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A&P > exam 3 > Flashcards

exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two visions of the senses? define them

A

general- evenly distributed in the body with simple receptors
special- organized into specific sensory organs located on the head

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2
Q

what are general senses

A

visceral
touch
temperature
pain
proprioception

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3
Q

define visceral

A

related to the organs

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4
Q

define proprioception

A

the body’s knowledge of where it is in space

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5
Q

what are special senses

A

taste
smell
hearing
equilibrium
vision

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6
Q

what are visceral sensations

A

hollow organs that respond to stretch

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7
Q

what is an example of visceral sensations

A

gas in the GI tract

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8
Q

define temperature

A

receptors detect increases/decreases in body temperature

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9
Q

where are superficial temperature receptors

A

skin

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10
Q

where are central temperature receptors

A

the hypothalamus

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11
Q

how does the CNS correct changes in temperature

A

changing blood flow, sweating, and shivering

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12
Q

what are nociceptors

A

pain receptors

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13
Q

what is the purpose of nociceptors

A

alert the CNS to potentially harmful stimuli

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14
Q

define nociception

A

process of experiencing pain

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15
Q

what are the classifications of pain

A

superficial, deep, visceral, acute, chronic

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16
Q

define superficial pain

A

pain close to the skin

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17
Q

define deep pain

A

pain deep within the body

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18
Q

define visceral pain

A

organ pain

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19
Q

define acute pain

A

pain that will heal/go away (ie: a cut or break)

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20
Q

define chronic pain

A

lifelong/long-lasting pain (ie:arthritis)

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21
Q

define proprioception

A

sensation of the body’s position and movement

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22
Q

what does proprioception rely on

A

stretch receptors in muscle, tendons, ligaments, and joints

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23
Q

what are special senses

A

smell and hearing

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24
Q

what is smell

A

an olfactory sense

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25
Q

describe how smell works

A

hairlike projections are on the olfactory cells in the mucous membrane and covers the nasal epithelium. odor dissolves in the mucous and contacts sensory processes. nerve impulses travel to the brain and are interpreted as smells

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26
Q

what is the ear used for

A

hearing snd balance

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27
Q

how does the ear work

A

it converts vibrations of air molecules to nerve impulses

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28
Q

what are the three parts of the ear

A

external, middle, and inner

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29
Q

describe the external ear

A

funnels sound waves to the tympanic membrane

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30
Q

describe the middle ear

A

amplifies and transmits vibrations to the inner ear from the TM

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31
Q

describes the inner ear

A

sensory receptors that convert vibrations to nerve impulses

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32
Q

where is the ear housed

A

the temporal bone

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33
Q

whaat makes up the external ear

A

pinna, external auditory canal, tympanic membrane

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34
Q

describe the pinna

A

outer structure of bone and cartilage
directs vibration to external auditory canal

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35
Q

describe external auditory canal

A

soft, tube-like structures that carry vibrations to the TM
l-shaped with a vertical and horizontal canal

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36
Q

describe the tympanic membrane

A

aka the eardrum
tight membrane stretched over the opening between the middle and external ear

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37
Q

what makes up the middle ear

A

the ossicles and eustation tubes

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38
Q

what are ossicles

A

a link between the TM to the cochlea of the inner ear

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39
Q

what are the 3 ossicles

A

malleus, incus, stapes

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40
Q

define the eustation tube

A

an opening in the pharynx that equalizes are pressure on either side of the TM

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41
Q

what make up the inner ear

A

cochlea and organ of corti

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42
Q

define cochlea

A

a shell-shaped spiral cavity in the temporal bone

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43
Q

define the organ of corti

A

a fluid-filled portion that make up the receptor organ of hearing
runs the length of the cochlear duct

