Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

In the anatomical position, the ulna is _______ to the radius?

A

medial

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2
Q

A special form of care for clients who have terminal illnesses is called?

A

hospice care

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3
Q

Which chamber of the heart has the thickest wall?

A

Left Ventricle

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4
Q

What is the medical term for cartilage?

A

connective tissue

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5
Q

What is the most common type of massage performed by an RMT?

A

Swedish massage

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6
Q

A strain is an injury to which body part?

A

muscle

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7
Q

A sprain is an injury to which body part?

A

ligaments

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8
Q

What is the name of the fluid that lubricates a joint, like oil in your car engine?

A

synovial fluid

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9
Q

What is the medical term for muscle?

A

myo

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10
Q

The agonist muscle for shoulder abduction is the deltoid muscle. Which is the antagonist muscle?

A

Latissimus Dorsi

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11
Q

An EKG represents a recording of ___________ in the heart

A

electromagnetic pulses

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12
Q

Which blood type is known as the Universal Donor because they can donate blood to all other types?

A

O-

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13
Q

What is the name of the medical insignia that originated from the symbol of a snake?

A

Cadeuces

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14
Q

Define a sprain

A

tear in the ligament

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15
Q

Define Jaundice

A

the yellowing of the skin

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16
Q

Define a concussion

A

due to the impact of the head

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17
Q

Define halitosis

A

bad breath

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18
Q

Define Anaphylaxis

A

airway is constricted from an allergic reaction

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19
Q

Define Cirrhosis

A

as a result of alcohol or hepatitis is a chronic disease of the liver

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20
Q

Define ulcers

A

open sores in the lining of the GI tract

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21
Q

Define emphysema

A

hardening of an area of the lung after the rupture of alveoli. reduces surface area for gas exchange

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22
Q

Define arteriosclerosis

A

thickening and hardening of the walls of the arteries

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23
Q

Define a stroke

A

CVA, clot in the brain

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24
Q

Define osteoarthritis

A

degeneration of joint cartilage and the underlying bones, due to age

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25
Q

define ALS

A

Lou Gehrigs involves the death of neurons. Nerve cells die and leave voluntary muscles paralyzed.

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26
Q

define Osteoporosis

A

weakening of the bone, less bone density

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27
Q

Define aneurysm

A

bulging of arterial walls

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28
Q

define asthma

A

constricting of the bronchioles resulting in difficulty breathing

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29
Q

Which quadrant is the appendix in?

A

Right Lower Quadrant

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30
Q

Which view point is the front view?

A

frontal plane

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31
Q

which view point is the side view?

A

sagittal plane

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32
Q

Which point of view is front above of below?

A

transverse plane

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33
Q

The hands are _____ to the elbow

A

distal

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34
Q

The head is ______ to the chest

A

superior

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35
Q

The knee is ____ to the ankle

A

proximal

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36
Q

The ring finger is _____ to the thumb

A

medial

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37
Q

The toes are ______ to the heel

A

anterior

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38
Q

The ribs are ____ to the heart

A

superficial

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39
Q

The belly button is ______ to the chin

A

inferior

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40
Q

The ears are ______ or _______ to the nose

A

lateral or posterior

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41
Q

The shoulder is ______ to the breast bone

A

lateral

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42
Q

The forehead is ________ to the chin

A

superior

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43
Q

The elbow is _____ to the shoulder

A

distal

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44
Q

The elbow is _____ to the hand

A

proximal

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45
Q

The head is ______ to the chest

A

superior

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46
Q

The ribs are _______ to the heart

A

superficial

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47
Q

The ankle is ______ to the knee

A

distal

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48
Q

The ears are ______ to the nose

A

lateral

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49
Q

The ring finger is ______ to the thumb

A

medial

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50
Q

What are the 5 types of medical jobs?

A

Therapeutic, Diagnostic, health information services, support services and biotechnology research and development (TDSBS)

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51
Q

name 5 of the 8 types of health care facilities

A

Long term care, Practitioners Office, Clinic, Laboratories, EMS, home health care, rehabilitation, and hospice (LPCLEHRH- long pools can let Erica hop right home)

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52
Q

Define long term care

A

provide care to people who need nursing or other health care services on regular basis

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53
Q

Define practitioners office

A

physicans, nurse practitioners and physician assistants provide examination and diagnosis for both acute and sudden illnesses as well as chronic or long term illnesses

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54
Q

define clinic

A

various practitioners may share office space and support staff in a clinic

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55
Q

Define labratories

A

perform tests on blood and other body fluids to assist physicians or other practitioners in making diagnosis

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56
Q

define EMS

A

extend emergency care from ER of a hospital into the community

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57
Q

Define home health care

A

care is provided in the home for short term periods after hospitalization or for longer periods for clients who have chronic diseases or disabilities

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58
Q

define rehabilitation

A

help clients regain physical or mental abilities or teach them how to live with disabilities

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59
Q

define hospice care

A

special form of care for clients who have terminal illnesses. The goal is to give support to clients whoa re near death.

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60
Q

What does the following represent: Dx

A

diagnosis

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61
Q

What does the following represent: COPD

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, is an inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructive airflow from the lungs

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62
Q

What does the following represent: Fx

A

fracture

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63
Q

What does the following represent: Bx

A

biopsy

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64
Q

What does the following represent: Tx

A

treatment

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65
Q

What does the following represent: SOB

A

short of breath

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66
Q

What does the following represent: Vs

A

vital signs

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67
Q

What does the following represent: Rx

A

prescription

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68
Q

What does the following represent: q4h

A

4 times an hour

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69
Q

What does the following represent: qd

A

every day

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70
Q

What does the following represent:q.i.d

A

4 times/ day

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71
Q

What does the following represent: bid.

A

twice a day

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72
Q

What does the following represent: CXR

A

chest x-ray

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73
Q

What does the following represent: stat.

A

immediatly

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74
Q

What does the following represent: MI

A

Myocardial Infarction

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75
Q

What does the following represent: BP

A

blood pressure

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76
Q

What does the following represent: P

A

pulse

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77
Q

What does the following represent: IV

A

intravenous

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78
Q

What does the following represent: CVA

A

stroke

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79
Q

What does the following represent: Myo

A

muscle

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80
Q

What does the following represent: Arthro/

A

joint

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81
Q

What does the following represent:hyper

A

excessive/ above

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82
Q

What does the following represent: hypo

A

deficient/ below

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83
Q

What does the following represent: ox/o

A

ox/o

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84
Q

define paralysis

A

the loss of movement and sensation in part of thebody

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85
Q

define hemiplegia

A

paralysis on the lower half of the body

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86
Q

define quadriplegia

A

paralysis from the neck down

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87
Q

define CNS

A

central nervous system

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88
Q

what are the components of the CNS

A

brain and spinal cord

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89
Q

what is the central nervous system

A

this is the control center which recieves and interprets all stimuli and sens nerve impulses

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90
Q

define efferent or motor neurons

A

which send impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles or glands

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91
Q

define afferent or sensory neurons

A

which carry impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS

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92
Q

define interneuron

A

which carry and process sensory inofmation

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93
Q

define the nervous system

A

directs the function of all the human body

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94
Q

describe a fracture that is complex

A

separation of part of the bone and usually requires surgery to be repared

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95
Q

describe a fracture that is complete

A

2 parts

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96
Q

describe a fracture that is incomplete

A

incomplete break of bone, usually to a child’s soft bone

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97
Q

describe a fracture that is comminuted

A

break in which the bone is fragmented or shattered

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98
Q

describe a fracture that is simple

A

also known as a hairline fracture or a crack. does not move bone out of place

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99
Q

describe a fracture that is compound

A

break with an open would

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100
Q

describe a fracture that is colles

A

lower end of the radius, usually caused by falling and landing on a outstretched hand (results in a bulge in the wrist.

