Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Movement disorders are neuro disorders related to ___ dysfunction. Resulting movement disorders are either hyper or hypo___. Hypo___ Movement Disorders include __ and __. Hyper__ movement disorders include __, __, __, and __.

A

Movement disorders are neuro disorders related to BASAL GANGLIA dysfunction. Resulting movement disorders are either hyper or KINETIC. HYPOKINETIC Movement Disorders include PARKINSON’S DISEASE and PARKINSON’S PLUS SYNDROMES. HYPERKINETIC movement disorders include CHOREA, ATHETOSIS, BALLISM, and DYSTONIA.

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2
Q

Pyramidal signs are thought to be related to the __ system and were thought to control [voluntary/ involuntary] mvmt. Extrapyramidal signs are thought to be related to the ___ and were thought to be related to [voluntary/ involuntary] mvmt.

A

Pyramidal signs = CORTICOSPINAL System, VOLUNTARY movement

Extrapyramidal signs = BASAL GANGLIA, INVOLUNTARY movement

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3
Q

The primary role of the BG is to ___ [internally generated / externally provoked] movements. It changes ___ as the task demands change.

A

The primary role of the BG is to INITIATE INTERNALLY-GENERATED movements. It changes MOTOR SETS as the task demands change.

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4
Q

The Basal Ganglia refers to [cortical/ sub cortical] [gray/white] matter including the __, __, and __. Functionally, it also includes the __.

A

The Basal Ganglia refers to SUBCORTICAL GRAY matter including the CAUDATE, PUTAMEN, & GLOBUS PALLIDUS. Functionally, it also includes the SUBSTANTIA NIGRA.

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5
Q

The striatum is composed of the nucleus ___, ___, and ___.

A

The striatum is composed of the NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS, CAUDATE NUCLEUS, & PUTAMEN

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6
Q

The lentiform nucleus consists of the ___ and ___.

A

The lentiform nucleus consists of the PUTAMEN & GLOBUS PALLIDUS

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7
Q

The globus pallidus has 2 sections: __ and __.

A

Globus Pallidus has 2 sections: External Segment (GPe) and Internal Segment (GPi).

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8
Q

The Substantia Nigra is located in the [midbrain/ pons/ medulla] and consists of the ___ (___ part) and ___ (___ part).

A

The Substantia Nigra is located in the MIDBRAIN and consists of the PARS COMPACTA (SNc) (DOPAMINE part) and PARS RETICULATA (SNr) (RETICULA part).

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9
Q

The Subthalamic nucleus is associated with the [mesencephalon/ diencephalon/ telencephalon]

A

The Subthalamic nucleus is associated with the DIENCEPHALON

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10
Q

The striatum (aka __) is composed of the __ and __, which are from [the same/ different] embryological origin(s). As the ___ develops, it grows around in the wall of the [3rd/4th/ lateral] ventricles into a __-shape. The __ forms the [inner/outer] most part (medial/lateral) of the ___ nucleus. The projection neurons in this area use ___ as their neurotransmitter, so they’re [excitatory/inhibitory] on their targets. The striatum is the [output/receiving] area of the basal ganglia, [getting/sending] input from all areas of the __ and ___. The [dorsal/ventral] part of the striatum is the ___ which is related to the __ system.

A

The striatum (aka NEOSTRIATUM) is composed of the CAUDATE and PUTAMEN, which are from THE SAME embryological origin(s). As the CAUDATE develops, it grows around in the wall of the LATERAL ventricles into a C-shape. The PUTAMEN forms the OUTER most part LATERAL of the LENTIFORM NUCLEUS. The projection neurons in this area use GABA as their neurotransmitter, so they’re INHIBITORY on their targets. The striatum is the RECEIVING area of the basal ganglia, GETTING input from all areas of the CORTEX and THALAMUS. The VENTRAL part of the striatum is the NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS which is related to the LIMBIC system.

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11
Q

The globus pallidus forms the [medial/lateral] part of the ___ nucleus. It is divided into __ and __ segments and uses __ as its neurotransmitter, so it has a [phasic/tonic] [excitatory/ inhibitory] effect on the __. It is one of the two [inflow/ outflow] nuclei of the BG.

A

The globus pallidus forms the MEDIAL part of the LENTIFORM nucleus. It is divided into INTERNAL and EXTERNAL segments and uses GABA as its neurotransmitter, so it has a TONIC INHIBITORY effect on the THALAMUS. It is one of the two OUTFLOW nuclei of the BG.

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12
Q

The pars reticulata (SNr) is the [dorsal/ventral] part of the substantia nigra, adjacent to the ___. It uses __ as its neurotransmitter, so it has a [phasic/tonic] [excitatory/inhib] effect on its targets which are the __ and areas of the brainstem. It is one of the two [inflow/ outflow] nuclei of the BG.

A

The pars reticulata (SNr) is the VENTRAL part of the substantia nigra, adjacent to the CRUS CEREBRI. It uses GABA as its neurotransmitter, so it has a TONIC INHIBITORY effect on its targets which are the THALAMUS and areas of the brainstem. It is one of the two OUTFLOW nuclei of the BG.

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13
Q

The sublthalamic nucleus (STN) lies [dorsal/ventral] to the thalamus, and [medial/lateral] to the internal capsule. It uses ___ as a neurotransmitter, so it is [excitatory/inhibitory]. It is involved in the [indirect/ direct] circuits of the BG.

A

The sublthalamic nucleus (STN) lies VENTRAL to the thalamus, and MEDIAL to the internal capsule. It uses GLUTAMATE as a neurotransmitter, so it is EXCITATORY. It is involved in the INDIRECT circuits of the BG.

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14
Q

The substantia nigra pars compacta (SNc) is the [dorsal/ventral] part of the substantia nigra. The neurons in this region contain the pigment __. This region uses __ as its neurotransmitter (and it also makes it!) and projects to the ___ to set the background level of __.

A

The substantia nigra pars compacta (SNc) is the DORSAL part of the substantia nigra. The neurons in this region contain the pigment NEUROMELANIN. This region uses DOPAMINE as its neurotransmitter (and it also makes it!) and projects to the STRIATUM to set the background level of EXCITABILITY.

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15
Q

The basal ganglia has two pathways through which it activates desired movement and inhibits all other motor programs.
Direct: ___ > ___> ___ (__, __)
(Direct action: _____)

Indirect: ___ > ___ > ___> ___ > ___ (__, __)
(Indirect action: _____)

A

The basal ganglia has two pathways through which it activates desired movement and inhibits all other motor programs.
Direct: Striatum > Gpi> Thalamus (VL, Vim)
(Direct action: ACTIVATES DESIRED MOTOR PROGRAM)

Indirect: Striatum > Gpe > STN> Gpi > Thalamus (VL, Vim)
(Indirect action: INHIBITS COMPETING PROGRAMS)

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16
Q

At rest, the thalamus is [quiet/firing]. The direct circuit contributes to this via the ___ neuron that projects to the thalamus [phasically/tonically] __-__x/second with the neurotransmitter ___ to [excite/inhibit] it. The indirect circuit acts via the ___ to [phasically/tonically] [inhibit/excite] the ___.

A

At rest, the thalamus is QUIET. The direct circuit contributes to this via the GPi neuron that projects to the thalamus TONICALLY 1-2x/second with the neurotransmitter GABA to INHIBIT it. The indirect circuit acts via the GPe to TONICALLY INHIBIT the STN.

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17
Q

Direct circuit during movement:
The ___ [inhibits/excites] the striatum. The striatum then actively [excites/inhibits] the [excitation/ inhibition] (aka ___) from the GPi, which [allows the thalamus to fire/ makes the thalamus quiet] and recruit a motor program in the cortex.

A

Direct circuit during movement:
The CORTEX EXCITES the striatum. The striatum then actively INHIBITS the INHIBITION (aka DISINHIBITION) from the GPi, which ALLOWS THE THALAMUS TO FIRE and recruit a motor program in the cortex.

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18
Q

Indirect circuit during movement:
The cortex excites the ___, which then has an [excitatory/ inhibitory] effect on the GPe, which in turn [excites/inhib] the [excitatory/ inhibitory] effect of the GPe on the ___, rendering it [active/quiet]. The __ then [excites/inhibits] GPi neurons which then [excite/inhibit] the thalamus to inhibit competing motor programs in the cortex.

A

The cortex excites the STRIATUM (caudate) which then has an INHIBITORY effect on the GPe, which in turn INHIBITS the INHIBITORY effect of the GPe on the STN, rendering it ACTIVE. The STN then EXCITES GPi neurons which then INHIBIT the thalamus to inhibit competing motor programs in the cortex.

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19
Q

The [direct/indirect] circuit of the basal ganglia activates the desired motor program in the cortex, and the [direct/indirect] circuit inhibits undesired motor programs.

A

The DIRECT circuit of the basal ganglia activates the desired motor program in the cortex, and the INDIRECT circuit inhibits undesired motor programs.

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20
Q

Dopamine is generated by the ___. There are ___ (#) different types of dopamine receptors, so its role is complex.

A

Dopamine is generated by the SUBSTANTIA NIGRA PARS IMPACTA. There are 5 (#) different types of dopamine receptors, so its role is complex.