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44
Q

what does the organ of corti consist of

A

cells for hearing, supportive cells, the tectorial membrane

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45
Q

describe the steps of hearing

A

sound waves cause the TM and ossicles to vibrate
vibrations cause stapes to push/pull on the oval window membrane
the perilymph vibrates and moves the cochlear duct
the tectorial membrane and hair cells on the corti rub against the membrane
bent hairs cause nerve impulses which are interpreted as sound

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46
Q

what is the equilibrium of mechanical sense

A

it helps maintain balance by tracking position and movement of the head

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47
Q

where are equilibrium receptors placed

A

in vestibules and semicircular canals

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48
Q

what is vision similar to

A

a camera

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49
Q

what do components of the eye do

A

form an image

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50
Q

define photoreceptors

A

single layer of cells in the retina that detect an image

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51
Q

what are the three layers of the eyeball

A

the outer fibrous layer
middle vascular layer
inner nervous layer

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52
Q

what make up the outer layer of the eye

A

cornea and sclera

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53
Q

define the cornea

A

the transparent window to admit light to the eye interior

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54
Q

what is the cornea made up of

A

collagen fibers

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55
Q

define the sclera

A

the white of the eye made up of dense fibrous connective tissue

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56
Q

what is the limbus

A

the junction of the cornea and sclera

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57
Q

what make up the middle vascular layer of the eye

A

choroid, tapetum, iris, pupil, ciliary body

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58
Q

define the choroid

A

between the sclera and tissue; pigmented; made up of blood vessels

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59
Q

what animal does not have a tapetum

A

pigs

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60
Q

define the tapetum

A

highly reflective area in the caudal portion of the eye; non pigmented

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61
Q

define the iris

A

pigmented muscular diaphragm lying deep under the cornea

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62
Q

what does the iris do

A

controls the amount of light that enters the posterior part of the eye

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63
Q

define the pupil

A

opening in the iris

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64
Q

define the ciliary body

A

ring-shaped structure behind the iris

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65
Q

what does the ciliary body allow for

A

near and far vision due to the muscles adjusting to the shape of the lens

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66
Q

how do the ciliary bodies attach to the lens

A

suspensory ligaments

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67
Q

what makes up the inner layer of the eye

A

the retina (and rods and cones)

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68
Q

define the retina

A

lines the back of the globe
contains the sensory receptors for vision

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69
Q

what are rods and cones

A

vision cells that sense colors

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70
Q

where does the optic disc enter

A

the back of the eyeball

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71
Q

what are the two compartments of the eyeball

A

aqueous and vitreous

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72
Q

describe the aqueous compartment

A

contains clear fluid (aqueous humor)
in the posterior chamber of the ciliary body

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73
Q

describe the vitreous compartment

A

contains gelatinous fluid (vitreous humor)
behind the lens and the ciliary body

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74
Q

what is the lens

A

elastic and biconvex

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75
Q

what does relaxation of the lens do

A

causes tension/flattening of suspensory ligaments for distant vision

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76
Q

what does concentration of the lens do

A

releases tension of suspensory ligaments to create the biconvex shape for near vision

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77
Q

define the retina

A

a multilayered portion lining the vitreous compartment

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78
Q

what are the layers of the retina

A

pigment
photoreceptor
bipolar cell
ganglion cell
nervous fiber

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79
Q

where do the layers of the retina converge

A

the optic disc

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80
Q

what do the layers of the retina create

A

the optic nerve

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81
Q

what are photoreceptor cells

A

neurons with modified dendrites

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82
Q

describe rods

A

sensitive to light
gray scale
low light vision

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83
Q

describe cones

A

color scale

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84
Q

do animals have more rods or cones

A

rods

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85
Q

define the conjuctiva

A

thin, transparent membrane

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86
Q

what does the conjuctiva cover

A

the bulbar (front of eyeball) and palpebral (interior eyelids)

