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exam II Flashcards

1
Q

what is the name of the process in which larger molecules are broken down into smaller products to release energy?

A

catabolism

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2
Q

With regard to metabolic reactions, what does “endergonic” mean?

A

Energy input is required for reaction

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3
Q

When electrons are transferred from donor molecules to acceptor molecules in a redox reaction, what happens to the donor molecule?

A

It is oxidized

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can influence the rate of an enzymatic reaction?

A

Pressure

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5
Q

Which of the following statements best describes glycolysis?

A

Glucose is catabolized into 2 molecules of pyruvate and 2 ATP

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6
Q

A site on an enzyme other than the active site that can bind molecules and influence the shape of the active site is referred to as a(n) ________.

A

allosteric site

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7
Q

Which cellular process results in the most significant production of ATP?

A

chemiosmosis

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8
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur in prokaryotes?

A

cytoplasmic membrane

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9
Q

Which of the following statements regarding chemiosmosis is TRUE?

A

Energy released when hydrogen ions flow down a concentration gradient is used to form ATP

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10
Q

What cellular process occurs in the absence of oxygen, oxidizes NADH to NAD+, and reduces cellular organic molecules?

A

fermentation

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11
Q

What is the most common lipid involved in the production of ATP and various metabolites?

A

fat

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12
Q

What is the first step of lipid catabolism?

A

Lipase hydrolyzes fat into glycerol plus three fatty acids.

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13
Q

During lipid catabolism, fatty acid chains undergo beta-oxidation to create ________.

A

acetyl-CoA, NADH, and FADH2

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14
Q

What is the first step of protein catabolism?

A

Proteases break down proteins into their constituent amino acids.

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15
Q

The process by which the amino group from an amino acid is removed to produce a molecule that can be catabolized in the Krebs cycle is referred to as ________.

A

deamination

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16
Q

What is the function of photosystems within cells?

A

to absorb light energy and store it in the form of ATP and NADPH

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17
Q

One of the major differences between cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation is that ________.

A

NADPH is made only in noncyclic photophosphorylation

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18
Q

Photophosphorylation is most similar to which of the following processes?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

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19
Q

The main result of the Calvin-Benson cycle, which is part of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis, is ________.

A

carbon fixation

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20
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in cyclic photophosphorylation?

A

the original electron donor

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21
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

the synthesis of sugars from noncarbohydrate precursors

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22
Q

What cellular structures are responsible for joining together amino acids to form proteins?

A

ribosomes

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23
Q

The five-carbon sugars that are required for nucleotide biosynthesis are produced in what catabolic pathway?

A

pentose phosphate pathway

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way that cells regulate metabolic function?

A

production of all metabolic enzymes all the time

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25
Q

What is one metabolic process that generates the glycerol precursor necessary for lipid biosynthesis?

A

glycolysis

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26
Q

Biochemical tests are useful in identifying microbes because of all the following reasons EXCEPT which one?

A

Microbes use different ATP molecules.

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27
Q

what is metabolism?

A

sum of all chemical activities in the cell

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28
Q

what are the roles of ATP?

A

energy storage and transferring of phosphate group to release energy

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29
Q

what is the main goal of metabolism?

A

reproduction

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30
Q

what is phosphorylation?

A

addition of a phiospahte group to a substrate

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31
Q

what are the 3 types of phosphorylation?

A
  1. substrate level
  2. oxidatuve
    3.photophosphorylation
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32
Q

what is oxidation?

A

loss of electrons

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33
Q

what is reduction?

A

gaining of electrons

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34
Q

what is a redox reaction?

A

transfer of electrons from a donor to an acceptor

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35
Q

what is activation energy?

A

energy required to bring molecules in a chemical rxn to their active site

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36
Q

what is an active site?

A

site of catalysis

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37
Q

what is a substrate?

A

a molecule that an enzyme reacts with

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38
Q

what are the 3 important electron carriers?

A
  1. NAD+, NADH
  2. NADP, NADPH2
  3. FAD, FADH2
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39
Q

why are electrons always coupled?

A

electrons can t exists by themselves

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40
Q

what is the function of enzymes?

A

speed up & catalyze rxns and lower activation energy

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41
Q

what are the two types of enzynmes?

