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Microbio > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

name for a drug that is used to control an infection

A

antimicrobial chemotherapy

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2
Q

what are antibiotics

A

natural antimicrobials

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3
Q

what are synthetic antibiotics

A

man made antimicrobials

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4
Q

what are antibiotics that have been chemically modified

A

semisynthetic antimicrobials

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5
Q

what are broad spectrum agents

A

they target a wide range of pathogenic bacteria

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6
Q

what are narrow specrtum agents

A

they target a narrow subset of pathogens

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7
Q

Who discovered the first antimicrobial

A

Alexander Fleming

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8
Q

What are the main sources of useful antibiotics

A

streptomyces
bacillus
penicillum
cephalosporium

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9
Q

which two bacteria give soil its smell

A

penicillium and cephalsporium

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10
Q

What is the therapeutic index

A

toxic dose/ theraputic dose

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11
Q

what type of number should the theraputic index be to be good

A

higher number is better

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12
Q

what are the five main inhibitions of antibiotics

A

-cell wall formation inhibition
-cell membrane function inhibition
-DNA synthesis inhibition
-ribosome/protein synthesis inhibition
-metabolic pathway inhibition

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13
Q

what drugs inhibit cell wall formation

A

penicilins and cephalosporins

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14
Q

what drugs inhibit cell membrane function

A

polymixin

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15
Q

what drugs inhibit dna synthesis

A

ciprofloxacin

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16
Q

what drugs inhibit ribosomes/protein synthesis

A

tetracycline and erythromycin

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17
Q

what drugs inhibit metabolic pathways

A

sulfa drugs and trimethoprim

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18
Q

what do beta lactam antibotics inhibit

A

cell wall synthesis

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19
Q

what are the 4 beta lactam antibiotics

A

penicillins
cephlosporins
monobactams
carbapenems

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20
Q

what do all beta lactams have in their chemical structure

A

a beta lactam ring

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21
Q

what are examples of drugs in the penicilin family

A

penicillin
amoxicillin
ampicillin
carbenicillin

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22
Q

where do cephlasporin drugs come from

A

cephlalosporium acremonium

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23
Q

what are the basic structures of cephlasporins

A

beta lactam ring
second base ring
2 R groups (3&7)

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24
Q

what are metabolic analogs

A

molecules that look the same as what goes into the active site of an enzyme

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25
Q

What is the metabolic analog for PABA

A

sulfa drugs

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26
Q

what is nescissary for the synthesis of folic acids

A

PABA

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27
Q

What is folic acid required for

A

the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines

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28
Q

what do protein synthesis inhibitors affect in that process

A

translation

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29
Q

what are the major classes of protein synthesis inhibitors

A

chloramphenicol
macrolides
lincosamides
aminoglycosides
tetracyclines

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30
Q

what type of drug is tetracycline

A

a semisynthetic drug that comes from a natural antibiotic made by streptomyces

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31
Q

what kind of spectrum is tetracycline

A

broad spectrum and bacteriostatic

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32
Q

what are 2 examples of macrolides

A

eryrthromycin and azithromycin

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33
Q

what do macrolides bind to

A

ribosomes

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34
Q

what kind of antibiotic are macrolides

A

semisynthetic and bactericidal. comes from streptomyces erythraues

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35
Q

What class of drugs are relatively new

A

fluoroquinolones

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36
Q

what are examples of flouroquinolones

A

ciproflaxin and nalidixic acid

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37
Q

what type of drug are flouroqunolones

A

synthetic and broad spectrum

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38
Q

what process does flouroqunolones inhibit

A

DNA replication

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39
Q

what do flouroqunolones bind to

A

DNA gyrase

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40
Q

what are two newer classes of antibiotics

A

synercid and zyvox

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41
Q

what type of drugs are synercid and zyvox

A

narrow spectrum drugs that are used against gram positive pathogens

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42
Q

what is a large factor of antibiotic resistance

A

inappropriate perscriptions and inapropriate use

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43
Q

bacteria ____ resistant, humans_____ resistant

A

are, are not

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44
Q

What does it mean that 70% antibiotics were for non therapeutic use

A

not to treat illnesses but rather to “fatten up” animals

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45
Q

what other factors can contribute to antibiotic resistance

A

ecological interactions

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46
Q

what is the one health concept

A

the health of the people is connected to the health of animals and the environment