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87
Q

define the conjunctival sac

A

space between the bulbar and palpebral portions of the conjunctiva

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88
Q

define eyelids

A

upper and lower folds of skin lined by conjunctiva

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89
Q

define canthi

A

corners where the eyelids come together

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90
Q

define tarsal glands

A

produce a waxy substance that helps prevent tears from overflowing

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91
Q

define the nictitating membrane

A

the third eyelid
located medially between the eyelids and eyeballs

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92
Q

what does the third eyelid look like

A

a t-shaped plate of cartilage

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93
Q

what is a cherry eye

A

when the third eyelid prolapses

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94
Q

define the lacrimal apparatus

A

produce and secretes tears and drains them away from eye

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95
Q

where do tears drain

A

into the nasal cavity

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96
Q

what make up the lacrimal apparatus

A

lacrimal puncta
lacrimal sac
nasolacrimal duct

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97
Q

where do eye muscles attach

A

to the sclera

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98
Q

what are eye muscles capable of

A

a wide range of movement

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99
Q

define endocrine system

A

works with the nervous system to maintain homeostasis and balance

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100
Q

what is the basic unit of the endocrine system

A

endocrine glands

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101
Q

what do endocrine glands do

A

secrete and produce hormones

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102
Q

define hormones

A

chemical messengers produced by endocrine glands
secreted directly into blood stream

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103
Q

what are some examples of hormones

A

steroids, proteins and amines

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104
Q

what is the target of hormones

A

cell with receptors for a specific hormone

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105
Q

define negative feedback

A

too many hormones, so production must be stopped or slowed

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106
Q

define positive feedback

A

two few hormones are in the system so production must be increased

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107
Q

which nervous system stimulates secretion

A

sympathetic

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108
Q

describe negative feedback

A

↑ plasma hormone
↓ releasing factor from the hypothalamus
↓ trophic hormone from pit gland
↓ hormone from target organ
lower plasma level

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109
Q

describe positive feedback

A

↓ plasma hormone
↑releasing factor from hypothalamus
↑ trophic hormones from pit gland
↑ hormone from target organ
increased plasma hormone levels

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110
Q

what are 2 major endocrine glands

A

hypothalamus
pituitary

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111
Q

define the hypothalamus and what it does

A

part of the forebrain
controls appetite
regulates body temp
contols sleep cycle
links conscious mind with body

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112
Q

what does they hypothalamus control

A

the pituitary gland

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113
Q

what does the hypothalamus link

A

nervous and endocrine system

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114
Q

what do neurons in the hypothalamus secrete?
what is this reaction called

A

releasing and inhibiting factors into blood vessels
the portal system

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115
Q

which part of the pituitary does the portal system communicate with

A

anterior

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116
Q

what do modified neurons produce

A

antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

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117
Q

which part of the pituitary gland stores hormones

A

posterior

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118
Q

define the pituitary gland

A

very small but very important

119
Q

define the master endocrine gland

A

many hormones direct activity of other endocrine glands

120
Q

the pituitary gland has _ separate structures with different…

A

2; structures, functions, and embryological origins

121
Q

what are the two separate structures of the pituitary gland

A

anterior pituitary
posterior pituitary

122
Q

describe the anterior pituitary

A

stimulated by hypothalamus and direct feedback from target organs to produce its hormones

123
Q

what hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary

A

growth hormone (gh)
prolactin (prl)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (tsh)
adrenocorticotropin (acth)
follicle-stimulating hormone (fsh)
luteinizing hormone (lh)

124
Q

describe growth hormone

A

promotes growth in young animals
regulates use of energy
encourages protein synthesis

125
Q

what does gh cause the release and breakdown of

A

lipids from adipose tissue

126
Q

what does the gh discourage? why?

