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Microbio > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the cell envelope made up from

A

-glycocalyx
-outer membrane
-cell wall
-cytoplasmic membrane

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2
Q

what macromolecule is the glycocalyx mostly made of

A

polysaccharide

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3
Q

what are the two types of glycocalyx layers

A

slime and capsule

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4
Q

what is the slime layer

A

a loose layer that protects the cell from lsoing water or nutrients

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5
Q

what is the capsule layer

A

a tighter bound, thick, gummy layer

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6
Q

what kind of bacteria are more difficult for phagotic cells to recognize and distroy

A

encapsulated bacteria

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7
Q

what are examples of encapsulated bacteria

A

streptococcus pneumoniae
Hemophilus infuenzae
Neisseria meningitis
Bordatella pertussis

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8
Q

what does bordatella pertussis cause

A

whooping cough

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9
Q

what is the layer of the cell membrane that can create biofilms

A

the glycocalyx

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10
Q

what is a biofilm

A

a microbial colony that is encased in a polysaccharide material that can attach to the surface of an object

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11
Q

biofilms can be made up of ___

A

multiple species of bacteria

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12
Q

what does the bacteria streptococcus mutans do

A

convert sucrose to glucose then to dextran (which is a polysaccharide in the glycocalyx) and then to dental plaque

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13
Q

What macromolecule is peptidoglycan

A

carbohydrate polymer (made of peptides and carbohydrates)

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14
Q

What are the 2 monomers of peptidoglycan

A

NAG and NAM

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15
Q

What is the use of peptidoglycan layer

A

made for structural purposes, not rigid, not made to keep things out of the cell either

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16
Q

what are the crossbridges between the NAG and NAM units

A

pentaglycine

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17
Q

What are the bridges between the gram positive NAG and NAM units

A

tetrapeptide and pentapeptide

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18
Q

what are the bridges between the gram negative NAG and NAM units

A

tetrapeptide

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19
Q

What is transpeptide

A

enzymes that bring peptides across the membrane

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20
Q

what is transpeptide binded by

A

penicillin

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21
Q

who discovered lysozomes

A

Alexander Flemming

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22
Q

who discovered penicillin

A

Alexander Flemming

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23
Q

Where are lysosomes found

A

in tears, saliava, nasal/sinus fluids

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24
Q

what does lysosomes prevent from happening

A

they prevent infection in the mouth and eyes

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25
Q

what happens to a cell in a hypotonic solution after the lysozome digests the cell wall

A

Water enters into the cell and causes lysis

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26
Q

what happens in an isotonic solution after the lysozome digests the cell wall

A

water does not enter the cell wall but the protoplast is released

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27
Q

what color is gram positive bacteria

A

purple

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28
Q

what color is gram negative bacteria

A

pink

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29
Q

which cell has a thicker layer of peptidoglycan

A

gram positive

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30
Q

what cell wall component does gram positive have that gram negative does not

A

techoic acid

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31
Q

What is the function of techoic acid

A

reinforces the structure of the wall and anchors it to the plasma membrane

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32
Q

which (+/-) is harder to treat or get rif of

A

Gram negative

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33
Q

What are the components in a gram negative cell wall

A

-LPS
-Phospholipid bilayer
-peptidoglycan
-cytoplasmic membrane
-porins/pumps

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34
Q

What are the components in a gram positive cell wall

A

-techoic acids

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35
Q

which has a more simple cell membrane

A

gram positive

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36
Q

what is the periplasm

A

the area between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane

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37
Q

What is a lipopolysaccharide

A

a large complex molecule that is composed of a polysaccharide that is linked to a lipid