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21
Q

[GABA/Glutamate/Dopamine] sets the background level of excitation in the striatum. Too much of this neurotransmitter results in ___, and too little of it results in ___.

A

DOPAMINE sets the background level of excitation in the striatum. Too much of this neurotransmitter results in DYSKINESIAS, and too little of it results in AKINESIA.

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22
Q

Dopamine bursts interact with input from the __ to ___ neurons during learning and promotes long term ___. This means that as you ___, the inputs are more easily activated. Dopamine may act to focus attention to a particular ensemble of __ neurons.

A

Dopamine bursts interact with input from the CORTEX to STRIATAL neurons during learning and promotes long term POTENTIATION. This means that as you LEARN MORE, the CORTICAL inputs are more easily activated. Dopamine may act to focus attention to a particular ensemble of STRIATAL neurons.

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23
Q

The ___ is the outflow nucleus of the BG that has significant brainstem connections and it also projects to the thalamus. Specifically, it projects to the ___ and to the __ and ___ to affect walking and muscle tone.

A

The SUBSTANTIA NIGRA PARS RETICULATE (SNr) is the outflow nucleus of the BG that has significant brainstem connections and it also projects to the thalamus. Specifically, it projects to the SUPERIOR COLLICULUS and to the MESENCEPHALIC LOCOMOTOR REGION (MLR) and Pedunculopontine nucleus (PPN) to affect walking and muscle tone.

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24
Q

Basal ganglia projections through the SNr to the ___ drive CPGs in the spinal cord for walking. This connection affects rhythmic stepping & the initiation & termination of locomotion. The BG projections through the SNr to the ___ influences muscle tone areas of the BS reticular formation. Without normal BG input through these systems, postural muscle tone [incr/decr].

A

Basal ganglia projections through the SNr to the MLR drive CPGs in the spinal cord for walking. This connection affects rhythmic stepping & the initiation & termination of locomotion. The BG projections through the SNr to the PPN influences muscle tone areas of the BS reticular formation. Without normal BG input through these systems, postural muscle tone INCREASES.

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25
Q

The BG affects walking via the ___. This drives ___ in the spinal cord for locomotion and affects ___ stepping, and the __ and __ of locomotion.

A

The BG affects walking via the MESENCEPHALIC LOCOMOTOR REGION (MLR). This drives CENTRAL PATTERN GENERATORS in the spinal cord for locomotion and affects RHYTHMIC stepping, and the INITIATION & TERMINATION of locomotion.

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26
Q

The BG affects muscle tone via the ___ in areas that control muscle tone. Without normal BG influence, muscle tone [incr/decr] leading to [rigidity/spasticity/flaciddity].

A

The BG affects muscle tone via the RETICULAR FORMATION in areas that control muscle tone. Without normal BG influence, muscle tone INCREASES leading to RIGIDITY

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27
Q

The BG affects eye movements via the ___. It allows it to generate [smooth pursuit/ saccades/ nystagmus/ gaze fixation].

A

The BG affects eye movements via the SUPERIOR COLLICULUS. It allows it to generate SACCADIC EYE MOVEMENTS

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28
Q

The cortico-BG loop (upstream) is more responsible for [volitional/ automatic] movements. The BG-Brainstem loop (downstream) is more responsible for [volitional/ automatic] movements such as __ and __.

A

The cortico-BG loop (upstream) is more responsible for VOLITIONAL (deliberate) movements. The BG-Brainstem loop (downstream) is more responsible for AUTOMATIC movements such as GAIT, MUSCLE TONE, EYE MOVEMENTS.

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29
Q

The BG has a number of roles in Motor Control. It generates [externally-cued/ internally-triggered] movements. It is especially active with [well-established motor programs/ newly learned & novel movements]. Specifically, the [Cb/ BG} helps to establish motor programs initially, then it shifts to the {Cb/BG]. The BG plays a role in flexibly selecting and shifting between ___ as the task demand changes (think of the spotlight on each task!). It serves as an important gate for the processing of ___ information and how to use that in motor control. Specifically, it selects relevant ___ and suppresses irrelevant information before executing an action. Finally, the BG has a role in cognitive-related functions, allowing you to focus your attention on a ___ & maintain safe mobility during multiple ongoing motor & cognitive tasks.

A

The BG has a number of roles in Motor Control. It generates INTERNALLY-TRIGGERED movements. It is especially active with WELL-ESTABLISHED MOTOR PROGRAMS (OVERLEARNED MVMTS) Specifically, the CEREBELLUM helps to establish motor programs initially, then it shifts to the BG. The BG plays a role in flexibly selecting and shifting between MOTOR SETS as the task demand changes (think of the spotlight on each task!). It serves as an important gate for the processing of SENSORY information and how to use that in motor control. Specifically, it selects relevant SENSORY INFO and suppresses irrelevant information before executing an action. Finally, the BG has a role in cognitive-related functions, allowing you to focus your attention on a PRIMARY TASK & maintain safe mobility during multiple ongoing motor & cognitive tasks.

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30
Q

Non-motor functions of the BG involve switching ___ between tasks. The ___ (part of the BG) regulates ___ behavior (e.g. ___). The [dorsal/ventral] striatum is involved with ___-based behaviors related to ___. It projects to the ___ cortex and is affected by [GABA/ Glutamate/ Dopamine].

A

Non-motor functions of the BG involve switching ATTENTION between tasks. The CAUDATE (part of the BG) regulates COMPULSIVE behavior (e.g. OCD). The VENTRAL striatum is involved with REWARD-based behaviors related to ADDICTION. It projects to the FRONTAL cortex and is affected by DOPAMINE.

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31
Q

Lesions in the BG appear clinically [ipsilateral/ contralateral] to the side of the lesion because the ___ tract [does/does not] cross.

A

Lesions in the BG appear clinically CONTRALATERAL to the side of the lesion because the CORTICOSPINAL tract CROSSES.

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32
Q

Parkinson’s disease (aka ___) occurs due to a loss of ___ cells of the ___. Symptoms do not appear until __-__% of these cells are lost. Degeneration occurs for a number of reasons, but the most likely etiology of PD is a combination of accelerated __, ___ predisposition, exposure to ___, and an abnormality in __ mechanisms. Specifically, there is likely oxygen free radical damage that results in an accumulation of __ in dopaminergic neurons in the __.

A

Parkinson’s disease (aka PARALYSIS AGITANS) occurs due to a loss of DOPAMINERGIC cells of the SUBSTANTIA NIGRA PARS COMPACTA (SNc). Symptoms do not appear until 70-80% of these cells are lost. Degeneration occurs for a number of reasons, but the most likely etiology of PD is a combination of accelerated AGING, GENETIC predisposition, exposure to TOXINS, and an abnormality in OXIDATIVE mechanisms. Specifically, there is likely oxygen free radical damage that results in an accumulation of LEWY BODIES in dopaminergic neurons in the SNc.

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33
Q

In PD, we see onset between __-__yo, slightly more in [men/women], and __x more in whites than blacks. The prevalance in North America is __ or __% of the >65yo population. ___ (#) new cases are seen per year.

A

In PD, we see onset between 40-70yo, slightly more in MEN, and 4X more in whites than blacks. The prevalance in North America is 1 MILLION or 1% of the >65yo population. 60,000 (#) new cases are seen per year.

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34
Q

Clinical features of PD include… (4)

A

(1) RESTING pill rolling tremor (4-6Hz)
(2) Bradykinesia & poverty of movement (loss of facial expression, difficulty initiating movement, increased latency to onset of voluntary mvmt, loss of reciprocal mvmt [eg arm swing in gait], decreased amplitude & speed of mvmts, micrographia [tiny handwriting])
(3) COG-WHEEL rigidity (not velocity dependent, incr resistance on both sides of jt. Series of catches & releases)
(4) Loss of Equilibrium & postural reflexes (NOT one of the 3 clinical diagnostic features!)

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35
Q

To receive a dx of PD, a patient must have 2 of the following:
- ___
- ____
- ___
…AND a consistent response to ____ replacement therapy.

A

To receive a dx of PD, a patient must have 2 of the following:
- RESTING TREMOR
- BRADYKINESIA & POVERTY OF MVMT
- COG-WHEEL RIGIDITY
…AND a consistent response to L-DOPA replacement therapy.

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36
Q

We see a number of motor control impairments with PD. Patients may have difficulty generating [externally/internally] triggered movements, making them more dependent on [internal/external] cues. They will have [fast/slowed] movements, aka ___, accompanied by [incr/decr] amplitude of body & eye movements, [incr/decr] BOS, and [incr/decr] arm swing. We also might see ___, which is related to a difficulty switching between motor programs. This movement hesitation results in a delay or complete inability to initiate a step and is a major contributor to __. This occurs most often when navigating a ___ environment. We also see ___ gait which is difficulty [initiating/terminating] gait. These patients have difficulty with sensory organization, meaning they are unable to filter __ from __ from th eenvironment and can’t use ___ in useful ways. This misselection results in an [over/under]estimation of amplitude of movement, resulting in ___. Posturally, we’ll see a [flexed/extended] position with [incr/decr/normal] trunk rotation. Their impaired postural control is affected by reduced __ especially backwards, rigidity of the __, bradykinesia, and lack of appropriate or effective __ in response to perturbation. We see impaired __ movements, including [hypo/hyper] metric saccades and a breakdown of __. Finally we see cognitive & limbic impairments, including difficulty in ___ attention and __-task situations as well as concurrent __ and /or dementia as the disease progresses.

A

We see a number of motor control impairments with PD. Patients may have difficulty generating INTERNALLY- triggered movements, making them more dependent on EXTERNAL cues. They will have SLOWED movements, aka BRADYKINESIA, accompanied by DECREASED amplitude of body & eye movements, NARROWED BOS, and DECREASED arm swing. We also might see FREEZING, which is related to a difficulty switching between motor programs. This movement hesitation results in a delay or complete inability to initiate a step and is a major contributor to FALLS. This occurs most often when navigating a COMPLEX environment. We also see FESTINATING gait which is difficulty TERMINATING gait. These patients have difficulty with sensory organization, meaning they are unable to filter RELEVENT from IRRELEVENT SENSORY CUES from the environment and can’t use PROPRIOCEPTION in useful ways. This misselection results in an OVERestimation of amplitude of movement, resulting in RIGIDITY. Posturally, we’ll see a FLEXED position with DECREASED trunk rotation. Their impaired postural control is affected by reduced LIMITS OF STABILITY especially backwards, rigidity of the TRUNK, bradykinesia, and lack of appropriate or effective POSTURAL RESPONSES in response to perturbation. We see impaired EYE movements, including HYPO metric saccades and a breakdown of SMOOTH PURSUIT. Finally we see cognitive & limbic impairments, including difficulty in DIVIDED attention and DUAL-task situations as well as concurrent DEPRESSION and /or DEMENTIA as the disease progresses.

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37
Q

Secondary impairments from PD may include __ or __ and may contribute to mobility difficulties. Late-stage PD may be accompanied by __ dysfunction, including __, __, and __; as well as __ disturbances.

A

Secondary impairments from PD may include CONTRACTURES or LOSS OF THORACIC MOBILITY & DECR RESPIRATORY EXCURSION and may contribute to mobility difficulties. Late-stage PD may be accompanied by AUTONOMIC dysfunction, including ORTHOSTASIS, DECR BOWEL MOTILITY, and URINARY FREQUENCY; as well as SLEEP disturbances.

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38
Q

Rating scales for PD include the ___ and the __.

A

Rating scales for PD include the HOEHN & YAHR and the UNITED PARKINSON DISEASE RATING SCALE (UPDRS).

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39
Q

Medical management of PD generally starts with ___, but this becomes ineffective after a while. Later, they will try ___ replacement therapy. Drug treatment is generally delayed as long as possible because of the side effects that develop after ___-__ years on the meds. ___ can develop when the meds peak because the receptors are so sensitive to it, and you may see dramatic __ times. ___ can have dramatic effects on PD functioning; this is commonly done in ___ (area of brain).

A

Medical management of PD generally starts with DOPAMINE AGONIST (MIRAPEX), but this becomes ineffective after a while. Later, they will try L-DOPA replacement therapy. Drug treatment is generally delayed as long as possible because of the side effects that develop after 3-5 years on the meds. DYSKINESIAS can develop when the meds peak because the receptors are so sensitive to it, and you may see dramatic ON-OFF times. DEEP BRAIN STIMULATION can have dramatic effects on PD functioning; this is commonly done in SUBTHALAMIC NUCLEUS (area of brain).

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40
Q

Parkinson’s Plus Syndromes is differentially-diagnosed between PD and other degenerative disorders that may present with one or more PD-related signs like tremor or bradykinesia. However, 2 differentiating features of Parkinson’s Plus Syndromes:

(1) They are not responsive to ____
(2) They progress [faster/slower] than PD

They include…(5)

A

Parkinson’s Plus Syndromes is differentially-diagnosed between PD and other degenerative disorders that may present with one or more PD-related signs like tremor or bradykinesia. However, 2 differentiating features of Parkinson’s Plus Syndromes:

(1) They are not responsive to DOPAMINE
(2) They progress FASTER than PD

They include...
Multiple System Atrophy (MSA)
Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP)
Corticobasal Degeneration
Lewy Body Dementia
Olivopontocerebellar Atrophy
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41
Q

Chorea is a type of ___ and occurs because of damage to the __. Symptoms include a serious of continuous [fast/slow] movements of the __, __, and ___ especially the __ and __. These movements usually resemble fragments of functional movements and they’re [voluntary/ involuntary].

A

Chorea is a type of DYSKINESIA and occurs because of damage to the STRIATUM. Symptoms include a serious of continuous FAST movements of the FACE, TONGUE & DISTAL LIMBS, especially FINGERS & TOES. These movements usually resemble fragments of functional movements and they’re INVOLUNTARY.

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42
Q

Athetosis is a type of ___ and occurs because of damage to the __. Symptoms include [fast/slow] ___ movements, that are ___-like. It involves more of the [distal/whole] limbs compared to chorea.

A

Athetosis is a type of DYSKINESIA and occurs because of damage to the STRIATUM. Symptoms include SLOW WRITHING movements, that are SNAKE-like. It involves more of the WHOLE limbs compared to chorea.

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43
Q

__ is an intermediate form between chorea and athetosis

A

CHOREOATHETOSIS

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44
Q

Hemiballismus is a type of ___ that results from damage to the __. It may be the result of a ___ involving a small branch of the [anterior/posterior] [cerebral/cerebellar] artery. Symptoms include ___ movements usually of [one/both] arm or leg.

A

Hemiballismus is a type of DYSKINESIA that results from damage to the SUBTHALAMIC NUCLEUS. It may be the result of a STROKE involving a small branch of the POSTERIOR CEREBRAL artery. Symptoms include VIOLENT FLAILING movements usually of ONE arm or ONE leg.

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45
Q

Huntington’s Chorea is a ___ genetic disorder, meaning you have a __% chance of inheritance. It’s allele is located on chromosome __ and consists of an extended (>___(#)) ___ trinucleotide repeat. Genetic testing is available. We see a profound loss of interneurons (spiny neurons) in the __ and __, as well as reactive __ in the striatum. There is also neuronal loss in the __ and ___, so these patients have [cognitive/motor/both] impairments. The ventricles are [shrunken/enlarged/normal]. Cell death in Huntington’s is thought to be due to an accumulation of oxygen free radicals or failure of __ energy metabolism.

A

Huntington’s Chorea is a AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT genetic disorder, meaning you have a 50% chance of inheritance. It’s allele is located on chromosome 4 and consists of an extended (>40 REPEATS) CAG trinucleotide repeat. Genetic testing is available. We see a profound loss of interneurons (spiny neurons) in the CAUDATE & PUTAMEN, as well as reactive GLIOSIS in the striatum. There is also neuronal loss in the CORTEX and CEREBELLUM, so these patients have BOTH COGNITIVE AND MOTOR impairments. The ventricles are ENLARGED. Cell death in Huntington’s is thought to be due to an accumulation of oxygen free radicals or failure of MITOCHONDRIAL energy metabolism.

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46
Q

Huntington’s Disease is a [common/rare] disease, affecting __(#)/100,000. The mean age of onset is __-__.

A

Huntington’s Disease is a RARE disease, affecting 6.5/100,000. The mean age of onset is 35-42

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47
Q

Huntington’s disease often presents with [motor/cognitive] changes, including ___, ___, ___, and subtle changes in ___ as well as choreoathetotic movements in the __. Chorea advances [proximally/distally]. We see ataxic gait with chorea and choreoathetotic movements of the __ and __. Cognitive changes including __ and __ are also seen.

A

Huntington’s disease often presents with COGNITIVE changes, including _DEPRESSION, IRRITABILITY, SLOWED COGNITION, DECR ABILITY TO PROBLEM SOLVE and subtle changes in COORDINATION as well as choreoathetotic movements in the FINGERS. Chorea advances PROXIMALLY We see ataxic gait with chorea and choreoathetotic movements of the FACE and TONGUE. Cognitive changes including DEPRESSION & DEMENTIA are also seen.

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48
Q

Diagnostic testing for Huntington’s includes…

A
  • Genetic testing
  • MRI/CT: reduced volume in striatum
  • PET scan: Reduced D1 & D2 binding
    SPECT: reduced blood flow in the caudate>putamen
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49
Q

Cerebral palsy defines a group of disorders with common factors including abnormal ___, early onset (generally __ or ___), and absence of recognized underlying ___ disease. Common associated features may include __, ___ impairment, __ and __-motor abnormalities, __, and __ and __ impairments.

A

Cerebral palsy defines a group of disorders with common factors including abnormal MOTOR CONTROL, early onset (generally PRENATAL or PERINATAL), and absence of recognized underlying PROGRESSIVE disease (SO THE ETIOLOGY IS UNKNOWN!). Common associated features may include SEIZURES, COGNITIVE impairment, VISUAL and VISUO-motor abnormalities, DEAFNESS, and SPEECH & LEARNING impairments.

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50
Q

Name the Subclassifications of CP…(4)

A

(1) Spastic
(2) Extrapyramidal (related to BG damage)
(3) Hypotonic (floppy, low tone; not typical)
(4) Mixed & atypical types

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51
Q

Spastic CP is secondary to a [LMN/UMN] problem and is accompanied by [hyper/hypo]reflexia. We see abnormal __ reflexes and dominant __ reflexes. These patients have sustained __ and tone in their __. Spastic CP is further classified by topography (part of the brain affected and includes:

(1) Hemiplegia: impacting [part/whole] of one hemisphere
(2) Spastic diplegia: damage to [medial/lateral] part of ___ affecting [one/both] [UE/LE]
(3) Spastic quadriplegia: [smaller/bigger] hemorrhage affecting all 4 limbs
(4) : Monoplegia: hemmorhage on [one/both] sides, usually affecting [UE/LE]
(5) Triplegia: due to a [symmetrical/asymmetrical] bleed

A

Spastic CP is secondary to a UMN problem and is accompanied by HYPERreflexia. We see abnormal POSTURAL reflexes and dominant TONIC NECK reflexes. These patients have sustained CLONUS and tone in their ADDUCTORS. Spastic CP is further classified by topography (part of the brain affected and includes:

(1) Hemiplegia: impacting ALL of one hemisphere
(2) Spastic diplegia: damage to MEDIAL PORTION OF INTERNAL CAPSULE affecting BOTH LE
(3) Spastic quadriplegia: BIGGER hemorrhage affecting all 4 limbs
(4) : Monoplegia: hemmorhage on ONE side, usually affecting LE
(5) Triplegia: due to a ASYMMETRICAL bleed

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52
Q

Extrapyramidal CP is related to damage to the ___. We see __, __, and ___ subtypes.

A

Extrapyramidal CP is related to damage to the BG. We see ATHETOSIS, CHOREA, AND CHORE-ATHETOTIC movements

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53
Q

Hypotonic CP has [high/low] tone and appears __. This is [typical/atypical] CP.

A

Hypotonic CP has LOW tone and appears FLOPPY. This is ATYPICAL CP.

54
Q

In low birth weight infants, ___ type of CP is most common. These infants may have some other factors that predispose them to both CP and prematurity/low birth weight such as some congenital __, ___, and incomplete __ migration.

A

In low birth weight infants, SPASTIC DIPLEGIA type of CP is most common. These infants may have some other factors that predispose them to both CP and prematurity/low birth weight such as some congenital MALFORMATION, INTRAVENTRICULAR HEMMORHAGES, and incomplete NEURONAL migration.

55
Q

CP is common in sick, full-term infants who may have an ___. Most of these kiddos (__%) [do/do not] have serious perinatal asphyxia.

A

CP is also common in sick, full-term infants who may have an INFECTION. Most of these kiddos (80%) DO NOT have serious perinatal asphyxia.

56
Q

CP also occurs without obvious postnatal insults in full-term infants who were well as newborns. Other predisposing factors for CP:

(1) ~___% have cortical ___ with abnormal neuronal migration (programming error in development)
(2) [Hyper/Hypo]Bilirubinemia associated with ___ CP
(3) Exposure to __
(4) In utero ___
(5) Perinatal maternal __/__

A

CP also occurs without obvious postnatal insults in full-term infants who were well as newborns. Other predisposing factors for CP:

(1) ~33% have cortical DYSGENESIS with abnormal neuronal migration (programming error in development)
(2) HYPER-Bilirubinemia associated with ATHETOTIC CP
(3) Exposure to TOXINS
(4) In utero INFECTION
(5) Perinatal maternal INFECTION/FEVER

57
Q

The spinal cord lies within the __. It ends at the __-__ interspace as the ___. The spinal cord has __(#) segments/levels each of which has a pair of spinal nerves associated with it. The cervical rootlets exit [~horizontally/further distally] relative to their spinal cord level. More distal rootlets exit [~horizontally/further distally] before exiting at their numbered spinal column segment. The diameter of the cord takes up ~__ (fraction) of the space in the column.

A

The spinal cord lies within the VERTEBRAL CANAL. It ends at the L1-L2 interspace as the CONUS MEDULLARIS. The spinal cord has 31 (OR 33) segments/ levels each of which has a pair of spinal nerves associated with it. The cervical rootlets exit ALMOST HORIZONTALLY relative to their spinal cord level. More distal rootlets exit FURTHER DISTALLY before exiting at their numbered spinal column segment. The diameter of the cord takes up ~1/3 of the space in the column.

58
Q

The ___ is a descending collection of dorsal and ventral nerve rootlets past the conus medullaris. It sits in the ___ space and floats in __. Damage here results in a {UMN/LMN] lesion.

A

The CAUDA EQUINA is a descending collection of dorsal and ventral nerve rootlets past the conus medullaris. It sits in the SUBARACHNOID space and floats in CSF. Damage here results in a LMN lesion.

59
Q

The blood supply of the spinal cord: [one/ two] anterior spinal arteries supply the anterior [1/3 / 2/3] and the core. [One/ Two] posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior [1/3 / 2/3]. This/these posterior artery(s) is/are just medial to where the dorsal roots enter the cord.

A

The blood supply of the spinal cord: ONE anterior spinal arteries supply the anterior 2/3 and the core. TWO posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior 1/3. These posterior arteries are just medial to where the dorsal roots enter the cord.

60
Q

SCI are generally broken into traumatic and non-traumatic. [Traumatic/ non-traumatic] has a higher incidence. Non-traumatic causes may include __, __, __, __, __, or __.

A

SCI are generally broken into traumatic and non-traumatic. TRAUMATIC has a higher incidence. Non-traumatic causes may include VASCULAR, TUMOR, INFECTIONS, AUTOIMMUNE (e.g. transverse myelitis), SPONDYLOSIS/ SPINAL STENOSIS, and/or DEVELOPMENTAL DISORDERS (MENINGOMYELOCEOLE)

61
Q

There are ___ (#) new SCI cases per year in the USA. The current USA prevalance is ~___.
Rank the follow from highest to lowest incidence of traumatic SCI:
Work-related
Jumps & falls
MVA
Sports
Violence

A

There are 12,000 new SCI cases per year in the USA. The current USA prevalance is ~240,000.

Highest to lowest incidence of traumatic SCI:
MVA (mostly automobiles) > Jumps & Falls > Violence (mostly gunshot wound) > Sports > Work Related

62
Q

The incidence of SCI in the cervical region is ___% because there is more __ in the C-spine compared to the others. The other regions (thoracic, thoraco-lumbar, and lumbo-sacral) are evenly split. SCIs are much more common in [males/females], with an __:___ ratio. 50% of SCI occur in the __-__yo age group. 80% of SCI occur under the age of ___.

A

The incidence of SCI in the cervical region is 55% because there is more MOBILITY & LESS STABILITY in the C-spine compared to the others. The other regions (thoracic, thoraco-lumbar, and lumbo-sacral) are evenly split. SCIs are much more common in MALES, with an 80-85%: 15-20% ratio. 50% of SCI occur in the 15-24 yo age group. 80% of SCI occur under the age of 40.

63
Q

SCI can be classified multiple ways, one of which is a general classification based on which __ are impaired. Tetraplegia (quadriplegia) is the partial or complete __ of all 4 extremities and trunk as a result of a __-level injury. Paraplegia is the partial or complete paralysis of all or part of the ___ and both [UE/LE].

A

SCI can be classified multiple ways, one of which is a general classification based on which LIMBS are impaired. Tetraplegia (quadriplegia) is the partial or complete PARALYSIS of all 4 extremities and trunk as a result of a CERVICAL-level injury. Paraplegia is the partial or complete paralysis of all or part of the TRUNK and both LE

64
Q

SCI can be classified multiple ways, one of which is by designating the lesion level. This is done by indicating the [most distal functioning/ most proximal dysfunctioning] spinal cord level as indicated by the dermatomes and myotomes. “Functioning” means that the ___ groups have at least a MMT grade of __ as long as the level above it has an MMT of ___.

A

SCI can be classified multiple ways, one of which is by designating the lesion level. This is done by indicating the MOST DISTAL FUNCTIONING spinal cord level as indicated by the dermatomes and myotomes. “Functioning” means that the MYOTOMAL MUSCLE GROUPS have at least a MMT grade of 3 as long as the level above it has an MMT of 5.

65
Q

If wrist extension strength is a 3/5 MMT and elbow flexion is a 5/5 MMT, what level is the SCI?

A

C6 SCI (most distal functioning level is C6: wrist extension; we know this because it is 3/5 MMT and the one above it [C5: elbow flex] is a 5/5 MMT)

66
Q

A complete lesion presents with [describe sensory & motor function below designated lesion level]. It is caused by a complete ___, severe __, or extensive ___ impairment to the spinal cord.

A

A complete lesion presents with NO MOTOR OR SENSORY FUNCTION BELOW DESIGNATED LESION LEVEL. It is caused by a complete TRANSECTION, severe CONTUSION, or extensive VASCULAR impairment to the spinal cord.

67
Q

An incomplete lesion presents with [describe sensory & motor function below designated lesion level]. It most often results from __. Also can be because of __ and partial ___. Prognosis [is predictable/ is poor/ varies], but generally some recovery is possible.

A

An incomplete lesion presents with SOME SENSATION OR MOTOR FUNCTION below designated lesion level. It most often results from CONTUSIONS. Also can be because of EDEMA and partial TRANSECTIONS. Prognosis VARIES, but generally some recovery is possible.

68
Q

Asymmetrical injuries can also occur. These generally happen because of __ injuries to the spinal cord, so you’d expect that there may be different functional levels on each side. Score the sides separately!

A

Asymmetrical injuries can also occur. These generally happen because of OBLIQUE injuries to the spinal cord, so you’d expect that there may be different functional levels on each side. Score the sides separately!

69
Q

The ASIA Scale (American ___ __ ___ Impairment Scale) evaluates the __ and __ function after SCI. For motor function, there is a max score of ___ points per side. A high score is [more/less] function.

A

The ASIA Scale (American SPINAL INJURY ASSOCIATION Impairment Scale) evaluates the SENSORY & MOTOR function after SCI. For motor function, there is a max score of 50 points per side. A high score is MORE function.

70
Q

Describe the ASIA levels (A-E). What is normal?

A

Normal = E!

A = Complete. No motor or sensory below level of lesion

B = Incomplete: SENSORY but not motor below level of lesion (incl. sacral segment S4-S5) ** Often happens because of partial transections, edema in the cord etc. Sacral sparing (sparing most peripheral axons in the spinal cord) may allow sensory and/or motor function in anal region (S4-S5) to be spared.

C = Incomplete: Motor function preserved below level of lesion AND >1/2 of key ASIA muscles below lesion have a MMT

71
Q

Name the ASIA level:

Incomplete: Motor function preserved below level of lesion and AT LEAST HALF of key muscles below lesion have MMT of ≥3

A

ASIA D

72
Q

Name the ASIA level:

Incomplete: SENSORY but not motor below level of lesion (incl. sacral segment S4-S5)

A

ASIA B

73
Q

Name the ASIA level:

Complete. No motor or sensory below level of lesion

A

ASIA A

74
Q

Name the ASIA level:

Incomplete: Motor function preserved below level of lesion AND >1/2 of key ASIA muscles below lesion have a MMT

A

ASIA C

75
Q

Name the ASIA level:

Normal motor & sensory function

A

ASIA E

76
Q

Per the ASIA scale, incomplete injuries account for __% of all injuries. Recent trends show that most injuries are now incomplete due to improvements in __ and __. __% of clinically complete (aka ASIA __) injuries are anatomically incomplete, so they might recover some function and move into an incomplete category as time goes on! ___-level injuries are most likely to be complete compared to other regions.

A

Per the ASIA scale, incomplete injuries account for 55% of all injuries. Recent trends show that most injuries are now incomplete due to improvements in SAFETY STANDARDS (AIR BAGS) and MEDICAL MANAGEMENT. 61% of clinically complete (aka ASIA A) injuries are anatomically incomplete, so they might recover some function and move into an incomplete category as time goes on! THORACIC-level injuries are most likely to be complete compared to other regions (because if you have an SCI in the T-spine you’ve had a MAJOR trauma and associated force)

77
Q

With a flexion-based injury, we usually see injury to __ to __ and __ to __ due to increased mobility at these segments. This is the [most/least] common mechanism of injury. Associated fractures include a __ fx of the [anterior/posterior] vertebral body. Associated injuries include fractures of the [anterior/posterior] elements, [ant/post] dislocation, disc disruption, and __ jumping.

A

With a flexion-based injury, we usually see injury to C4 to C7 and T12 to L2 due to increased mobility at these segments. This is the MOST common mechanism of injury. Associated fractures include a WEDGE FRACTURE of the ANTERIOR vertebral body. Associated injuries include fractures of the POSTERIOR elements, ANTERIOR dislocation, disc disruption, and FACET jumping.

78
Q

A compression injury is generally secondary to a [shearing/vertical] force; these are often associated with [flexion/extension/ flexion-rotation] injuries. Associated fractures include fractures of the __ or a __ fracture. Associated injuries include ___ in the spinal cord or a rupture of the __.

A

A compression injury is generally secondary to a VERTICAL force; these are often associated with FLEXION injuries. Associated fractures include fractures of the ENDPLATE or a BURST fracture. Associated injuries include BONE FRAGMENTS in the spinal cord or a rupture of the DISC.

79
Q

A flexion-rotation mechanism of injury is associated with a [P/A / A/P / Rotational] force with the vertebral column [in anatomical position / rotated]. Associated fractures include fractures of the __, __, or __, rendering them very unstable. Associated injuries include rupture of the posterior ___, __, or dislocation of the __.

A

A flexion-rotation mechanism of injury is associated with a P/A force with the vertebral column ROTATED. Associated fractures include fractures of the POSTERIOR PEDICLES, FACETS, OR LAMINA rendering them very unstable. Associated injuries include rupture of the posterior LIGAMENTS, SUBLUXATION, or dislocation of the FACETS (FACET JUMPING).

80
Q

A shearing mechanism of injury is associated with a [horizontal/ vertical] force. This most frequently occurs in the [cervical/ thoracic/ thoracolumbar/ lumbrosacral] region, sometimes related to ___. Associated injuries include ___.

A

A shearing mechanism of injury is associated with a HORIZONTAL force. This most frequently occurs in the THORACOLUMBAR region, sometimes related to SEATBELTS (pelvis stabilized & upper body translates over fixed pelvis and then compresses the cord). Associated injuries include DISLOCATION.

81
Q

A Jefferson Fracture is a fracture of [C1/ C2]. This most often occurs as a result of a ____ movement and results in a fracture of the ___.

A

A Jefferson Fracture is a fracture of C1. This most often occurs as a result of a HYPEREXTENSION movement and results in a fracture of the ANTERIOR & POSTERIOR ARCHES OF C1.

82
Q

An Odontoid Fracture is a fracture of [C1/ C2]. There are 3 types:
Type I: ___ of the __ of the odontoid. This is the [most/least] common and is [easy/difficulty] to detect radiologically.

Type II: fracture through the __ of the dens. This is the [most/least] common. Complications include __ and __.

Type III: Sub___ injury. Prognosis is [good/fair/poor].

A

An Odontoid Fracture is a fracture of C2. There are 3 types:
Type I: AVULSION of the TIP of the odontoid. This is the LEAST common and is DIFFICULT to detect radiologically.

Type II: fracture through the BASE of the dens. This is the MOST common. Complications include NON UNION & AVN

Type III: SUBDENTAL injury. Prognosis is GOOD

83
Q

A Hangman’s Fracture is a fracture of [C1/ C2]. It involves a translation of [C1/ C2] on [C1/C2] and results in a [unilateral/bilateral] fracture of the __ of [C1/C2]. When it isn’t a legit hanging, this can be the result of a rapid ___ injury. There are 3 types; usually treated with surgery in type __, and non-surgically in type __.

A

A Hangman’s Fracture is a fracture of C2. It involves a translation of C1 on C2 and results in a BILATERAL fracture of the PEDICLES of C2. When it isn’t a legit hanging, this can be the result of a rapid ACCELERATION/ DECELERATION injury. There are 3 types; usually treated with surgery in types II & III, and non-surgically in type I.

84
Q

Brown-Sequard Syndrome is the result of a [unilateral/ bilateral] lesion, usually resulting from a ___ wound. Describe side, location, & associated tract with of the loss of:

  • Motor function
  • Proprioception
  • Pain & temperature
A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome is the result of a UNILATERAL lesion, usually resulting from a STAB WOUND. Describe side, location, & associated tract with of the loss of:
- Motor function: SAME SIDE, LEVEL OF THE LESION & DOWN. Corticospinal tract (crosses in caudal medulla).

  • Proprioception: SAME SIDE, LEVEL OF LESION & DOWN. DCML tract; remains ipsilateral then crosses in brainstem (lower medulla).
  • Pain & temperature: OPP SIDE, BEGINS A FEW DERMATOMES BELOW (because spinothalamic fibers may ascend a few levels before crossing!) Spinothalamic tract; fibers cross at level of lesion.
85
Q

Anterior Cord Syndrome is often the result of a __ with a severe [flexion/ hyperextension/ flexion-rotation/ shearing] injury with damage to the [posterior/anterior] spinal artery. Describe side, location, & associated tract with of the loss of:

  • Motor function
  • Proprioception
  • Pain & temperature
A

Anterior Cord Syndrome is often the result of a DISC HERNIATION with a severe FLEXION injury with damage to the ANTERIOR spinal artery. Describe side, location, & associated tract with of the loss of:
- Motor function: LOST BILATERALLY BELOW LESION

  • Proprioception: Preserved! These tracts run posteriorly enough that they can still get past the damage.
  • Pain & temperature: LOST BILATERALLY BELOW LESION
86
Q

Posterior Cord Syndrome is [common/ very rare]. It can result from damage to the [ant/post] spinal artery. Patients become very __-dependent, with a [narrow/wide] BOS and ataxic-looking gait. Describe side, location, & associated tract with of the loss of:

  • Motor function
  • Proprioception
  • Pain & temperature
A

Posterior Cord Syndrome is VERY RARE. It can result from damage to the POSTERIOR spinal artery. Patients become very VISUALLY-dependent, with a NARROW BOS and ataxic-looking gait. Describe side, location, & associated tract with of the loss of:

  • Motor function: Preserved!
  • Proprioception: LOSS of conscious proprioception, kinesthesia, & vibratory sense bilaterally below lesion.
  • Pain & temperature: Preserved!
87
Q

Central Cord Syndrome is associated with [flexion/ hyperextension/ flexion-rotation/ shearing] injuries of the [cervical/ thoracic/ thoracolumbar/ lumbrosacral] region. There is damage to the __ arteries of the [anterior/posterior] spinal artery resulting in a __ (aka __) in the middle of the cord where blood can accumulate. Seen most often in [young/elderly] patients. Prognosis is [good/fair/poor] especially w/decompression surgery. Describe side, location, & associated tract with of the loss of:
- Motor function

  • Pain & temperature
A

Central Cord Syndrome is associated with HYPEREXTENSION injuries of the CERVICAL CORD. There is damage to the PENETRATING arteries of the ANTERIOR spinal artery resulting in a CAVITY (aka SYRINX) in the middle of the cord where blood can accumulate. Seen most often in ELDERLY patients. Prognosis is GOOD especially w/decompression surgery. Describe side, location, & associated tract with of the loss of:
- Motor function: If motor tracts are involved, usually the lasting deficit is in the UE tracts as LE tracts tend to be more peripheral in the white matter

  • Pain & temperature: Sensory loss occurs JUST at level of lesion. Spinothalamic tract on each side is NOT affected, you’re just interrupting the CROSSING fibers at the level they come in via the dorsal horn. “Cape-like” sensory loss.
88
Q

Sacral sparing is a [complete/ incomplete] lesion in which the most [medially/peripherally] located sacral fibers are spared. It presents with ___ sensation, ___ sphincter contraction, and contraction of the ___.

A

Sacral sparing is an INCOMPLETE lesion in which the most PERIPHERALLY located sacral fibers are spared. It presents with PERIANAL sensation, RECTAL sphincter contraction, and contraction of the TOE FLEXORS.

89
Q

Conus Medullaris Syndrome may occur after trauma at the __ or __ bony levels or at the __ junction. Often a __-related injury. The vertebral injury can be __, __, __, or __ fracture. This results in a [UMN/LMN/combination] lesion.

The UMN deficits are seen in ___-innervated muscles and __ dysfunction. The UMN picture therefore is related to the __ and __ levels of the cord. Clinical example?

LMN lesion occurs to the ___ passing by that level. The amount of deficit depends on how ___ the conus medullaris goes in that particular person. Clinical example?

A

Conus Medullaris Syndrome may occur after trauma at the L1 or L2 bony levels or at the THORACOLUMBAR junction. Often a SEAT BELT-related injury. The vertebral injury can be RETROPULSE, SHEAR OR BURST OR COMPRESSION fracture. This results in a COMBO UMN & LMN lesion.

The UMN deficits are seen in SACRALLY-innervated muscles and UROLOGIC dysfunction. The UMN picture therefore is related to the SACRAL and COCCYGEAL levels of the cord. Clinical example: Gastrocs are innervated by S1, so you may see hyperreflexive gastrocs.

LMN lesion occurs to the NERVE ROOTS passing by that level. The amount of deficit depends on how LOW the conus medullaris goes in that particular person. Clinical example: Damage to L2-L3 nerve roots as they pass by to exit at their proper level may result in weakness in the Hip Flexors (L1-L2), knee jerk (L3), quad weakness, etc.

90
Q

Cauda Equina injuries are often the result of a __ fracture at L__ or below (below the conus). Generally, [one/ more than one] nerve root is involved, but usually does not involve all of the nerve roots. This is [UMN/LMN/combo] involvement, so you’d expect [hyper/hypo]reflexia.

A

Cauda Equina injuries are often the result of a BURST fracture at L2 or below (below the conus). Generally, MORE THAN ONE nerve root is involved, but usually does not involve all of the nerve roots (because they’re floating). This is ALL LMN involvement, so you’d expect HYPOREFLEXIA

91
Q

Root escape may occur if there is damage to the ___ at or near the level of injury. This refers to the [recovery/ deterioration] of function of the damaged nerve root.

A

Root escape may occur if there is damage to the NERVE ROOT at or near the level of injury. This refers to the RECOVERY of function of the damaged nerve root.

92
Q

Describe what you would expect to see in UMN lesions for the following:

  • DTRs:
  • Plantar Response:
  • Atrophy:
A

Describe what you would expect to see in UMN lesions for the following:

  • DTRs: HYPER reflexive
  • Plantar Response: Upward (positive Babinski)
  • Atrophy: Little
93
Q

Describe what you would expect to see in LMN lesions for the following:

  • DTRs:
  • Plantar Response:
  • Atrophy:
A

Describe what you would expect to see in LMN lesions for the following:

  • DTRs: HYPO reflexive
  • Plantar Response: No response (if L5 nerve root) or PLANTAR FLEXION
  • Atrophy: Pronounced
94
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia is a complication of SCI that occurs in __-__% of patients with an injury above __. This is because with an injury at or above that level, the ___ reflexes that regulate BP in the __ and __ are no longer connected with higher control. AD is most commonly caused by __ or __ noxious stimulation. Clinically, we see drastic increases in ___; __, __, __, increased ___. This is [no big deal/ medical emergency], so find the irritation FAST or call 911 and get that BP down. Like, meow.

A

Autonomic Dysreflexia is a complication of SCI that occurs in 48-85% of patients with an injury above T6. This is because with an injury at or above that level, the SPLANCHNIC reflexes that regulate BP in the GUT and LEs are no longer connected with higher control. AD is most commonly caused by BOWEL or BLADDER noxious stimulation. Clinically, we see drastic increases in SYSTEMIC BP, BRADYCARDIA, HEADACHE, SWEATING, and INCREASED SPASTICITY. This is A MEDICAL EMERGENCY so find the irritation FAST or call 911 and get that BP down. Like, meow.

95
Q

Pain is a complication after SCI and can be broken down into ___ pain and ___ pain. Describe the cause of each.

A

Pain is a complication after SCI and can be broken down into NOCICEPTIVE pain and NEUROPATHIC pain.

  • Nociceptive Pain: From a real soft tissue or bony source. Musculoskeletal (bone, jt, posture, overuse) or visceral (renal calculi, bowel, dysreflexia headache, etc.)
  • Neuropathic Pain: sharp shooting, burning, electric pain secondary to maladaptive rewiring of the Spinal Cord that happens post-injury.
96
Q

Neuropathic pain after SCI can occur above the level of injury, at the level of injury, or below the level of injury.

Pain [below/at/above] the injury is often resistant to treatment but is a major complication after injury; it often presents as allodynia, aka sensitivity to __. It occurs in __% of SCI but higher in older patients.

Pain [below/at/above] the injury is generally a compressive neuropathy related to __ or __. It also is associated with ___ syndrome.

Pain [below/at/above] the injury occurs in a __ pattern, likely related to nerve root compression. It may involve changes at the ___ (and multiple nerve roots), ___, or ___ (burning sensation).

A

Neuropathic pain after SCI can occur above the level of injury, at the level of injury, or below the level of injury.

Pain BELOW the injury is often resistant to treatment but is a major complication after injury; it often presents as ALLODYNIA, aka sensitivity to LIGHT TOUCH. It occurs in 26% of SCI but higher in older patients.

Pain ABOVE the injury is generally a compressive neuropathy related to POSTURE or OVERUSE. It also is associated with COMPLEX REGIONAL PAIN SYNDROME.

Pain AT the injury level occurs in a DERMATOMAL pattern, likely related to nerve root compression. It may involve changes at the CAUDA EQUINA (and multiple nerve roots), SYRINGOMYELIA, or DYESTHESIA (burning sensation).

97
Q

Post-traumatic Syringomyelia is a complication after ~__-__% of traumatic SCI. The onset is anywhere from __ to __ post injury because of traction forces on the cord. We see __ of the central canal associated with liquefaction of the __. The cavity expands due to disrupted flow of __ out of the cyst. It is also associated with a tethered cord in which the cord adheres to __. Signs/sx include chronic __, weakness, loss of function, decreased ___ function (if C__ or higher lesion), increased or decreased __. It can be treated with a __ (to relieve CSF pressure), ___ to decompress the cord, or a release of the __.

A

Post-traumatic Syringomyelia is a complication after ~3-4% of traumatic SCI. The onset is anywhere from 1 MONTH - 45 YEARS post injury because of traction forces on the cord. We see CAVITATION of the central canal associated with liquefaction of the INTRAPARENCHYEMAL HEMATOMA. The cavity expands due to disrupted flow of CSF out of the cyst. It is also associated with a tethered cord in which the cord adheres to DURA. Signs/sx include chronic PAIN, weakness, loss of function, decreased RESPIRATORY function (if C5 or higher lesion), increased or decreased SPASTICITY. It can be treated with a SHUNT (to relieve CSF pressure), LAMINECTOMY to decompress the cord, or a release of the TETHERING.

98
Q

Bowel and bladder dysfunction is another complication after SCI in which patients lose voluntary control of bowel/bladder function. UMN lesions result in [spastic/flaccid] bowel & bladder, and they will need to __ to get urine out. Training programs are [effective/ less effective] and use reflexes for emptying.

LMN lesions result in [spastic/flaccid] bowel & bladder; we see more __ here. Training programs are [effective/ less effective] due to flaccid __.

A

Bowel and bladder dysfunction is another complication after SCI in which patients lose voluntary control of bowel/bladder function. UMN lesions result in SPASTIC bowel & bladder, and they will need to CATHETERIZE to get urine out. Training programs are EFFECTIVE and use reflexes for emptying.

LMN lesions result in FLACCID bowel & bladder; we see more INCONTINENCE here. Training programs are LESS EFFECTIVE due to flaccid SPHINCTERS.

99
Q

The motor and sensory scores on the __ can be used to predict __ capacity post- SCI. The presence of __ and __ (aka intact __ tract) acutely post injury is correlated with walking at __ months.

Spared pin prick sensation acutely with MMT = 0 indicates an __% chance of motor recovery to at least a grade 3. If still rated as ASIA A at 1 month, chances of walking are [good/fair/poor].

A

The motor and sensory scores on the ASIA can be used to predict AMBULATORY capacity post- SCI. The presence of LIGHT TOUCH and PIN PRICK (aka intact SPINOTHALAMIC tract) acutely post injury is correlated with walking at 6 months. This is because the spinothalamic tract is near the same white matter in which key tracts for walking exist!

Spared pin prick sensation acutely with MMT = 0 indicates an 85% chance of motor recovery to at least a grade 3. If still rated as ASIA A at 1 month, chances of walking are VERY POOR.

100
Q

Locomotion [does/ does not] require sensation, and the neurology associated with locomotion is [fixed/ plastic], meaning it ___ with experience & training.

A

Locomotion DOES NOT require sensation, and the neurology associated with locomotion is PLASTIC, meaning it CHANGES with experience & training.

101
Q

Locomotion is hierarchically organized and progresses from the ___ cortex (goal-oriented) –> __ cortex –> BG, Cb, and Brainstem –> Spinal Cord (& ___) –> PNS & muscle

A

Locomotion is hierarchically organized and progresses from the PREFRONTAL cortex (goal-oriented) –> MOTOR cortex –> BG, Cb, and Brainstem –> Spinal Cord (& CPG) –> PNS & muscle

102
Q

To walk effectively, you need:

(1) Basic __ movement
- This involves which pathways and structures?

(2) __ during propulsion
- Which structures/systems?

(3) Adaptation to task __ and __
- Which structures?

A

To walk effectively, you need:

(1) Basic RECIPROCAL movement
- MLR, Reticulospinal Tract, Vestibulospinal tract, Cerebellum (ensures smooth transitions between flex/ext; Estimates amplitude & smoothness of reciprocal mvmts), CPG (lowest common denominator for reciprocal mvmt), BG (sets amplitude, initiates, & terminates)

(2) EQUILIBRIUM during propulsion (vestibular and Cb involved)
- Vestibular system & Vestibulocerebellum

(3) Adaptation to task GOALS and RESTRAINTS (Cb and sensory input)
- Mainly Cerebellum, some cortex involvement in higher level things

103
Q

Central pattern generators are [located at one level of/ distributed throughout at every level of] the cord in the [dorsal/ ventral/ intermediate] horns.

A

Central pattern generators are DISTRIBUTED THROUGHOUT THE CORD AT EVERY SPINAL CORD LEVEL in the VENTRAL & INTERMEDIATE horns.

104
Q

In cats, it was found that __ and __ are run by CPGs (in addition to locomotion).

A

In cats, it was found that SCRATCHING and BREATHING are run by CPGs (in addition to locomotion)

105
Q

In spinalized animals (e.g. cats on treadmills), the stereotyped limb movements of walking can be induced by __ stimulation, movement of the __, or __ agents. Locomotion is not dependent on ___ input, but ___ input is important to make the movement look more refined.

A

In spinalized animals (e.g. cats on treadmills), the stereotyped limb movements of walking can be induced by CUTANEOUS stimulation, movement of the LIMBS, or PHARMACOLOGICAL agents. Locomotion is not dependent on AFFERENT input, but SENSORY input is important to make the movement look more refined.

106
Q

CPGs can also be assessed in “___ locomotion” in which the ___ pool is stimulated in a rhythmical pattern consistent with locomotion (either pharmacologically or by stimulating higher centers). This produces the same activation pattern seen when the cat is walking.

A

CPGs can also be assessed in “FICTIVE locomotion” in which the MOTOR NEURON POOL is stimulated in a rhythmical pattern consistent with locomotion (either pharmacologically or by stimulating higher centers). This produces the same activation pattern seen when the cat is walking.

107
Q

In the half center model for CPGs, we see ___ ___ of the pools of motor neurons on both sides of the spinal cord with alternating action of the __ and __ during stance and swing, as appropriate. It requires [phasic/tonic] input from __. [Excitatory/inhibitory] interneurons are active in choosing which muscles are activated.

A

In the half center model for CPGs, we see RECIPROCAL INHIBITION of the pools of motor neurons on both sides of the spinal cord with alternating action of the FLEXORS and EXTENSORS during stance and swing, as appropriate. It requires TONIC input from HIGHER CENTERS. INHIBITORY interneurons are active in choosing which muscles are activated: INHIBITS FLEXORS when extensors are activated, and vice versa.

108
Q

CPGs are involved in intra- and inter-limb ___. Their output [can/cannot] be modified (aka ___) in response to ___ or a change in ___. Adaptation [can/cannot] occur in the absence of higher control, but it needs ____ to modify CPGs.

A

CPGs are involved in intra- and inter-limb COORDINATION. Their output CAN be modified (aka ADAPTATION) in response to SENSORY INPUT (eg. cutaneous input) or a change in HIGHER CENTER INPUT (can change gait velocity, stepping pattern,e tc.). Adaptation CAN occur in the absence of higher control, but it needs SENSORY INPUT to modify CPGs.

109
Q

CPGs do exist in humans, but may be more dependent on ___ initiation/input than in lower animals and require more ___-driven behaviors.

A

CPGs do exist in humans, but may be more dependent on SUPRASPINAL initiation/input than in lower animals and require more GOAL-driven behaviors.

110
Q

Classic cat research identified an area of the brainstem that could elicit stepping. This area of the [midbrain/pons/medulla] is called the ___. It is common to all vertebrates and influences locomotion via activation of other brainstem areas including the ___ and __ tracts which then influence CPGs in the spinal cord.

Supraspinal influences act to control locomotion by activating __, controlling the activity of __, maintaining __ during locomotion, adapting __ to external conditions, and coordinating locomotion with ___.

A

Classic cat research identified an area of the brainstem that could elicit stepping. This area of the MIDBRAIN is called the MESENSEPHALIC LOCOMOTOR REGION (MLR). It is common to all vertebrates and influences locomotion via activation of other brainstem areas including the RETICULOSPINAL TRACT and VESTIBULOSPINAL TRACT which both then influence CPGs in the spinal cord.

Supraspinal influences act to control locomotion by activating CPGs, controlling the activity of CPGs, maintaining EQUILIBRIUM during locomotion, adapting LIMB MOVEMENTS to external conditions, and coordinating locomotion with OTHER MOTOR TASKS (eg. walk & chew gum).

111
Q

Reticulospinal tracts are part of the supraspinal influences on walking. They consist of 2 parts:
(1) Pontine: excites [flexors/extensors] & inhibits [flexors/extensors}

(2) Medullary: excites [flexors/extensors] & inhibits [flexors/extensors}

Activity during gait cycle oscillates between these two.

Vestibulospinal tract has only one part and it [excites/inhibits] the [flexors/extensors].

A

Reticulospinal tracts are part of the supraspinal influences on walking. They consist of 2 parts:
(1) Pontine: excites EXTENSORS, inhibits FLEXORS

(2) Medullary: excites FLEXORS, inhibits EXTENSORS
* Activity during gait cycle oscillates between these two.

Vestibulospinal tract has only one part and it EXCITES EXTENSORS (important in stance!)

112
Q

The reticulospinal output is modified by several inputs including __, __, __, and __. Together, these allow walking to be more __ to the environmental context.

A

The reticulospinal output is modified by several inputs including VISION, VESTIBULAR, SOMATOSENSATION, & CPG Together, these allow walking to be more ADAPTIVE to the environmental context.

113
Q

Supraspinal Influences:

(1) ___ cortex: especially active in [simple tasks/ complex & novel tasks].
(2) ___: regulates the timing of ___ activation. Also does “___” of movement because it receives a copy of the output from the CPGs.
(3) Basal Ganglia: regulates the __, __, and __ of walking

A

Supraspinal Influences:

(1) SENSORIMOTOR cortex: especially active in COMPLEX & NOVEL TASKS (not so much in normal walking)
(2) CEREBELLUM : regulates the timing of SEQUENTIAL activation. Also does “FINE TUNING” of movement because it receives a copy of the output from the CPGs.
(3) Basal Ganglia: regulates the INITIATION, TERMINATION & TIMING of walking

114
Q

Certain supraspinal tracts in the [anterior/posterior] spinal cord are essential for locomotion. The ___ tract regulates flexion & extension. The ___ tract regulates just extensor drive. You don’t need a lot of input from the ___ tract to walk; this one is located more [medially/laterally] and is more involved with fine motor and isolated movements.

A

Certain supraspinal tracts in the ANTERIOR (VENTRAL) spinal cord are essential for locomotion. The RETICULOSPINAL tract regulates flexion & extension. The VESTIBULOSPINAL tract regulates just extensor drive. You don’t need a lot of input from the CORTICOSPINAL tract to walk; this one is located more LATERALLY and is more involved with fine motor and isolated movements.

115
Q

Sensory afferents important in locomotion include ___ receptors, __ receptors, ___ especially [Ia/Ib/IIa/IIb] fibers, and ___ especially [Ia/Ib/IIa/IIb].

A

Sensory afferents important in locomotion include CUTANEOUS receptors, JOINT receptors, MUSCLE SPINDLE especially IA fibers, and GTO especially IB

116
Q

[High/low] threshold cutaneous input facilitates CPGs to activate the [extensors/flexors] in swing and the [extensors/flexors] in stance.

A

LOW threshold cutaneous input facilitates CPGs to activate the FLEXORS in swing and the EXTENSORS in stance.

117
Q

In the muscle spindle, [Ia/Ib/IIa/IIb] fibers are [pre/post] synaptically [excited/inhibited] by [Ia/Ib/IIa/IIb] muscle fibers from other groups. This serves to decrease the ___ that would impede locomotion. These are critical during phase transitions in locomotion from [early/late] [stance/swing] to swing phase. The hip [flex/ext] muscle spindles activate [flexion/extension] ipsilaterally, and then facilitate the [flexors/extensors] contralaterally to transition to stance. Similar stretch-based effects are seen in the ___. So, we can say that stretch reflexes are “__ modulated” during walking - muscles are very sensitive to stretch during ___ and less so in __.

A

In the muscle spindle, IA fibers are PRE-synaptically INHIBITED by IA muscle fibers from other groups. This serves to decrease the RESISTIVE REFLEXES that would impede locomotion. These are critical during phase transitions in locomotion from LATE STANCE to swing phase. The hip FLEXOR muscle spindles activate FLEXION ipsilaterally, and then facilitate the EXT (aka CROSSED EFFECT). Similar stretch-based effects are seen in the TRICEPS SURAE (gastrocs & soleus). So, we can say that stretch reflexes are “PHASICALLY modulated” during walking - muscles are very sensitive to stretch during LATE STANCE and less so in SWING.

*In midstance/terminal stance, the collaterals from the stance leg extensors (hip and knee) presynaptically inhibit the ipsilateral hip flexor Ia fibers

118
Q

The GTO can have a __ response during some activities such as ambulation in response to high/low threshold or stimulus, meaning it can [facilitate/inhibit] extensors during stance and [facilitate/inhibit] the same muscles in swing.

A

The GTO can have a BIPHASIC or BIMODAL response during some activities such as ambulation in response to high/low threshold or stimulus, meaning it can FACILITATE extensors during stance and INHIBIT the same muscles in swing.

119
Q

Afferents from the muscle spindle and GTO can also affect higher centers via the ___ tract. They provide information from the periphery to modify the __ output. Other afferents from the spinal cord can inform the higher centers about activity in the ___ via ___.

A

Afferents from the muscle spindle and GTO can also affect higher centers via the VENTRAL SPINOCEREBELLAR tract. They provide information from the periphery to modify the RETICULO-SPINAL OUTPUT. Other afferents from the spinal cord can inform the higher centers about activity in the CPG via INTERNEURONS.

120
Q

Minimal gait speed for arm swing is __ mph (___ m/s). [Slower/faster] speeds facilitate the hip flexors and gastroc/soleus. The goal speed in BWS training is ___ m/s; __ m/s is normal, and ___ m/s is “functional” walking (not house-bound).

Additionally, ___ enhances extensor activity in stance.

A

Minimal gait speed for arm swing is 1.2 mph (0.54 m/s). FASTER speeds facilitate the hip flexors and gastroc/soleus.
The goal speed in BWS training is 1 m/s (2.24 mph); 1.2 m/s (2.7 mph) is normal, and 0.8 m/s (1.8 mph) is “functional” walking (not house-bound).

Additionally, WEIGHT BEARING (any LOAD) enhances extensor activity in stance.

121
Q

[Little/ a lot] is known about how CPGs are coordinated. [Only one/ more than one] CPG may be activated. There are [shared/separate] CPGs for the UE & LE and multiple ones for the LE and/or trunk.

A

LITTLE is known about how CPGs are coordinated. MORE THAN ONE CPG may be activated. There are SEPARATE CPGs for the UE & LE and multiple ones for the LE and/or trunk.

122
Q

A __ injury is the most common type of injury (think injury, not mechanism) in SCI. We also see lesions of the __ in which the [medial/peripheral] white matter is spared. Any ventral cord sparing can make a difference in recovery of ambulation after SCI! In SCI, we see [increased/diminished] input from higher centers via [Ia/IIa/Ib/IIb] afferents to the Alpha MN, but the concept of ____ comes into play here and synaptic growth is enhanced by ___ of the pathway.

A

A CONTUSION injury is the most common type of injury in SCI. We also see lesions of the CENTRAL CORD in which the PERIPHERAL white matter is spared. Any ventral cord sparing can make a difference in recovery of ambulation after SCI! In SCI, we see DIMINISHED input from higher centers via IA afferents to the Alpha MN, but the concept of COMPETITIVE USE-DEPENDENT PLASTICITY comes into play here and synaptic growth is enhanced by ACTIVE USE of the pathway.

123
Q

Motor recovery and hyperreflexia are competitive processes and are [directly/indirectly] related, meaning as motor recovery increases hyperreflexia [increases/decreases]. In asymmetrical lesions of the spinal cord, such as ___ Syndrome, we see [little/significant] reorganization of spared pathways. With a hemilesion, you’ll have initial severe [ipsilat/contralat] muscle weakness that improves with time because of [ipsilateral regeneration/ growth of contralateral collaterals].

A

Motor recovery and hyperreflexia are competitive processes and are INDIRECTLY related, meaning as motor recovery increases hyperreflexia DECREASES. In asymmetrical lesions of the spinal cord, such as BROWN SEQUARD Syndrome, we see SIGNIFICANT reorganization of spared pathways. With a hemilesion, you’ll have initial severe IPSILATERAL muscle weakness that improves with time because of GROWTH OF CONTRALATERAL COLLATERALS

124
Q

Big concepts in retraining ambulation:

  • [Medial/peripheral] sparing
  • [Rest / use dependent plasticity]
  • Normalize input, ie. ___
  • Maximize ___

Also, ___ during stance phase helps to activate ___.

A

Big concepts in retraining ambulation:

  • PERIPHERAL sparing
  • USE-DEPENDENT PLASTICITY
  • Normalize input, ie. NORMALIZE GAIT PATERN & SPEED (NS needs to recognize it as “walking!”)
  • Maximize OUTPUT

Also, LOADING during stance phase helps to activate CPGs.

125
Q

With regard to peripheral cord sparing after injury, preservation of the [anterior/posterior] cord is most important for regaining ambulation. Specifically, you really hope to preserve the __ and__ tracts, while the __ is not as essential in locomotion.

Training can improve locomotion and result in functional walking because [MMT scores are increasing / use-dependent plasticity]

A

With regard to peripheral cord sparing after injury, preservation of the ANTERIOR cord is most important for regaining ambulation. Specifically, you really hope to preserve the VESTIBULOSPINAL & RETICULOSPINAL tracts, while the LATERAL CORTICOSPINAL is not as essential in locomotion.

Training can improve locomotion and result in functional walking because USE DEPENDENT PLASTICITY!

126
Q

Ambulation training in complete SCI [will/will not] produce functional ambulation. Other benefits may include __, __, etc.

In incomplete SCI, use of an assistive device is okay as long as it ___.

A

Ambulation training in complete SCI WILL NOT produce functional ambulation. Other benefits may include CARDIOVASCULAR, PULMONARY, etc.

In incomplete SCI, use of an assistive device is okay as long as it “looks like walking” and facilitates muscle stretch feedback and use of CPGs.

127
Q

Human locomotion is unique in that it is ___, [more/less] dependent on supraspinal input than cats, and the ___ are organized differently. If your goal is walking, then train [ standing/ walking/ both].

A

Human locomotion is unique in that it is BIPEDAL (requirements for upright equilibrium), MORE dependent on supraspinal input than cats, and the CPGs are organized differently. If your goal is walking, then train WALKING!

128
Q

Give the following ambulation speeds:

A

Give the following ambulation speeds:

129
Q

Treadmill ambulation compared to overground involves:

  • [more/fewer] postural adjustments
  • Less active ___ (muscle movement)
  • Different ___ forces
  • Less demand for ___
A

Treadmill ambulation compared to overground involves:

  • FEWER postural adjustments
  • Less active PLANTAR FLEXION
  • Different GROUND REACTION forces
  • Less demand for ADAPTATION
130
Q

Is BWSTT better? Is it though?

A

Nope!

Compared to OG walking, NO difference in gait speed, distance, level of independence, or MMT after BWSTT