A
  1. simple
  2. conjugate
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42
Q

what are the parts of a conjugate enzyme?

A

protein part: apoenzyme
nonprotein part:
cofactor (inorganic), coenzyme (organic)

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43
Q

what is a holoenzyme?

A

a whole enzyme

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44
Q

what factors influence enzyme activity?

A

temp, pH, and substarte concentration

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45
Q

what is the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibition?

A

competitve inhibors competes with the sunstrate for binnding at the actuve site and noncompetite inhibitors binds at the site distinct from the actuive site

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46
Q

what is the difference between allosteric inhibition and allosteric activation?

A

allosteric inhibitors change the shape of the active site so that the substrate cant bind and allosteric activation changes the shape of the active site so that the substrate will “fit’

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47
Q

what are ribozymes?

A

enzymatic RNA molecules

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48
Q

what is feedback inhibition?

A

when the final product acts as an inhibitor to the first enzyme in the pathway

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49
Q

The RNA part in ribozymes are?

A

catalytic

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50
Q

What happens in spliceosomes in eukaryotes?

A

the RNA catalyzes removal of introns

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51
Q

what are metabolites?

A

small breakdown products

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52
Q

what is catabolism?

A

breaking down of larger molecules into smaller molecules

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53
Q

what is cellular respiration?

A

complete breakdown of glucose to CO2 and H2O

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54
Q

what are the 4 steps of cellular respiration?

A
  1. glycolysis
  2. synthesis
  3. kreb’s cycle
  4. electron transport chain
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55
Q

what is fermentation in cells?

A

after glycolysis, pyruvic acid is converted into another compound (organic waste products)

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56
Q

where does cellular respiration occur in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

prokaryotes- cell membrane
eukaryotes- mitochondria

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57
Q

what is glycolysis also named as?

A

energy investment/producing stage

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58
Q

what happens in glycolysis?

A

glucose is converted into a more usable form called pyruvate in the cytoplasm

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59
Q

what are the products of glycolysis?

A

NET YIELD: 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 NADPH

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60
Q

what happens in the synthesis stage of cellular respiration?

A
  1. two pyruvate are transported by active transport into the mitochondria
  2. pyruvate is oxidized and converted into two acetyl CoA
  3. CO2 is released and two NADPH are produced
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61
Q

what happens in the kreb’s cycle?

A

2 acetyl CoA enters and CO2 is released

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62
Q

what are the products of the kreb’s cycle?

A

2 ATP, 6 NADPH, and 2 FADPH

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63
Q

what happens in the electron transport chain?

A
  • electrons are transferred from NADPH and FADPH to protein complexes and electron carriers
  • electrons are used to generate a proton gradient as protons are pumped across the intermembrane space
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64
Q

what is the goal of ETC?

A

extract high energy electrons from NADH and FADH2

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65
Q

what happens to energy as it is transported through the ETC?

A

some of it is lost, so cells can capture energy

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66
Q

what is the function of the ETC?

A

ATP production and to release energy

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67
Q

what is another name for the kreb’s cycle?

A

tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle

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68
Q

substrate level phosphorylation is used to produce ATP in which stages?

A

glycolysis and kreb’s cycle

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69
Q

what is chemiosmosis?

A

H+ flow and ATP production

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70
Q

what happens in chemiosmosis?

A

protons travel down their electrical gradient thru a portion of ATP synthase pairing it to make ATP

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71
Q

what is the function of the proton motive force in chemiosmois?

A

to drive H+ back into the cell thru a channel called ATP synthase

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72
Q

what is the final electron acceptor in chemiosmosis?

A

oxygen

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73
Q

what happens when the H+ passes thru ATP synthase?

A

the enzyme carries out the reaction

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74
Q

what are the results of chemisosmos?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

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75
Q

what is oxidative phosphorylation?

A

synthesis of ATP using a proton gradient from the oxidation of components of ETC

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76
Q

how much does ATP yield in chemiosmosis?

A

3 ATP for every NADH
2 ATP for every FADH2

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77
Q

electron carriers per glucose?

A

NADH = 10
FADH2 = 2

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78
Q

ETC per glucose?

A

3 x 10 NADH = 30 ATP
2 x 2 FADH2 = 4 ATP

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79
Q

what is the total number of ATP in cellular respiration?

