where are cardiac muscle found

A

only in the heart

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118
Q

describe the smooth muscles

A

carry out unconscious internal movements of the body
found all over the body
nonstriated and single nucleus
involuntary

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119
Q

describe cardiac muscle

A

pumps heart
striated and single-nucleus
involuntary

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120
Q

what is an example of skeletal muscle

A

biceps, quads, glutes

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121
Q

what is an example of cardiac muscle

A

the heart

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122
Q

what’s an example of smooth muscle

A

eyes, airways, GI tract, urinary bladder, blood vessel

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123
Q

define myo

A

muscle

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124
Q

define sareo

A

muscle cells

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125
Q

what shape are smooth muscle

A

spindle-shaped (larger in the middle and they taper off at the end)

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126
Q

how do branches in the cardiac muscle connect

A

intercalated disks

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127
Q

what is the classical shape of a muscle

A

a belly (thick central portion) and tapers at each end

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128
Q

define the tendinous origin

A

starting point at one bone

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129
Q

define the tendinous insertion

A

ending point on another bone

130
Q

describe flat muscles

A

have an abdominal wall

131
Q

what is the connective tissue called in flat muscle

A

aponeurosis

132
Q

what is an example of circular muscles

A

urethral sphincters

133
Q

define bursa

A

connective tissue sac that contains synovial fluid

134
Q

what does the bursa do

A

provides a cushion

135
Q

what is a tendon sheath

A

the bursa wrapped around a tendon

136
Q

what are the two skeletal muscle attachments

A

the tendons and the aponeuroses

137
Q

how do tendons attach to bones

A

by fibrous tissue bones

138
Q

how do aponeuroses attach to bones

A

by broad sheets of fibrous tissue

139
Q

what is the linea alba

A

four sheets of muscle

140
Q

true or false: muscle fibers and muscle cells are the same things

A

true

141
Q

define fascicles

A

skeletal muscles grouped together

142
Q

what are fascicles surrounded by

A

perimysium

143
Q

what are individual fascicles surrounded by

A

endomyseum

144
Q

what are all the groups of fascicles covered by

A

epimysium

145
Q

where are the nuclei located in skeletal muscles

A

the sarcolemma

146
Q

what are muscle fibers composed of

A

microfibrils

147
Q

what are the microfibrils in skeletal muscle cells

A

actin and myosin

148
Q

what is the skeletal muscle network made up of

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum and the mitochondria

149
Q

define the sarcomere

A

bands of actin and myosin that make up contractile units of muscle cells

150
Q

define myofibrils

A

sarcomeres lined up end to end

151
Q

define motor unit

A

one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers it innervates

152
Q

what happens when there are few muscle fibers per motor unit

A

causes small, delicate movement of muscle

153
Q

what happens when there is a large number of muscle fibers per motor unit

A

causes large, powerful movement of muscle

154
Q

what is the neuromuscular junction

A

site where motor nerve fibers connect to muscle fibers

155
Q

what do synaptic vesicles release

A

the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (Ach)

156
Q

describe the relaxed state of muscle

A

actin and myosin filaments slightly overlap

157
Q

define the contraction state of muscle

A

cross-bridges ratchet back and forth
actin filaments pull towards center of myosin filaments
all the sarcomeres shorten

158
Q

describe the 8 steps of muscle contraction

A
  1. brain sends electrical signal to muscles through neurons
  2. the signal reaches the muscles at the neurotransmitter junction
  3. Ach is released from the neuron
  4. Ach binds to receptors on the muscle cell
  5. electrical signal travels to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  6. calcium is released from cytoplasmic reticulum
    7a. calcium binds to troponin
    7b. troponin moves tropomyosin and myosin binds to actin
    7c. myosin uses atp energy to move actin
  7. all muscle fibers shorten
159
Q

what do the intrinsic muscles move?

A

lips, cheeks, nostrils, eyelids, and ears

160
Q

what is the facial nerve called?

A

CNVII

161
Q

what can paralysis of CNVII cause?

A

drooping

162
Q

what two muscles are used for mastication? where are they located

A

masseter- over mandible
temporalis- cover parietal bones

163
Q

define atrophy

A

getting smaller

164
Q

what are the seven muscles that keep the eye straight

A

the dorsal, ventral, medial, and lateral rectus
dorsal and ventral oblique
retractor bubli

165
Q

define rectus

A

straight

166
Q

describe the epaxial muscle of the vertebral column

A

dorsal to the transverse process
three long groups
support and extend spine

167
Q

describe the hypaxial muscle

A

ventral to the transverse process
flex the vertebral column

168
Q

what muscles make up the vertebral column

A

epaxial muscle and hypaxial muscle

169
Q

what are the two intercostals of the thorax

A

the external and the internal

170
Q

define external intercostals

A

assist with inspiration

171
Q

define internal intercostals

A

assist with expiration

172
Q

define the diaphragm

A

a “line” that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavity
main muscle of inspiration

173
Q

as the diaphragm ________, the lungs _________.

A

contacts; expand

174
Q

define hiatus

A

three different openings of the diaphragm that allow the aorta, esophagus, and vena cava to pass through

175
Q

what are the four abdominal muscles

A

the external and internal abdominal obliques
the transversus abdominus
the rectus abdominus (abs)

176
Q

what create the linea alba

A

external and internal abdominal obliques and the transversus abdominus

177
Q

where does the rectus abdominus insert

A

the prepubic tendon

178
Q

what muscles attach the forelimb to the body

A

the trapezius, lattissumis dorsi and the brachiocephalicus

179
Q

describe the trapezius

A

triangular muscle spanning from the cervical vertebrae to the scapular spine

180
Q

define latissimus dorsi

A

fan-shaped muscle spanning from thoracic spine to humerus

181
Q

define brachiocephalicus

A

spans from skull to humerus

182
Q

what are the intrinsic muscles? what do they do

A

supraspinatus and infrasinatus
both stabilize the shoulder joint

183
Q

what are the three elbow muscles

A

triceps brachii
biceps brachii
brachialis

184
Q

describe the triceps brachii

A

four heads (scapula and humerus)
one insertion (olecranon)

185
Q

describe the biceps brachii

A

spans the scapula to the radius/ulna

186
Q

describe the brachialis

A

originates on the humerus and inserts on the radius/ulna

187
Q

what are the three muscles of the carpus and digits

A

common digital extender
superficial digital flexor
deep digital flexor

188
Q

where are the carpus/digit muscles

A

grouped around the radius/ulna

189
Q

what are the three gluteals of the thigh

A

superficial
middle
deep

190
Q

what makes up the hamstring group? what do they do

A

semimembranosus
semitendonus
biceps femoris
extend the hip and hock, flex the stifle

191
Q

define the quadriceps femoris

A

large muscles on the cranial thigh
extends stifle

192
Q

what does the lower hindlimb do

A

act mainly on hock joint

193
Q

what does the gastrocnemius do?

A

originate on caudal femur and inserts on the calcaneus of the hock
extends hock and flexes stifle
fabella lies on the origin

194
Q

define the Achilles tendon

A

the strong tendon at the point of the hock
includes the semitendinosus, gastrocneminus, biceps femons and SDFT

195
Q

what muscles make up the hock and digits

A

anterior tibial
SDFT
DDFT

196
Q

define pectoral muscles

A

superficial and deep
draw the limb forward, backward, and adduction

197
Q

describe the cutaneous tranci

A

muscles are tightly adhered to skin
allows animals to twitch skin

198
Q

what is the function of the nervous system

A

acts as a communication network of the body to adjust to external and internal changes

199
Q

what does the nervous system do to/with stimuli

A

receives, analyzes, integrates, and responds.

200
Q

what are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
what are they made up of

A

central nervous system; brain and spinal cord
peripheral nervous system; nerves that come off the CNS

201
Q

where do cranial nerves come from

A

the brain

202
Q

where do spinal nerves come from

A

the spinal cord

203
Q

define viscera

A

what is supplied by the autonomic nerves

204
Q

what nervous systems make up the viscera

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

205
Q

define neuron

A

a nerve cell with a cell body and nucleus

206
Q

what do dendrons and dendrites do?

A

carry impulses to the cell body

207
Q

what do axons do

A

carry nerve impulses

208
Q

what are axons covered with

A

myelin

209
Q

describe dendrites

A

branches of dendron
receives impulses from adjacent neurons

210
Q

describe dendrons

A

short filament of body cells that carry impulses from dendrites to the cell body

211
Q

define Schwann cells

A

encircles the axon

212
Q

describe axonites

A

branches of axon that carry impulses to the synaptic knob

213
Q

describe the synaptic knob

A

tip of the axonite that secretes the neurotransmitter

214
Q

what are the four shapes of nerve cells

A

anaxonic, bipolar, unipolar, multipolar

215
Q

define myelin

A

insulates and increases nerve conduction speed down the axon

216
Q

what do Schwann cells create

A

lipoprotein (fatty protein)

217
Q

what are Schwann cells used for

A

speeding up conduction

218
Q

what are nodes of ranvier

A

intervals between myelin segments

219
Q

define the nerve synapsis

A

where axons terminate; how nerves communicate with each other

220
Q

define synapsis

A

junction between two neurons or one neuron and the target tissue

221
Q

define synaptic cleft

A

gap between adjacent neurons

222
Q

define presynaptic membrane

A

brings depolarization wave to synapse and release neurotransmitter

223
Q

define postsynaptic membrane

A

contains receptors for neurotransmitters

224
Q

what is required for the nervous system to do its thing

A

calcium

225
Q

define synaptic transmission

A

perpetuation of nerve impulse from one neuron to the next cell

226
Q

what are used during synaptic transmission

A

axon, telodendon, terminal bouton, vesicles

227
Q

what does depolarization cause

A

vesicles to dump neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft

228
Q

what do neurotransmitters do

A

diffuse across the synaptic cleft towards the postsynaptic membrane

229
Q

what do receptors on the postsynaptic membrane do?

A

binds to the neurotransmitter

230
Q

define neurotransmitters

A

chemical messengers

231
Q

what is a stimulatory neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

232
Q

what are catecholamine neurotransmitters

A

norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine

233
Q

what are inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

GABA and glycine

234
Q

what are the portions of the brain

A

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain

235
Q

what is the majority of the forebrain

A

the cerebrum

236
Q

what are the L and R hemispheres of the cerebrum linked by

A

the corpus callosum

237
Q

why is the brain folded

A

to increase surface area

238
Q

define gyri

A

upfold

239
Q

define sulci

A

shallow depression

240
Q

define fissure

A

deep concaves

241
Q

what is the outer layer

A

grey matter that makes the cerebral cortex

242
Q

what is the inner layer

A

white matter made up of myelinated fibers

243
Q

define thalamus

A

found at the posterior end of the forebrain that processes information from the sense organs to the cerebral cortex

244
Q

define the hypothalamus

A

ventral to thalamus
connects to the endocrine and nervous systems
controls ANS by influencing vasodilation and vasoconstriction
major influence for homeostasis

245
Q

what makes up the ventral surface? define them

A

optic chiasm- crossover between R&L optic nerves to opposite side of brain
pituitary gland- endocrine gland below hypothalamus
olfactory bulbs- most rostral part of brain; responsible for smell

246
Q

describe the midbrain

A

short portion of brain
pathway for fibers between hindbrain and forebrain
carry hearing and sight senses

247
Q

what makes up the hindbrain

A

cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblonga

248
Q

define cerebellum

A

dorsal surface of hindbrain responsible for balance and coordination

249
Q

define pons

A

the bridge between left and right hemispheres of cerebellum

250
Q

define medulla oblonga

A

centers for representation and blood pressure

251
Q

what four things protect the brain

A

the cranium
ventricular system
meninges
blood-brain barrier

252
Q

describe ventricular system

A

canals inside brain and spinal cord
carries CSF

253
Q

what secretes CSF

A

choroid plexus

254
Q

describe CSF

A

clear fluid with no protein
protects CNS from sudden movement
provides nutrition for brain

255
Q

what are the three protective layers of the meninges

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

256
Q

define dura mater

A

tough CT beneath periosteum

257
Q

define arachnoid mater

A

collagen fibers and blood vessels nourish the CNS

258
Q

define pia mater

A

delicate membrane adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord; one cell layer thick

259
Q

define blood-brain barrier

A

neutral glial cells surround blood capillaries that create almost impermeable membrane to protect the brain from harmful substances

260
Q

what can pass through the blood-brain barrier

A

oxygen, sodium, potassium, and glycose

261
Q

where does the spine exit the skull

A

foramen magnum

262
Q

each segment of the spinal cord gives off how many nerves

A

two

263
Q

define gray matter

A

butterfly core with cell bodies and unmyelinated nerve fibers; interior

264
Q

define white matter

A

surrounds grey matter and contains myelinated nerve fibers; exterior

265
Q

define threshold stimulus

A

causes depolarization and generates a nerve impulse

266
Q

nerve impulse is an ___ or ___________ principle

A

all; nothing

267
Q

what charge do cells have

A

a negative net charge

268
Q

define nerve impulse

A

electrical charge flips across cell membrane (depolarization)

269
Q

what does unflipping electrical charges cause?

A

repolarization

270
Q

what is the NaK pump?

A

a specialized molecule to maintain resting state that pumps sodium outside and potassium inside

271
Q

define resting membrane potential

A

differences in electrical charge across neuron’s membrane

272
Q

define resting state

A

neuron is not being stimulated

273
Q

define depolarization

A

the neuron receives external stimulus (ie: touching something hot)
Na+ is pumped out, K+ is pumped in
ions flow by passive diffusion
charge becomes positive

274
Q

define action potenital

A

electrical charge goes to positive from negative

275
Q

describe the beginning of repolarization

A

Na channels close, K channels open
potassium flows out
net charge becomes more negative

276
Q

define repolarization

A

the outflow of K restores negative net charge, but ions are opposite from where they began
resting point is restored

277
Q

what makes the ions go back to their original locations

A

NaK pump

278
Q

define the refractory period

A

prefix time period where neuron is insensitive to additional stimuli and ensures flow of impulse travels in one direction

279
Q

define saltatory conduction

A

rapid means of conduction action potential

280
Q

when one Na channel opens…

A

it stimulates another Na channel opening

281
Q

where does depolarization in myelinated axons take place

A

nodes of ranveir

282
Q

define sensory nerves

A

carry info to the CNSo

283
Q

define motor nerves

A

carry info away from CNS

284
Q

define mixed nerves

A

carry both sensory and motor

285
Q

define afferent nerves

A

carry info towards a structure

286
Q

define efferent

A

carry info away from a structure

287
Q

how many cranial nerves are there

A

12

288
Q

what type of nerves are cranial nerves

A

a mix of sensory, motor, and mixed

289
Q

describe cranial nerves

A

mostly short and innervate the head

290
Q

what is the longest nerve in the body

A

the vagus nerve

291
Q

what is the name of CNII? what type is it? what is the function

A

optic nerve; sensory; vision

292
Q

what is the name of CNV? what type is it? what is the function

A

trigeminal; mixed; sensation of the head and chewing

293
Q

what is the name of CNVII? what type is it? what is the function

A

facial nerve; motor; facial movement

294
Q

what is the name of CNX? what type is it? what is the function

A

vagus; mixed; GI, respiratory, larynx, pharynx and PSNS

295
Q

what does each spinal nerve contain

A

a dorsal root going toward the spinal cord and a ventral root going away from the spinal cord

296
Q

define the brachial plexus

A

where are the nerves come together at the humerus, which supplies most of the forelimb

297
Q

what are the pectoral limb spinal nerves

A

C8-C8, T1-T2

298
Q

what are the three types of pectoral limb spinal nerves

A

radial, median, ulnar

299
Q

describe the radial nerve

A

largest nerve in forelimb
caudal and lateral
carries sensation from dorsal surface of the foot

300
Q

what happens if the radial nerve is paralyzed

A

the tricep muscle stops working

301
Q

describe the median nerve

A

medial side of forelimb
sensation of caudal and medial distal limb

302
Q

describe the ulnar nerve

A

sensation on caudal and lateral forelimb

303
Q

if the brachial plexus supplies the front limb, what supplies the hindlimb

A

the lumbrosacral plexus

304
Q

which spinal nerves make up the lumbosacral plexus

A

L3-7 and S1-2

305
Q

where are the femoral nerves

A

deep within the quads

306
Q

where do femoral nerves exit

A

the obturator foramen

307
Q

describe the sciatic nerve

A

largest nerve in hindlimb that runs laterally along thigh

308
Q

what are the four nerves of the hindlimb

A

femoral nerve
saphenous nerve
sciatic nerve
tibial nerve

309
Q

define reflexes

A

rapid automatic response to stimuli to protect the body

310
Q

reflexes maintain __________`

A

homeostasis

311
Q

what are the five common reflexes? describe them

A

withdrawal- movement away from stimuli
palpebral- head, cranial, blinking
patellar- knee cap
panniculus
pupillary light reflexes- constriction of pupils

312
Q

describe the reflex arc

A
  1. the sensory receptor detects a change
  2. sends action potenital along sensory neuron to grey matter of SC
  3. neuron synapses with other neurons
  4. response is sent by motor neurons to target
313
Q

define the autonomic nervous system

A

unconsciously controlled and supplies all organs and glands

314
Q

what make up the ANS

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

315
Q

what does the ANS do

A

maintain homeostasis and controls automatic functions at subconscious level

316
Q

what happens in the SNS

A

increases heart rate
sweating
adrenaline
pupil dilation
no digestion
increased blood pressure

317
Q

what happens in the PSNS

A

pupils constrict
body focuses
calm
sleep
ruminate
decreased blood pressure

318
Q

PSNS is for ________ and _______

A

rest and restore

319
Q

what does the cranial-sacral system do

A

replaces resources used during an emergency

320
Q

what is the cranial-sacral system

A

nerves from the brain and sacral vertebral regions

321
Q

what does the SNS release

A

epinephrine

322
Q

what does PSNS releases

A

acetylcholine

A&P (4 decks)

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