A

cells using carbohydrates as energy because it increases blood glucose

127
Q

describe prolactin

A

helps initiate and maintain lactation
continues as long as the teat is stimulated by milking or nursing

128
Q

what happens to prl when milking is stopped

A

production of prl ceases

129
Q

describe the thyroid-stimulating hormone

A

simulates growth and development of the thyroid gland to produce hormones
secretion is regulated by negative feedback from the thyroid gland

130
Q

describe adrenocorticortipic hormone

A

stimulates growth of cortex of adrenal gland and releases hormones
released quickly due to stimulation of hypothalamus

131
Q

what is acth regulated by

A

negative feedback from hormones

132
Q

acth is a ________ response

A

stress

133
Q

describe the follicle-stimulating hormone in females

A

stimulates growth and development of follicles in the ovary

134
Q

what is follicle

A

the incubating portion of a growing oocyte

135
Q

what does the follicle do

A

stimulates the lining cells of the follicles to produce and secrete estrogen

136
Q

describe the follicle-stimulating hormone in males

A

stimulates spermatogenesis

137
Q

describe luteinizing hormone in females

A

complete the process of follicle development in the ovary

138
Q

in the LH, what does estrogen do

A

decrease the feedback on the pituitary and FSH but increase the feedback on LH
stimulates cells in empty follicles to rupture into corpus lutetium

139
Q

LH causes a peak result in _______

A

ovulation

140
Q

what does the corpus lutetium produce

A

progesterone to help maintain pregnancy

141
Q

describe the LH in males

A

stimulates cells in the testes called interstitial cells to develop and produce testosterone

142
Q

describe the posterior pituitary gland

A

no production, only storage of hormones
hormones are released when a nerve impulse is sent from the hypothalamus

143
Q

what does the posterior gland produce

A

antidiuretic hormones and oxytocin

144
Q

describe the antidiuretic hormone

A

helps prevent diuresis
causes kidney to reabsorb water from the urine
releases when hypothalamus detects a water shortage

145
Q

what can a adh deficiency cause

A

diabetes insipidus

146
Q

describe oxytocin

A

causes the uterus to contract at times of breeding and parturition
helps transport spermatozoa to the ovum
causes milk letdown

147
Q

describe the thyroid gland

A

bilobed and located on either side of the trachea

148
Q

what are the two hormones the thyroid gland produces? what do they do?

A

thyroid hormone- regulates metabolic rate
calcitonin- lower calcium levels

149
Q

what are the two thyroid hormones? what makes them different

A

t3 and t4
they differ in the amount of iodine

150
Q

what causes the production of t3 and t4

A

tsh

151
Q

what does t4 do

A

it is the circulating reservoir and convert to t3 in peripheral tissue

152
Q

what is t3

A

is the active form of tissue in the body

153
Q

what do t3 and t4 do

A

regulate the metabolic rate of all the cells

154
Q

define hyperthyroid

A

no/little fat storage

155
Q

define hypothyroid

A

too much fat storage

156
Q

define calcitonin

A

helps maintain blood calcium levels

157
Q

what 3 things does calcitonin do

A

prevent hypercalcemia
encourage excess calcium deposit in bone
work opposite of parathyroid hormone

158
Q

define parathyroid glands

A

several small, pale nodules in/on/near the thyroid gland

159
Q

what does the parathyroid hormone (PTH) do

A

the opposite of calcitonin
helps prevent hypocalcemia
kidneys retain calcium and the intestines absorb calcium

160
Q

define adrenal glands

A

small Gand located near the cranial end of the kidneys

161
Q

what are the two adrenal glands? what makes them different?

A

adrenal cortex
adrenal medulla
they have different embryological origins and have different structures and functions

162
Q

describe the adrenal cortex

A

develop from glandular tissue

163
Q

what hormones do the adrenal glands produce

A

glucocorticoid
mineralocorticoid
sex hormones

164
Q

what stimulates the adrenal cortex

A

the ATCH from the anterior pituitary

165
Q

describe the glucocorticoid hormones

A

the effect glucose, cortisol and corticosterone
help maintain blood pressure and help the body resist the effects of stress

166
Q

describe the hyperglycemia effect

A

catabolism of protein and lipids
breakdown products convert to glucose in the liver

167
Q

define mineralocorticoid hormones

A

aldosterone, which regulates levels of important electrolytes

168
Q

what is the target organ for mineralocorticoid hormones

A

kidneys

169
Q

what follows Na back into the bloodstream

A

water

170
Q

define Addison’s disease

A

deficiency of aldosterone which results in dehydration, Na depletion, and potassium excess

171
Q

what are the sex hormones for males? for females?

A

adrogens
estrogens

172
Q

where are sex hormones produced

A

the adrenal cortex

173
Q

describe the adrenal medulla

A

a development of nervous tissue

174
Q

what does the adrenal medulla produce

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

175
Q

what does the adrenal medulla prepare the body for? what does this mean it’s controlled by?

A

fight or flight
sympathetic nervous system

176
Q

where is the pancreas

A

near the duodenum

177
Q

what is the endocrine gland of the pancreas? describe alpha cells and beta cells

A

it is a clump of cells called pancreatic isets
alpha cells produce glucagon
beta cells produce insulin

178
Q

what does the exocrine gland of the pancreas do

A

produce digestive enzymes

179
Q

describe insulin

A

essential for life
lowers blood glucose level

180
Q

what does insulin do

A

absorbs glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids into cells to be used for energy

181
Q

what does an insulin deficiency cause

A

diabetes mellitus

182
Q

describe glucagon

A

opposes insulin
increases blood glucose level by acting on the liver to convert glycogen to glucose

183
Q

what does glucagon stimulate

A

gluconeogenesis which converts fat and protein to glucose

184
Q

describe testes

A

composed of mostly coiled seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells are found in between

185
Q

what do interstitial cells produce? why?

A

androgens; ICSH/LH

186
Q

what do testes stimulate the development of

A

secondary sex characteristics and male accessory glands

187
Q

what do testes activate

A

spermatogenesis and penis growth

188
Q

where are the ovaries located

A

located in abdomen, near the kidneys

189
Q

what do ovaries produce

A

ova and hormones

190
Q

what are ovary cycles controlled by

A

FSH and LH

191
Q

what hormones do ovaries produce

A

estrogen and progestins

192
Q

describe estrogens

A

produced when FSH acts on follicles

193
Q

what are estrogens responsible for

A

physical and behavioral changes to prepare females for breeding and pregnancy

194
Q

with estrogens, feedback to the anterior pituitary causes ___________ FSH production and __________ LH production

A

reduced; increased

195
Q

what are progestins produced by

A

corpus lutetium

196
Q

what is the principal progestin

A

progesterone

197
Q

what does the progestin do

A

help prepare the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum
necessary to maintain pregnancy

198
Q

what happens if pregnancy does not occur

A

the corpus lutuem will shrink and disappear

199
Q

what are other endocrine sources

A

kidneys
stomach
SI
placenta
thymus
pineal body
prostaglandins

200
Q

what is the cardiovascular system

A

heart
blood vessels
blood

201
Q

define arteries

A

carry blood away from the heart

202
Q

define veins

A

carry blood to the heart

203
Q

define capillaries

A

small, thin vessels that transition between arteries and veins

204
Q

the cardiovascular system is a __________ system

A

closed

205
Q

how many parts make up the cardiovascular system

A

2

206
Q

define pulmonary circulation

A

controlled by the right heart
flows through lungs

207
Q

define systematic circulation

A

controlled by left heart
flows through the body

208
Q

define the heart

A

located in the mediastinum in the middle of the thoracic cavity

209
Q

define the mediastinum

A

continuation of the pleura cavity

210
Q

what is the mediastinum bounded by

A

thoracic inlet, diaphragm, sternum, spinal column

211
Q

what does the mediastinum contain

A

heart, major blood vessels, trachea, esophagus, thymus, lymph nodes, and nerves

212
Q

define the base

A

cranial end that is more rounded

213
Q

define the apex

A

caudal end is more pointed

214
Q

is the heart straight or slanted in the thorax

A

slanted

215
Q

which direction is the base? the apex?

A

base is right and cranial-dorsal
apex is left and caudal-ventral

216
Q

how many sternebrae does the heart touch

A

2-3

217
Q

what is the mediastinum covered in

A

pericardium

218
Q

how many parts does the mediastinum have

A

2 parts

219
Q

what are the two parts the the mediastinum

A

the pericardial sac
serous pericardium

220
Q

what are the two parts of the serous pericardium

A

parietal layer- lines pericardial sac
visceral layer- directly on the heart

221
Q

what lays between the parietal and visceral layers? why?

A

pericardial fluid
prevents friction of heart beats

222
Q

how many layers does the heart have? what are they called

A

3
endocardium
myocardium
epicardium

223
Q

describe the endocardium

A

innermost layer
lines heart chamber, blood vessels, and heart valves

224
Q

describe the myocardium

A

middle and thickest layer
cardiac muscle

225
Q

what’re papillary muscles?

A

projections off the myocardium

226
Q

describe epicardium

A

outermost layer of the heart
aka the serous membrane

227
Q

how many chambers are in the heart? what are they called and what do they do

A

4
2 are atria with receive blood
2 are ventricles with pump blood out of the heart

228
Q

describe atria

A

thin myocardium
pump blood to ventricles

229
Q

what separates the atria

A

interatrial septum

230
Q

define auricles

A

out pouching of the atria

231
Q

describe ventricles

A

myocardium is thick
pump blood to pulmonary artery or aorta

232
Q

what separates the ventricles

A

the inter ventricular septum

233
Q

define valves

A

fibrous connective tissue that prevent the back flow of blood and maintains uni-directional flow

234
Q

how many valves are in the heart? where are they

A

4, 2 between the atria and ventricles, and 2 between the ventricles and corresponding arteries

235
Q

what are the two largest valves

A

the tricuspid/right atrioventricular valve
the mitral valve/left atrioventricular valve

236
Q

what connect the tricuspid and mitral valves

A

chordae tendinae

237
Q

what are the two smaller valves

A

pulmonary valve
aortic valve

238
Q

describe blood supply

A

coronary arteries and veins that are specifically for the heart
arteries branch off as the aorta leaves the heart
fiends return blood to the right atrium

239
Q

describe the nerve supply

A

autorhythmic
nerves enter close to pacemaker in right atrium

240
Q

define pacemaker

A

regulates how fast the heart beats

241
Q

describe the blood flow

A

the R atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the systematic circulation
the R ventricle sends the blood to the pulmonary circulation to get reoxygenated
the left atrium receives reoxygenated blood
the L ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into the body

242
Q

what is the line chart of blood flow

A

Vena cava- R atrium - tricuspid valve - R ventricle - pulmonic valve- pulmonic artery - lungs- pulmonary veins - L Atrium - mitral valve - L ventricle - aorta - body

243
Q

define the cardiac conduction

A

one cylce of atrial and ventricle contractions
creates one heartbeat per cycle

244
Q

describe the sinoatrial node

A

located in right atrium
aka the pacemaker
automatically generates the impulse of each heartbeat

245
Q

how does the heartbeat travel

A

from the base, to the apex, then back to base

246
Q

where is the atrioventricular node located

A

the AV septum

247
Q

why are the nodes delayed

A

to allow the atria to finish contracting before ventricular contractions begin

248
Q

define bundle of his

A

cardiac muscle fibers transmit impulses from apex to base

249
Q

define purkinje fiber system

A

cardiac muscles transmit impulses from apex to base
ventricles contract first, then atria

250
Q

define systole

A

a period of myocardial contraction
eject blood

251
Q

define diastole

A

period of myocardial relaxation
allow chambers to fill

252
Q

atria and ventricles go through both phases ____________ of each other

A

opposite

253
Q

define cardiac sounds

A

occurs as valves close

254
Q

define lub and dub

A

lub- tricuspid and mitral valves snap shut
dub- pulmonary and aortic valves snap shut

