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Anesthesia > exam 3 > Flashcards

exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

,4 benefits of ET intubation

A

establish airway, prevent aspiration, IPPV, decreasre gas exposure to tech

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2
Q

3 benefits of cuffed ET tube

A

prevents aspiration, prevents gas leak, prevents breathing room air

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3
Q

how to measure ET tube

A

tip of nose to thoracic inlet

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4
Q

2 ways to know how much air to inflate in cuff

A

back pressure in syringe, pressure manometer

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5
Q

when checking cuff, want pressure manometer to be at

A

15cm H2o with no leakage

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6
Q

corneal reflex and anesthesia

A

should be present in safe planes of anesthesia

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7
Q

ear flick reflex

A

should be absent in sx planes of anesthesia

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8
Q

palpebral reflex

A

should be absent in sx planes of anesthesia

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9
Q

pedal reflex,

A

should be absent in planes of anesthesia

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10
Q

stage 1 aka

A

voluntary excitement

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11
Q

stage 1 happens

A

immediately after admin of inhalnt

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12
Q

what is happening during stage 1

A

animal conscious but becoming disoriented

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13
Q

stage 2 is aka

A

involuntary excitement phase

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14
Q

animal begins to lose consciousness at stage

A

2

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15
Q

animal begins to lose reflexes in stage

A

3

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16
Q

stage 3 plane 1 is

A

light plane of anesthesia

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17
Q

intubate in which stage

A

stage 3 plane 1

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18
Q

which stage is most suitable for sx

A

stage 3 plane 2

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19
Q

during stage 3 plane 2, what happens HR and RR

A

both go down but still increase with sx stimulation

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20
Q

average RR for stage 3 plane 2

A

8-30 RPM

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21
Q

stage 3 plane 2 is

A

deep plane of anesthesia, too deep for most procedures

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22
Q

stage 3 plane 2 breaths are less than1

A

12

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23
Q

stage 3 plane 3 HR and RR

A

both decreased and do not respond to sx stimulation

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24
Q

ST3P3, eyes are

A

central

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25
Q

ST3P4 is

A

anesthetic overdose

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26
Q

St3P4 ventilation

A

has rocking ventilation

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27
Q

during St3P4 eyes are

A

fully dilated, central, no pupillary light reflex

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28
Q

stage 4

A

cardiac arrest

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29
Q

long acting barbiturate is

A

phenobarbital

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30
Q

phenobarb onset of anesthesia following IV

A

12 mins

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31
Q

phenobarb duration of anesthesia

A

6-12 hours

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32
Q

short acting barbiturate is

A

pentobarbital

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33
Q

pentobarb onset IV

A

30-60 secs

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34
Q

duration anesthesia pentobarb

A

1-3 hours

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35
Q

pentobarb and euthanasia dose

A

double anesthetic dose

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36
Q

ultrashort acting barbituate

A

thiopental, methohexital

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37
Q

onset of thiopent

A

15-30 secs

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38
Q

duration of thiopent

A

10-20 mins

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39
Q

thiopent most commonly used for

A

induction and as sole agent for short procedures

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40
Q

Barbiturates ___ controlled

A

are

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41
Q

Barbiturates 2 properties

A

non reversible, no analgesia

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42
Q

barbiturates can only be given IV because

A

slough skin

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43
Q

barbiturates vary in 4 things

A

lipid solubility, distribution in body, onset of action, duration

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44
Q

the more lipid soluble a barbiturate is, the

A

quicker the onset, shorted the duration

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45
Q

recovery from barbiturates is caused by (3)

A

redistribution from brain to fat, liver metabolism, urine excretion

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46
Q

barbiturates have extended recovery in __

A

sight hounds and skinny dogs

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47
Q

barbiturates does what to stage 2

A

prolongs it

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48
Q

most profound effect seen with barbiturates

A

respiratory depression (decrease RR and depth)

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49
Q

barbiturates does 3 things to the heart

A

cardiovascular depressant, decrease BP and CO, increase hearts sensitivity to epineprhine

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50
Q

recommended way to give a barbiturate to avoid prolonged excitement stage

A

I’ve 1/3-1/2 as a bolus,then titrate to effect

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51
Q

if accidentally inject barbiturate perivascularly, skin with slough within

A

2 days

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52
Q

what to do if accidentally give barbiturate not IV

A

infiltrate area with isotonic saline and lidocaine

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53
Q

thiopental is what kind if barbiturate?

