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Physiology > Exam II Review > Flashcards

Exam II Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for a single motor neuron plus the singular motor fiber that it innervates?

A. Motor unit
B. Interneuron
C. Motor neuron pool

A

A. Motor unit

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2
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a motor neuron pool?

A. group of motorr neurons that innervate the same fiber type in different muscles
B. group of motor neurons that innervate different fibers within the same muscle
C. singular motor neuron that innervates all of the fibers within the muscle
D. a graveyard of nerves that pool together and still retain some firing activity collectively

A

B. group of motor neurons that innervate different fibers within the same muscle

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3
Q

Interneurons are bipolar shaped and have spontaneous activity. What function do these interneurons have?

A

Interneurons integrate spinal cord function by utilizing GABA as an inhibitor and glutamate as an excitatory

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4
Q

Which of the following motor neurons in the spinal cord descend the spinal cord, use glutamate for signalling, and synapse on either an interneuron or lower motor neuron?

A. upper motor neuron
B. lower motor neuron
C. renshaw cell

A

A. upper motor neuron

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5
Q

Which of the following motor neurons has a glutamic receptor and terminates at the effector muscle using acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter?

A. upper motor neuron
B. lower motor neuron
C. renshaw cell

A

B. lower motor neuron

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6
Q

Select all of the following locations in which the lower motor neurons can be found:

A. posterior gray matter position of the spinal cord
B. anterior grey matter position of the spinal cord
C. cranial nerve nuclei in the brainstem
D. anterior white matter position in the spinal cord

A

B. anterior grey matter position of the spinal cord

C. cranial nerve nuclei in the brainstem

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7
Q

Which of the following neurons in the spinal cord are described as inhibitory cells found in the anterior horn of the spinal cord?

A. upper motor neuron
B. lower motor neuron
C. renshaw cell

A

C. renshaw cell

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8
Q

REnshaw cells are found in the anterior horns of spinal cord. They receive collateral branches from alpha-motor neurons and transmit the inhibitory signals that yield which of the following results based on the following target of the signals? (select all that apply)

To surrounding motor neurons:
To the same motor neuron:

A. lateral inhibition
B. decreased fluidity of limbs
C. lateral excitation
D. increased fluidity of limb movement
E. recurrent inhibition
A

To surrounding motor neurons:

  • A. lateral inhibition
  • D. increased fluidity of limb movement

To the same motor neuron:
- E. recurrent inhibition

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9
Q

Name the 4 sensory fiber types, and assign the conduction rate to each.

30-120 m/sec
4-30 m/sec
less than 2.5 m/sec

A

30-120 m/sec: A-alpha and A-beta
4-30 m/sec: A-delta
less than 2.5 m/sec: C fibers

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10
Q

What 2 fiber types are related to nociceptors and thermoreceptors?

A

A-delta fibers

C fibers

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11
Q

True or False: C fibers are unmyelinated

A

True

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12
Q

All of the following nerve fibers are myelinated, except?

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

A

D. IV

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13
Q

The muscle spindle is made up of 3-12 units of what type of fiber?

A

Intrafusal fiber

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14
Q

Intrafusal fibers are innervated by what type of neurons?

A

gamma motor neurons (group II afferents)

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15
Q

Which of the following is true of extrafusal fibers and not intrafusal fibers?

A. innervated by gamma motor neurons
B. innervated by alpha motor neurons
C. make up muscle fibers
D. make up muscle spindles
E. can either be nuclear bag fibers or nuclear chain fibers
A

B. innervated by alpha motor neurons

C. make up muscle fibers

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16
Q

In a muscle spindle, sensory fibers can be found in the central region and respond to what type of stimuli?

A

Stretch stimuli

- muscle spindles detect change in muscle length

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17
Q

Nuclear bag fibers are a type of intrafusal fiber where multiple nuclei are located in a central “bag like” conformation. These fibers detect RATE of change in the muscle length, and are innervated by what two neurons?

A

gamma I-alpha afferent

dynamic gamma efferent

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18
Q

Nuclear chain fibers are a type of intrafusal fiber where nuclei are arrangned in a singular row. These fibers detect STATIC change in muscle length, and are innervated by what two neurons?

A

group II afferents

static gamma efferents

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19
Q

Match the neuron fiber type with the categories provided below:

Skeletal muscle:
Muscle spindle:
Sympathetics:

A

Skeletal muscle: A-alpha
Muscle spindle: A-gamma
Sympathetics: C fiber

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20
Q

What are the two ways that the stretch reflex is activated, causing the muscle to contract and shorten?

A
  1. lengthening of the entire muscle

2. contraction of the intrafusal fiber’s ends

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21
Q

What are the 4 brain areas that control gamma fibers?

A
  1. Bulbocranium
  2. cerebellum
  3. basal nuclei
  4. cerebral cortex
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22
Q

T/F: Gamma motor neurons can co-activate with alpha motor neurons and that stimulation results in the entire muscle lengthening

A

True

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23
Q

Between gamma motor neurons and alpha motor neurons, which one is found 50% less in the body

A

There are half the number of gamma motor neurons as compared to alpha motor neurons

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24
Q

Which of the 3 types of gamma motor neurons supply small intrafusal fibers in the middle of the spindle?

A. A-gamma
B. gamma-dynamic efferent
C. gamma- static efferent

A

A. A-gamma

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25
Q

Which of the 3 types of gamma motor neurons excite nuclear bag fibers?

A. A-gamma
B. gamma-dynamic efferent
C. gamma- static efferent

A

B. gamma-dynamic efferent

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26
Q

Which of the 3 types of gamma motor neurons excite nuclear chain fibers?

A. A-gamma
B. gamma-dynamic efferent
C. gamma- static efferent

A

C. gamma- static efferent

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27
Q

The golgi tendon organ is an encapsulated sensory receptor that fibers of muscle tendons pass through. This organ is arranged in series with which of teh following fibers?

A. intrafusal fibers
B. muscle spindle fibers
C. extrafusal fibers
D. None of the above

A

C. extrafusal fibers

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28
Q

The golgi tendon organ is an encapsulated sensory receptor that fibers of muscle tendons pass through. This organ is stimulated by which of the following actions, that results in an opposite reflex as compared to stretch reflex?

A. Contraction of the muscle only
B. Stretching of the muscle only
C. Relaxation of the muscle
D. Contraction or stretching of muscle

A

D. Contraction or stretching of muscle

Golgi tendon organ detects tension

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29
Q

What is the golgi tendon organ circuitry?

A

golgi tendon –> type Ib afferent –> ACTIVATE inhibitory interneurons –> INHIBIT anterior motor neurons

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30
Q

What is the general function of the premotor and supplementary motor cortexes as it relates to the primary cortex?

A

Generate a plan for movement and transfer that plan to the primary cortex

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31
Q

What is the specific role of the premotor cortex and supplementary motor cortex in the generation of movement plan?

A

Premotor cortex: develops a motor IMAGE of the muscle movement

Supplementary motor cortex: programs complex MOTOR SEQUENCES and is responsible for the mental rehersal for the movement

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32
Q

Upper motor neurons are classified based on their location of the synapse in the ventral horn, that relates to the roles they hold. Define the following roles of these UMN:

  1. Medial Activation System
  2. Lateral Activation System
  3. Nonspecific Activation system
A
  1. Medial Activation System: innervate postural and girdle control
  2. Lateral Activation System: fine movements of distally locates muscles
  3. Nonspecific Activation System: facilitate local reflex arcs
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33
Q

How does damage to the Broca’s area affect speech?

A

Uncordinated utterances

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34
Q

How is Broca’s area related to associated respiratory and voluntary eye fields in terms of damage?

A
  • Brocas area is close to respiratory field responsible for coordinating respiratory activity
  • Field for voluntary eye movement is just above Broca’s area and eyes end up locking onto objects involuntarily
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35
Q

What are the 2 outputs of posterior motor cortex?

A
  • primary motor cortex

- Basal nuclei and thalamus –> primary motor cortex

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36
Q

The corticospinal tract is also known as the pyramidal tract and it originates from what 3 structures?

A
  1. primary motor cortex
  2. premotor cortex
  3. somatosensory cortex
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37
Q

What is the pathway of the corticospinal tract that MOST fibers take starting from either of the general 3 origins?

A

origin –> internal capsule –> medullary pyramids –> cross the lower medulla –> lateral columns of spinal cord (lateral corticospinal tract)

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38
Q

Some of the fibers of the corticospinal tract do not cross in the lower medulla, but instead cross ipsilaterally and continue into what tract?

A

Ventral (anterior) corticospinal tract

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39
Q

Which of the following tracts of the corticospinal tract supplies all spinal cord levels?

A. Ventral (anterior) corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract

A

B. Lateral corticospinal tract

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40
Q

Which of the following tracts of the corticospinal tract supplies the neck and the upper limbs?

A. Ventral (anterior) corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract

A

A. Ventral (anterior) corticospinal tract

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41
Q

What are the 2 functions of the corticospinal tract as it relates to hands and fingers?

A
  1. add speed and agility to conscious movement (especially to hand)
  2. add high degree motor control (like moving fingers)
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42
Q

Where are giant pyramidal Betz cells located?

A. venterolateral sclerotome
B. epiblast cells
C. motor cortex
D. red nucleus

A

Motor cortex

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43
Q

What are some results of lesions in the corticospinal tract?

A
  • reduced muscle tone
  • weakness
  • clumsiness
  • semi- but not complete paralysis
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44
Q

In order for complete paralysis to occur what two systems must be affected by lesions?

A
  • pyramidal/corticospinal tract

- extrapyramidal tract

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45
Q

The corticoBULBAR tract includes upper motor neurons of the cranial nerve that service what 3 structures?

A
  • head
  • neck
  • face
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46
Q

Where do most of the fibers in the corticoBULBAR tract terminate?

A. red nucleus
B. lateral columns of the spinal cord
C. ventral columns of the spinal cord
D. reticular formation

A

D. reticular formation

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47
Q

What is the evolutionarily primitive portion of the brain?

A

Red nucleus

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48
Q

Which 2 structures synapse in the magnocellular region of the red nucleus?

A. fibers of the corticospinal tract and fibers corticobulbar tract
B. fibers of corticobulbar tract and branches of corticospinal tract
C. branches of both the corticospinal and corticobulbar tract
D. None of the above

A

B. fibers of corticobulbar tract and branches of corticospinal tract

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49
Q

T/F: The magnocellular region of the red nucleus has somatotopic representation of all muscles in the body

A

True

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50
Q

When the red nucleus is stimulated, what are the results on the flexors and extensors?

A
  • stimulate the flexors

- inhibit the extensors

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51
Q

The vestibulospinal tract originates in the vestibulospinal nuclei and receives its MAJOR INPUT from what nerve?

A

CN VIII also known as Vestibular nerve

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52
Q

What is the role of CN VIII in the vestibulospinal apparatus in regards to the head?

A

The CN VIII signals about the change in head position, with the intent to help maintain balance

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53
Q

T/F: The vestibulospinal tracet descends in the anterior funiculus and then synapses with the lower motor neuron to extensor muscles to help maintain upright posture

A

True

54
Q

What are the 3 components of the vestibulospinal tract?

A
  1. utricle
  2. saccule
  3. semicircular canals
55
Q

Which of the following components of the vestibulospinal tract is located on the horizontal plane, and determines orientation when the head is upright?

A. utricle
B. saccule
C. semicircular canals

A

A. utricle

56
Q

Which of the following components of the vestibulospinal tract is located on the vertical plane and determines head orientation when lying down?

A. utricle
B. saccule
C. semicircular canals

A

B. saccule

57
Q

What are the 4 members of the extrapyramidal system?

A
  1. rubrospinal tract
  2. vestibulospinal tract
  3. reticulospinal tract
  4. olivospinal tracts
58
Q

What is the cerebellum not essential for?

A

Locomotion

59
Q

The cerebellum is known as the silent area of the brain, because the cerebellum does not receive any conscious sensation and rarely causes motor movement. However, the cerebellum still plays a major role in what aspect of motor activities?

A

MAJOR role in timing of motor activities and in rapid, smooth progression from one muscle movement to the next

60
Q

Although the removal of the cerebellum does not cause paralysis of any muscles, removal of the cerebellum still causes what type of effect on the muscles?

A

removal of the cerebellum results in highly abnormal body movements and total lack of coordination

61
Q

The cerebellum is especially vital during what types of actions?

A

cerebellum is especially vital during periods of rapid action

62
Q

What are the 3 lobes of the cerebellum, and which of those lobes is evolutionarily the oldest?

A
  1. Anterior lobe
  2. Posterior lobe
  3. Flocculoconodular lobe is the oldest
63
Q

What is the general function of the intermediate and lateral zones which are seperated by the vermis?

A

Intermediate zone is concerned with controlling muscle contractions in the distal and upper portions of limbs like hands, fingers, feet, and toes

Lateral zone plays an important role in coordinating the body’s rapid sequential muscular activities

64
Q

Where is the vermis located, and what functions are associated with this area?

A

Vermis is located in the center of the cerebellum and separates it into intermediate and lateral zones

  • most of the cerebellar control functions for axial body, neck and shoulders exists in this region
65
Q

What is the functional unit of the cerebellum?

A

Purkinje cell (inhibitory)

66
Q

Which of the 5 afferent tracts of the cerebellum axons form the climbing fibers which synapse with Purkinje fibers to form COMPLEX SPIKES?

A. corticopomtocerebellar tract
B. vestibulocerebellar tract
C. reticulocerebellar tract
D. spinocerebellar tracts
E. olivocerebellar tracts
A

E. olivocerebellar tracts

all of the others contribute to the formation of mossy fibers which transmit simple spikes

67
Q

Which of the 5 afferent tracts of the cerebellum is the MAIN LINK between cortex and the cerebellum?
(bonus: what do their lesions result in)

A. corticopomtocerebellar tract
B. vestibulocerebellar tract
C. reticulocerebellar tract
D. spinocerebellar tracts
E. olivocerebellar tracts
A

A. corticopomtocerebellar tract

  • lesions in the corticopomtocerebellar tract results in muscle weakness
68
Q

Which of the 5 afferent tracts of the cerebellum terminates in the flocculondular loves?

A. corticopomtocerebellar tract
B. vestibulocerebellar tract
C. reticulocerebellar tract
D. spinocerebellar tracts
E. olivocerebellar tracts
A

B. vestibulocerebellar tract

69
Q

Which of the 5 afferent tracts of the cerebellum terminates primarily in the vermis?

A. corticopomtocerebellar tract
B. vestibulocerebellar tract
C. reticulocerebellar tract
D. spinocerebellar tracts
E. olivocerebellar tracts
A

C. reticulocerebellar tract

70
Q

Which of the 5 afferent tracts of the cerebellum transmits signals at 120 m/sec?

A. corticopomtocerebellar tract
B. vestibulocerebellar tract
C. reticulocerebellar tract
D. spinocerebellar tracts
E. olivocerebellar tracts
A

D. spinocerebellar tracts

71
Q

Which of the following levels of the cerebellum consists mostly of vermis and intermediate zone, and functions in synergy?

A. vestibulocerebellum
B. spinocerebellum
C. cerebrocerebellum

A

B. spinocerebellum

72
Q

Which of the following levels of the cerebellum is associated with motor imagery?

A. vestibulocerebellum
B. spinocerebellum
C. cerebrocerebellum

A

C. cerebrocerebellum

73
Q

All of the following cell types in the cerebellum have inhibitory circuitry, except?

A. granular cells
B. golgi cells
C. stellate cells
B. basket cells

A

A. granular cells

74
Q

What 2 cell types of the cerebellum provide lateral inhibition on adjacent purkinje cells to provide damping affect?

A. granular cells
B. golgi cells
C. stellate cells
B. basket cells

A

C. stellate cells

B. basket cells

75
Q

Which of the following clinical abnormalities can be described as a patient overshooting their intended mark and their concious body overcompensating in the opposite direction?

A. dysmetria
B. ataxia
C. disdiadochokinesia
D. dystharia
E. nystagmus
F. hypotonia
A

A. dysmetria

76
Q

Which of the following clinical abnormalities is described as a patients rapid loss of all perception in an instant that results in a series of stalled attempted, jumbled movements when moving hand positions?

A. dysmetria
B. ataxia
C. disdiadochokinesia
D. dystharia
E. nystagmus
F. hypotonia
A

C. disdiadochokinesia

77
Q

Which of the following clinical abnormalities is the failure of progression that occurs in talking, due to the lack of coordination in the structures and respiratory system responsible for this?

A. dysmetria
B. ataxia
C. disdiadochokinesia
D. dystharia
E. nystagmus
F. hypotonia
A

D. dystharia

78
Q

Which of the following clinical abnormalities is described as a tremor of the eyeballs?

A. dysmetria
B. ataxia
C. disdiadochokinesia
D. dystharia
E. nystagmus
F. hypotonia
A

E. nystagmus

79
Q

Which of the following clinical abnormalities results from the loss of cerebellar facilitation that causes decreased muscle firing or tonic signalling?

A. dysmetria
B. ataxia
C. disdiadochokinesia
D. dystharia
E. nystagmus
F. hypotonia
A

F. hypotonia

80
Q

Which of the following diseases is related to lesions in the subthalamus and leads to sudden flailing movements of an entire limb?

A. Hemiballism
B. Huntington disease
C. Chorea
D. Parkinson’s disease

A

A. Hemiballism

81
Q

Which of the following diseases is related to multiple lesions in the putamen that leads to flicking movements in the hands, face, and other body parts?

A. Hemiballism
B. Huntington disease
C. Chorea
D. Parkinson’s disease

A

C. Chorea

82
Q

Which of the following diseases is related to lesions of substantia nigra, and is characterized by rigidity, akenesia, and tremors?

A. Hemiballism
B. Huntington disease
C. Chorea
D. Parkinson’s disease

A

D. Parkinson’s disease

83
Q

Which of the following diseases is a result of lesions in the striatum, and is believed to be caused by loss of cell bodies of GABA secreting neurons in the caudate and putamen nucleus, as well as loss of acetylcholine-secreting neurons in many parts of the brain?

A. Hemiballism
B. Huntington disease
C. Chorea
D. Parkinson's disease
E. Athetosis
A

B. Huntington disease

84
Q

Agnosia is described as which of the following?

A. lesions of the anterior parietal cortex which produce inability to accurately percieve objects through abnormal sensory mechanisms
B. lesions in the anterior parietal cortex whcih produce inability to accurately percieve objects through normal sensory mechanisms
C. lesions in the posterior parietal cortex whcih produce inability to accurately percieve objects through normal sensory mechanisms
D. None of the above

A

C. lesions in the posterior parietal cortex whcih produce inability to accurately percieve objects through normal sensory mechanisms

85
Q

What are 2 most important functions of the basal ganaglia?

A
  1. work with the corticospinal system to plan and execute smooth movements
  2. help plan multiple parallel sequential patterns
86
Q

Which of the following diseases results in the inability to maintain postural support, and can also result in continuous spontaneous writing movements?

A. Hemiballism
B. Huntington disease
C. Chorea
D. Parkinson's disease
E. Athetosis
A

E. Athetosis

87
Q

True or False: The caudate pathway normally has an inhibitory influence on the direct putamen pathway, but this can go away in the case of Huntington’s disease

A

True

88
Q

Draw out in the direct putamen pathway

A

Yup

89
Q

Draw out the indirect, caudate pathway

A

Yup

90
Q

True or False: THe hypothalamus is one of the few brain areas who’s neurons are directly sensitive to physical and chemical variables

A

True

91
Q

What are the principal areas of the brain that affect body temperature, known collectively as anterior preoptic hypothalamus?

A

1, anterior hypothalamic nuclei

2. medial preoptic area

92
Q

What 3 neuron types does the anterior preoptic area of the of the hypothalamus contain?

A
  1. warm sensitive neurons
  2. cold sensitive neurons
  3. temperature insensitive neurons
93
Q

Which of the following neurons increases their firing rate 2-10x in response to 10’C increase in body temperature?

A. warm sensitive neurons
B. cold sensitive neurons
C. temperature insensitive neurons

A

A. warm sensitive neurons

94
Q

Warm-sensitive neurons comprise about 30% of the neuronal pool in the anterior preoptic hypothalamus and dramatically increase activity at temperatures above 37. In conjunction with this affect, warm sensitive neurons activate what 2 structures to cause what affect?

A

Warm sensitive neurons activate the paraventricular nuclei and lateral hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic outflow and dissipate heat

95
Q

Cold-sensitive neurons comprise about 5% of the neuronal pool, and drastically increase activity when the body temperature drops below 37. When this occurs, they activate what neurons to cause what affect?

A

Cold sensitive neurons target posterior hypothalamus to increase sympathetic outflow and conserve generation of heat

96
Q

Heating of the preoptic hypothalamus, is a means of activating mechanisms to reduce body heat. What 3 things immediately result when this occurs?

A
  1. dilation of skin blood vessels
  2. sweating
  3. inhibition of excess heat production
97
Q

Which of the following processes causes vasodilation of skin blood vessels?

A. Inhibition of parasympathetic system in centers in posterior hypothalamus
B. Inhibition of sympathetic centers in posterior hypothalamus
C. Inhibition of shivering and thermogenesis
D. Activation of thermogenesis

A

B. Inhibition of sympathetic centers in posterior hypothalamus

98
Q

What are the 3 main mechanisms that work to increase body heat?

A
  1. skin vasoconstriction
  2. pilorection
  3. increase in thermeogenesis
99
Q

What are the 4 means of increasing thermeogenesis?

SBTN

A
  1. shivering
  2. basal metabolic rate
  3. thyroxin secretion
  4. norepinephrine
100
Q

Which of the following is the primary motor area for shivering?

A. ventrolateral portion of posterior hypothalamus
B. dorsolateral portion of posterior hypothalamus
C. ventromedial portion of posterior hypothalamus
D. dorsomedial portion of posterior hypothalamus

A

D. dorsomedial portion of posterior hypothalamus

101
Q

What is the most potent mechanism for increasing heat production?

A

Shivering

102
Q

Shivering is normally inhibited by signals sent from the heat center in the anterior preoptic hypothalamus, but removal of this inhibition allows which of the following?

A. signals transmit into the lateral columns of spinal cord to anterior motor neurons (alpha and gamma)
B. signals transmit into the dorsal columns of the spinal cord to anterior motor neurons (alpha and gamma)
C. signals transmit into the ventral columns of spinal cord to anterior motor neurons (alpha and gamma)
D. None of the above

A

A. signals transmit into the lateral columns of spinal cord to anterior motor neurons (alpha and gamma)

103
Q

True or false: shivering may involve feedback oscillation of the muscle spindle stretch reflex

A

True

104
Q

Which of the following signals increase muscle tone of skeletal muscles throughout the body?

A. rhythmic signals
B. intermittent signalling
C. nonrhythmic signalling
D. All of the above

A

C. nonrhythmic signalling

105
Q

What is the definition of fever?

A

Body temperature above the usual range of normal

106
Q

What are the 4 main causative factors of fevers?

A
  1. brain abnormalities
  2. surgery affecting hypothalamus
  3. prostaglandins
  4. lipopolysacharride toxins
107
Q

What 2 of the following substances increase the set point temperature?

A. IL-2
B. IL-1
C. Prostaglandins
D. Aspirin

A

B. IL-1

C. Prostaglandins

108
Q

Aspirin is a substances that decreases the set point temperature in which of the following ways?

A. activate cytoclooxygenase that results in increased prostaglandin production
B. inhibit cytoclooxygenase that results in decreased prostaglandin production
C. inhibit cytoclooxygenase that results in decreased protaglandin production
D. None of the above

A

C. inhibit cytoclooxygenase that results in decreased protaglandin production

109
Q

What 2 ways can glucose be transported into tissue cells? Express which options occur in GI tract and renal vs other organs

A
  1. sodium-glucose co-transporter (occurs in GI and renal)

2. facilitated diffusion (most other organs)

110
Q

The presence of which of the following increases the amount of glucose transport?

A. glucagon
B. insulin
C. chymotrypsin
D. sodium

A

B. insulin

111
Q

The presence of which of the following increases the amount of glucose transport?

A. glucagon
B. insulin
C. calcium
D. sodium

A

B. insulin

112
Q

Which of the following hexoses are interconvertible with glucose?

A. glucose only
B. fructose only
C. galactose only
D. all hexoses are interconvertible

A

D. all hexoses are interconvertible

113
Q

When glucose is phosphorylated, it becomes trapped in the cell. What 3 organ’s cells are able to reversibly phosphorylate glucose?