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101
Q

describe a fracture that is impacted

A

fragment from one part of a fracture is driven into the tissue of another part. In the skull it is called a depression fracture

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102
Q

define arthritis

A

a disease characterized by the inflammation of joints

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103
Q

define osteoporosis

A

a medical condition in which the bones become brittle and fragile from loss of tissue, typically as a result of hormonal changes, or deficiency of calcium or vitamin D or smoking

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104
Q

define immovable joints

A

sutures between bones of the skull

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105
Q

define slightly movable joints

A

distal articulation between the tibia and fibula

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106
Q

define freely movable joints

A

joints like the shoulder, elbow that take intentional movements

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107
Q

what is another name for a freely moving joint

A

synovial joints

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108
Q

What are the components of a joint

A
ligaments (bone to bone)
cartilage (cushion to make things soft)
synovial fluid (oil in an engine)
articulating bones
(SLAC)
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109
Q

What is the bone on the knee called?

A

patella

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110
Q

where is the fibula on the leg

A

lateral to knee

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111
Q

what are the ligaments of the knee?

A

LCL (lateral collateral ligament)
ACL (anterior cruciate ligament)
MCL (medial collateral ligament)

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112
Q

Is it easier to injure your MCL or LCL

A

MCL

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113
Q

what is the name of the cartilage in the knee

A

meniscus

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114
Q

What is the function of the discs between each vertebrae?

A

cushion the vertebrae and help in the movement and flexibility of the spinal column

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115
Q

What are the parts of the spine?

A

cervical vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, and coccyx

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116
Q

How many vertebrae are in the cervical section

A

7

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117
Q

How many vertebrae are in the thoracic section

A

12

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118
Q

How many vertebrae are in the lumbar section

A

5

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119
Q

How many vertebrae are in the sacrum section

A

5 that fuse in early childhood

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120
Q

How many vertebrae are in the coccyx section

A

the tail bone, fused of 4 bones

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121
Q

what are the three bones in the bottom of the spine?

A

pelvis, sacrum and coccyx

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122
Q

list 2 benefits of massage

A

offsets stress for client, and lowers client heart rate and blood pressure

123
Q

What two locations would you place a pillow while giving a basic back massage

A

under the ankles, under the abdomen.

124
Q

Name 3 types of massages

A

Swedish massage, neuro-muscular massage, shiatsu and reiki

125
Q

whats the difference between a reiki massage and a shiatsu

A

shiatsu uses pressure of median points to balance energy and reiki uses touch

126
Q

define and state the use of a sphygomomanometer

A

measure blood pressure, tighten to check for pressure

127
Q

define and state the use of goiniometer

A

check the range of motion after an injury and compare it to a good limb

128
Q

define and state the use of a spirometer

A

a small instrument used for measuring capacity of the lung

129
Q

define and state the use of a reflex hammer

A

to test deep tendon reflexes in a neurological or physical examination

130
Q

What is mastication

A

the process by which food is crush and ground teeth and is the 1st step in the digestive process

131
Q

What is the main function of the mouth

A

chewing breaks the food down into digestible pieces while saliva begins the breakdown

132
Q

What is the main function of the esophogus

A

to carry food, liquids and saliva from the mouth to the stomach

133
Q

What is the main function of the stomach

A

turns food to mix with gastric juice for breakdown in order to extract nutrients

134
Q

What is the main function of the small intestine

A

absorption of nutrients and minerals from food (90% of digestion)

135
Q

how long is the small intestine?

A

6 meters

136
Q

how long is the large intestine

A

1.5 meters

137
Q

how long does chime take to travel through the small intestine

A

6-8 hours

138
Q

How long does waste sit in the large intestine before being released?

A

24-36 hours

139
Q

What is the main function of the large intestine

A

absorb water from the remaining indigestible food and transmit useless waste

140
Q

What is the main function of the liver/gallbladder

A

liver makes bile that is used to break down fatty foods as well as filter blood of bacteria. the gallbladder then stores the bile made by the liver until it is needed

141
Q

What is the main function of the pancrease

A

has a base that can neutralize acid, then the pancreatic juice meets with the bile and comes into the duodenum through the common bile duct.

142
Q

what is the mechanics of the inhalation of breathing

A

diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and increases volume of the chest and lowers the pressure, and the air travels from high pressure to low pressure

143
Q

What is the mechanics of the exhalation of breathing

A

diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and create a higher pressure environment with a decreasing volume and the air travels from high pressure to low pressure out of the body

144
Q

define auscultation

A

to listen with a stethoscope for normal and abnormal lung sounds

145
Q

give three examples of respiratory diagnostics

A
Arterial Blood Gas Analysis (ABG)
Pulmonary Function Test
Pulse oximetery
Auscultation
capnography
146
Q

Give three examples of auscultation abnormal sounds

A

rales, rhonchi, wheezes, stridor

147
Q

Define rales

A

crackles produced by vibration of fluids within the bronchi or lungs

148
Q

define rhonchi

A

course, gurgling; best heard over bronchi and trachea on expiration

149
Q

define wheezes

A

are squeaky, high-pitched sound usually on expiration

150
Q

define stridor

A

harsh, high-pitched sound on both inspiration and expiration; may be heard without stethoscope; may indicate life threatening situation

151
Q

give some examples of respiratory therapies

A

oxygen therapy, Aersol therapy, hyperventilation therapy, chest physical therapy, suctioning and mechanical ventilation

152
Q

What are some risks from smoking?

A

lung caner, emphysema, osteoporosis, aortic aneurysm, coronary heart disease (heart attacks)

153
Q

what are some risks of smoking for females?

A

cancer of the cervix, menstrual problems, fertility problems and miscarriages

154
Q

what are some risks of smoking for males?

A

erectile dysfunction and fertility problems

155
Q

what are three ways to protect your respiratory system?

A

don’t smoke, stay hydrated, have a CO detector, good nutrition, and exercise for your immune and cardiovascular systems

156
Q

define hyperglycemia

A

too much insulin and not enough sugur

157
Q

define hypoglycemia

A

too much sugar, not enough insulin

158
Q

What can you look for on a diabetic to indicate

A

medic alert bracelet

159
Q

If in doubt with a diabetic, what do you treat them as?

A

give them something sugary anyway, as it will relieve low blood sugar and won’t do harm in case of high blood sugar- hyperglycemic

160
Q

what does RICE stand for?

A

Rest, Immobilize, Cold, Elevate

161
Q

define hypoxia

A

deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues

162
Q

What is mild hypothermia?

A

shivering, speech slurred

163
Q

What is moderate hypothermia?

A

violent shivering, breathing shallow, clumsy, stumbling, confused, sleepy

164
Q

What is severe hypothermia?

A

shivering stops, breathing slow, absent, loss of consciousness

165
Q

How do you do first aid for hypothermia?

A
  1. cover exposed skin (head is covered, adjust clothes to stay out of wind)
  2. move casualty out of the cold
  3. loosen tight clothes and replace warm clothes
  4. maintain breathing. Prepare to begin CPR and call for help
166
Q

How do you do first aid for Heat Cramps or Heat exhaustion?

A

get casually out of heat, remove excess clothing and loosen tight clothing, give water to drink, maintain breathing

167
Q

What are the symptoms of heat cramps?

A

painful middle cramps, usually is legs or abdomen and excessive sweating

168
Q

What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?

A

dizziness, blurred vision, signs of shock

169
Q

what are the symptoms of heat stroke?

A

casualty is hot to the touch, breathing is noisy, vomiting, convulsions and unconsiousness

170
Q

How do you do first aid for heat stroke?

A

immerse in cool water up to chin, cover with wet sheets, get medical help as well as all the first aid for heat cramps and heat exhaustion

171
Q

What are the causes of seizures?

A

head or brain injury, brain infection, stroke, drug overdose, high fever in infants and children

172
Q

describe what is happening to the lungs during an asthma attack

A

swelling, spasms and secretion of fluid in the bronchi

173
Q

what is the saying for an epipen

A

blue to the sky, orange to the thigh

174
Q

What is a myocardial infarction (MI)

A

heart attack

175
Q

What is a CVA

A

cerebral vascular accident (stroke)

176
Q

symptoms of an MI

A

women: back and jaw pain
men: chest and arm pain
colour change, light headed, sweat, cool/clammy, faint/unconscious, fatigue, nausea and denial

177
Q

symptoms of CVA

A

F-face (smile off)
A- arms (arm drift)
S- slurred speech (repeat a simple sentenced)
T- time (blurred vision, dizzy and smells burnt toast)

178
Q

What do you tell a patient to chew when you suspect a heart attack?

A

asprin

179
Q

What are the signs of shock?

A

pale skin, rapid, shallow breaths, weak, rapid pulse, changed in level of consiousness

180
Q

What the symptoms of shcok

A

restlessness, confusion, anxiety, thirst, nausea and vomiting

181
Q

What are the steps to casualty management?

A

Scene survey
Primary Survey
Secondary Survey
Ongoing care

182
Q

What is done in a scene survey?

A

insure safety, what happened, get consent and assess responsivness

183
Q

what is done in a primary survey?

A

ABCs

184
Q

what is done in the steps in a secondary survey?

A

history of incident
vital signs
head-to-toe examination
first aid for injuries and illnesses found

185
Q

what is the acronoym and what does it stand for in the history of a patient in a secondary survey?

A
S-ymptoms
A-llergies (especially to medications)
M- edications (taken or not in the last 24 hours)
P- ast and present medical history
L- ast meal
E- events leading to the incident
186
Q

what is checked in the vital signs in first aid?

A

level of consciousnesses
breathing (rate, rhythm and depth)
pulse (radial- rate per min, rhythm and strength)
skin condition (colour, moist or dry, hot or cold)

187
Q

What could some bone and joint injuries be?

A

connective tissue - tendons, ligaments (sprain)
muscles (strain)
bones (Fx., dislocate)
Cartilage

188
Q

what is the agonist and antagonist of elbow flexion

A

agonist: biceps brachi
Antagonist: triceps brachi

189
Q

what is the agonist and antagonist of should abduction

A

agonist: deltoid
antagonist: latissimus dorsi

190
Q

what is the agonist and antagonist of knee extension

A

agonist: rectus femoris
antagonist: biceps femoris

191
Q

what is the agonist and antagonist of dorsiflexion

A

agonist: tibialis anterior
antagonist: gastrocnemius/soleus

192
Q

what is the agonist and antagonist of spinal flexion

A

agonist: rectus abdominus
Antagonist: erector spinae

193
Q

what is the agonist and antagonist of hipflexion

A

agonist: rectus femoris
antagonist: gluteus maximus

194
Q

define concentric muscle contraction

A

the action where the muscle is shortening while generating force (shorter), raising biceps in curl

195
Q

define eccentric muscle contraction

A

the muscle elongates due to an opposing force being greater than the force generated (longer), lowering biceps in curl

196
Q

define scoliosis

A

S-like curvature of the spine

197
Q

define lordosis

A

also known as sway back (lower)

198
Q

define kyphosis

A

can appear to have a hunch back in this condition (upper)

199
Q

define isometric

A

contraction of the muscle without movement (like lifting a box)

200
Q

define isotonic

A

bringing a muscle through its entire range of motion

201
Q

define isokinetic

A

using a machine to provide constant resistance during ROM (machine)

202
Q

define reiki massage

A

massage that uses touch to balance the client’s energy

203
Q

3 recommendations to help prevent osteoporosis?

A

eat a healthy diet that is calcium and vitamin D rich, do lots of weight bearing exercise, live a generally healthy life-style (don’t smoke, don’t drink excessive amounts of alcohol)

204
Q

List functions of the skeletal system?

A

give framework to the body, used as levers to help lift things

205
Q

List functions of the muscular system

A

used to move body parts and lift, and to support organs

206
Q

what is the term for muscle?

A

myo

207
Q

What are the 4 steps to physiotherapy?

A
  1. Reduce pain and inflammation
  2. Increase range of motion (ROM)
  3. strengthen muscles around the injury
  4. advanced training
    RISA - real injuries strengthen all
208
Q

What is put in soap notes, what does each stand for?

A

S - subjective
O - objective
A - assessment
P - plan

209
Q

What goes in the S section of SOAP notes?

A

what the patient tells you, how the patient appears, the patients response to questions about their current condition, and the history of the incident

210
Q

What goes in the O section of SOAP notes?

A

the DATA that you obtain: vital signs, fluid balance (I/O), physical exam (include ventilator settings), lab/xray findings, any measurments

211
Q

What goes in the A section of SOAP notes?

A

list all the patient’s active then the chronic stable problems. On all active problems, make a comment as to whether the problem is stable, improved or worsening as well as Diabetes mellitus - uncontrolled, CHF (congestive heart failure) - improving

212
Q

What goes in the P section of SOAP notes?

A

the daily plan for the patient if hospitalized or your overall plan in a clinic situation. This includes the diagnostic workup (labs, x rays, and tests), consultations with specialists, prescription medications, other prescribed treatment (physical therapy of counselling) or a return visit.

213
Q

What are the vital signs recorded in the O section.

A

T - P - R - BP (the pretty rhinos buy pizza)

214
Q

What is normal blood pressure?

A

systolic 100-140mmHg / diastolic 60-90 mmHg

prehypertensive- 120-139mmHg/80-89mmHg

215
Q

When do you report to your supervisor while charting?

A

VS results fall outside normal range for the client, or is significantly different from previous result

216
Q

What is normal range for human body temperature?

A

36-38 celcius

217
Q

What is the normal range of respiration per minute

A

12-20

218
Q

What is assessed while watching respirations?

A

Rate, rhythm and quality

219
Q

What is normal pulse rates?

A

72-80 bpms

220
Q

What is assessed while taking pulse rate?

A

Volume, rate, rhythm, bilateral presence

221
Q

What is different about physiotherapy SOAP notes?

A

O- ROM measurements, girth measurments
A- treatment of patient (ultrasound, muscle stim to the calf and some rubber tubing exercises
P- plan eg. return 2x a week for 6 weeks

222
Q

What are the different types of muscle tissue?

A

skeletal muscle tissue, cardiac muscle tissue, and smooth muscle tissue

223
Q

define skeletal muscle tissue

A

voluntary muscle tissues attached primarily to bones to move parts of the skeleton

224
Q

define cardiac muscle tissue

A

involuntary muscle tissue that forms most of the heart

225
Q

define smooth muscle tissue

A

involuntary muscle tissues that surround the internal organs, for example blood vessels and the digestive tract

226
Q

What are the functions of muscles?

A
  1. producing motion
  2. moving substances within the body
  3. provides stabilization
  4. generates heart (thermogenesis)
227
Q

What is an average heart beat?

A

60-100 bpm

228
Q

what is the main function of the circulatory system?

A

transport materials throughout the entire body, including nutrients, water and oxygen and carries away waster such as CO2.

229
Q

What are the 3 layers of heart tissue?

A

Epicardium (outer layer)
Endocardium (inner layer)
Myocardium (middle layer)

230
Q

What is the function of the heart valves?

A

prevent backward flow of blood

231
Q

Whats the difference between arteries and veins?

A

arteries carry blood away from the heart, veins carry blood back to the heart.

232
Q

What are the names of the 4 heart chambers?

A

Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle

233
Q

Which 2 chambers to the heart are oxygen rich?

A

Left Atrium and Left Ventricle

234
Q

Which 2 chambers to the heart are oxygen poor?

A

Right atrium and right ventricle

235
Q

What are the specific names of the 3 blood vessels that deliver to the heart?

A

superior vena cava, inferior vena cava and pulmonary vein

236
Q

What are the specific names of the 2 blood vessels that deliver blood out of the heart?

A

pulmonary artery, aorta

237
Q

How does blood go from the vena cava and back out?

A

superior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, left pulmonary artery, arterioles, capillary and lung for oxygen, venules, left pulmonary vein, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve and aorta

238
Q

How many litres of blood does the average adult have

A

4-6 litres

239
Q

what is the hematocrit?

A

ratio of the amount of blood cells to the total volume of blood

240
Q

What is the function of RBCs

A

primarily to carry oxygen and carbon dioxide out of the body

241
Q

What are the 4 blood types?

A

A, B, AB and O. + or -

242
Q

define systemic circulation

A

carries blood away from the heart to the body and deoxygenated blood back to the heart

243
Q

define pulmonary circulation

A

carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart to the lungs and returns the oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

244
Q

define coronary circulation

A

circulation of blood in the blood vessels of the heart muscles (myocardium) Coronary arteries deliver oxygenated blood to the myocardium and cardiac veins remove deoxygenated blood from the heart

245
Q

trace a red blood cell from the elbow to the thigh

A

cephalic vein, axillary vein, subclavian vein, superior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, descending aorta, iliac artery

246
Q

what does CAD stand for?

A

coronary artery disease

247
Q

List 4 risk factors for CAD and whether it is controllable

A

family history (uncontrollable)
high chlorestral level (controllable)
obesity (controllable)
lack of physical exercise (controllable)

248
Q

symptoms of a heart a heart attack

A

hypertension, high pulse rate, respiration, BP, stiffness in neck or jaw, pale, colour change, light headed, fatigue and nausea

249
Q

define pulse

A

wave of blood created by the contraction of the heart

250
Q

Name 5 common pulse sites and describe their location

A

temporal,carotid, apical (apex of heart), brachial (bend of elbow), radial, femoral (top of thigh just below hip), Popliteal (directly behind the knee), posterial tibial (back and inside of ankle), dorsal pedis (top medial part of the foot)

251
Q

what is the word for low blood pressure?

A

hypotension

252
Q

blood pressure can be obtained from any _____

A

artery

253
Q

What letters are used to represent an EKG wave

A

PQRST

254
Q

Normal sinus rhythm:

A

60-100 bpm

255
Q

Sinus Bradycardia:

A

less than 60 bpm

256
Q

Sinus Tachycardia

A

more than 100 bpm

257
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation

A

no pulse, rapid uncoordinated activation of ventricles from multiple sites

258
Q

What is one large box on an EKG

A

1 seconds

259
Q

Name the spread of the excitation

A
SA node
AV node
Bundle of His
Bundle Branches
Purkinje Fibres
(SABBP)
260
Q

What does the T wave represent on an EKG

A

repolarization

261
Q

What does the P wave represent on an EKG

A

atria contract

262
Q

What are two things to watch for while reading an EKG

A

frequency and rhythm

263
Q

define hypertension

A

high blood pressure

264
Q

define pericarditis

A

inflammation of the membrane around the heart

265
Q

define aneurysm

A

a bulge in the wall of one of the arteries

266
Q

define Leukemia

A

cancer of the blood

267
Q

define Anemia

A

low iron and hemoglobin in the blood

268
Q

Trace a red blood cell from the thigh to the thumb side of the wrist

A

femoral vein, iliac vein, inferior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, subclavian artery, axillary artery, brachial artery, radial artery

269
Q

What is contained in the blood?

A

RBCs
WBCs
Platlets
Plasma

270
Q

What is the primary function of WBC

A

primary function is to protect the body against infectious diseases and foreign invaders

271
Q

What is the normal colour of plasma? WHat might cause plasma to turn milky

A

straw yellow in colour normally but high level of lipids in there blood could cause it to change colour

272
Q

What are platelets?

A

are fragments that break off from large cells in the red bone marrow, they live for about 10 days and help in blood clotting. Stick to damaged tissues and to eachother and group together to control the blood loss from a blood vessel

273
Q

What is the universal blood type?

A

O

274
Q

What can A blood go into?

A

A or AB

275
Q

What can B blood go into?

A

B or AB

276
Q

Negative blood can go into _______

A

positive blood

277
Q

how do you measure or calculate HR

A

measure for a certain period of time then multiple by the number of times the given time would need to be to reach 60. eg 20 x 3 = 60 so 24 found in 20 seconds would be 24 x 3 = 72

278
Q

what is used to measure blood pressure?

A

sphygmomanometer

279
Q

whatare the types of sphygmomanometers

A

mercury, aneroid and electronic

280
Q

most convenient spots for measuring BP are…

A

brachial, popliteal, radial and posterial tibial

281
Q

what does sphygmomanometer mean?

A

measuring the pressure of pulse

282
Q

on the brachial location describe the taking of pulse

A

on the medial side of the arm, it will pump until pulse disappears before slowly releasing and measuring its first pulse on return

283
Q

what are the 6 factors of the chain of infection

A
  1. susceptible host
  2. infectious agent
  3. reservoir
  4. portal of exit
  5. mode of transmission
  6. portal of entry
284
Q

what are the signs of infection

A
  1. redness
  2. swelling
  3. tenderness
  4. warmth
  5. drainage
285
Q

What is included in infection control?

A

prevention, surveillance and management

:)

286
Q

what are microorganisms

A

tiny animals or plants found everywhere

287
Q

what is a pathogen

A

a small number of microbes that have the ability to cause disease

288
Q

What are 5 factors that influence microbial growth?

A
  1. a warm temperature
  2. a proper pH level
  3. A source of food
  4. moisture
  5. oxygen
289
Q

What are the 4 major types of microbes

A

Bacteria, fungi, protozoa, viruses

290
Q

What is infection?

A

Infections occur when pathogens are able to increase in numbers or colonize in a host and thereby alter the function or normal tissues and/organisms of the host

291
Q

briefly describe the following part of the chain of infection: infectious agent

A

microbes/pathogens multiply and become virulent (or harmful)

292
Q

briefly describe the following part of the chain of infection: reservoir

A

A place where the proper conditions exist for pathogens to grow. Reservoirs may be humans, animals, pods of water or insects

293
Q

what are the proper conditions of a reservoir in the chain of infection

A

moist, food source, oxygen

294
Q

What are 8 things to do for a bleeding elbow

A
  1. get consent
  2. put gloves on, rest and apply pressure
  3. expose the wound
  4. clean around the wound with gauze (clean grave with gauze or with tweezers)
  5. antiseptic or alcohol wipes to clean
  6. cover with dressing
  7. hold dressing in place with a bandage
  8. check circulation
295
Q

what is proper body mechanics for picking up a box?

A
  • bend with the knees
  • back straight
  • head up
  • tight core
  • object close to body
  • use leg muscles
  • lead with the feet
296
Q

where would you send someone for a back injury?

A

chiropractor, physiotherapy, x-ray, RMT

297
Q

if someone has thrown out their back where do you suspect there is an injury?

A

pinched nerve, bone, disk, muscle injry

298
Q

What is the primary function of the respiratory system?

A

contract muscles muscles to breath in oxygen and relax them to inhale carbon dioxide as well as put oxygen in the blood to be brought around the codyt

299
Q

Do the muscles contract of relax to breath in?

A

contract

300
Q

what does auscultation refer to?

A

refers to using a stethoscope to listen to normal and abnormal breath sounds

301
Q

List 4 adverse effects of tobacco use?

A
  1. lung cancer
  2. emphysema
  3. osteoporosis
  4. aortic aneurism
302
Q

describe the signs and symptoms of emphysema

A

whezzing, short of breath, barrel chest look, ABG (for less oxygen), CXR and decreased lung volume

303
Q

What is the treatment for emphysema?

A

antibiotics, puffers and long term oxygen therapy

304
Q

what are the risk factors of emphysema?

A

smoking, age and exposure to secondhand smoke