A

ultra-short acting

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54
Q

most common barbiturate used as induction agent or as sole agent for short procedure, cheap

A

thiopental (pentothal)

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55
Q

methohexital (brevital) is what kind of barbiturate?

A

ultra short acting

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56
Q

best barbiturate to use on sight hounds, expensive

A

methohexital (brevital)

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57
Q

cyclohexamines are common

A

induction agents, or sole agents for procedures

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58
Q

does ketamine offer analgesia

A

some, better for somatic than visceral

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59
Q

ketamine can be given

A

I’m or iv

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60
Q

ketamine is a CNS

A

stimulant

61
Q

ketamines does what to the nervous sytem

A

scrambles nervous pathway

62
Q

cyclohexamines increase what in the CNS

A

CSF, intracranial pressure, intraocular pressure

63
Q

3 reasons to use benzodiazepine tranqs with cyclhexamines

A

muscle relaxants, anticonvulsants, helps with recovery

64
Q

cyclhexamines ___ senstivity to sight, touch, sound

A

increase

65
Q

what happens to an animal recovering from cyclohexamine

A

hallucination/ emergence delirium

66
Q

cyclohexamine and cardiovascular effects

A

hr and bp goes up

67
Q

breathing seen with cyclohexamines

A

apneustic respiration

68
Q

cyclohexamines does what to muscle

A

catelepsy

69
Q

can animals swallow with cyclohexamines, what happens with salivia

A

yes, ptyalism

70
Q

cyclohexamines and reflexes

A

remain intact, palpebral may be exaggerated

71
Q

cyclohexamines and eyes

A

eyes stay central with pupils dilated and nystugmus in cats

72
Q

ketamine is (2)

A

most common induction agent, sole agent for short procedures

73
Q

ketamin given IV and the dose

A

decrease dose (1/2 as much as IM)

74
Q

when ketamin given IM, duration

A

of anesthesia is longer

75
Q

ketamine IV onset of action and duration

A

30-90secs, 3-10 minutes

76
Q

ketamine IM onset and duration

A

2-4 minutes, 20-30 mins dog, 30-60 mins cat

77
Q

ket/val can only be given

A

IV

78
Q

ket/versed can be given

A

IV and IM

79
Q

telazol can be given

A

IM, IV, SQ

80
Q

propofol is given

A

IV

81
Q

propofol is

A

induction agent or sole agent for short procedures

82
Q

propofol is approved in

A

dogs

83
Q

is propofol controlled?

A

no

84
Q

does propofol offer any analgesia?

A

no

85
Q

immediately after administration of proposal, BP becomes __ because _

A

hypotensive because of the vasodilation

86
Q

propofol and respirations

A

transient apnea

87
Q

how to give propofol

A

give slowly over 20-60 seconds then titrate to effect

88
Q

propofol onset of action and duration

A

less than 60 secs, 5-10 minute duration

89
Q

if propofal is used as the anesthetic agent, can be given as bolus every

A

3-5 minutes

90
Q

proposal can be given CRI at what rate

A

.2-.4 mg/kg/min

91
Q

how long does original propofal last?

A

6 hours, up to 24

92
Q

what does propofal have in it that could grow bacteria

A

soybean oil and lecithin

93
Q

propoflo 28 contains what

A

benzyl alcohol

94
Q

can propoflo 28 be used in cats?

A

no, can cause heinz bodies

95
Q

who can experience longer recoveries with propofol

A

sighthounds

96
Q

proposal can cause what with muscles

A

myoclonus

97
Q

IV injection of __ prior to proposal can decrease induction amount by __%

A

benzodiazepine tranquilier, 33%

98
Q

What is Etomidate (Amidate)

A

rapid acting, ultra-short, non-barbiturate, non-cumulative anesthetic

99
Q

does etomidate offer analgesia?

A

no

100
Q

is etomidate controlled?

A

no

101
Q

etomidate has __ effects on cardiovascular function

A

minimal

102
Q

what does etomidate do to respirations

A

mild transient apnea with induction

103
Q

etomidate is good with what patients

A

cardiac cases and high risk patients

104
Q

etomidate is given__, can cause __ because __ give with __

A

IV, pain irritation, fluids

105
Q

propylene glycol can also cause

A

arrhythmias

106
Q

high doses of etomidate can cause

A

RBC lysis

107
Q

what can happened with muscles and etomiates, give what to help

A

myoclonus, benzodiazepine

108
Q

other effects of etomidate

A

suppression of adrenal-cortical axis

109
Q

neuroleptanalgesia used as induction agents in

A

the old and sick

110
Q

guaifenesin is a

A

muscle relaxer

111
Q

guaifenesin is used in larger animal to

A

help induce/maintain anesthesia

112
Q

during recovery after anesthesia, animal should breath __oxygen for ___ time

A

100% for 5 minutes

113
Q

why are precision vaporizers usually out of circuit

A

because they create high resistance

114
Q

N2O has little effect on

A

cardiovascular, respiratory, heptatic, renal systems

115
Q

N2O provides

A

analgesia and muscle relaxation

116
Q

color of N2O tank

A

blue

117
Q

when using N2O, what is patient breathing

A

N2O, O2, gas

118
Q

full N2O tanks reads

A

750-760 psi

119
Q

to avoid hypoxia with N2O, oxygen should be set

A

30mls/kg/min or 500mls/min

120
Q

N2O flow should be no more than

A

1.5 to 2 times oxygen flow

121
Q

what does N2O like to do with air pockets?

A

diffuse into air pockets

122
Q

after using N2O, how long should an animal be on oxygen

A

5 mins, 100% O2

123
Q

2 effects of inhalant anesthetics

A

respiratory and cv depression

124
Q

gas anesthetics increase hearts sensitivity to

A

epinephrine

125
Q

do inhalant anesthetics provide analgesia?

A

slight, but no post op

126
Q

3 physical properties of inhalant anesthetics

A

vapor pressure, solubility, mac

127
Q

vapor pressure, highest to lowest

A

SIHM

128
Q

low solubility gas anesthetics, duration of onset it

A

fast

129
Q

solubility, lowest to highest

A

SIHM

130
Q

what is MAC

A

concentration of gas that produces no response to surgical stimulation in 50% of pts, measures potency

131
Q

the higher the Mac values..

A

the less potent

132
Q

mac values for highest to lowest

A

MHIS

133
Q

sevo is

A

the least soluble, highest mac, highest vapor pressure

134
Q

Halothane has _ vapor pressue

A

high

135
Q

halothane is hardest on the

A

heart

136
Q

__% of halothane is metabolized by the liver

A

20

137
Q

halothan (and other gas) risk with body temp

A

malignant hyperthermia

138
Q

Isoflurane rapid changes of planes of anesthesia within

A

1-2 mins (recovery too)

139
Q

isoflurane, induction with injectable at __ %

A

2.5

140
Q

iso induction __% when chamber or mask

A

3-5%

141
Q

iso maintenance

A

1.5-2.5%

142
Q

safest inhalant on the heart

A

iso

143
Q

__% iso metabolized by liver

A

.2%

144
Q

which is the fastest acting gas

A

sevo

145
Q

sevo __% induction

A

4%

146
Q

sevo % induction with chamber/mask

A

6-8%

147
Q

maintenance for sevo

A

2.5-4%

148
Q

sevo _% metabolized by liver

A

3

149
Q

best gas muscle relaxant

A

iso

Anesthesia (4 decks)

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