Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anesthesia > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

2 reasons to use pre-emptive analgesia

A

decrease wind up and decrease use of iso and sevo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is wind- up?

A

hyper excitability of central neurons due to constant bombardment of pain signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define allodynia

A

pain caused by a stimulus that normally does not result in pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define hyperalgesia

A

increase response to a painful stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 properties of NSAIDs

A

analgesia, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

NSAIDs cause inhibition of

A

prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

prostaglandins cause(4)

A

vasodilation, sensitive pain receptors, granulation tissue, increase vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

COX-1 and COX-2 are important in the production of

A

prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

COX-1 is important for the production of

A

good prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Good prostaglandins do what(3)

A

Maintain renal blood flow, production of gastric mucus, maintain platelet function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cox-2 enzyme make prostaglandins that cause (2)

A

pain and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Example of COX-2 inhibitors

A

Carprofen, meloxicam, deracoxib`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

injectable carporfen can give __ hours of analgesia

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NSAID side effects (4)

A

gastic ulcers, renal toxicity, impaired platelet function, hepatic damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 advantages of local anesthetics

A

few CV side effects, low cost, good pain control, min. pt recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is splash block with local anesthetics

A

apply directly on nerves in surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

With local anesthetics, cats are sensitive to

A

CRI of lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CRI does what in horse

A

decrease vap setting, increase GI motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is MLK

A

morphine, lidocaine, ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MLK reduces inhalant requirement by

A

25-30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

injection into epidural space in what region

A

lumbosacral region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Local anesthetics epidural causes(2)

A

anesthesia and immobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

epidural with opioid good for

A

post op pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lidocaine, Bupivacine, Mepicaine lasts

A

1hr, 4-6hr, 2-3hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Add what to lidocaine to increase duration

A

epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

why is epinephrine added to locals?

A

causes vasoconstriction so local not absorbed as fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

epinephrine increases the duration of locals by

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

epinephrine makes lido last up to

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

epinephrine with locals is not indicated in _ because _

A

onychectomy, causes ishemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bupivacaine never goes_, can cause_

A

IV, cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Alpha-2 agonists aversive effects (4)

A

bradycardia, hypotension, heart blocks, decrease CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sedatives are not indicated for the

A

old and sick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Alpha-2 agonists, which last longer, sedation or analgesia

A

sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Microdoses of sedatives with other analgesics decrease inhalant anesth by __

A

20-30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ketamine is a

A

cyclohexaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

sedatives are reversed with

A

alpha-2-antiagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ketamine is used as

A

induction agent or GA for short procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ketamine is an antagonist to what receptor

A

NMDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gabapentin (Neurontin*) is a

A

analgesic and anticonvulsant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gabapentin is used for

A

chronic and neuropathic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Amantadine

A

antiviral drug with analgesic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Amantadine is an antagonist to

A

NMDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why do we use PA drugs?(3)

A

Sedate, Pre-emptive analgesia, decrease amount of sevo/iso

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Route of PA drugs

A

sub-q or IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When are PA drugs given?

A

15-30 mins prior to induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

5 classifications of PA drugs

A

Anti-cholinergics, Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Opioids, Neuroleptanalgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Anticholinergics aka

A

parasympatholytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Anticholinergics block

A

vagal nerve function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anticholinergic effects

A

SLURED <3,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

SLURED<3 R stands for

A

respiration, bronchodilation, leads to increase dead space can cause post-op hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anticholinergics may cause what in horses

A

colic, ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

in horses anticholinergics are used to treat

A

brady cardia and and degree AV blocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Benefits of glycol over atropine (2)

A

less likely to cause brady w/o increasing HR, lasts longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

contraindications of anticholinergics (3)

A

tachycardia, ileus/constipation, CHF/hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Watch for what in cats when using anticholinergics

A

mucous plugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Physical properties of Phenothiazines(2)

A

water soluble, yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Ace duration

A

2-8,24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ACE is metabolized by__

A

liver

60
Q

ACE effects

A

Calming/musc relax, Anti-emetic, antiarrythmic, antihistamine, vasodilation

61
Q

ACE causes what in horses

A

penile prolapse

62
Q

Breed that may be sensitive to ace

A

BOXERS

63
Q

which breed requires more, and less?

A

terriers, greyhounds,and

giant breeds

64
Q

which tranquilizer is a controlled substance

A

Benzodiazepine

65
Q

Which Benzodiazepine is not water soluble, so can’t be given _

A

diazepam, IM/SQ

66
Q

Main effect of benzodiazepine

A

anti-anxiety, muscle relaxer, anticonvulsant

67
Q

Benzodiazepine aversive effects

A

maybe cause excitement rather than calming

68
Q

benzodiazepine in anesthesia is always

A

mixed with other drugs

69
Q

other uses of benzothiazines(2)

A

appetite stimulant in cats, behavior modification

70
Q

when benzothiazine used alone, causes

A

calming effects by animal still alert

71
Q

Fast administration of diazepam can cause

A

venous thrombosis, bradycardia, hypotension

72
Q

Diazepam is given

A

IV

73
Q

main effects of diazepam (3)