255
Q

define heart murmur

A

turbulence in blood flow

256
Q

define valvular insufficiency

A

valves are leaky and back flows into the wrong chamber

257
Q

valvular stenosis

A

valves don’t fully open

258
Q

what can cause murmurs

A

anemia, patent ductus, arteriosus and ventral septal defects

259
Q

how many layer are in arteries and veins

A

3

260
Q

what are the layers of the arteries and veins

A
  1. endothelium- innermost layer
    simple squamous epithelium
  2. middle layer- smooth muscle or elastic fiber (or both)
    contracts or relaxes to change vessel diameter
    controlled by the ANS
  3. outer layer- connective tissue and collagen
261
Q

define arteries

A

carry blood away from the heart
usually oxygenated unless in pulmonary artery

262
Q

what are the two types of arteries

A
  1. elastic- stretch and recoil close to heart
  2. muscular- high amount of smooth muscle
    carry blood to specific organs
    small in diameter
263
Q

define arterioles

A

get smaller as they move from the heart
narrow diameter
provide resistance to blood flow to help maintain blood pressure

264
Q

define capillaries

A

thinest portion between arterioles and veins
goal is to get oxygenated blood to organs
one cell layer thick
exchange between gas, waste and nutrients

265
Q

define veins

A

carry blood to the heart

266
Q

define venuoles

A

formation between capillaries and veins
thin with little fluid exchange

267
Q

what are the largest veins

A

the cranial and caudal vena cavas

268
Q

where does the aorta exit? where does it go

A

the left ventricle and down the body

269
Q

what does the placenta take the roll of

A

lungs, kidneys, GI tract

270
Q

define the umbilical vein

A

carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to fetus

271
Q

define umbilical artery

A

carries deoxygenated blood and waste to placenta

272
Q

define the foramen ovale

A

an opening in the ventricular septum so blood can bypass lungs

273
Q

define ductus arteriosus

A

vessels between the pulmonary and aorta so blood can bypass the lungs

274
Q

define pulse

A

the rate of alternating between stretching and recoiling of elastic fiber in an artery as blood passes through with each heartbeat

275
Q

why do arteries stretch and recoil

A

because the ventricles do not eject enough blood continuously

276
Q

what does the pulse determine

A

regularity and strength

277
Q

what is the normal pulse in humans

A

60-80 bpm

278
Q

define blood pressure

A

measurement of pressure the blood exerts onto arterial walls

279
Q

what does blood pressure depend on

A

heart rate
stroke rate
diameter and elasticity of the artery
total blood volume

280
Q

define systolic pressure

A

produced by ejection of blood from left ventricle

281
Q

define diastolic pressure

A

pressure remaining in the artery

282
Q

what is the mean arterial pressure

A

the average of systolic and diastolic

283
Q

what does an oscillometric reader give

A

systolic, diastolic, and their mean

284
Q

what does a reading of dopplar ultrasound with sphygmomanometer give

A

systolic pressure only

285
Q

define and explain auscultation

A

listening to the heart
rate, rhythm, murmurs

286
Q

give examples of pulse palpation

A

rate, regularity, strength

287
Q

define and explain thoracic radiography

A

chest xray
size and position of heart

288
Q

define electrocardiography

A

electrical activity from the SA node of the heart seen with a ekg machine

289
Q

define echocardiography

A

ultrasound of the heart to see size, shape and movement
doppler echocardiography adds blood flow to the image

290
Q

define P-wave

A

partial depolarization
corresponds to atrial contraction

291
Q

define qrs complex

A

ventricular depolarization
corresponds to ventricular contactions

292
Q

define t-wave

A

ventricular depolarization
corresponds to ventricular relaxation

293
Q

VENIPUNCTURE- name the animals that each are seen in
cephalic vein
medial and lateral saphenous
jugular vein
coccygeal vein

A

dogs and cats
dogs and cats
large animals
ruminants and rodents

A&P (4 decks)

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