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47
Q

how frequent is disease spread from humans to animals

A

6 out of every 10

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48
Q

what is the ‘arms race’ of antibiotic resistance

A

-develop new antibiotic
-microbe target develops resistance to it
-different modification of the antibitoic
-microbe grows resistance to that
-introduce new class of antibiotic

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49
Q

what are some mechanisms of antibicrobial resistance

A

-efflux pump
-inactive enzyme
-blocked penetration
-target modification

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50
Q

what is beta lactam use

A

an antibiotic

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51
Q

what is a beta lactamase inhibitor

A

produced by humans to fight product produced by bacteria to fight antibiotic

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52
Q

what is beta lactamase

A

produced by bacteria to fight antibiotic

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53
Q

what are some side effects to these drugs

A

-tissue toxicity
-allergic rxns
-disruption of normal flora

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54
Q

what does tissue toxicity mean

A

-it affects the kidneys, liver, heart, skin, nerves, teeth, and bones

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55
Q

what happens with an allergic reaction to these drugs

A

-sensitized on first contact (no rxn)
-due to a metabolic byproduct

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56
Q

what is disruption of the normal flora

A

it disrupts the microbial ecology within our bodies which can cause diarrehea

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57
Q

what is a super infection

A

a secondary infection that is caused by the destruction of normal microflora

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58
Q

what is an example of a superinfection

A

a yeast infection that was caused by the overuse of broad spectrum antibiotics

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59
Q

how to pick the right antimicrobial

A

-identification of the agent
-determining the susceptibility of the agent

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60
Q

what is a genome

A

the sum of the genetic material of the cell

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61
Q

what is the diffetence in the genome in cells vs viruses

A

cells- DNA
viruses- DNA/RNA

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62
Q

what are chromosomes

A

DNA with protein

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63
Q

What is the chromosome subdivided into

A

genes

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64
Q

what are genes

A

the fundamental unit of heredity that is responsible for a given trait

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65
Q

what are the 3 categories of genes

A

-code for proteins (structural)
-code for RNA
-code for gene expression (regulatory)

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66
Q

How many genes does the smallest virus have

A

4-5 genes

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67
Q

what is the structure of the nucleotides of RNA

A

phosphate group
ribose
Nitrogen base group

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68
Q

what is the structure of nucleotides of DNA

A

phosphate
deoxyribose
nitrogenous base

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69
Q

when a single DNA strand is polymerized, what ends match

A

3’ to 5’

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70
Q

how are 2 strands of a DNA molecule arranged

A

antiparallel

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71
Q

which end of the DNA strand is the growing end

A

3’ end

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72
Q

what are the purines

A

adenine and guanine

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73
Q

what are the pyrimidines

A

cytosine and thymine (uracil)

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74
Q

the amount of ____ = amount of thymine
the amount of ____= amount of cytosine

A

adenine
guanine

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75
Q

what is the backbone of DNA made up of

A

sugar (deoxyribose)

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76
Q

what is the central dogma of replication

A

DNA (transcription) –> RNA (translation)–> protein

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77
Q

what is genotype

A

an organisms full collection of genes

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78
Q

what is the pheonotype

A

the observable traits or charecteristics that result from those genes

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79
Q

what is the enzyme that seperates the DNA strand

A

DNA polymerase

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80
Q

what is semiconservative replication

A

where the DNA replication uses one parent strand of DNA

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81
Q

what is the first step in the replication of the bacterial chromosome

A

ribosome binds and initiates the synthesis

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82
Q

what is the second step in the replication of the bacterial chromosome

A

replication forks continue syntehsis in the opposite direction

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83
Q

what is the third step in the replication of the bacterial chromosome

A

replication forks hit the terminus of the replication and collide which releases two chromosome copies

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84
Q

DNA synthesis takes place ___ and in ___ directions

A

simultaneously
opposite

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85
Q

when does DNA replication at a single replication fork begin

A

when a DNA molecule unwinds to provide two single stranded templates

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86
Q

What happens on the lower template strand of DNA synthesis

A

5’—> 3’ is continous and is the same as the unwinding

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87
Q

what happens on the upper template strand of DNA

A

Begins at hte fork and proceeds in the direction opposite that of the unwinding so it runs out of template quickly

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88
Q

When does synthesis restart for the upper strand

A

starts again at the fork and proceeding until it runs out of template

89
Q

because the upper strand is disconinious what foes this create

A

okazaki fragments

90
Q

which strnad grows to the replication fork

A

leading

91
Q

why must the lagging strand be repliacted in short pieces

A

DNA polymerase can synthesise in one direction

92
Q

which strnad during replication has a 5’ end to the replication fork

A

the lagging stand

93
Q

what does DNA polymerase I do

A

removes RNA primers and fills in the correct DNA nucleotides at open sites

94
Q

what are the unjoined ends if the nucleotides (nick) connected by

A

Ligase

95
Q

when does proofreading begin

A

time of nucleotide insertion

96
Q

Which enzyme proofreads

A

DNA polymerase III

97
Q

Replication ____ DNA language and Transcription/Translation ____ DNA language

A

Inherits
applies

98
Q

Where does RNA polymerase bind to initiate transcription

A

promoter region

99
Q

how many proteins does one gene code for

A

one protein

100
Q

what strand is being transcribed

A

template strand

101
Q

First step in DNA transcription

A

promoter region and leader sequence for guiding starts transcription, ends with terminal sequence

102
Q

Second step in DNA transcription

A

DNA unwound at promoter by RNA polymerase, template strand supplies code to be transcribed by RNA polymerase

103
Q

Third step in DNA transcription

A

RNA polymerase adds complimentary bases to the DNA template, mRNA reads 5’-3’

104
Q

fourth step in DNA transcription

A

polymerase stops at termination site and mRNA is released to be translated, DNA is rewound

105
Q

what type of cells do not have introns

A

prokaryotes

106
Q

What is the genetic code represented by

A

codon on mRNA that codes for amino acids

107
Q

why is the code redundant

A

to minimize errors/mutations

108
Q

which RNA has the ANTIcodon

A

tRNA

109
Q

what is another word for growth of a DNA strand

A

Polymerization

110
Q

What is it called when the DNA is bound tight to fit into the nucleoid region of the cell

A

supercoiling

111
Q

Can multiple cells have the same genotype but different phenotypes

A

yes because the environmental influence on the genotype can change the phenotype

112
Q

How is information processed by a Prokaryote

A

Gene A –> Coding region A –> Protein

113
Q

Information Processing in Eukaryotes

A

Gene–> DNA w/ Intron or Extron –> primary RNA transcription –> Intron excised –> mature mRNA –> transport to the cytoplasm –> translation–> protein

114
Q

A theta structure is formed during which process

A

replication

115
Q

What is the bigger subunit of the ribosome

A

50S

116
Q

What is the smaller subunit of the ribosome

A

30S

117
Q

What is elongation during translation

A

When the correct tRNA binds to the mRNA and the amino acid is connected by a peptide bond. This is catalyzed by the ribsome. After the amino acid is bonded, the tRNA that is discharged is released.

118
Q

What are the 3 levels which enzymes can be regulated

A

transcription (no mRNA)
translation (no enzyme)
activity (no product)

119
Q

what step is enzymatic expression regulated at

A

transcription

120
Q

what is an operon

A

a cluster of genes that expression is controlled by a single operator

121
Q

what is an operator

A

a specific region of DNA at the inital end of a gene or operon where a repressor protein can bind to and block mRNA synthesis

122
Q

what is a repressor protein

A

a regulatory protein that binds to specific sites on the DNA strand and blocks transcription