A

calming, muscle relaxant, anticonvulsant

74
Q

diazepam can be combined with what as a PA drug

A

ketamine

75
Q

midazolam is __soluble

A

water

76
Q

midazolam can be given

A

IM, SQ

77
Q

sedatives provide __ sedation when used alone

A

minimum

78
Q

zolazepam is found in

A

telazol

79
Q

telazol also has

A

tiletimine

80
Q

telazol can be used as sole__

A

induction agent

81
Q

alpha-2 agonists ___ controled

A

not

82
Q

alpha-2-agonist __ through skin

A

absorb

83
Q

sedatives bind to

A

alpha-2-adrenorecptors in sympathetic nerves in the brain and spinal cord

84
Q

sedatives produce

A

analgeasia, sedation, muscle relaxation

85
Q

sedatives have __ side effects

A

cardiovascular

86
Q

sedatives induce

A

a sleep like state

87
Q

sedatives cause(3)

A

muscle relaxation, analgesia, vomiting

88
Q

A2A cause vomiting in _ dogs and _ cats

A

50%, 90%

89
Q

routes for A2A

A

IM, IV, sub-q

90
Q

side effects of A2A (6)

A

bradycardia, decrease CO, hypotension, respiratory depression, hypothermia

91
Q

A2A causes cyanosis because

A

of peripheral vasoconstiction

92
Q

A2A agonists predisposes larges dogs to

A

GDV

93
Q

A2a causes __ urination because of interference with _

A

increase, ADH

94
Q

A2A causes __ in large anima;s

A

ataxia

95
Q

A2A causes what in horses, good to treat what

A

sweating, colic pain

96
Q

Xylaine % for small and large

A

2%, 10%

97
Q

medetomidine is approved for use in

A

dogs only

98
Q

dosing of medetomidine is

A

mcg per square meter

99
Q

with Domitor, what is common? give with what 5-10 mins before giving

A

bradycardia, atropine

100
Q

Atropine only works with dormitor if given…

A

before dormitor is given

101
Q

dexdomitor is only approved in

A

dogs and cats

102
Q

dexdomitor is dosed in

A

mcg/m2

103
Q

Medetomidine/Dexmetomidine given w/o before anticholinergic can lead to

A

bradycradia, arrythmias, hypotension

104
Q

reversal for A2A is aka

A

alpha-2-antagonists

105
Q

it is __ to use reversal because __

A

common, cardiovascular effects

106
Q

anti sedan is given__ no matter the route for A2A

A

IM

107
Q

Romifidine is labeled for used in

A

horses

108
Q

opioids are metabolized by the

A

liver

109
Q

duration of opiods

A

30 min to 12 hours up to 24

110
Q

Opiods __ used on debilitated animals

A

can be

111
Q

3 types of opiod receptors in the brain

A

mu, kappa, sigma

112
Q

CNS effects opioids dogs

A

show sedation and analgesia

113
Q

high doses of opioids in dogs causes

A

hypnotic state called narcosis

114
Q

in the absence of pain, with opioids dogs will show,

A

dysphoria

115
Q

cats require __ dosages with opioids

A

lower

116
Q

most common aversive effect of opioid?

A

respiratory depression

117
Q

respiratory depression happens with opioids because

A

high doses, given with other drug that cause RD like dex

118
Q

opioids causes panting because

A

affects thermorelatory center, makes animal think its hot

119
Q

side effects of opioids (4)

A

emesis, diarrhea, flatulance, sensitivity to sounds

120
Q

at higher doses, opioids can cause

A

bradycardia

121
Q

morphine directly stimulates_ use _ to help

A

vomition center, ace

122
Q

morphine lasts every

A

4 hours

123
Q

epidural morphine can last

A

12-24 hours

124
Q

give morphine by __ to reduce excitement in cats. best used with _

A

SQ or IM, tranquilizer

125
Q

hydromorphine is _ times more analgesic potency than morphine

A

5

126
Q

dilaudid lasts

A

4 hours

127
Q

dilaudid is less likely to cause (2)

A

vomiting, excitement

128
Q

oxymorphone is __ times more analgesic than morphine

A

10

129
Q

oxymorphine is less likely to cause

A

vomiting

130
Q

numorphan may cause excitement in cats when given

A

IV

131
Q

numorphone lasts

A

3-4 hours

132
Q

fentanyl (sublimaze) __ times more potent than morphine

A

100-150

133
Q

fentanyl not recommend in

A

cats

134
Q

fentanyl only lasts__ so commonly used as __ or

A

30 minutes, CRI or transdermal patch

135
Q

duragesic takes __ hrs in cat, ___ hrs in dog to reach therapeutic levels

A

4-12, 12-24

136
Q

apply duragesic __ hour before anesthesia

A

12-24

137
Q

duragesic provides relief for

A

3-5 days

138
Q

recuvya use, children should not touch animals for

A

72 hours

139
Q

what can torbugesic do to other mu agonists

A

can partially reverse

140
Q

torbutrol lasts

A

1 hours in dog, 4 hours in cat

141
Q

butorphanol is ____ used in horses

A

commonly

142
Q

in horses butorphanol lasts

A

3-4 hours

143
Q

torbutrol is also a good

A

antitussive

144
Q

butorphanol is what kind of opioid

A

mix, kappa agonist, mu antagonist

145
Q

duration or burprenex

A

6-8-12 hours (longest lasting opioid

146
Q

buprenex works better in

A

cats

147
Q

naloxone blocks__ receptors

A

3

Anesthesia (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions