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Health and disease management/ Nutrition Exam Reviews > Exam one content > Flashcards

Exam one content Flashcards

Health and disease management in animals

1
Q

Bovine ( normal temperature range, gestation length, birth process name)

A

Cattle 101-102 degrees F

9 months

calves

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2
Q

equine( normal temperature range, gestation length, birth process name)

A

Horse

99.5-100.5 degrees F

11 months

foals

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3
Q

(ovine)( normal temperature range, gestation length, birth process name)

A

Sheep

101.5-103.5 degrees F

5 months

lambs

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4
Q

(caprine) ( normal temperature range, gestation length, birth process name)

A

Goat

101.5-103.5 degrees F

5 months

kids

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5
Q

porcine( normal temperature range, gestation length, birth process name)

A

swine

101.5-103.5 degrees F

almost 4 months

farrows

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6
Q

(canine)( normal temperature range, gestation length, birth process name)

A

dog

101-102 degrees F

2 months

whelps

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7
Q

feline)( normal temperature range, gestation length, birth process name)

A

cat

101-102 degrees F

2 months

queens

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8
Q

Definition of intrinsic

A

an abnormality of the body present at birth that results in disease

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9
Q

definition of extrinsic

A

something external to the body that causes disease

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10
Q

intrinsic examples list (4)

A
  • genetic defects
  • heart defects
  • hydrocephalus
  • cleft palate
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11
Q

hydrocephalus

A

fluid that didn’t circulate at ventricles due to being blocked so it is still being produced but can’t be drained.

all species can get it

causes big head in young

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12
Q

cleft palete

A

aspiration can happen during nursing causing milk to go into the lungs instead of the esophagus

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13
Q

non-living environmental causes of disease list 5

A

trauma- injury

cold- frostbite (extremities get worst bite first due to being farther away from the heart they get less circulation)

Heat- burn

chemical poisoning

nutritional deficiency

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14
Q

infectious agents that cause disease list 5

A

sub viral (prion)(ex mad cow disease)

viral

bacterial

protozoal (ex. coccidia, Giardia (in water))

parasitic

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15
Q

what is the biggest virus

A

pox virus

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16
Q

order of cell size (small to large)

A

small molecule, virus, bacterium, animal cell, plant cell

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17
Q

disease definition

A

alternation of the state of the body or some organs that interrupts or disturbs the proper performance of its functions

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18
Q

infection definition

A

the result of an infectious agent entering the animals body setting up a disturbance

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19
Q

infectious disease definition

A

a disease caused by the presence of foreign organisms (infectious agent by their presence in the body cause a disturbance leading to the development of clinical signs in animals (called symptoms in people

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20
Q

contagious disease

A

is an infectious disease that may be spread by direct or indirect contact from animal to animal

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21
Q

Fomite

A

an inanimate object that can transport infectious agents from one individual to another (feed bucket, grooming tools, shared water bottles, etc)

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22
Q

highly virulent

A

an infectious agent that will kill most of the animals ( or people) infected with it (rabies if not treated, ebola)

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23
Q

moderately/ slightly virulent

A

an infectious agent that will make animals (or people) sick but usually do not kill them

Ex:rhinoviruses (cause of the common cold), bacteria causing diarrhea

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24
Q

non or avirulent

A

an infectious agent that infects the animal without causing clinical signs

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25
Q

Etiology

A

specific cause of disease ( causative agent, infectious agent, physical event)

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26
Q

Zoonosis

A

disease that animals can spread (transmit to man)

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27
Q

necropsy

A

animal autopsy

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28
Q

gross pathology

A

examination of dead animal will the naked eye to determine abnormalities

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29
Q

histopathology

A

microscopic examination of the animal tissues to determine abnormalities at the cellular level that could indicate cause of illness

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30
Q

epidemiology

A

the study of diseases in populations (animal or human)

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31
Q

mortality

A

ratio of the total number of deaths to the total population of a community; the expected number of deaths in a specific disease outbreak

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32
Q

Morbidity

A

number of animals expected to be affected or show clinical signs in a specific disease outbreak

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33
Q

anorexia

A

lack of appetite

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34
Q

Fever know alternate name and definition

A

pyrexia

body temperature above the normal range (febrile)

causes lack of appetite

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35
Q

inflammation

A

tissue response to injury eg swelling (edema, redness, heat, pain, loss of function

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36
Q

prophylaxis

A

prevention of disease by owner or veterinarian

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37
Q

disease prevention

A

hygiene- cleanliness

disinfection (steps)

  1. removal of organic matter
  2. scrubbing and cleaning with soap or detergent
  3. rinsing with water
  4. then disinfection
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38
Q

hygiene hypothesis

A

exposure to germs early in life is critical to develop a healthy immune system (under the age of 5)

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39
Q

personal hygiene

A

-Use disposable gloves when handling animals with potentially contagious diseases.
- Do not chew on finger nails, pencils, etc. Keep hands away from the eyes, nose, mouth and other mucous membranes.
-Change clothing/boots/gloves before moving from one group of (potentially
infectious) animals to another (eg be sure you or your clothing are not acting as
fomites)
-washing hand between patients, prior to going into the barn, prior to eating…

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40
Q

what should you do before moving from one group of possibly infectious animals to another

A

change clothing before moving from one group of potentially infectious animals to another to make sure your clothing is not acting as fomite.

wash your hands

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41
Q

what should you do with new animals being brought to the farm or animals being Brought back from the farm

A

they should be separated from the other animals for at least 10-14 days to prevent the spread of disease and to make sure they are not sick

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42
Q

what 4 organ systems are responsible for the majority of drug excretion

A

kidney (through urine)

Liver (through gastrointestinal tract)

lung (through breath)

skin (through sweat)

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43
Q

What should you do to find out the route of administration of a drug?

A

read the label

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44
Q

off label use

A

a drug will prove effective for a disease that differs from the one involved in original testing and FDA approval through research

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45
Q

PO

A

Per Os (by mouth)

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46
Q

IV

A

intravenous

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47
Q

IM

A

intramuscular

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48
Q

SC

A

subcutaneous

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49
Q

IP

A

intraperitoneal (abdomen)

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50
Q

ID

A

intradermal

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51
Q

what are some other routes of drug administration

A

inhalation

intracardial

inranasal

intraarticular (inside a joint)

transdermal (through skin)

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52
Q

How long does it take for drugs given by different routes of administration to reach target tissue and have an effect? Why? compare oral, IM, and IV

A

orally has to go down the esophagus to the stomach to be broken down and absorbed by the small intestine, to the portal system, to the liver, to the bloodstream, to the whole body (which takes about 30 minutes)

intravenous is a lot faster because it is pretty much already at the target tissue due to already being in the bloodstream it will last longer and only takes about. 1 minute to take effect

intramuscular injection has to be absorbed from the injection site into the capillaries. Pretty soon it will be in general circulation and start to affect the target tissue. (takes about ten minutes)

Iv>Im>orally

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53
Q

subcutaneous injection how to do it

A

pinch skin to make a tent, pull back to make sure you did not hit a blood vessel, then administer injection

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54
Q

pinch skin to make a tent, pull back to make sure you did not hit a blood vessel, then administer injection

A

1 hand away from neck, shoulder, and a column it makes a triangle

also the but in horse underneath the muscles

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55
Q

sites for venipuncture

A

jugular veins in the neck it is critical to have a holder to hold the animal in the right position lifting there head up and holding the body of the animal still

cephalic vein (hold front leg and restrain head use thumb to roll the vein to the outside and push down firmly with thumb)

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56
Q

definition of immunology

A

study of the body’s defense against infection

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57
Q

physical barriers

A

1st line of defense skin, mucous membranes

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58
Q

innate immunity

A

nonspecific (general immune system response to any pathogen)

Non specific, no long lasting immunity
 Recruit immune cells to site of infection via cytokines (inflammation)
 Activation of the complement cascade to identify bacteria
 Promote clearance of dead cells and foreign substances
 Activate the adaptive immune system

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59
Q

specific response to a pathogen)

A

also known as adaptive immunity (very specific to individual pathogen)

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60
Q

give 3 examples of mucous membranes

A

nose lining, eye lining, lining of the mouth, lining of the intestinal tract

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61
Q

How do mucous membranes work with cilia

A

some particles get stuck in the nose, and mouth cilia beats mucus up with some particles you swallow and they go into the stomach where they get destroyed

62
Q

how long does it take for physical barriers to kick in?

A

right away

63
Q

how long does it take for innate immunity to kick in and when does it peak

A

takes minutes for it to kick in it hours to a day to peak

64
Q

how long does it take acquired immunity to kick in when first exposed?

A

takes several days it is not adequate till about 10 days

65
Q

what is evolutionary ancient and similar in a wide variety of species

A

innate immunity

66
Q

how does innate immunity work?

A

recognizes self from non self and trigger inflammatory response

67
Q

characteristics of innate immunity

A
  • inherited (born with it)
  • immediate (0-4 hours)
  • provide broad defenses against infection
  • non specific not long lasting immunity (no memory)
68
Q

phagocytic cells

A

directly ingest and destroy pathogens

  • monocytes in blood
  • macrophages in tissues
  • and neutrophils which turn to pus when they die
69
Q

natural killer cells

A

large granular lymphocytes that do not express surface marker of B and T cells

  • attack viral infected cells and cancer cells
70
Q

what does high levels of eosinophils suggest

A

parasites

71
Q

what do mast cells release

A

histamine (response to allergic reaction causes swelling)

72
Q

what cells are the bridge cells and why?

A

dendritic and macrophages because they are antigen presenting cells

73
Q

passive adaptive immunity

A

pre- made antibodies that are specific they are a gift passed down from the mom

74
Q

active adaptive immunity

A

get exposed to the virus to develop it

75
Q

definition of acquired immunity

A

-response of lymphocytes to a specific antigen

  • immunologic memory
  • body builds a specific response to a specific antigen
  • t lymphocytes cytotoxic and helper
  • b lymphocytes- produce antibodies
76
Q

how many types of antibodies can plasma cells make once activated

A

1

77
Q

what does Ig refer to

A

immunoglobulin aka antibody

78
Q

what kinds of B cells are there

A

memory cell and plasma cells which produce antibodies

during a immune response B cells undergo clonal expansion

79
Q

what are the functions of immunoglobulins (antibodies)

A
  • neutralize toxins/ viruses when antigen get covered with antibodies it can’t bind to a cell or penetrate it and damages it
  • opsonization ( coat/ covers bacteria to enhance attractiveness of foreign agent to macrophages and neutrophils, enhances clumping of antigen, activates complement, increase natural killer cell activity)

Enhances agglutination (clumping) of antigen

Activate complement

Increase natural killer cell activity

80
Q

IgM

A

first antibody produced takes about 5 days and activates complement which helps poke holes in bacteria

hard to measure

81
Q

IgG

A

most abundent

takes about ten days

opsonizes

82
Q

IgA

A

at mucosal surfaces neutralizes bacteria and viruses

83
Q

IgE

A

binds to cell membranes releases histamines in allergic reactions

84
Q

IgD

A

acts as antigen receptor on B cells

85
Q

what are the 2 ways to provoke active acquired immunity

A

infection with organism and vaccination

infection with organism creates stronger response

86
Q

species with trans placental transporting of antibodies

A

humans

monkeys

rodents

dogs

cats

87
Q

species with no transfer of antibodies

A

horse

cow

sheep

pig

goats

88
Q

what are the 3 types of passive immunity

A

natural (via trans placental transport) and colostrum

blood serum injections

antibodies produces in lab and administered to at risk animals for temporary protection

89
Q

why is colostrum beneficial?
How long does it last?

A
  • essential to species with no transplacental transfer
  • needs to be given within the first two hours
  • newborns can absorb whole antibodies from intestine to blood within the first 24-48 hours
  • give-up to 6 months of protection
90
Q

What are blood serum injections?
How long does it last?

A
  • blood from hyper immune animals (lots of antibodies)are injected into another animal
  • short term protection 2 weeks
  • can cause illness
    -not commonly used
91
Q

How does antibodies produced in the lab work?

A

-monoclonal antibodies produced by manipulation of antibodies produced by laboratory infected animals or by recombinant technologies
- isolate antibodies made by over vaccinating lab animal then purify it
- lasts a few weeks
- given orally

92
Q

why are newborns more at risk for tetanus?

A

can get it from dirt getting in through the umbilical cord. Want to make sure you put iodine around a horses umbilical cord opening so they don’t get infected. There are premade antibodies against tetanus to provide immediate protection to animals at immediate risk for tetanus exposure

93
Q

What is the goal of a vaccination

A

Expose animal to a less virulent form of the infectious agent in order to produce an active immune response that will protect the animal from later natural exposure to the virulent agent

94
Q

What is a live vaccine?

A

-hardly ever used
- strongest longest lasting response
- fully potent live agent( usually a mild strain, can cause disease, usually gives strong, long lasting immunologic reaction.

95
Q

modified live culture vaccine?

A

virulence decreased by multiple passage through different animal hosts or laboratory culture. still provokes strong immunologic response, but less likely to cause disease in recipient compared to live vaccine

96
Q

killed vaccines

A

dead organism, cannot replicate. often provokes weaker immune response, shorter lived immunity but cannot cause disease in host
- used commonly
- need to inject more since it cannot replicate

97
Q

recombinant vaccines

A

made from the immunogenic portion of the organism whose genetic code has been inserted into a laboratory vector and produced in the lab

98
Q

DNA/RNA vaccines

A

DNA/RNA of an immunogenic portion of the agent is used as the vaccinal antigen

99
Q

what are the practical considerations of vaccinating?

A

-Live and modified live vaccines contain living organisms that need to replicate in host cells to
produce immunity. Improper handling can result in killing of the agent, and inability of the agent to
multiply in the host, resulting in suboptimal immune response to the vaccine. Store these vaccines
according to manufacturers’ directions and recommendations (e.g., typically refrigerate but keep
from freezing).
- Booster doses (additional vaccine doses) are often necessary to stimulate memory response
(provoke longer lasting immunity and quick response to re-exposure )
- If young animals have passive immunity (from maternal antibody) they may not
respond to vaccination (pre-made antibodies bind to antigen, so a new
immunological response is not made).

100
Q

what are the options for vaccination if young animals have passive immunity?

A

 Can wait until passive immunity is gone to vaccinate (risky)
 Can give multiple doses of vaccine over several months to insure that at least some of
the vaccine is given at a time when passive immunity has decreased sufficiently to
allow vaccine to work (safer, but more expensive). This is what is commonly done in
veterinary practice today for puppies.
 Alternatively, can measure the levels of antibodies present to each agent (titer) but
this is even more expensive

101
Q

Standard puppy vaccinations

A

DHLPP (know components:
distemper, hepatitis,
leptospirosis, parainfluenza,
parvovirus)

102
Q

Standard kitten vaccine:

A

FVRCP
(know components: Feline viral
rhinotracheitis, calicivirus,
panleukopenia)

103
Q

What are the other common dog and cat vaccines

A

-rabies ( not given till 3-4 months years old then given every 3 years)
- feline leukemia
-k9 influenza (if at risk)

104
Q

signalment

A

about the animal ( description of the animal including species, breed, gender, and age)

105
Q

History about the illness

A

what are the key clinical signs, what organs seem to be involved, how long has it been going on, are other animals in the house sick

106
Q

what is a differential diagnosis

A

list of most likely cause of the problem no more then 5 things should have a top 3

107
Q

what are the steps of making a diagnosis?

A

-Signalment- about the animal
- History-about the illness
- Physical Exam- general and system specific if indicated
-Create Differential Diagnosis- List of most likely cause of the problem
- Use testing to rule in or rule out your differentials (most likely causes)
- If your top differentials are ruled out, look for less common causes of
the clinical signs (zebras)

108
Q

What is the definition of antigen?

A

A substance that the immune system perceives as being foreign or dangerous the body combats an antigen with the production of an antibody

109
Q

what is the definition of antibody?

A

an immunoglobulin, a specialized immune protein, produced because of the introduction of an antigen into the body, and which possesses the remarkable ability t combine with the very antigen that triggered its production

110
Q

what is an antibody titer?

A

the amount of antibodies in a volume of serum.

111
Q

A positive antibody response may be present if

A
  • the animal is currently infected with the disease agent
  • the animal has previously had the disease and has antibodies to that infection
  • the animal was previously vaccinated against that infectious agent
112
Q

what does a positive antigen test indicate?

A

it indicates the presence of the infectious agent itself in the tissue tested in that moment of time

( infectious agents are not in every tissue so you would need to know where the infection would be

113
Q

How long does it take for IgG antibodies to be measurable?

A

10+ days

114
Q

paired serology

A

paired serum samples usually 3-4 weeks apart to look for a rising titer level to indicated active infection vs previous exposure or vaccination antibody titer

115
Q

serial dilution with antibody titer

A
  • helps determine antibody concentration levels
  • the smaller fraction the more titer
116
Q

agglutination tests
What is it? and What does it test for?

A

Killed antigen is added to a sample sample (serum or milk) with antigen

able to see with naked eye if antibodies clump with antigens antibody is present in it does not clump no antibodies are present.

Test for antibodies

117
Q

Indirect immune fluorescent antibody test

A

Antigen coated wells on a special slide;
serially dilute patient serum and add to
the wells; incubate (if ab to ag present,
binding occurs), rinse off unbound ab,
apply second antibody (usually anti-
species antibody) conjugated with
fluorescent dye, rinse, look for color
(fluorescence) under microscope; the
more you can dilute out the patient
serum and still see the fluorescent
glows, the more ab is present, the
higher the titer.

118
Q

ELSIA
What is it?
What does it test?

A

tests for antibodies
- ELISA; similar theory to IFA,
uses enzymatic color
markers instead of
fluorescent, read
automatically on a plate
reader (eg more automated
procedure, faster, vs IFA)

  • There are many variations
    on the ELISA theme (Ag
    capture ELISA, for example)
  • Quantitative test (eg result is
    a titer, and indication of the
    AMOUNT of antibody
    present
119
Q

Western blot
What is it? what does it test for?

A

Antibodies

Immunoblot or Western Blot: Qualitative test

  • Detects antibodies produced against specific proteins
    (antigens) of an infectious agent

-More sensitive and specific than elisa and ifa

-Infectious agent (eg, bacteria) is separated into
individual protein components by electrophoresis, and
transferred onto nitrocellulose strips.

-Patient serum (at one single dilution) is added to the
strips, and antibodies the patient made to specific
proteins of the infectious agent will bind to that
protein.

  • After rinsing, a color reagent is added, and antibodies
    present show up as “bands” on the strip.
120
Q

What is the gold standard for antigen testing?

A

Culture 2 types (bacterial (gel plate) and viral (liquid layer of cells on bottom if dies virus is there)

121
Q

What are the limitations of culture

A
  • takes time (a day to 2 day to several weeks depending on the agent)
  • need to know the agents suspected in order to select the correct media
  • some infectious agents can’t be cultured and can only grow in the host
122
Q

Direct fluorescent antibody tests
What does it test for?
What is it?

A

tests for antigen

 Impression smear or other specimen from
patient applied to microscopic slide

 Antibodies specific to the infectious agent
(eg virus, bacteria) you wish to detect are
applied to the slide

 Antibodies will bind to the infectious agent, if
present

 A color development solution (conjugated
antibody, such as fluorocein dye) is applied
to slide, binds to attached antibodies, to
make it visible

123
Q

polymerase chain reaction
What is it?
What does it test for?

A

tests for antigens
PCR (testing for DNA or
RNA of the agent). (makes copies of it each cycle)

 Very sensitive (can pick
up very low copy
numbers of DNA or RNA

 Can be very specific
(depending on primers
chosen)

 Will detect genetic
material from live or dead
infectious agents

 Various related
techniques available

lower number of cycles needed the more antigens there were in the first place

124
Q

Where does most absorption take place

A

jejunum

125
Q

where does hay get digested in a horse?

A

digested in cecum and large intestine using microbes to break down cellulose into volatile faty acids

126
Q

how long does stuff like hay stay in the rumen

A

3-4 days

127
Q

definition of appetite

A

a natural desire to satisfy a bodily need for food

128
Q

pica

A

depraved appetite (eating something that is not food like plastic, nails, there poop)

129
Q

what is the difference between a brachydont tooth and hypsodont

A

hypsodont tooth is deep and keeps on growing

130
Q

what are the general signs of dental abnormalities in animals (4) and why

A
  • abnormal chewing (quitting could be a sharp tooth)
  • weight loss (not swallowing food if they don’t chew properly they can’t bark food up with salivary enzymes so it can’t be absorbed)
  • poor coat dull and decreased shedding (not getting proper nutrients)
  • whole grain in manure (not chewing right)
131
Q

capping

A

deciduous tooth cap sticks to the permanent tooth as it erupts messing up the alignment of top and bottom arcade

treatment- remove cap by popping it off with a flat head screw driver

132
Q

double k-9 teeth

A

permanent canine tooth comes in next to deciduous one

stuff can get stuck between teeth causing infections and cavity

treat by removing the less developed tooth

133
Q

sharp edges

A

common in horses, sheep, and goats

sharp edges on the outer surface of the upper arcade, inner surface of the lower arcade

treat by floating teeth

prevent by checking and floating teeth annually for adult horses

can cause cuts and lesions in cheek and tongue

134
Q

sheer mouth

A

extreme version of sharp edges

usually seen in sheep since they don’t get looked at often for teeth checks since a lot of people have so many of them

no chewing surface left which leads to severe weight loss

no good treatment just feed mushy food and float the teeth as much as you can

135
Q

dental fistula

A

draining tooth access

happens in horses, dogs, cats, cows, and other animals

causes a pocket of infection, walled off. bacteria/pus

treatment by removal of tooth or root canal
antibiotics will make is better but won’t cure it

136
Q

Choke

A

Foreign body gets stuck in the esophagus
EX: potatoes corn cobs, apples

137
Q

Choke in a cow

A

pathogenesis is the most serious

Needs to be full block to be life threatening

going to eat, mix in rumen 3-4 days, then burp if something is completely blocking the esophagus they can’t burp and the gas stays in the rumens pressing on everything including the aorta decreasing circulation

if cranial 1/3 of esophagus reach arm in and grab it. If distal remove via rumenotomy (making a hole in the rumen)

138
Q

What can cause choke in a dog or cat

A

marrow bone or sewing needle

139
Q

what does choke look like in horses?

A

choke is not a medical emergency for horses

usually a lump of grain blocking esophagus

diagnostic by stomach tube or endoscope treat by sedating the horse pass stomach tube or endoscope and break up grain ball by massaging don’t use oil and surgery is the last resort because the esophagus can gain a lot of scar tissue and not stretch anyone.

140
Q

choke in dogs and cats

A

clinical signs drooling, gagging, and cannot swallow

diagnosis- X-rays and endoscopy if needed X-rays only show opaque things.

Treatment removal with endoscopy if needle surgery is needed

141
Q

Gastritis/ gastroenteritis

A

infection/ inflammation of gastric mucosa or gastric and intestinal mucosa

clinical signs: vomiting (not in horses since they don’t have reverse peristalsis, diarrhea and vomiting

Etiology dog and cat: Garbage can gastroenteritis eating rotten food and dead things can also be a foreign body

treatment: withhold food or water until vomiting stops (12-24) hours then give a few tablespoons of tepid water if they keep it down add a few tablespoons of bland food (plain ground meat/ white rice) also can give peptobismol to dogs after vomiting has stopped but not cats since It has salicylates

pepto could cause black stool if stool is black without pepto could indicate bleeding in the small intestine

142
Q

Ruminant bloat ( Etiology, TX )

A

Etiology: many causes, CH overload, bad feed, toxins, choke.

visible signs: left side distention

TX: raise the front end, have them bite something like a broom handle, give anti ferments, or Antigas meds. use balling gun to give medication or bulb syringe for liquid medication

If that does not work do a trocar (makes a hole in the rumen the plastic part of canola stays on the outside and needle gets taken out) or rumenotomy to relieve the pressure should be last resort

143
Q

Hardware disease (Etiology,CS,DX,TX, Surgical, Prevention)

A

Etiology- sharp object (nail, wire…) is swallowed

pathogenesis- punctures diaphragm, pericarditis, usually occurs late pregnancy due to the baby pushing the rumen and reticulum against the diaphragm puncturing the pericardial sak infecting that area.

CS: cow reluctant to move, stands with elbows wide and feet in gutter to stand elevated, fever due to infection (decreases appetite)

DX: splashy heat sounds, grunt test (one potato 2 potato hit below reticulum if grunts then yes), jugular pulse ( the jugular is a vein which means it should not have a pulse if it has a pulse and see a ripple of blood moving back toward jugular vein

TX: antibiotics to treat the infection, elevate front end hope the infection will wall itself off.

surgical: rumenotomy, try to remove foreign body

Prevention: given magnet orally at approximately 101/2 years old make sure not to give more than one magnet if more then one they can clamp the tissue cutting off circulation. Can check if there’s a magnet by putting compass under reticulum if spins then there is a magnet.

144
Q

LDA (Left displaced abomasum) Etiology, predisposing causes, clinical signs, TX, Surgical options)

A

Etiology- usually occurs a few weeks postpartum

Predisposing causes:
- first few weeks after giving birth uterus pushes rumen up and abomasum to the left
- may be post party hypocalcemia which occurs in most dairy cows causes poor tone of smooth muscle and abomasum not contracting well this causes increased gas in the abomasum, gas rises so the abomasum rises
- post partum feeding includes increasing grain and feed which produces more gas and VFAS, gas rises

Clinical Signs / Dx
 Post partum dairy cow (usually up to a month post partum)
 Usually normal temperature
 Decreased appetite
 Decreased milk production
 Decreased rumen contractions
 Scant feces, slab sided on left
 “Ping” when auscult / percuss
 Usually secondary ketosis from anorexia
 DDx hardware dz/ indigestion

TX: -Increase roughage (decrease grain), give Carmalax (rumenatoric), Caffeine, Ca++ - may
move gas and ingesta, allowing abomasum to return to normal position: may resolve, but
often reoccurs
-Rolling Cow (LDA only!!)
Lay cow on R side, roll her up on back, rock back and forth to encourage gas filled abomasum to
rise , gently down on L. May reoccur.
- If you don’t do surgery it can reoccur.

Surgical options:
-Blind tack (sew) abomasum to ventral body wall (in normal position) (so won’t reoccur)
-Endoscopic placement of tack (exact placement of abomasal tack)

Between rumen and body wall

145
Q

RDA ( right displaced abomasum) Etiology, problem, CS, TX

A

Between intestines and body wall

Etiology- usually occurs a few weeks postpartum

Problem - Torsion (twist of abomasum, RTA) more likely with
RDA than LDA - abomasum flips on axis like hammock
decreased circulation -> shock -> death

CS - if just RDA (eg, no twist), similar to LDA, slab sided on right,
ping on right
if RTA - shocky, cold extremities, pale mm, weak, wobbly,
increased HR, very sick, often circulatory collapse and death

Tx - DO NOT ROLL RDA - may torse (twist) into RTA makes it worse

RDA - Sx to tack abomasum in place –Standing cow procedure often used

RTA - emergency Sx to untwist and tack down, shock
therapy ( fluids, etc.), antibiotics
may die

146
Q

Canine Gastric Diatation (with canine gastric volvulus (torsion/bloat))

What breeds is it common in? Etiology, pathogenesis, clinical signs, DX, TX, prevention

A

Most common in large breed deep chested dogs (Great Dane, doberman, German shepherd, etc)

Etiology: unknown some possibilities include air gulping, anatomy (pendulous stomach/ deep chest), post prandial exercise, pyloric (emptying) disfunction, swelling of food in stomach)

Pathogenesis – Dilatation only - full stomach, XS gas
production -> Bloat Dilatation / Volvulus (Torsion) - Dilatation, then stomach flips (twists) on its axis obstructing blood supply - a medical emergency -> shock -> death if not corrected quickly

Clinical signs :vomiting (repetitive) then non productive retching (dry heaves)

Clinical signs with torsion or very severe bloat: shock, bloated appearance, pale leading to brick red mucous membranes, cool extremities, increased heart rate, weakness, death ( brick red worse then pale tissues pretty much dead)

DX: clinical signs/ X-ray, try to pass stomach tube

TX:
- Intensive care, iv fluids, etc (stabilize, treat
shock)
- Try & pass stomach tube, relieve gas (if
simple dilatation)
-Surgical Tx– (many variations) can relieve
bloat by placing foley catheter into stomach
from exterior, and iv fluids to stabilize dog
prior to corrective surgery.
Then do abdominal surgery to un-torse
(untwist) the stomach, and usually
tack it down to abdominal wall to prevent
reoccurrence

prevention: feed 2 times a day smaller meals, no major exercise for 1 hour after eating, moisten food prior to feeding

147
Q

What do booster vaccines do

A

“boosters” (repeated doses of the vaccination) keep up antibody levels and
stimulate cell mediated immunity

148
Q

What does vaccination do?

A

 Injection with infectious agent with a low level of virulence to stimulate immune
response
“boosters” (repeated doses of the vaccination) keep up antibody levels and
stimulate cell mediated immunity
If immune protection already there, animal will not generally become ill when
exposed to the disease
** Vaccination must occur prior to exposure (exception= rabies vaccination (later
in course))

149
Q

What is a antibody

A

An immunoglobulin, a specialized immune protein, produced because of the
introduction of an antigen into the body, and which possesses the remarkable ability to
combine with the very antigen that triggered its production.
 The production of antibodies is a major function of the immune system and is carried out
by a type of white blood cell called a B cell (B lymphocyte). Antibodies can be
triggered by and directed at foreign proteins, microorganisms, or toxins. Some
antibodies are autoantibodies and home in against our own tissues.

150
Q

gingivitis

A

 Gum infection (bacterial), often secondary to tartar buildup
 CS: red, swollen inflamed gums, bad breath; common in
dogs
 TX: Clean teeth, antibiotics (veterinarian), to eliminate
infection
 Prevention: routine dental cleaning, dental chews, hard
food

Health and disease management/ Nutrition Exam Reviews (6 decks)

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