A

glycolysis = 2 ATP
kreb’s cycle = 2 ATP
ETC per glucose = 34 ATP
TOTAL = 38 ATP

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80
Q

what is the balanced chemical formula of cellular respiration?

A

C 6 H 12 O 6 + 6 O 2 –> 6 CO 2 + 6 H 2 O + ATP

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81
Q

what are examples of election acceptors in anaerobic respiration?

A

nitrate (Pseudomonas or Bacillus), sulfate (Desulforibric), and carbonate (methanogenic bacteria)

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82
Q

when do the cells do fermentation?

A

when there is no oxygen available

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83
Q

what happens in fermentation of cells?

A

NAD+ is reduce to NADH so that it can give electrons to an electron acceptor

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84
Q

which organisms can do anaerobic respiration?

A

bacteria and archaea

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85
Q

why do yeast and muscle cells only do glycolysis?

A

it doesn’t require oxygen

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86
Q

how much ATP is produced in fermentation?

A

2 ATP

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87
Q

what is the final electron acceptor in fermentation?

A

an organic molecule

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88
Q

where is lactic acid fermentation done?

A

in the muscle cells

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89
Q

how is lactic acid fermentation done?

A

start with glycolysis and regenerate the NAD+ step: 2 pyruvate will yield 2 lactate

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90
Q

what is the final electron acceptor in lactic acid fermentation?

A

pyruvate, allowing NADH to oxidize to NAD+ so glycolysis can happen

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91
Q

what organisms do lactic acid fermentation?

A

Streptococcus mutans (cavities) and Lactobacillus sanfrancisco (yogurt)

92
Q

what organism does ethanol fermentation?

A

Saccharomyces (yeast)

93
Q

what happens in ethanol fermentation?

A

2 pyruvate will produce CO2 and 2 ethanol

94
Q

what is the final waste product of ethanol fermentation?

A

alcohol

95
Q

what is the final electron acceptor of ethanol fermentation?

A

acetaldehyde (derivate of pyruvate)

96
Q

what happens when the starting point is not glucose?

A

lipid and protein catabolism

97
Q

what are the steps of lipid catabolism?

A
  1. Lipases hydrolyze
    lipids into glycerol
    and fatty acids
  2. Fatty acids are
    catabolized by beta
    oxidation (removal
    of 2-carbon units) - Produce NADH and
    FADH2, and Acetyl
    CoA
  3. Catabolic products can
    be further broken
    down in glycolysis
    and the Krebs
    cycle = produce
    ATP
98
Q

what are the steps of protein catabolism?

A
  1. Proteases break proteins into amino acids
    (extracellularly)
  2. Amino acids must be converted to various
    substances (intermediates) by:
    Transamination
    Decarboxylation
    Dehydrogenation
  3. Amino groups removed by Deamination,
    intermediates can enter Krebs cycle
99
Q

what is protease?

A

enzyme to breakdown proteins

100
Q

what is deamination?

A

removal of amino groups

101
Q

what is photosynthesis?

A

conversion of light energy to chemical energy (needs energy)

102
Q

what is the balanced chemical formula of photosynthesis?

A

6CO2 + 6H2O + energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2.

103
Q

what is bacteriochlorophyll?

A

green and purple pigment

104
Q

what are the two parts of photosynthesis?

A

light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions

105
Q

what happens in light dependent reactions?

A

energy is captured from sunlight and produces ATP and NADPH

106
Q

what is the product of light-dependent reactions?

A

oxygen (oxygenic)

107
Q

what happens in cyclic phosphorylation in light dependent reactions?

A

electrons return to chlorophyll

108
Q

whats happened in noncyclic phosphorylation in light-dependent reactions?

A

electrons are used to reduce NADP and electrons are returned to chlorophyll from H2O and H2S

109
Q

what happens in light-independent reactions?

A

CO2 enters to be fixed, ATP acts as energy current, and NADPH supplies energy current by adding high energy electrons to cycle

110
Q

what are the results of light-independent reactions?

A

fixed CO2 + ATP + NADH = carbon fixation

111
Q

where does photosystems occur in prokaryotes?

A

infoldings of the inner membrane

112
Q

where does photosystems occur in eukaryotes?

A

thylakoids

113
Q

what is noncyclic phosphorylation?

A

occurs in PSI and PSII, electrons originate in H2O and end up in NADPH

114
Q

what is cyclic phosphorylation?

A

ONLY in PSI, electrons from PSI returned to PSII and only ATP is made

115
Q

what are the 3 stages of the calvin cycle?

A
  1. fixation: RuBp + CO2 6 3-phosphoglycerate
  2. reduction: use ATP and NADPH to yield G3P
  3. regeneration: use ATP to regenerate RuBP
116
Q

what is anabolic metabolism?

A

synthesis reactions requiring energy and metabolites

117
Q

what is amphibolic?

A

reactions that proceed in either direction of catabolism and anabolism

118
Q

what is biosynthesis?

A

when substrates are converted into more complex products

119
Q

what is gluconeogensis?

A

biosynthesis of of polysaccharides from non carbohydrate sources (reverse of glycolysis)

120
Q

what is the biosynthesis of fat?

A

reverse of lipid breakdown

121
Q

what is the biosynthesis of amino acids?

A

addition/transfer of amino groups to metabolites

122
Q

what is the biosynthesis of nucleotides?

A

requires metabolites form glycolysis (aspartic acid) and kreb’s cycle (glutamine); 5 carbon sugars from pentose phosphate pathway

123
Q

what factors contribute to the integration of catabolic and anabolic metabolism?

A
  1. intermediates
  2. coenzymes
  3. allosteric sites
  4. control of gene expression
124
Q

what is normal biota?

A

microbes that line in the body without causing disease

125
Q

what are the other names form normal biota?

A

normal flora and microbiome

126
Q

what are the two types of normal biota?

A
  1. resident microbiota
  2. transient mircobiota
127
Q

how do we acquire normal biota?

A

placental barrier, air, food, drink, & contact with other people

128
Q

what is resident microbiota?

A

usually established in the1st few months of life

129
Q

where are resident microbiota found?

A

skin, oral cavity, respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, and reproductive system

130
Q

microbiota of the skin

A
  • dry, acidic, - INHOSPITABLE
  • sweat glands: Staphylococci (salt halotolerant)
  • sterile
  • tears may contain lysosome
131
Q

microbiota of oral cavity

A

microbes found on the teeth, inner cheek, tongue, pharynx, and in saliva

132
Q

what are dental cavities?

A

due to fermentation of sucrose to acid by bacteria

133
Q

what is periodontal disease?

A

affects the gums and underlying tissues

134
Q

microbiota of gastrointestinal tract

A
  • ACIDIC STOMACH
  • intestinal tract, slightly basic to neutral
  • lower digestive tract, mostly anaerobes (Clostridium difficile)
135
Q

what are facilitative anaerobes?

A

microbes that can survive in presence and absence of O2 (e.coli)

136
Q

microbiota of respiratory tract

A
  • upper respiratory, covered with mucous
  • lower respiratory tract, bronchi, and lungs are STERILE trachea is not
137
Q

microbiota of reproductive systems

A
  • flow of urine flushes out microbes
  • vagina can be colonized with yeast (Candia)
138
Q

what is transient microbiota?

A

temporary presence in the same regions as resident microbiota

139
Q

why can’t transient bacteria survive in the body?

A

competition, elimination, and chemical or physical changes

140
Q

what are commensals?

A

microbes that become pathogenic under certain conditions

141
Q

what are some possible reasons a microbe would become pathogenic?

A

immune suppression (HIV), loss of competition (Clostridium diffice), intro to unusual site (S. epidermis contaminated catheter), and stress

142
Q

what is contamination?

A

presence of microbes

143
Q

what is infection?

A

establishment of microbes in the body

144
Q

what are the portals of entry of pathogens?

A

skin, parental route, mucous membrane, and placenta

145
Q

how do microbes enter the skin?

A

openings/cuts, pathogens burrow into skin, pathogens digest outer layers

146
Q

how do microbes enter through the parenteral route?

A

break in skin and pathogens are deposited in tissues
- ex. rabies, Clostridium parfriges (deep cut), insects (Plasmodium, Trypanosome, and Leishmania)

147
Q

how do microbes enter the mucous membrane?