123
Q

what is the order of the gene organization in prokaryotes

A

regulatory genes –> promoter –> operator –> structural genes

124
Q

what is in an operon

A

promotor, operatorm and structural genes

125
Q

what is a DNA binding protein

A

a repressor protein

126
Q

what does the repressor protein do when binding DNA

A

holds the protein dimer together

127
Q

where does the DNA binding domain fit into

A

major grove along the sugar phosphate backbone

128
Q

how many methods of gene regulation are there

A

3
enzyme induction
enzyme repression
catabolic repression

129
Q

what is enzyme induction

A
  • noramlly “off” (not transcribing
    -gene expressed when specific molecule present
    -molecule binds to repressor, takes it off, and allows for transcription
130
Q

what is enzyme repression

A
  • gene is normally “turned on”
    -when repressor is inactive, the mRNA can transcribe
    -operator is de-repressed, genes are expressed
    -corepressor prevents transcription
131
Q

what does a corepressor do

A

prevents transcription by repressing the operon

132
Q

what is catabolic repression

A
  • the act of “chosing” a preffered energy source by repressing the enzyme that is not wanted
133
Q

what does catabolic expression allow for

A

adaptation to preferred carbon/energy source by prioritizing specific pathways

134
Q

what is an example of enzyme induction

A

the lac operon with lactose

135
Q

what is the inducer for the lac repressor

A

allolactose

136
Q

enzyme repression is a _____ process

A

anabolic

137
Q

what is an example of enzyme reperession

A

arginine operon

138
Q

what is the corepressor on the Arg repressor

A

arginine

139
Q

what is catabolic repression also known as

A

diauxic growth

140
Q

what is a mutation

A

permanent heritable changes in the genetic information of a cell

141
Q

what are point mutations

A

-substitution
-insertion
-deletion

142
Q

what are indels

A

large mutations that insirt or delete multiple bases

143
Q

What is a nonsense mutation

A

the coding of a stop protein

144
Q

what is a missense mutation

A

the coding of an incorrect protein/faulty protein

145
Q

what is a silent mutation

A

one of the bases is changed but still codes for the correct protein

146
Q

what do insertions or deletions result in

A

frame shifts

147
Q

what is spontaneous causation of mutations

A

the replication mistake due to background effects or incorrect coding

148
Q

what is induced causation of mutation

A

exposure to mutagens such as radiation or chemicals

149
Q

what is a chemical mutant example

A

the analog 5-Bromauracil for thymine

150
Q

what is the chemical mutant intercalating agent do

A

puts atypical spacing between base pairs that can result in frame shifts

151
Q

what type of mutation is more likely to lead to an entire inactive/ unusable protein

A

nonsense mutations

152
Q

What are the 3 types or horizontal gene transfer

A

-conjugation
-transformation
-transduction

153
Q

what is conjugation

A

the direct plasmid transfer between bacteria

154
Q

what is transformation

A

the uptake of extracellular DNA
–> cell lyses and releases DNA into the enviroment which the new bacterial cell picks it up

155
Q

what is transduction

A

the transfer of DNA from 1 cell to another by a virus (bacteriophages)

156
Q

What is catabolism

A

when large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules that releases energy

157
Q

what is anabolism

A

when small molecules are assembled into bigger ones (uses energy)

158
Q

What is the flow of catabolism in a cell

A

sources of energy –>
catabolism releases the stored energy –>
The end products with reduced energy are CO2 and H2O

159
Q

What is the flow of anabolism in a cell

A

simple building blocks (amino acids and sugars) ->
anabolism (req energy)–>
macromolecules (sources of energy

160
Q

What is the chemical equation for the metabolism of glucose

A

C6H12O6 +6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H2O

161
Q

where does the energy come from in the breakdown of glucose

A

the covalent bonds

162
Q

what is a covalent bond

A

the sharing of electrons

163
Q

do electrons travel alone

A

no, they travel with a proton

164
Q

what yields energy

A

the movement of an electron

165
Q

where the electron moves determines what

A

how much energy is released and how quickly

166
Q

What are electron carriers used for

A

To move electrons around for cellular processes

167
Q

What are the 2 common hydrogen ion carrying intermediates

A

NAD and FAD

168
Q

What is ATP and what is it used for

A

Adenosine triphosphate and its used to move energy around

169
Q

What is phosphorolation

A

When ADP adds a phosphate and becomes ATP by solar or chemical energy

170
Q

What is dephosphorolation

A

When ATP becomes ADP + P when used for cellular work (anabolism)

171
Q

What is another word for anabolism

A

Biosynthesis

172
Q

What does an enzyme do to activation energy

A

It decreases activation energy so the reaction can be conducted quicker

173
Q

What do most enzymes need to function

A

A coenzyme or a cofactor

174
Q

What is a coenzyme

A

It is an organic molecule

175
Q

What is a cofactor

A

An inorganic molecule such as a metal

176
Q

What is an app enzyme

A

The protein part of the enzyme

177
Q

What is a holoenzyme

A

The complete enzyme (cofactor/enzyme is bonded to the enzymes active site

178
Q

What is a redox reaction

A

When an enzymatic reduction of NAD uses a substrate as an electron donor

179
Q

What are the 2 methods of direct control of enzymatic activity

A

Competitive inhibition and allosteric inhibition

180
Q

What is competitive inhibition

A

The non-substrate “competitor” molecule that binds and blocks the active site

181
Q

What is the allosteric enzyme

A

One that contained both an active and regulatory site where an effector molecule binds

182
Q

What is allosteric inhibition

A

An enzyme product (effector) that binds to the enzyme itself to block its activity

183
Q

Which of these is the active site changed on the enzyme

A

Allosteric inhibition

184
Q

What does the feedback inhibition look like

A

Regulatory molecule foes into regulatory site so it inhibits the substrate from going in. Or the substrate is not inhibited and binds to active site which makes an intermediate substrate then produces the end product

185
Q

Is there a difference in anaerobic respiration and fermentation

A

Yes there is.

186
Q

As glucose is being oxidized what happens

A

It releases CO2 in TCA cycle, energy goes into atp, and glucose is the e- donor in this

187
Q

What is put into glycolysis

A

Glucose which is a 6 carbon molecule

188
Q

What comes out of glycolysis

A

4 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 Pyruvic acidsthat come from glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (3 C each)

189
Q

What goes into TCA

A

2 molecules of pyruvic acid

190
Q

What is pyruvic acid converted To in the TCA cycle

A

Acetyl co A (releases 2 co2)

191
Q

What comes out of the TCA cycle

A

4 co2, 2 ATP, 2 FADH2, and 8NADH

192
Q

Where does the TCA cycle occur

A

In the cytoplasm of prokaryotes

193
Q

What goes into the ETC

A

NADH

194
Q

What comes out of the ETC

A

34 ATP and 6 H2O

195
Q

Where does the ECT occur

A

Cell membrane of the mitochondria

196
Q

What cellular process does the ETC carry out

A

Respiration

197
Q

What is the proton motive force

A

The protons outside of the bacterial membrane that helps with the ETC

198
Q

What does the proton motive force help with

A

Producing ATP

199
Q

What pathways are ATP produces

A

ETC
Glycolysis
Krebs

200
Q

What is glycolysis also known as

A

the Embden Meyerhof Parnas pathway (EMP)

201
Q

how many times does the TCA cycle have to turn to get all the carbon out

A

twice

202
Q

Where does the ECT occur in prokaryotes, eukaryotes

A

pro-cell membrane
eu-mitochondria

203
Q

what is aerobic respiration also called

A

oxidative phosphorylation

204
Q

what pathway produce co2

A

krebs

205
Q

which of the two respiration cycles produces the least amount of atp

A

anaerobic

206
Q

is oxygen the only final electron receptor

A

no, it can be another inorganic molecule for anaerobic respiration

207
Q

aerobic respiration flow

A

organic compound
–> co2
–> biosynthesis
–> o2
–> atp

208
Q

anaerobic respiration

A

organic compound
–> CO2
_biosynthesis
–> ATP
_No3 So4 2-, organic electron receptors

209
Q

what do the most obligate anaerobes use

A

NADH+ that is generated in the Krebs cycle to reduce other compounds

210
Q

what is fermentation not

A

fermentation is not anaerobic respiration

211
Q

what does fermentation recycle

A

NADH

212
Q

what is anabolism also called

A

biosynthesis

213
Q

what are not producs of glycolysis

A

Glucose and NAD

214
Q

what are more reduced products

A

ethanol and fermented producdts

215
Q

what processes can E.coli do

A

an/aerobic respiration and fermentation

216
Q

what processes can a human cell carry out

A

aerobic respiration and fermentation

217
Q

what process uses the ETC

A

an/aerobic respiration

218
Q
A

Microbio (4 decks)

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