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38
Q

where is the lipid portion in a lipopolysaccharide

A

in the membrane of the cell

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39
Q

what function can the LPS serve

A

it can be an antigen

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40
Q

why is LPS important to antibiotic resistance

A

it can prevent hydrophobic molecurles from entering the cell

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41
Q

What does it mean that the LPS is an endotoxin

A

it acts as a toxin to an animal host, literally means toxin within

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42
Q

Where are porins located in a gram negative cell

A

on the outer membrane

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43
Q

what do porins do

A

restricts molecules from freely entering the cell

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44
Q

which is more permeable membrane

A

outer membrane

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45
Q

what is the genetic material in prokaryotes

A

chromosomes and plasmids

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46
Q

how many chromosomes do prokaryotes have

A

one singular, tightly coiled chromosome

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47
Q

what is a nucleoid

A

the concentrated area of genetic material

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48
Q

what is a plasmid

A

it is an extrachromosomal circular portionof DNA that is not essential to all cells

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49
Q

What can plasmids code for

A

antibiotic resistance

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50
Q

what process does plasmids help the cell with

A

adaptation, helps adapt to their surroundings

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51
Q

how do plasmids transfer

A

horizontally

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52
Q

what are plasmids used for in genetic engineering

A

they serve as vectors for DNA transfer

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53
Q

what can plasmids help a cell create (hormone)

A

insulin

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54
Q

what is the function of ribosomes

A

they are used to create proteins from mRNA

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55
Q

what are ribosomes made of

A

protein and rRNA

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56
Q

why are storage bodies important

A

it allows the cell to hold onto nutrients incase they do not encounter that nutrient for a while

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57
Q

what are the storage bodies

A

-phb
- phosphate
-sulfur
-magnatomes

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58
Q

what is the source of biodegradable plastics/oils

A

phb (polyhydrobutyrate) granules

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59
Q

why are endospores so important to bacterial survival

A

they are used for survival and NOT reproduction

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60
Q

what is the toughest, most resistant, life source of them all

A

endospres

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61
Q

why are endospores so tough

A

dipiconic acid in their spore coat

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62
Q

how longs do endospores last

A

25-40 million years with the oldest one dating back to 250million years ago

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63
Q

where are endospores formed

A

on the inside of the cell not outside like fungi

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64
Q

what are the two genera that are the most dangerous endospore species

A

Bacillus and clostridim

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65
Q

what does bacillus anthracis cause

A

anthrax

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66
Q

what does colostridum tetani cause

A

tetanus

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67
Q

is tetanus an anarerobic bacteria or arobic bacteria

A

anaerobic bacteria (rusty nail example )

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68
Q

what does clostridium perifingens cause

A

gas gangreen

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69
Q

what does colostrum botulinum cause

A

botulism

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70
Q

what contributes to the pathogenic natuer of endospores

A

persistence and resistance

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71
Q

are all bacteria motile

A

no

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72
Q

if bacteria are not motile what do they rely on to move them

A

air, water, and earth
they depend on the overall environment

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73
Q

What are bacterial flagella responsible for doing

A

they spin to move, it is more of a pulling motion rather than pushing motion
has a motor inside the cell to help it spin

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74
Q

when a bacteria is tubmling which way is their flagella moving

A

clockwise

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75
Q

when a bacteria is running, which way are their flagella moving

A

couterclockwise

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76
Q

when a bacteria is attracted to something they will d owhat

A

run> tumble

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77
Q

when a bacteria is repelled, they will do what

A

tumble > run

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78
Q

what does chemotaxis mean

A

the movement of a cell in response to chemical stimuli

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79
Q

what is the difference in eukaryotic flagella

A

-they are found on protozoa and algae
-they are much larger
-move in more of a whip like manner

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80
Q

whats cillia in eukaryotic cells

A

-found in protozoans
-function like oars to propell the cell and sweep in food particles

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81
Q

what is sporulation

A

going from a vegetative cell to a spore

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82
Q

what is germination

A

going from a spore to a vegetative cell

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83
Q

who was the first peron to prove the germ theory

A

Robert Koch

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84
Q

step one of the postulate

A

the suspected causative agent must be present in the diseased organism and absent in healthy organism

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85
Q

what are difficulties with step one

A

-visibility of the microorganism
-curability of this disease
-possible unknown life cycle of the microorganism