A
  • moist, warm - HOSPITABLE
  • can enter the gastrointestinal tract after surviving acidic pH of stomach (e.coli)
  • respiratory tract is MOST COMMON
  • conjunctiva, rubbing eyes (cold virus)
148
Q

what is toxoplasmosis?

A

in cats, keep pregnant women away from litter

149
Q

what is listeriosis?

A

survive in cold temps, not supposed to eat unpasteurized dairy products

150
Q

what are adhesions?

A

attachments to cells (REQUIRED FOR COLONIZATION)

151
Q

what are adhesion factors?

A

specialized structures and attachment proteins (LIGANDS/ADHESINS)

152
Q

what are attachment proteins?

A

pathogens use this when they 1st enter the body
- bacteria use capsule and fimbriae
- specific receptors on certain host cells
- infection prevention by blocking ligand binding and loss of adhesins results in nonvirulence

153
Q

what are the portals of exit?

A

secretion and excretion

154
Q

what is disease?

A

impairment of normal body functions

155
Q

what are symptoms?

A

felt by patient

156
Q

what are signs?

A

can be observed like fever and rashes

157
Q

what is a syndrome?

A

a group of signs/symptoms (HIV)

158
Q

what is asymptomatic/subclinical?

A

carrier that lacks symptoms but sill have signs of infections

159
Q

what is etiology?

A

study of the CAUSE of disease

160
Q

who is typhoid mary?

A

1st case of a healthy carrier had Salmonella typhi (carried in gall bladder)

161
Q

what is idiopathic?

A

diseases with unknown causes (akzheimer’s)

162
Q

what is iatrogenic?

A

caused by medical TREATMENT or diseases

163
Q

what is nosocomial?

A

disease ACQUIRED in healthcare setting

164
Q

infectious diseases are ONLY caused by what?

A

microbes

165
Q

what are the 3 exceptions to koch’s postulates?

A
  1. feasibility - cant grow in lab (hepatitis A/B)
  2. difficulties - can cause diff diseases (strep throat can cause toxic shock)
  3. epidemiologic studies - do a survey and find the cause
166
Q

what is pathogenicity?

A

ability of microbes to cause disease

167
Q

what is infectivity?

A

ability to infect and colonize host

168
Q

what is infectious dose?

A

number of microbes needed to cause disease

169
Q

what is virulence?

A

degree needed to cause disease

170
Q

what are virulence factors?

A

contribute to disease process

171
Q

what is an example of mutualism?

A

bacteria in human colon

172
Q

what is an example of commensalism?

A

Staphylococcus on skin

173
Q

what is an example of parasitism?

A

Tuberculosis in lung

174
Q

what are congenital diseases?

A

defects at birth caused by drugs, x-ray exposure and infections

175
Q

what are endocrine diseases?

A

due to excess or deficiencies of hormones

176
Q

what is an ulcer?

A

an open source

177
Q

what did Robin Warren and Barry Marshall do?

A
  • found a new shape of bacteria that wouldn’t grow in the lab
  • warren drank a culture of Helicobacter pylori and took antibiotics
178
Q

what are the 3 important virulence factors?

A
  1. extracellular enzymes
  2. toxins
  3. antiphagocytic factors
179
Q

what are extracellular enzymes?

A
  • enzymes help invade
  • enzymes avoid immune diseases
  • ex. hyaluronidase and collagenase
    coagulase and kinase
180
Q

what are exotoxins?

A

secreted toxins

181
Q

what are endotoxins?

A

lipid A of LPS gram negative bacteria

182
Q

what are antiphagocytic factors?

A

factors that prevent phagocytosis
- bacterial capsule (hides bacteria and makes slippery)
- antiphagocytic chemicals: can prevent fusion of lysosome and phagocytosis vesicles

183
Q

what are leukocidins?

A

destroy phagocytic white blood cells

184
Q

what are the 5 stages of infectious disease?

A
  1. incubation period - no s/s
  2. prodromal period - general s/s
  3. illness - most severe s/s
  4. decline - declining s/s
  5. convalescence - no s/s
185
Q

what are reservoirs?

A

sites that are a continuous source of infections

186
Q

what is a transmission?

A

from either a reservoir or portal of exit /entry

187
Q

what are the 3 types of reservoirs?

A
  1. animal - zoonoses (animal to human)
  2. human - ill individuals/carriers
  3. nonliving - soil, water, food and fecal/urine contamination
188
Q

what are the 3 modes of disease transmission?

A
  1. contact transmission
    - direct/indirect contact & droplet
  2. vehicle transmission
    - airborne, waterborne, & foodborne
  3. vector transmission
    - mechanical (insects) and biological (lice/mites)
189
Q

why do pathogens need a reservoir of infection?

A

allows the pathogen to live, and possibly grow, and multiply

190
Q

what is acute disease?

A

symptoms develop fast and go away fast

191
Q

what is a chronic disease?

A

develop slow and last a long time

192
Q

what is subacute disease?

A

symptoms b/t acute and chronic

193
Q

what is asymptomatic disease?

A

disease w/o symptoms

194
Q

what is latent disease?

A

comes after infection (late)

195
Q

what is communicable disease?

A

host to host

196
Q

what is contagious disease?

A

easily spread

197
Q

what is noncommunicable disease?

A

from outside of hosts (opportunistic pathogen)

198
Q

what is local infection?

A

only small region of body

199
Q

what is systemic infection?

A

widespread infection in many systems of body

200
Q

what is focal infection?

A

source of pathogens for infection in other sites of body

201
Q

what is primary infection?

A

initial infection within a given patient

202
Q

what is secondary infection?

A

infections that follow a primary infection

203
Q

what is epidemiology?

A

study of WHERE and WHEN diseases occur and HOW they are transmitted within populations

204
Q

what is incidence?

A

number of NEW cases

205
Q

what is prevalence?

A

number of TOTAL cases

206
Q

what is the goal of epidemiology ?

A

to control and prevent disease transmission

207
Q

what is an an endemic?

A

constantly PRESENT at low levels in a specific population

208
Q

what is an epidemic?

A

higher than average incidence cases in a specific population

209
Q

what is a pandemic?

A

worldwide epidemic

210
Q

what are sporadic cases?

A

very low and random numbers of individual cases in spread out areas (ebola)

211
Q

what is disease outbreak?

A

large number of cases, short amount of time

212
Q

what are the 3 epidemiologic approaches?

A

1 descriptive
2. analytical
3. experimental

213
Q

what is a common source epidemic?

A

infection of a large number of people from a single contaminated source

214
Q

what is descriptive epidemiology?

A
  • location and time of disease
  • Dr. Snow’s study
  • patient info
  • find pattern: WHO, WHAT, WHERE & WHEN
215
Q

what did Dr. John Snow contribute to epidemiology?

A

found source of cholera by finding correlation between the water coming from the water pump

216
Q

what is analytical epidemiology?

A
  • compare healthy vs sick group
  • koch’s postulates cant be used
  • retrospective: investigation occurs AFTER outbreak
217
Q

what is the goal of analytical epidemiology?

A

to determine cause, mode of transmission, and prevention

218
Q

what is experimental epidemiology?

A
  • test a hypothesis
  • uses koch’s postulates
  • prospective studies: observe impact in FUTURE
  • ex. vaccines/treatment
219
Q

what are the 3 types of nosocomial infections?

A
  1. exogenous
  2. endogenous
  3. iatrogenic
220
Q

what are exogenous infections?

A

pathogen acquired from health care environment (outside body)

221
Q

what are endogenous infections?

A

acquired from normal microbiota due to factors in healthcare setting (our microbes)

222
Q

what are iatrogenic infection?

A

results from medical procedures (vaccines)

223
Q

what is the common measure between nosocomial infections?

A

hand washing because it is the most effective way to reduce it

224
Q

what are koch’s postulates?

A
  1. microbe is isolated from the infected organism
  2. microbe is cultured in the lab
  3. microbe is reintroduced into a healthy individual
  4. microbe re-isolated from new host
225
Q

what are 3 ways public health agencies work to limit the spread of diseases?

A
  1. food and water purity regulations
  2. vector control
  3. immunization programs
226
Q

how may a biofilm facilitate contamination and infection?

A

by staying dormant and hidden from the immune system and may later cause an acute infection

microbiology (9 decks)

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