Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VM648 Food Animal > Exam 3 (final) > Flashcards

Exam 3 (final) Flashcards

1
Q

Types of Dairy parlors

A 
Herringbone
Parallel (raised)
Rotary (raised, moving)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Steps of Milking

A
  1. Pre-strip- stimulates letdown, ID’s mastitis cows
  2. Apply pre-dip (iodine removed by single cloth towel)
  3. Machine milker + laytex liner (massage then suction)
  4. milk flow decreases, milk machine disconnects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Milk flow in the udder

A

alveoli contraction, milk flows through milk ducts, toward gland cistern, out of teat

requires oxytocin (calm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Milk regulations

A

Highly perishable so, must be:

  • promptly chilled & continually stored <40 F
  • filtered
  • move off farm to processing within 48 hrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pasteurization

A
  • eliminates bad bacteria known to be present in milk
  • does not sterilize milk (unless UHT), spoilage bacteria live on
  • changes taste
  • prolongs shelf life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Types of pasteurization

A
  1. LTH Long Time Holding - 63C (145F) for 30 sec
  2. HTST High Temp Short Time - 72C (162 F) for 15 sec
  3. UHT Ultra High Temp - 275F, 4-15 sec, actually sterilizes, longest shelf life (1 yr)
  4. Ultrapasteurization - 280F, 2 sec, longer shelf life (3 wks)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What specific pathogens are targeted with pasteurization

A
  • Coxiella burnetti
  • Brucella
  • TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Method of pasteurization

A
  • pressurized system
  • allows milk to be heated beyond boiling point
  • allows pasteurization without affecting quality/nutritional value
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO)

A

FDA approved regs for:

  • dairy farm design/maintenance
  • processing plants
  • make sanitation and milk quality uniform across state lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PMO Regs

A
  • standards for all aspects of the process
  • inspection, oversight
  • testing milk
  • allowable limits
  • pasteurization standards (no raw milk allowed)
  • packaging, handling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Raw milk

A
  • promoted to be more healthy, different taste from pasteurized
  • not better nutrients, not safer
  • legal in most states
  • multiple outbreaks traced to raw milk
  • Mostly from “cow shares” vs. retail sale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sources of bacterial contamination in dairys

A
  • Teat skin, canal
  • Milking machine
  • Bedding
  • Fecal
  • Manure storage
  • Milk filters (e. coli0
  • soil
  • water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Common bacterial causes for mastitis in dairys

A

Strep and Staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common bacterial causes for systemic infection in dairys

A 
Mycobacterium bovis
Brucella abortus
Coxiella burnetti
Salmonella spp (normal herd level)
MAP (Mycobacterium avium paraTB - Johne's)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common bacterial milk contaminants

A

Listeria
Campylobacter (normal herd level)
E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clinical mastitis signs

A
  • Milk appearance - clots, consistency & color change
  • udder redness, swelling, heat, pain
  • systemic - fever, tachycardia, diarrhea, weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ID Mastitis

A
  • Somatic cell count
  • California mastitis test
  • Bact culture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mastitis

A
  • cow health problem
  • most common infectious disease in dairy cows
  • treat with IMM(intramammary) beta-lactam
  • mastitis pathogens are not a significant food safety issue
  • But do ruin food quality (SCC, milk composition, shelf life, taste)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Milk quality tests

A

-Beta lactam residues
SCC
-Standard plate count (SPC) - how much bacteria in product
- Preliminary Incubation (PI) count - who can replicate in colder temps
- Lab Pasteurized Count (LPC) - measures spoilage thermoduric bacteria (decrease shelf life)
-Coliform count (indication of sanitary production practices)
- Sediment, freezing point, acidity, odor, color, temp at pick up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What population has the highest % of antibiotic residues

A

cull diary cows

second - bob veal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SCC

A
  • milk leukocyte count

- count increases with mastitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FSIS duties

A
  • antemortem inspection
  • humane handling
  • postmorte inspection
  • veterinary disposition
  • HACCP verification (that system’s effective)
  • regulator med
  • international trade
  • disease surveillance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FSIS inspection team

A
  • Food inspectors (on the line)
  • Consumer safety inspectors (audit facility)
  • Vets (carcass disposition)
  • supervisory consumer safety inspectors (make sure everyone follows protocol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FSIS vet

A
  • decides extent and severity of “sickness” seen on a carcass
  • food is deems edible, condemned (goes to pet food), or condemned unsalvageable (rendered)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who can condemn a carcass

A
  • only vet can condemn entire red meat carcass
  • Food inspector can say looks abnormal, can condemn parts
  • Both can condemn poultry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Organ most commonly condemned

A

liver (liver abscesses from rumen acidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

HACCP vs. FSIS

A
  • HACCP is a written plan by companies on how they are going to produce safe food
  • FSIS verifies company is producing safe food by monitoring critical control points
  • FSIS checks company plan, observes procedures, verifies records
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

FSIS regulatory med

A
  • FSIS must ensure sanitation (quality assurance department)
  • FSIS has huge authority over plant - can retain questionable products, shut down plant
  • Complete non-compliance report (documents a FSIS reg deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

USDA “bug”

A
  • USDA inspector’s specific seal
  • stamp approves meat to be sold
  • meat sold in US must be USDA inspected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How can meat be marketed without USDA inspection?

A
  • Retail markets (slaughter, process, sell in house direct to consumer)
  • state inspected - can be sold in state boundaries (no state inspection in CO)
  • not for sale (meat harvested by indiv, e.g. hunting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

FSIS disease surveillance

A
  • reportable (avian flue, TB, foot & mouth, VS)
  • depopulation programs (Brucellosis, TB exposed)
  • TB oldest reportable dz
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Humane methods of slaughter act

A
  • rapid, painless, humane death
  • all animals must be stunned before sticking/bleeding
  • exception: kosher, halal ritualistic slaughter
33
Q

Microbiological intervention in plant

A
  • host wash
  • acid rinse
  • blast/spray chill for 24-48 hrs (28-32 F
  • Holding cooler for storage (32F)
34
Q

General harvest procedure

A
  • immobilization
  • stun, bleed
  • head removal
  • skin/hair removal
  • feet/toenail removal
  • evisceration
  • splitting
  • inspection
  • washing
  • chilling
35
Q

Food safety & quality concerns

A
  • eating quality (tenderness, juciness, flavor)
  • production-related defects
  • physical hazards
  • pathogens/foodborne illness
  • antibiotic/pesticide residues
36
Q

Physical hazards in meat

A
  • injection site lesions
  • bruising (scored by severity)
  • foreign objects (e.g. shot)
37
Q

Injection site lesions

A
  • now have injection site guidelines
  • IM injections in neck (resolves more often)
  • SQ injections preferred generally
38
Q

USDA carcass grading

A
  • voluntary grading done at plant
  • marketing tool, paid for by processing company
  • stamps specify quality, yield grades
39
Q

Yield grade

A
  • carcass composition
    1: less fat, more meat
    5: more fat, less meat
40
Q

Quality grade

A
  • reflects cooking/eating quality
  • depends on sex, class, maturity, marbling, firmness etc
  • Class A = younger, more tender, less lean
  • Class E = older, less tender, more lean
41
Q

Quality grade types

A

Prime - high end restaurants, connoissers
Choice - best meat consumer gets, restaurants
Select
Standard

42
Q

What meat cut presents a bigger food safety risk?

A

hamburger

  • includes diseased parts of carcass
  • more SA
  • made primarily from cull cows (more likely to be sick)
43
Q

What does HACCP stand for?

A

Hazard analysis and critical control point

44
Q

7 principles of HACCP

A 
Hazard analysis
CCP's (areas to prevent hazard)
Critical limits (tolerance levels)
Monitoring methods
corrective actions
records (test results)
documentation (of total HACCP plan)
45
Q

Violative level

A

residue exceeds the acceptable level in a product

46
Q

danger zone for bacterial growth

A

50 - 120F

47
Q

How does meat get contaminated with bacteria?

A
  • vascular distribution (steaks, small %)

- meat surfaces during cutting, processing, storage, distribution, etc.

48
Q

Foodborne disease coverage

A 
CDC
Food-Net surveillance system
determine outbreak vs. illness
categorize pathogens as "foodborne"
estimated projections of 31 pathogens to report risk
49
Q

Most common foodborne illness in the US

A

Norovirus

50
Q

Most common source of foodborne illnesses

A

produce

51
Q

Common food microbiological counts

A

Standard Plate count (SPC)
Total coliform count (TCC) - GI organisms
E. coli count (ECC) - indicates fecal contam

52
Q

What influences the effectiveness of bacterial testing?

A

Frequency at which contamination occurs
Amount of product tested
Sensitivity of sampling protocol & pathogen of concern
Sensitivity of lab testing methods

53
Q

3 major types of hazards for meat safety?