A
  1. liver cells
  2. kidney (renal)
  3. intestinal cells
114
Q

Which of the following enzymes transfers a phosphate from ATP to glucose?

A. glucokinase
B. phosphorylase
C. phosphatase

A

A. glucokinase

115
Q

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the production of glucose 1 phosphate from glycogen, so that eventually glucose can be released into the blood?

A. glucokinase
B. phosphorylase
C. phosphataseh

A

B. phosphorylase

116
Q

What 2 factors can activate phosphorylase?

A

glucagon

epinephrine

117
Q

What are the 3 types of end products of glycolysis?

A

2 pyruvates
2 ATPs
4 hydrogens

118
Q

What are the 3 types of end products in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl co-A

A

2 acetyl coA
2 carbon dioxide
4 hydrogens

119
Q

What are the 3 end product types in the TCA cycle, which occurs in the mitochondria?

A

2 ATP
4 carbon dioxide molecules (2x2)
16 hydrogen molecules (8x2)

120
Q

Increased blood glucose levels can lead to what 3 bad outcomes?

A
  1. increased osmotic pressure
  2. increased urine output (osmotic diuresis)
  3. tissue and blood vessel damage
121
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

Mitochondrial cristae

122
Q

In oxidative phosphorylation hydrogen ions are removed in pairs, but what are the fates of those hydrogens

A

1 becomes an ion

1 joins NAD –> NADH

123
Q

What are 4 major components of the electron transport chain. Note 1 is located on the inner membrane and gives up 2 electrons to oxygen, specify this culprit out of the 4.

A
  1. flavoprotein
  2. iron sulfide proteins
  3. ubiquinone
  4. cytochrome A3 (cytochrome oxylase) which is located on inner membrane, and gives up 2 electrons to oxygen
124
Q

Generally describe the chemiosmotic mechanism

A

It is the generation of ATP through the movement of hydrogen ions across the mitochndrial inner to outer through the ATPase channel. The ATPase uses this natural gradient flow to energize the transformation of ADP–> ATP

125
Q

In all of the following pathways including glycolysis, TCA, and oxidative phosphorylation, 38 ATPmolecules are made per glucose molecule which yields glucose to have 66% efficiency. How many molecules of ATP are owned by each cycle?

A

Glycolysis: 2
TCA: 2
Oxidative phosphorylation: 34

126
Q

In the pentose phosphate pathway, for every 6 glucose molecules that enter, how many are resynthesized?

A

5

127
Q

Select all of the following statements that are true of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A. primarily works to synthesize glucose
B. primarily acts to synthesize fats and other substances
C. hydrogens bind to NADP in this pathway and not NAD
D. the net reaction is Glucose + 12 NADP + 6H2O 6CO2 + 12 H + 12 NADPH

A

B. primarily acts to synthesize fats and other substances (how excess glucose is treated in the liver)
C. hydrogens bind to NADP in this pathway and not NAD
D. the net reaction is Glucose + 12 NADP + 6H2O 6CO2 + 12 H + 12 NADPH

128
Q

Which of the following is high concentration triaglycerides, a moderate amount of cholesterol and phospholipids?

A. VLDL
B. LDL
C. HDL

A

A. VLDL

129
Q

Select all of the following attributes that LDLs have?

A. high concentration of cholesterol
B. high concentration of triglycerides
C. moderate concentration of phospholipids
D. high concentrations of proteins

A

A. high concentration of cholesterol

C. moderate concentration of phospholipids

130
Q

All of the following gastrointestinal hormones are stimulate for secretion by fat except?

A. gastrin
B. cholecytoskinin
C. secretin
D. gastric inhibitory peptide
E. Motilin
A

A. gastrin

131
Q

What is the order of GI hormones that would allow you to know where which one came from in the GI tract? Then express the cell type it comes from

Google Chrome Scares Grand Ma

A 
Gastrin: G
Cholecytokinin: I 
Secretin: S
Gastric inhibitory peptide: K
Motilin: M
132
Q

Which of the following hormones controls feedback on the duodenum?

A. gastrin
B. cholecytoskinin
C. secretin
D. gastric inhibitory peptide
E. Motilin
A

B. cholecytoskinin

Physiology (8 decks)

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