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86
Q

what are issues with step one

A

-mere association cannot prove anything
-association not correlation
-there could be other causes and effects of the disease

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87
Q

step two of the postulate

A

the causative agent must be isolated from the organism and grown in pure culture

88
Q

why is the second step necessary

A

non-pure culture would lead to cofound interpretation (what is causing what)

89
Q

what is the issue with the second step

A

not all microbes can be separated (viruses)

90
Q

what is the third step in the postulate

A

the cultured agent must cause disease when inoculated into healthy organism

91
Q

what is the fourth step of this postulate

A

the same casusative agent must be reisolated from the inoculated/diseased organism

92
Q

why is the fourth step needed

A

to ensure that the causative agent is the thing thta is causing disease in organisms

93
Q

what are issues with this fourth step

A

same as the issue with the second step, not everything can be seperated

94
Q

what is needed to meet kochs postulates

A

a pure culture

95
Q

what are the issues of studying microbes

A

-invisible to naked eye
-need to be grown in a controlled environment
-specific strains must be isolated

96
Q

what have been most major discoveries been in microbiology

A

based on things that we cannot see

97
Q

what was the biggest breakthrough in microbiology hsitory

A

pure cultures

98
Q

what is in a pure culture

A

multiple cells that are all alike

99
Q

what are techniques needed to obtain a pure culture

A

-aseptic technique
-culturing techniques

100
Q

what did pure culture lead to

A

-development of different medias
-sterilization
-other techniques to observe microbes how

101
Q

how many new diseases were discovered after implementing kochs postulates

A

20

102
Q

what was the orginal solid media

A

a potato

103
Q

who developed agar as a solidifying agent

A

fanny hesse
walther hesse

104
Q

who developed the petri plate

A

Julius Richard petri

105
Q

what is defined media

A

synthetic media

106
Q

what is undefined media

A

complex or non synthetic (stuff in lab)

107
Q

what is selective media

A

compounds that have been selectively inhibited but not others
-mannitol salt agar

108
Q

what is differential media

A

indicator used to differentiate chemical reactions during growth

109
Q

can some media be both deffrential and slective

A

yes they can be
-EMB for E.coli

110
Q

t/f
agar and medium are interchangable terms

A

false

111
Q

t/f
TSA used in lab is a selective media

A

false

112
Q

what does it mean when bacteria is highly evolved

A

they have adapted to live in places that we cannot (extreme heat, cold, acidity, saline)

113
Q

what is the most abundant molecule in cells

A

water

114
Q

what is the most abundant molecule in cells

A

hydrogen

115
Q

what is the vast majority of neucleic acid in a bacterial cell

A

rRNA

116
Q

what are the two classifications by carbon source

A

heterotrophs and autotrophs

117
Q

what is a heterotroph

A

they get their carbon in an organic way (carbohydrates)

118
Q

what is an autotroph

A

they get their carbon in inorganic ways (CO2)

119
Q

what are the two classifications by energy sources

A

phototroph and chemotroph

120
Q

what is a phototroph

A

organisms get their energy from light

121
Q

what is chemotroph

A

organisms get their energy from chemicals

122
Q

what is a chemoorganotroph

A

gets their energy from organic chemicals

123
Q

what is a chemolithotroph

A

they get their energy from minerals/inorganically

124
Q

how do prokaryotes digest their food

A

by exoenzymes

125
Q

how do exoenzymes work

A

-enzymes hydrolyze bonds on nutrients
-enzymes are transported across the cell wall
-smaller molecules are transported into the cytoplasm

126
Q

what is simple diffusion

A

-doesnt require energy
-passive transport
-goes down a concentration gradient
-across a phospholipid bilayer

127
Q

what is facilitated diffusion

A

-doesnt require energy
-passive transport
-membrane is more selective
-uses channels or carrier proteins

128
Q

what is active transport

A

-uses ATP
-goes against concentration gradient

129
Q

what is simple transport

A

-type of active
-driven by proton motive

130
Q

what is ABC transport

A

-binding proteins are involved and energy comes from ATP

131
Q

what is group translocation

A

-chemical modifcation o fthe transported substance driven by phosphenolpyruvate

132
Q

how do prokaryotes replicate

A

by bionary fission

133
Q

what is generation time also known as

A

doubling time

134
Q

what is the equation for doubling time

A

Nf=(Ni)2n
Nf–> final cell #
Ni–> inital cell #
2n–> n is # generations

135
Q

what is the lag phase in the growth curve

A

it is the time where there is not an increase in live cell numbers
(directly after being inoculated)

136
Q

what is the log phase

A

exponential growth in the number of living bacterial cells
(this is the time were it is most susceptible to antibiotics)

137
Q

what is the stationary phase

A

the time where there is an equal number of cell deaths and division, plateau of living cells

138
Q

what is the death or decline phase

A

an exponential decrease in the number of living bacterial cells

139
Q

how to obtain a total cell count

A

-aka direct count
-by microscope or coulter counter

140
Q

how to obtain a viable count

A

-also called a plate count or colony count
-measures cell mass or turbidity

141
Q

what does it mean to measure turbidity

A

measure the cloudiness and cell suspension by light scattering

142
Q

what is turbidity proportional to

A

cell number –> which gives us a relative measure to growth

143
Q

what do we measure turbidity with

A

spectrophotometer

144
Q

what is a chemostat used for

A

a continuous culture

145
Q

what is the difference in viability and growth

A

viability –> wether the cells survive or not
growth–> reproductive measueres

146
Q

what are the important factors of microbial growth

A

-temperature
-pH
-water availability
-oxygen

147
Q

what can an organism be classified by (temp)

A

optimal temperature

148
Q

what is a psychophile

A

they like extreme cold

149
Q

what is a mesophile

A

they like medium temp, these are the organisms that like body temperature

150
Q

what are thermophiles

A

they like hot temperature, up to 80C

151
Q

what are hyperthermophiles

A

they like extremely hot temperature, nothing less than 65C

152
Q

what happens at the maximum temperature for a bacteria

A

-protein denaturation
-cytoplasmic membrane collapse
-thermal lysis

153
Q

what are halotolerant

A

they can grow in low to middle range salt content
staph auerus

154
Q

what are halophiles

A

they need salt to grow/survive

155
Q

what is an extreme halophile

A

they need an extreme amount of salt to grow and survive, will not survive with no salt

156
Q

microaerophilic bacteria

A

growth just below the surface of liquid

157
Q

facultative anaerobe

A

growth throughout the sample

158
Q

aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria

A

some growth in oxygen

159
Q

obligate anaerobes

A

needs no oxygen to survive

159
Q

anaerobic bacteria

A

growth at the bottom of the tube

160
Q

what is the method for testing a microbial culture for catalayse

A

putting hydrogen peroxide on the sample and seeing if bubbles appear

161
Q

what does control mean

A

limiting exposure to infectious agents

162
Q

what is sterilization

A

removal or distruction of all viable microorganisms

163
Q

what are disinfectants

A

removal or distruction of pathogens (not spores) from NON BIOLOGICAL areas

164
Q

what are antiseptics

A

distruction or inhibition of vegitative cells from the body (not spores)

165
Q

what can antiseptics and disinfectants not get rid of

A

endospores

166
Q

what is sanitization

A

a cleansing technique that mechanically removes microorganisms (soaps)

167
Q

what soaps can lead to antibiotic resistance

A

antibacterial

168
Q

what does the suffix -static mean

A

an agent that prevents growth but does not kill them

169
Q

what is something that con determine the effectiveness of a control method

A

-the total number of microorganisms
-concentration of the agent
-mode of action of the agent
-interfering compounds of the agent

170
Q

What is the decimal reduction time

A

the time for a population to reduce 10x (one log)

171
Q

if DRT is 3 minutes, how long will it take to drop from 10^6 to 10^1 cells

A

15 minutes

172
Q

what is moist heat

A

-hot/boiling water
-65-135C
-autoclaves or pressure cookers

173
Q

what does moist heat do to the cells

A

denatures proteins and damages nucleic acids

174
Q

what is dry heat

A

-ovens and bunson burners
-denatures and oxidizes
-160-1000C

175
Q

what heat method gets hotter

A

dry heat

176
Q

what is pasturization

A

heating the temperature below boiling point ot kill specific pathogens and increase shelf life

177
Q

what is the Flash method (HTST)

A

71.6 for 15 seconds

178
Q

what is UHT pasteurization

A

-ultra high temp
-134 for 2 sec
- milk can last up to 3 months unrefrigerated

179
Q

what are the primary targets of pasturization

A

-salmonella
-mycobacterium
-campylobacter
-brucella

180
Q

what is the highest temp of moist heat at sea level

A

100C

181
Q

what is the common autoclave temp

A

-121C for 15 minutes

182
Q

What does autoclaving do to the proteins

A

denatures them

183
Q

does pasteurization NOT do

A

it does not kill all the cells

184
Q

the _____ the wavelength the more effective it is

A

shorter

185
Q

what does ionizing radiation do

A

knocks electrons off of atoms to form ions

186
Q

what does ionization radiation do to DNA

A

breaks the bonds and damages the protein in the
causes dimers

187
Q

what can ionizing radiation penetrate

A

solids and liquids

188
Q

what is ionizing radiation used for

A

sterilize fruits and vegetables (now meats)

189
Q

what does non ionizing radiation do

A

excite atoms but does not cause them to ionize

190
Q

what are two examples of non ionizing radiation

A

UV light and sunlight

191
Q

Does nonionizing radiation penetrate

A

no, it cannot penetrate solids or liquids

192
Q

what is nonionizing radiation used for

A

surface disinfectant and water treatment

193
Q

what is a thymine thymine dimer

A

creates abnormal bonds in the thymine in a strand of DNA

194
Q

what is sonification

A

using sound waves to disrupt microbes

195
Q

what is used when the substance cannot be heated up

A

filtration

196
Q

How do chemical control agents function

A

-disrupt membranes
-alters protein/nucleic acid structure

197
Q

what makes a chemical control agent effective

A

-concentration
-contact time

198
Q

What is the main halogen agent

A

chlorine

199
Q

what is the most common iodine compound that is used in hospitals

A

iodophors

200
Q

what are the two main forms of chlorine that are used

A

-hypochlorite (bleach)
-Nh2cl (chloramines)

201
Q

what happens when hypochlorus acid mixes with water

A

the agent becomes oxidized

202
Q

what are the limitations of halogens

A

-inneffective at a higher pH
-unstable (light and oxygen cause breakdown)

203
Q

what do phenols do

A

they affect protein function and disrupt membranes

204
Q

what is phenol also known as

A

carbolic acid

205
Q

what are the 2 types of alcohols

A

ethanol and isopropanol

206
Q

which of the 2 is more microbicidal and toxic

A

isopropanol

207
Q

what happens to cells when alcohol is used

A

it distroys the cell membranes and can coagulate the proteins

208
Q

what gas disrupts proteins and is used in drinking/wasteater treatment

A

chlorine dioxide gas

209
Q

what is a very effective gas sterilant but is slow acting, explosivem and a known carcinogen

A

ethylene and propylene oxide

210
Q

what are the two types of surfactants

A

ionic and nonionic

211
Q

what surfactants are not very microbicidal but can be a sanitization method

A

nonionic and anionic soaps

212
Q

what are the most effective surfactants

A

cationic detergents (quats)

213
Q

what do cationic detergents do

A

solubilize membranes and disrupt proteins

214
Q

what are the two heavy metals that are used as chemical controls

A

silver and copper

215
Q

what are the disadvantages of using heavy metals

A

-toxicity
-allergenic
-microbes can develop resistance

216
Q
A

Microbio (4 decks)

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