A

Chemical
Microbial
Physical

54
Q

common bacterial concerns for food safety

A 
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium perfringens
Staph aureus
Salmonella
Campylobacter
Listeria
E. coli 0157:H7
55
Q

Perfomance standards

A

Salmonella - reliable detection, occurs at freq where changes in prevalence can be detected

E. coli 0157 o the STEC’s in fresh ground beef (performance standard = 0)

Listeria sampled in ready to eat meat, poultry (performance standard = 0)

56
Q

Likelihood of death from a foodborne illness

A

very low vs. other things (e.g. dying from flu)

Majority are viral, 2nd = bacterial, parasitic small %

57
Q

Takeaway about food pathogens and livestock

A
  • foodborne pathogens common in production
  • actual documented foodborne disease from livestock is low
  • common human pathogens aren’t same as common animal pathogens
  • notorious food disease risks are much lower than those less publicized
58
Q

BSE/Mad cow

A

Prions going into feed that was fed back to cows

Once understood process, fixed it, now rarely see BSE

59
Q

TSE’s in humans

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies

A

Kuru (New Guinea)
Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease
New variant CJD
GSS & FFI

60
Q

Pathogens that cause severe disease/hospitalization

A

C. botulinum
Campylobacter
Listeria
E. coli 0157:H7

61
Q

antibiotic

A

substances that are naturally produced by 1 microorganism

able to kill/inhibit growth or multiplication/repro of microorganisms

62
Q

antimicrobial

A

kill microorganisms or keep them from multiplying or growing

antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, etc.

63
Q

Antimicrobial uses

A

Therapeutic - current infection
Prophylactic - infection anticipated
Metaphylaxis - infection likely underway without signs
Growth promoting is banned, not allowed on labels

64
Q

Prescription vs. OTC

A

OTC- anyone can get

Rx - federally restricted to be used by or on the order of a licensed vet

65
Q

VCPR

A

Vet client patient relationship

  • vet has assumed responsibility
  • makes preliminary diagnosis & visits
  • available for emergency
66
Q

Zoonotic concerns

A 
salmonella
e coli
campylobacter
MAP
cryptosporidium
67
Q

Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD)

A
  • all use of antibiotics in feed requires a directive from a vet, vet Rx for water
  • excludes ionophores and cocidiostats
  • ELDU never allowed
  • must be written by vet and copy retained for 2 years
68
Q

Extra-label drug use (ELDU)

A
  • any use of a drug not specifically listed on the label
  • regulated by FDA
  • involved both OTC and prescription
  • illegal unless prescribed by vet or working in VCPR
  • not allowed for VFD use
69
Q

AMDUCA

A
  • extra label use is limited to circumstances when the health of an animal is threatened or suffering or death my result from failure to treat
  • Valid VCPR exit - when have no other animal med labeled for use in these circumstances
  • must be Rx by DVM only
  • usually extend the withdrawal time for these cases based on scientific data (no data, not sold for food)
70
Q

Examples of ELDU

A
  • change dose, route, frequency
  • give drug to different production class of animal
  • indications not listed on label
  • change withholding time, amount of drug used per injection site
71
Q

Illegal drugs for food producing animals

A

can’t be used under any circumstances (extra label or normal use) because of risk to humans
e.g. chloramphenicol

72
Q

illegal drug exceptions for ELDU in dairy

A

Sulfonamides
Fluoroquinolones
Phenylbutazone

73
Q

What’s interesting about Aminoglycosides

A

vets voluntarily refrain from using in cattle

exceptionally long duration of tissue residues (12+ months)

74
Q

Ionophores

A
  • most commonly used feed-grade antimicrobial (50%)
  • used to increased fermentation efficiency, decreased rumen acidosis, coccidiosis
  • not to treat disease
75
Q

Quality assurance

A

value of the food product
price paid = to consumer satisfaction of product
Total Quality Management (TQM) ensures systemic managment of quality

76
Q

Beef quality assurance program

A 
feedstuffs
feed additives and meds
other non-medical chemical uses
processing/treatment records
injectables
husbandry
infectious dz prevention
77
Q

Dairy Quality assurance program

A
  • same as beef but more concerned about residues - how drugs are given, documentation
  • drug residue screening tests (tetracycline, beta lactams etc)
78
Q

Antimicrobial resistance (AMR)

A
  • naturally occurring
  • Primarily due to poor use in human med and human to human transfer of infectious agents
  • food animal use is not a major contributor

VM648 Food Animal (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions