EXAM REVISION

Question 1

You would expect to find the highest gas velocity in a turbojet engine -
A) At the face of the compressor
B) Leaving the diffuser
C) Entering the turbine
D) At the end of the exhaust nozzle

Answer 1

D) At the end of the exhaust nozzle

Question 2

The purpose of a diffuser in a gas turbine engine is to -
A) Lower pressure and lower temperature
B) Raise pressure and lower velocity
C) Raise pressure and raise velocity
D) Raise density and lower temperature

Answer 2

B) Raise pressure and lower velocity

Question 3

The correct statement regarding the variations of MSL full throttle thrust of a jet engine is -
A) Thrust increases as air temperature increases
B) Thrust decreases as air temperature increases
C) Thrust increases as humidity increases
D) Thrust increases as air pressure decreases

Answer 3

B) Thrust decreases as air temperature increases

Question 4

You would expect to find the highest gas pressure in the turbojet engine?
A) In the diffuser
B) In the beginning of the jet pipe
C) In the last stage of the turbine
D) at the inlet of the compressor

Answer 4

A) In the diffuser

Question 5

You would expect to find the highest gas temperature in the turbojet engine -
A) In the jet pipe
B) At the end of the compressor
C) In the combustion chamber
D) At the last stage of the turbine

Answer 5

C) In the combustion chamber

Question 6

The ‘engine core’ of the turbofan refers to
A) The fan
B) the compressor, combustion chambers, turbines and exhaust
C) the n1 spool
D) the accessory drive shaft

Answer 6

B) the compressor, combustion chambers, turbines and exhaust

Question 7

The maximum thrust output of a turbojet engine will increase with -
A) A decrease in ambient temperature
B) a decrease in ambient air pressure
C) a decrease in ambient air density
D) an increase in ambient air temperature

Answer 7

A) A decrease in ambient temperature

Question 8

The effect an increase in altitude alone will have on the low pressure compressor of a gas turbine engine if constant thrust in maintained is
A) It will stall more readily
B) discharge pressure will increase
C) RPM will decrease
D) RPM will increase

Answer 8

D) RPM will increase

Question 9

A pure turbojet engine in comparison to a turbofan engine has -
A) A bypass ratio less than 1:1
B) A bypass ratio more than 1:1
C) no bypass air
D) a reduction gearbox for the compressor

Answer 9

C) no bypass air

Question 10

Subsonic gas flow decreases in velocity and increases in pressure when flowing through
A) A convergent duct
B) A divergent duct
C) a parallel duct
D A helical duct

Answer 10

B) A divergent duct

Question 11

RAM effect
A) Has a negligible effect on the efficiency of a jet engine
B) lowers the efficiency of a jet engine as the aircraft speed increases
C) raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
D) Cools the air entering the engine intake

Answer 11

C) raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases

Question 12

In passing through the turbine section of a pure turbojet engine
A) Gas pressure, velocity, and temp all decrease
B) Gas pressure increases, velocity falls and temperature increases
C) gas pressure remains constant and temp increases
D) gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temp decreases

Answer 12

D) gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temp decreases

Question 13

‘Tertiary creep’ is
A) Blade creep experienced on the test bench by the manufacturer
B) normal blade creep over the life of the engine
C) blade creep where it would be detrimental to continue to run the engine

Answer 13

C) blade creep where it would be detrimental to continue to run the engine

Question 14

Gas turbine engine compressor stall may be caused by
A) Prolonged group running with air intake guard screens fitted
B) An unserviceable igniter plug
C) An unstable airflow through the compressor

Answer 14

C) An unstable airflow through the compressor

Question 15

The maximum gas pressure in the gas turbine is obtained
A) in the cooling airflow around the flame tube
B) within the combustion chamber
C) at the entry to the exhaust unit
D) at the compressor exit

Answer 15

D) at the compressor exit

Question 16

For a given RPM thrust output from a gas turbine engine will be greatest
A) At MSL under ISA conditions
B) at high altitude
C) at MSL under ISA plus conditions

Answer 16

A) At MSL under ISA conditions

Question 17

If compressor blade stall occurs in a turbine engine
A) the compressor ceases to rotate
B) the smooth flow of air over the blading breaks away and causes an interruption of airflow through the engines
C) the fuel flow to the burners ceases immediately

Answer 17

B) the smooth flow of air over the blading breaks away and causes an interruption of airflow through the engines

Question 18

The purpose of variable inlet guide vanes in a gas turbine engine is to
A) Prevent turbine blade stall at high engine rpm
B) Prevent compressor blade stall during operation off design RPM
C) prevent ice entering the engine
D) prevent excessive cooling due to large mass air flow through the engine

Answer 18

B) Prevent compressor blade stall during operation off design RPM

Question 19

Turbojet aircraft range increases as altitude increases toward the optimum FL because at high altitude
A) The decrease in mass airflow permits an increased fuel/air ratio
B) the higher ambient temp results in a greater pressure rise through the engine
C) The engine can operate at design RPM to maintain an efficient wind angle of attack

Answer 19

C) The engine can operate at design RPM to maintain an efficient wind angle of attack

Question 20

The use of bleed air from a gas turbine engine compressor for anti icing equipment will result in -
A) an increase in the gas temperature, reduced thrust and increase in SFC
B) an increase in thrust since less air will be mixed with fuel in the combustion chambers
C) in increase in RPM and decrease in gas temp

Answer 20

A) an increase in the gas temperature, reduced thrust and increase in SFC

Question 21

Maximum gas pressure in a gas turbine engine is found -
A) between the final compressor stage and the inlet to the combustion chamber
B) in the exhaust unit
C) at the downstream end of the combustion chamber
D) at the turbine entry point

Answer 21

A) between the final compressor stage and the inlet to the combustion chamber

Question 22

The main reason for a limit on the maximum gas temperature in a gas turbine engine is-
A) To prevent overheating of the turbine
B) to provent buckling
C) to prevent burning of thermocouples
D) to prevent thermal runaway

Answer 22

A) To prevent overheating of the turbine

Question 23

Burning fuel in the combustion chambers of a gas turbine engine is necessary to -
A) Raise the pressure and reduce the velocity of the gas
B) increase the density and reduce the temp of the gases
C) Increase the volume and velocity of the gasses

Answer 23

C) Increase the volume and velocity of the gasses

Question 24

On leaving the compressor in a gas turbine the air passes through
A) Nozzles designed to increase velocity of the air
B) Divergent ducts which lower the velocity and raise the pressure of the air
C) special passages with drop the pressure of the air

Answer 24

B) Divergent ducts which lower the velocity and raise the pressure of the air

Question 25

To reduce fuel tank condensation overnight -
A) Leave the fuel filler caps off
B) leave the min amount as possible
C) leave as full as possible
D) fill the tank airspace with carbon dioxide

Answer 25

C) leave as full as possible

Question 26

In a free turbine turboprop engine the propeller is driven by-
A) both the HP and LP turbine
B) the front HP turbine
C) The rear LP turbine

Answer 26

C) The rear LP turbine

Question 27

The action which should be taken if a gas turbine compressor begins to stall during start
A) open the throttle watch the RPM increase to optimum range
B) close the throttle manually operate bleed valves
C) shut off the fuel supply and maintain starter motor rotation

Answer 27

C) shut off the fuel supply and maintain starter motor rotation

Question 28

The term Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC) means -
A) Units of fuel used per unit of thrust per hour
B) the actual amount of fuel per shaft horsepower developed
C) amount of fuel used in a specific engine RPM rage
D) distance travelled per unit of fuel

Answer 28

A) Units of fuel used per unit of thrust per hour

Question 29

Some turbojet engine turbine blades shrouded at the tips to
A) prevent blade tips rubbing against the shroud ring on expansion
B) prevent gas leaking past blade tips, increase rigidity and reduce vibration
C) prevent hot gasses distorting the turbine blades

Answer 29

B) prevent gas leaking past blade tips, increase rigidity and reduce vibration

Question 30

The fuel flow in a jet engine increases, thrust increases because exhaust gas -
A) temp increases
B) pressure increases
C) volume increases
D) velocity increases

Answer 30

D) velocity increases

Question 31

The times the surge bleed valve is open and closed during normal gas turbine engine operation are
A) Open from idling to nearly design RPM, then closed up to max RPM
B) closed from idling to nearly design RPM, then opened to max rpm
C) open over entire RPM range unless compressor stall occurs

Answer 31

A) Open from idling to nearly design RPM, then closed up to max RPM

At low power settings without the surge bleed valve the compressors would be providing too high volume of compressed air than the combustor could process.

The excess air is bled off the compressor either into the atmosphere or back into the engine inlet.

If the excess air is not bled off than the compressor would surge. The engine is sucking in air it can’t use.

Question 32

The propulsive efficiency of a turboprop decreases with an increase in speed because
A) of compressibility effects on the blades
B) slipstream losses increase
C) blade interference increases
D) blade angle of attack becomes too great

Answer 32

A) of compressibility effects on the blades

Question 33

The gas turbine (Brayton) cycle is called an open or continuous cycle because
A) All events are occurring at the same time
B) the engine is open from the end to end
C) the cycle can stop and start at any time
D) there are no limits to the size of the cycle

Answer 33

A) All events are occurring at the same time

Question 34

A modest increase in speed in a slow flying jet aircraft leads to a small initial decrease in max thrust available because
A) of intake choking
B) combustion chamber back pressure increasing
C) ram pressure decreasing
D) the difference between exhaust and intake velocities is reduced

Answer 34

D) the difference between exhaust and intake velocities is reduced

Question 35

Pressure through the combustion chambers in a gas turbine engine
A) Rises steadily
B) is constant or falls slightly
C) Rises initially and then steadily falls
D) falls initially and then steadily rises

Answer 35

B) is constant or falls slightly

Question 36

EPR Engine pressure ratio is the ratio of -
A) engine compressor inlet pressure to propelling nozzle pressure
B) engine compressor outlet pressure to jet pipe pressure
C) engine compressor discharge pressure to turbine discharge pressure
D) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure

Answer 36

D) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure

Question 37

When climbing in a jet engine aircraft the engine parameter which would stay constant if the thrust lever setting remained unchanged would be
A) RPM
B) EPR
C) EGT
D) torque

Answer 37

A) RPM

Question 38

Thrust is produced in a jet engine by
A) reaction to impingement of exhaust gases on the outside atmosphere
B) reaction to the pressure difference between exhaust and intake air pressures
C) the force required to accelerate a mass of air through the engine
D) reaction to the temperature difference between compressor and turbines

Answer 38

C) the force required to accelerate a mass of air through the engine

Question 39

Fuel boost pumps in a jet aircraft system are usually located in the
A) accessory housing
B) fuel control unit
C) fuel manifold
D) fuel tanks

Answer 39

D) fuel tanks

Question 41

Comparing a swept wing aircraft and a straight wing aircraft both with an increasing angle of attack

A)
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
B)
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a greater lift increase
C)
the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a greater lift increase
D)
the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a lesser lift increase

Answer 41

A)
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase

Question 42

An aircraft is flying with its CG at the forward limit.

Compared with flying the aircraft at it’s aft limit, the induced drag is -

1
greater
2
lesser
3
the same
4
independent of the gross weight

Answer 42

1
greater

Question 43

Reverse thrust is not used at low forward aircraft speed because -

1
of excessive vibration
2
it is too effective at low speeds
3
hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects
4
it is a waste of fuel

Answer 43

3
hot or turbulent air can lead to engine damage through the ingestion of foreign objects

Question 44

In a turboprop powered aircraft, the pilot controls the engine power output in flight -

1
by direct CSU control
2
by varying the fuel flow via the fuel control unit
3
by increasing prop RPM
4
by varying the prop blade angle directly

Answer 44

2
by varying the fuel flow via the fuel control unit

Question 45

The combination of flight director/autopilot modes not selectable together is -

1
HDG SEL and V/S
2
HDG SEL and ALT HOLD
3
HDG HOLD and LOC
4
HDG SEL and HDG HOLD

Answer 45

4
HDG SEL and HDG HOLD

Question 46

The least advisable combination of autopilot/flight director modes is -

1
to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot on
2
to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot on
3
to fly with the flight director on and the autopilot off
4
to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off

Answer 46

4
to fly with the flight director off and the autopilot off

Question 47

The autothrottle and flight director are engaged and the autopilot is off during cruise. ALT HOLD is the pitch mode. SPD is the autothrottle mode.

In this case -

1
the system is inoperable
2
the autothrottle will adjust thrust to hold a steady IAS while the flight director command bars command pitch to hold the reference altitude
3
the flight director will not engage in this situation
4
the flight director command bars will be hidden in this situation

Answer 47

2
the autothrottle will adjust thrust to hold a steady IAS while the flight director command bars command pitch to hold the reference altitude

Question 48

The F/O is flying an aircraft equipped with 3 autopilots in cruise.

The autopilot/s to engage are -

1
R or C only
2
L and R
3
C and R
4
L, C and R

Answer 48

1
R or C only

Question 49

Blocker doors in a turbofan engine reverse thrust system are used to divert the -

1
cooling air
2
cold stream
3
hot stream
4
bleed air

Answer 49

2
cold stream

Question 50

Concerning the effect of increasing altitude on the spiral stability of a particular aircraft -

1
spiral stability increases with increase in altitude
2
spiral stability decreases with increase in altitude
3
spiral stability remains the same with increase in altitude
4
spiral stability only changes with changing CG position

Answer 50

1
spiral stability increases with increase in altitude

Question 51

A B767 aircraft is in cruise with the L autopilot engaged and the FMC is commanding the autopilot with LNAV and VNAV engaged. The autothrottle is engaged in SPEED mode.

If the pilot wished to fly the aircraft manually and deselected the autothrottle, FMC, and autopilot, the correct statement concerning the IAS/MACH speed selector and display window is -

1
the window would be blanked
2
the window would show the FMC flight plan speed and could not be changed unless VNAV was again selected
3
the window would show the current speed and could only be changed by entering the new speed on the CDU
4
the window would show the speed at the time VNAV was deselected and could be used to control the command airspeed bug on the ASI

Answer 51

4
the window would show the speed at the time VNAV was deselected and could be used to control the command airspeed bug on the ASI

Question 52

The purpose of the interconnectors between the combustion chambers in a gas turbine engine is -

1
to provide pressure equalisation and consistent fuel propagation
2
to provide pressure equalisation and flame propagation
3
to provide temperature equalisation and flame propagation
4
to provide temperature equalisation and consistent fuel propagation

Answer 52

2
to provide pressure equalisation and flame propagation

Question 53

In an aircraft with powered flight controls, the component which is always part of the system is -

1
artificial feel
2
manual reversion
3
hydraulics
4
pneumatics

Answer 53

1
artificial feel

Question 54

The purpose of a restrictor valve in the undercarriage hydraulic system of a large aircraft is -

1
to prevent the undercarriage from extending past the stop position and to hold the undercarriage in the up position when pressure is removed from the system
2
to limit the maximum PSI in the system
3
to prevent hammering in the lines
4
limit the speed of operation of the system and prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension

Answer 54

4
limit the speed of operation of the system and prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension

Question 55

In a large jet transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks could cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling manoeuvres.

This is prevented by -

1
high speed fuel pumps
2
baffles in the fuel tanks
3
fuel orifices
4
flying the aircraft in balance during all stages of flight

Answer 55

2
baffles in the fuel tanks

Question 56

On the CDU of an FMC some pages contain lines for data entry by the crew to programme the FMC for the flight under the prevailing conditions of weather and gross weight.

Concerning the entry of data into the CDU -

1
data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by boxes on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by dashed lines
2
data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by dashed lines on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by boxes
3
all crew data inputs to the FMC are mandatory for the computation of flight plan performance
4
the FMC is able to perform all functions without any crew data inputs, however data input by crew members will enhance FMC flight performance efficiency

Answer 56

1
data which is required to be entered as mandatory information for the operation of the FMC is indicated by boxes on the corresponding line on the CDU screen, while data which is optional but not essential for FMC computations is indicated by dashed lines

Question 57

The approximate percentage of the mass airflow through a gas turbine engine entering the combustion chamber through the front entry section is -

1
10%
2
15%
3
20%
4
50%

Answer 57

3
20%

Question 58

In a TCAS II equipped aircraft the pilot has the option of selecting either the Traffic Advisory (TA)/ Resolution Advisory (RA) mode or Traffic Advisory (TA) only mode of operation.

With the TA only mode selected, RA’s will -

1
only be available for other TCAS I equipped aircraft
2
be inhibited and appear as TA’s
3
be displayed as in RA mode
4
only be available for other non transponder equipped aircraft

Answer 58

2
be inhibited and appear as TA’s

Question 59

When a sweptwing aircraft suffers a wingtip stall, the centre of pressure moves -

1
inwards and forward
2
outwards and aft
3
inwards and backwards
4
outwards and forwards

Answer 59

1
inwards and forward

Question 60

In steady asymmetric flight in a light twin piston engined aircraft -

1
the slip indicator (ball) must be centred with rudder
2
zero bank at zero sideslip is possible
3
bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine
4
bank is used to balance the drag of the dead engine

Answer 60

3
bank and rudder are normally used to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine

Question 61

If wing sweepback is increased for the same wing area, wing section and aspect ratio, for a given angle of attack -

1
lift coefficient will decrease, drag will increase
2
lift coefficient will increase, drag will decrease
3
lift coefficient and drag will both increase
4
lift coefficient and drag will both decrease

Answer 61

4
lift coefficient and drag will both decrease

Question 62

As the speed of a large jet transport aircraft increases from the stall speed flaps up to the maximum allowable cruise speed, the power required to fly straight and level will -

1
increase
2
decrease
3
increase then decrease
4
decrease then increase

Answer 62

4
decrease then increase

Question 63

On the typical EHSI display, the vertical deviation indicator shows variation from the profile during a descent.

When the cursor reaches the extreme bottom end of the scale the aircraft is -

1
400 ft above the profile
2
400 ft below the profile
3
1000 ft above the profile
4
1000 ft below the profile

Answer 63

1
400 ft above the profile

Question 64

A typical flight control system uses 3 separate and independent hydraulic systems to power flight controls. If all functions are normal the system/s which power the pilot controls are -

1
all systems at all times
2
one system at a time
3
two systems at all times
4
the system with highest pressure
5
the system with highest accumulator pressure

Answer 64

1
all systems at all times

Question 65

As an aircraft gross weight decreases during cruise -

1
the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude increases
2
the available speed range decreases, and drift down altitude decreases
3
the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude decreases
4
the available speed range decreases, and drift down altitude increases

Answer 65

1
the available speed range increases, and drift down altitude increases

Question 66

In order to be able to provide the desired pressure schedule in pressurised aircraft, the ranges the cabin pressure control system operates in are the -

1
isobaric and differential range
2
positive and differential range
3
negative and differential range
4
negative and positive range
5
isobaric and negative range

Answer 66

1
isobaric and differential range

Question 67

The factor most significantly affecting the cockpit cut off angle is -

1
the pilot’s eye position and seat height
2
the instrumentation placement
3
the pilot’s posture
4
VREF

Answer 67

1
the pilot’s eye position and seat height

Question 68

cockpit voice recorder provides a record of the -

1
captain’s radio transmissions between take off and landing
2
captain’s and first officer’s radio calls and cockpit dialogue with engines running
3
flight crew’s voices and radio transmissions from ATC
4
sounds on the flight deck including voices when power is supplied to the cockpit

Answer 68

4
sounds on the flight deck including voices when power is supplied to the cockpit

Question 69

A digital flight data recorder provides a record of -

1
airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude information and ADC data
2
control positions, airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data
3
airspeed, altitude, heading, and cockpit voices
4
airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude, ADC data, and cockpit voices

Answer 69

2
control positions, airframe configuration, engine parameters, attitude and ADC data

Question 70

Large fast high flying jet transport aircraft use flight spoilers for -

1
pitch control
2
altitude control
3
yaw control
4
roll control

Answer 70

4
roll control

Question 71

If the SPD annunciator on the EADI changes to a blank display while on an ILS, accompanied by an aural warning, the likely cause is -

1
autopilot disengagement
2
autothrottle disengagement
3
vertical navigation mode disengagement
4
lateral navigation mode disengagement

Answer 71

2
autothrottle disengagement

Question 72

A fly by wire system of control as used on the latest generation of jet transport aircraft uses -

1
electrical signals and wires in place of linkages and cables to connect the control surface actuating rams to the flight deck controls
2
wire cables instead of solid linkages to provide manual reversion capability
3
a combination of electrical signals and mechanical linkages to move the control surfaces
4
single power actuating units on all control surfaces and does not need manual reversion capability

Answer 72

1
electrical signals and wires in place of linkages and cables to connect the control surface actuating rams to the flight deck controls

Question 73

When configured for take off, the command speed bug on the airspeed indicator and speed tape on the EADI is referenced to -

1
V1
2
VREF
3
VR
4
V2

Answer 73

4
V2

Question 74

Hydraulic fluid pumps are lubricated and cooled by -

1
turbine oil
2
hydraulic fluid
3
air
4
turbine fuel

Answer 74

2
hydraulic fluid

Question 75

In an axial flow compressor, the blades experiencing the greatest air loads are -

1
the stators
2
the large front rotors
3
the small rear rotors
4
the inlet guide vanes

Answer 75

3
the small rear rotors

Question 76

A problem associated with NICAD aircraft batteries is -

1
low current at the end of the charge cycle
2
thermal runaway
3
acid spillage
4
low storage capacity

Answer 76

2
thermal runaway

Question 77

An aircraft in level flight with a relatively forward centre of gravity, compared to a rear centre of gravity will have -

1
more induced drag

2
less induced drag
3
reduced longitudinal stability
4
more parasite drag

Answer 77

1
more induced drag

Question 78

An advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal flow compressor in a gas turbine engine is -

1
shorter length
2
higher compression ratio
3
more resistant to foreign object damage
4
cheaper to manufacture

Answer 78

2
higher compression ratio

Question 79

Large transport category aircraft are often fitted with several artificial devices to provide protection against various undesirable flight characteristics. The yaw damper is one such device designed to prevent the development of uncommanded yaw at high altitude and speed by automatic rudder input controlled by a gyro stabilised feedback system. There are two main types of yaw dampers in common use today, the parallel type and the series type.

The statement which correctly describes the difference between these two types of yaw damper is -

1
the parallel type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The series type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
2
the parallel type yaw damper operates in parallel with the autopilot’s or pilot’s rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The series type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight
3
the series type yaw damper uses two independent circuits to provide redundancy and both circuits operate simultaneously in normal operation. The parallel type yaw damper uses one circuit at a time with manual switching required to activate the backup in the event of a failure
4
the series type yaw damper operates in series with the autopilot’s or pilot’s rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The parallel type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight

Answer 79

2
the parallel type yaw damper operates in parallel with the autopilot’s or pilot’s rudder inputs and so the pedals move when the yaw damper operates. This increases rudder loads and this type must be switched off for take off and landing. The series type operates without moving the pedals and may be used during all stages of flight

Question 80

For a turbojet aircraft flying at a particular altitude at a constant power lever setting, an increase in air density will result in -

1
an increase in thrust and a decrease in fuel flow
2
an increase in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
3
a decrease in thrust and an increase in fuel flow
4
a decrease in thrust and a decrease in fuel flow

Answer 80

2
an increase in thrust and an increase in fuel flow

Question 81

The stall speed of an aircraft at a particular gross weight will be highest with -

1
a rearward centre of gravity
2
a forward centre of gravity
3
low altitude
4
power on

Answer 81

2
a forward centre of gravity

Question 82

The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to -

1
gradually open the throttle to richen the mixture and cool the combustion temperatures
2
open the bleed valves to increase the mass air flow through the compressor
3
motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off
4
close the bleed valves to decrease mass flow through the compressor

Answer 82

3
motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off

Question 83

Bleed air for thermal ice protection on a modern jet transport aircraft should be used -

1
continuously in icing conditions
2
for short periods cyclically in icing conditions
3
for long periods cyclically in icing conditions
4
continuously in all phases of flight

Answer 83

1
continuously in icing conditions

Question 84

The function of a pressure relief valve in an aircraft pneumatic system is to -

1
prevent pump cavitation
2
prevent seals from blowing
3
preserve accumulator pressure
4
ensure pump supply at all times

Answer 84

2
prevent seals from blowing

Question 85

The least important factor in determining aircraft tyre hydroplaning risk is -

1
tyre pressure
2
tyre size
3
tyre tread pattern
4
tyre wear

Answer 85

2
tyre size

Question 86

The function of the follow up linkage in the nose wheel landing gear system of a jet transport category aircraft is -

1
to prevent nose wheel shimmy
2
to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle
3
to stop tyre scuffing
4
to permit the tiller to turn the nose wheel

Answer 86

2
to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle

Question 87

A method of reducing the engine air bleed load in an air cycle airconditioning system of a jet transport aircraft is to -

1
increase the vapour pressure
2
recirculate the air
3
lower the cabin temperature
4
lower the cabin altitude

Answer 87

2
recirculate the air

Question 88

The function of a reverse current relay in a jet aircraft electrical system is to -

1
isolate the generator in the event of reverse current flow
2
deenergise the generator field
3
reverse the current flow direction
4
permit current to flow in the reverse direction

Answer 88

1
isolate the generator in the event of reverse current flow

Question 89

The main difference between blocker type and clamshell type engine thrust reversers is -

1
none, both operate to reverse the fan air
2
none, both operate to reverse the engine air
3
blockers reverse fan air and clamshells reverse engine air
4
blockers reverse engine air and clamshells reverse fan air

Answer 89

3
blockers reverse fan air and clamshells reverse engine air

Question 90

In a gas turbine engine at engine design RPM -

1
an OAT decrease leads to thrust decrease
2
an OAT increase leads to thrust increase
3
an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease
4
humidity increase leads to thrust increase

Answer 90

3
an OAT increase leads to thrust decrease

Question 91

jet flying a the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for -

1
angle of climb and endurance
2
angle of climb and range
3
rate of climb and range
4
rate of climb and endurance

Answer 91

1
angle of climb and endurance

Question 92

jet flying a the appropriate speed for max L/D will achieve best performance for -

1
angle of climb and endurance
2
angle of climb and range
3
rate of climb and range
4
rate of climb and endurance

Answer 92

1
angle of climb and endurance

Question 93

The variable most directly affecting aircraft hydroplaning speed is -

1
tyre pressure
2
aircraft weight
3
runway surface
4
tyre width

Answer 93

1
tyre pressure

Question 94

The variable most directly affecting aircraft hydroplaning speed is -

1
tyre pressure
2
aircraft weight
3
runway surface
4
tyre width

Answer 94

1
tyre pressure

Question 95

VMCA of a twin engine turbo prop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be -

1
most forward
2
mid range
3
CP position
4
most rearward

Answer 95

4
Most rearward

Question 96

VMCA of a twin engine turbo prop aircraft is determined on control after engine failure under a number of conditions, one of which is CG position which shall be -

1
most forward
2
mid range
3
CP position
4
most rearward

Answer 96

4

most rearward

Question 97

Concerning the operation of autobrakes set at level 2 -

1
if the pilot applies any brake pressure during the landing, the autobrakes will disarm
2
if the pilot exceeds autobrake 2 pressure, the autobrakes will disarm, if the pilot applies less than autobrake 2 pressure, the system will supply autobrake 2 pressure
3
if the pilot applies any brake pressure during landing the system will continue to supply autobrake 2 pressure
4
the autobrake system may only be disconnected manually once armed

Answer 97

1
if the pilot applies any brake pressure during the landing, the autobrakes will disarm

Question 98

On a B767 EHSI display, either a full or expanded compass scale is available in -

1
Plan and Map
2
VOR (NAV) and ILS
3
Plan and VOR (NAV)
4
Map and ILS

Answer 98

2
VOR (NAV) and ILS

Question 99

Regarding the relationship between the different components of the Flight Management System (FMS) -

1
each component is dependent on the other system components for its operation and cannot operate in isolation
2
each component is independent of other system components and can be used separately or in conjunction with the other system components
3
the flight director must be engaged for any other system component to operate
4
the autopilot must be engaged for any other system component to operate

Answer 99

2
each component is independent of other system components and can be used separately or in conjunction with the other system components

Question 100

The ‘ram ratio’ in a gas turbine engine is defined as the ratio of -

1
total pressure to dynamic pressure in the compressor
2
total pressure to static pressure in the compressor
3
total pressure to dynamic pressure at the air intake
4
total pressure to static pressure at the air intake

Answer 100

4
total pressure to static pressure at the air intake

Question 101

If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicated (sensed) quantity, the system will -

1
automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations
2
automatically use the lower value for subsequent navigational computations
3
alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message
4
recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity

Answer 101

3
alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message

Question 102

Advantages of a tricycle undercarriage configuration include -

1
greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies
2
the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies, better rough strip capability, less drag
3
higher descent rates during approach and landing, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies
4
lower landing speeds, better rough strip capability, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies

Answer 102

1
greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies

Question 103

The component used for converting 28 volts DC to 115 VAC at 400 Hz in large modern jet transport category aircraft is -

1
the static rectifier
2
the static (fullwave) inverter
3
the rotary inverter
4
the transformer-rectifier (TR)

Answer 103

2
the static (fullwave) inverter

Question 104

A flap load relief system (flap limiter) on a large jet aircraft operates whenever -

1
the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded
2
the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever moving automatically and staying at the new setting
3
the flap load limit is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps staying at the new setting
4
the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded

Answer 104

4
the flap limit speed is exceeded and the flaps retract one stage automatically with the flap lever not moving and the flaps returning to the commanded position once the limit is no longer being exceeded

Question 105

The main hazards associated with undissolved water in the fuel system of a turbine powered aircraft are -

1
corrosion, lowered specific gravity and microbial infestation
2
corrosion, ice crystal formation and microbial infestation
3
static build up, lowered specific gravity and corrosion
4
excess weight, lowered specific gravity and microbial infestation

Answer 105

2
corrosion, ice crystal formation and microbial infestation

Question 106

The freezing point of Jet A-1 fuel is closest to -

1
-20 degrees C
2
-30 degrees C
3
-40 degrees C
4
-50 degrees C

Answer 106

4
-50 degrees C

Question 107

Advantages of air spray nozzles in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine compared to conventional fuel nozzles include -

1
reduced carbon build up, cleaner combustion, and more even mixture distribution
2
cooler combustion temperatures and leaner mixtures
3
better flame stabilisation and better cooling
4
hotter combustion temperatures and leaner mixtures

Answer 107

1
reduced carbon build up, cleaner combustion, and more even mixture distribution

Question 108

High energy capacitor discharge igniter plugs as used in the ignition system of a gas turbine engine are used to provide -

1
a hot (high value) spark at high voltage
2
a cool (low value) spark at low voltage
3
a hot (high value) spark at low voltage
4
a cool (low value) spark at high voltage

Answer 108

1
a hot (high value) spark at high voltage

Question 109

In a modern turbo-prop powered aircraft the power lever is used to control -

1
pitch and torque in the Beta range
2
pitch only in the reverse thrust range
3
pitch and torque in the normal flight (Alpha) range
4
pitch and torque in all operating ranges

Answer 109

1
pitch and torque in the Beta range

Question 110

With respect to yaw damper operation in an aircraft with two independent yaw dampers, which are used in all flight conditions -

1
only one yaw damper operates at any one time with the other available as a backup with the rudder pedals moving as the yaw damper inputs are made
2
both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and do not cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
3
both systems operate when desired to improve lateral stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made
4
both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made

Answer 110

2
both systems operate continuously to improve directional stability and do not cause the rudder pedals to move as inputs are made

Question 111

The principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design is -

1
an increase in M CRIT
2
an increase in the changes of the size of the force coefficients due to compressibility
3
an acceleration of the onset of compressibility effects
4
a decrease in M CRIT

Answer 111

1
an increase in M CRIT

Question 112

As altitude increases towards the aircraft’s maximum cruising flight level -

1
the low speed buffet boundary approaches the high speed buffet boundary and the available speed range decreases significantly
2
aircraft manoeuvre capability is increased
3
increased pitch stability and Dutch Roll may become evident
4
the low speed buffet boundary approaches the high speed buffet boundary and the available speed range increases significantly

Answer 112

1
the low speed buffet boundary approaches the high speed buffet boundary and the available speed range decreases significantly

Question 113

A variable incidence tailplane with stabiliser trim, as an alternative to a conventional elevator with trim -

1
is required to cope with high altitude and high gross weights
2
can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim
3
has very limited control authority
4
reduces residual control forces

Answer 113

2
can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim

Question 114

In high speed flight, aileron effectiveness may be reduced because of shock wave formation near the ailerons or wing twisting.

To overcome these problems, most jet airliners incorporate -

1
powered flight controls
2
spoilers to assist roll control
3
automatic coupling of rudder with aileron input
4
a moderate degree of sweepback

Answer 114

2
spoilers to assist roll control

Question 115

As an aircraft Mach Number increases from subsonic, through M 1.0 to low supersonic speeds, the drag coefficient of the aircraft -

1
increases steadily
2
decreases steadily
3
remains approximately constant
4
increases, then decreases

Answer 115

increases, then decreases

Question 116

If the Angle of Attack is increased on a swept wing compared with an unswept wing of similar area and aspect ratio, the swept wing will produce -

1
less lift and more drag
2
less lift and less drag
3
more lift and more drag
4
more lift and less drag

Answer 116

1
less lift and more drag

Question 117

The last minute addition of 1000 kg of fuel to a large transport category aircraft before take off will most seriously affect -

1
the take off distance required
2
the climb speed
3
the cruise altitude
4
the landing distance available

Answer 117

1
the take off distance required

Question 118

Powered control systems require an artificial feel system to simulate air loads as feedback for the pilot.

A common system uses ‘q’ feel, which means control feel feedback is a function of -

1
airspeed
2
control input force
3
centre of pressure movement
4
control input speed

Answer 118

1
airspeed

Question 119

On a conventional Machmeter/ASI (MASI), a masked Mach speed display indicates that -

1
the instrument has failed
2
the data from the CADC is unreliable
3
the Mach number is below M 0.6
4
the power supply to the instrument has been interrupted

Answer 119

2
the data from the CADC is unreliable

Question 120

On a conventional attitude indicator, the fast/slow indicator opposite the glideslope deviation indicator shows the current speed as fast or slow relative to -

1
V1
2
VREF
3
the command bug speed
4
V2

Answer 120

3
the command bug speed

Question 121

The formula: nine times the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI gives the -

1
maximum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second
2
minimum speed for hydroplaning in knots
3
maximum speed for hydroplaning in knots
4
minimum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second

Answer 121

2
minimum speed for hydroplaning in knots

Question 122

The unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on a large jet transport will activate when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff and an incorrect selection is made on the -
1
flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes
2
flaps, elevator trim, brakes or flight director
3
spoilers, stabiliser trim or GPWS
4
EADI, EHSI, autothrottle or stabiliser trim

Answer 122

1
flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim or brakes

Question 123

The TCAS system fitted to the modern jet transport category of aircraft is able to provide two main types of messages to alert crew to the presence of traffic in the area. These messages are traffic advisories (TA’s) and resolution advisories (RA’s).

The statement correctly listing the differences between TA’s and RA’s is -

1
traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
2
traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
3
resolution advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced
4
resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced

Answer 123

1
traffic advisories provide about 40 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path alteration. Resolution advisories provide about 25 seconds notice to crew about traffic which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb or descent at a minimum rate will be announced

Question 124

Modern airline aircraft have tubeless tyres fitted with fusible alloy plugs. The function of the plugs is to provide -

1
an emergency plug for a puncture inflicted on landing
2
pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat -
3
termperature cooling during conditions of excessive tyre heat
4
indication of excessive hard braking during landing
5
allow heat to escape without deflating the tyre

Answer 124

2
pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat -

Question 125

Concerning the operation of the ground proximity warning system -

1
a hard warning is not always preceded by a soft warning
2
a soft warning is always followed by a hard warning
3
all modes provide both hard and soft warnings
4
all modes provide hard warnings

Answer 125

1
a hard warning is not always preceded by a soft warning

Question 126

The purpose of a divergent passage in a gas turbine engine is to -

1
raise velocity, lower pressure and lower temperature
2
lower velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature
3
lower velocity, lower pressure and lower temperature
4
raise velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature

Answer 126

2
lower velocity, raise pressure and raise temperature

Question 127

The main reason for the combustion of fuel in a gas turbine engine is -

1
to raise gas pressure
2
to raise gas temperature
3
to raise gas velocity
4
to raise gas density

Answer 127

3
to raise gas velocity

Question 128

The main advantage of kerosene compared to wide cut type fuel for use in a gas turbine engine is that kerosene has a relatively -

1
lower volatility and higher flash point
2
lower flash point and lower volatility
3
higher volatility and lower flash point
4
higher flash point and higher volatility

Answer 128

1
lower volatility and higher flash point

Question 129

A swept wing stalls at a higher speed than an equivalent unswept wing due to -

1
increased spanwise flow
2
decreased spanwise flow
3
increased chordwise flow
4
increased CL Max

Answer 129

1
increased spanwise flow

Question 130

In order to delay flow separation on an aerofoil at the stall, the characteristics of the boundary layer should ideally be -

1
laminar due to the reduced surface friction
2
turbulent due to the increased surface friction
3
laminar due to the minimum boundary layer depth
4
turbulent due to the higher velocities at the wing surface

Answer 130

4
turbulent due to the higher velocities at the wing surface

Question 131

In an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management Computer (FMC), a holding pattern programmed into the FMC LNAV active route will command the holding pattern track taking account of -

1
the wind in the CASA wind model
2
the forecast wind
3
the actual wind
4
nil wind

Answer 131

3
the actual wind

Question 132

The power response of a turbojet engine compared to a turboprop at various RPM settings is -

1
faster at high RPM
2
faster at both high and low RPM
3
slower at high RPM
4
slower at low RPM

Answer 132

4
slower at low RPM

Question 133

In event of total generator failure in the electrical system of a modern jet transport aircraft, the component which supplies AC power is -

1
the TRU
2
the voltage regulator
3
the rotary inverter
4
the full wave inverter

Answer 133

4
the full wave inverter

Question 134

The input not used by the autothrottle system of a large jet transport category aircraft is -

1
N1
2
EGT
3
INS
4
AIR/GROUND LOGIC

Answer 134

3
INS

Question 135

The Flight Management Computer of a large transport category jet aircraft does not provide -

1
aircraft systems warnings and cautions
2
fuel monitoring
3
navigational information
4
descent planning

Answer 135

1 aircraft systems warnings and cautions

Question 136

Regarding inner and outer loops of automatic flight control systems -

1
outer loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Inner loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
2
inner loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Outer loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile
3
inner loops control the aircraft in pitch while outer loops control the aircraft in roll and yaw
4
inner loops control the aircraft based on air data such as airspeed and barometric altitude and rate gyro error sensing with feedback to maintain attitude. Outer loop control inputs are pilot inputs from the autopilot panel

Answer 136

2
inner loops control the aircraft attitude based on rate gyro error sensing and feedback to a control surface actuator. Outer loops are external inputs from air data which can be fed to the inner loop to achieve a desired flight profile

Question 137

The component of the autopilot system which monitors the gyro sensing signal and ensures that the correct attitude reference is being maintained is -

1
the feedback comparitor
2
the servomotor
3
the control surface
4
the artificial feel

Answer 137

1
the feedback comparitor

Question 138

In a pure turbojet, compared to a high by pass turbofan of the same thrust output, the rear (LP) turbine wheels are -

1
larger and rotate faster
2
smaller and rotate faster
3
larger and rotate slower
4
smaller and rotate slower

Answer 138

2
smaller and rotate faster

Question 139

With regard to the cancellation of warnings and cautions in the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) of a jet transport aircraft -

1
warnings and cautions can both be cancelled regardless of system status by using the cancel button
2
warnings and cautions may only be cancelled if the associated fault no longer exists
3
warnings are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but cautions may be cancelled using the cancel button
4
cautions are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but warnings may be cancelled using the cancel button

Answer 139

3
warnings are cancelled only when the condition is rectified but cautions may be cancelled using the cancel button

Question 140

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) modes which are able to generate both soft and hard warnings are -

1
excessive descent rate and below glideslope deviation
2
unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration and excessive terrain closure rate
3
excessive terrain closure rate and below glideslope deviation
4
excessive descent rate and excessive terrain closure rate

Answer 140

4
excessive descent rate and excessive terrain closure rate

Question 141

With an increase in altitude the directional stability of an aircraft -

1
decreases
2
increases
3
increases if EAS is less than 1.5Vs
4
decreases if EAS is less than 1.5Vs

Answer 141

1
decreases

Question 142

The primary purpose of a propeller brake fitted to a turboprop aircraft is -

1
to slow the propeller on descent
2
to allow the propeller to enter the groundfine range
3
to stop the propeller when in feather on the ground and rapidly decelerate the propeller after shutdown or when idling
4
to stop the propeller when in feather in the air

Answer 142

3
to stop the propeller when in feather on the ground and rapidly decelerate the propeller after shutdown or when idling

Question 143

The nose attitude of an aircraft on approach with both the leading edge and trailing edge flaps extended as compared with only the trailing edge flaps would be -

1
lower
2
higher
3
the same
4
either higher or lower depending on the approach speed

Answer 143

2
higher

Question 144

The correct statement regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -

1
to act as a pressure reservoir
2
to reduce peak pump demand
3
to smooth out system pressure variation
4
to act as a fluid reservoir

Answer 144

3
to smooth out system pressure variation

Question 145

A control surface activated by a main control linkage with a hinge moment causing deflection of the primary control surface is called a -

1
trim tab
2
spring loaded tab
3
servo tab
4
lagging tab

Answer 145

3
servo tab

Question 146

In an aircraft equipped with three autopilots, the C autopilot fails.

Assuming all autopilots were engaged on a coupled approach, the failure would be indicated by -

1
a change in the autoland status annunciator (ASA) from LAND 3 to LAND 2
2
a synthetic voice warning
3
both autopilots disconnecting completely
4
all control panel lights extinguishing

Answer 146

1
a change in the autoland status annunciator (ASA) from LAND 3 to LAND 2

Question 147

In comparison to an unswept wing, a swept wing will have a -

1
higer MAX CL at subsonic but lower MAX CL at supersonic speeds
2
lower MAX CL at subsonic but higher MAX CL at supersonic speeds
3
higher MAX CL only at subsonic speeds
4
lower MAX CL only at supersonic speeds

Answer 147

2
lower MAX CL at subsonic but higher MAX CL at supersonic speeds

Question 148

In a hydraulic system with an operating pressure of 3000 PSI, the force exerted by a piston actuator measuring 25 cm x 25 cm is -

1
100 lb
2
300 lb
3
300000 lb
4
30000 lb

Answer 148

3
300000 lb

Question 149

The indication that self sustaining speed has been achieved during the start cycle of a large gas turbine turbofan engine is -

1
the EGT first rises
2
the turbine first starts to drive the compressor
3
the starter disengages
4
the pressure starts to rise in the compressor

Answer 149

3
the starter disengages

Question 150

Concerning a jet transport aircraft flying below the speed of sound -

1
there is no possibility of shockwave formation on the wings or fuselage of an aircraft in subsonic cruise
2
shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
3
shockwaves are present at all times on an aircraft in subsonic cruise
4
shockwaves maybe present on the wings at any speed below MCRIT

Answer 150

2
shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air

Question 151

Concerning a jet transport aircraft flying below the speed of sound -

1
there is no possibility of shockwave formation on the wings or fuselage of an aircraft in subsonic cruise
2
shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air
3
shockwaves are present at all times on an aircraft in subsonic cruise
4
shockwaves maybe present on the wings at any speed below MCRIT

Answer 151

2
shockwaves may be present on the wings and fuselage due to local acceleration of the air

Question 152

The reason for the use of oil/fuel heat exchangers in the fuel system of a large turbine powered aircraft is -

1
to prevent fuel vaporisation
2
to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel lines
3
to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter
4
to heat the oil and prevent excessive viscosity

Answer 152

3
to prevent ice formation clogging the fuel filter

Question 153

For a constant RPM in a gas turbine engine, a decrease in air density will result in -

1
increased fuel flow and increased thrust output
2
decreased fuel flow and increased thrust output
3
increased fuel flow and decreased thrust output
4
decreased fuel flow and decreased thrust output

Answer 153

4
decreased fuel flow and decreased thrust output

Question 154

The two most critical factors in determining the in flight relight capability of a turbo jet engine are -

1
altitude and fuel pressure
2
fuel pressure and starter torque
3
igniter energy and starter torque
4
altitude and airspeed

Answer 154

4
altitude and airspeed

Question 155

With regard to the operation of powered controls in an aircraft with 3 independent hydraulic systems consisting of 2 main systems plus a standby system -

1
all three systems supply the flight controls at all times providing automatic backup
2
only one system supplies the flight controls at any one time with the other systems providing backup automatically
3
the standby system only operates when selected to supply the flight controls in the event of a failure of one of the other systems
4
one system supplies the ailerons, one supplies the elevator and another supplies the rudder

Answer 155

3
the standby system only operates when selected to supply the flight controls in the event of a failure of one of the other systems

Question 156

In a flight management system, conditional waypoints may be used when programming a flight.

The term conditional waypoint refers to -

1
a waypoint defined by an event or a condition which does not relate to a fixed geographical location
2
a manually entered waypoint without a name
3
a waypoint constructed by the crew which is not in the data base of the FMC
4
a waypoint which will only be overflown if certain in flight conditions are met

Answer 156

1
a waypoint defined by an event or a condition which does not relate to a fixed geographical location

Question 157

A rupture of the starboard engine bleed air pneumatic duct, which supplies wing and engine anti ice will result in a DUCT LEAK caution message on the EICAS, and an associated DUCT LEAK light to illuminate.

The correct response to this situation would be to -

1
shut down the right hand side engine to prevent structural damage to the interior of the wing
2
isolate the leak and turn off the bleed source to prevent structural damage
3
increase bleed air flow on the left engine to ensure adequate supply for anti ice operation
4
decrease bleed air flow to prevent overheating of the interior wing structures

Answer 157

2
isolate the leak and turn off the bleed source to prevent structural damage

Question 158

In a large jet transport category aircraft, the ailerons can be subjected to high loads at high speed.

To prevent excessive stress on the ailerons some aircraft designs incorporate -

1
an aileron lockout device and flight spoilers
2
yaw dampers
3
reverse thrust
4
powered controls

Answer 158

1
an aileron lockout device and flight spoilers

Question 159

The incorrect statement concerning the effects of sweepback on aircraft performance is -

1
sweepback increases lateral stability
2
sweepback increases directional stability
3
sweepback increases trailing edge device effectiveness
4
sweepback increases the tendency for a wing to stall tip first

Answer 159

3
sweepback increases trailing edge device effectiveness

Question 160

Stalling speed is relatively higher for an aircraft with wing sweep. This is because of the effective -

1
increase in chordwise airflow
2
decrease in chordwise airflow
3
decrease in spanwise airflow
4
increase in spanwise airflow

Answer 160

2
decrease in chordwise airflow

Question 161

On a large jet transport aircraft, the Leading Edge Devices cannot be deployed.

The aircraft should approach at -

1
higher than normal speed and lower angle of attack
2
lower than normal speed and angle of attack
3
higher than normal speed and angle of attack
4
lower than normal speed and higher angle of attack

Answer 161

1
higher than normal speed and lower angle of attack

Question 162

The incorrect statement is -

1
the take-off should be rejected before V1 if an engine fails
2
VR must always be greater than V1
3
V1 may be increased to a maximum of VR, if surplus runway/stopway is available
4
the take-off should not be rejected above V1 if an engine fails

Answer 162

2
VR must always be greater than V1

Question 163

As altitude increases at constant EAS, for a large jet transport aircraft, spiral stability -

1
decreases
2
increases
3
remains the same
4
may increase or decrease, depending on aircraft type

Answer 163

2
increases

Question 164

As altitude increases, for a large jet transport aircraft, with regard to stall speeds -

1
stall EAS increases, stall IAS decreases
2
stall EAS and stall IAS both increase with stall IAS increasing by a greater margin
3
stall EAS and stall IAS both decrease with stall EAS decreasing by a greater margin
4
stall EAS decreases, stall IAS increases

Answer 164

2
stall EAS and stall IAS both increase with stall IAS increasing by a greater margin

Question 165

The primary purpose of leading and trailing edge flaps on jet transport aircraft is to -

1
increase drag to improve speed stability on the approach
2
improve visibility on the approach by permitting a high lift coefficient at a reasonable body angle
3
increase wing area
4
reduce landing and take-off speeds and distances required

Answer 165

4
reduce landing and take-off speeds and distances required

Question 166

During a climb at constant Mach number, angle of attack will -

1
increase
2
decrease
3
remain constant
4
increase to the tropopause, then remain constant

Answer 166

1
increase

Question 167

When an aircraft is climbed or descended using the Flight Level Change function of the auto flight system, with regard to the thrust settings used -

1
on climb, thrust is automatically set to max climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to idle thrust
2
on climb or descent the thrust setting is determined according to the current IAS
3
in Flight Level Change mode, the autothrottle is disabled so all thrust settings must be manually selected by the pilot
4
on climb, thrust will be set to Max Continuous Thrust and on descent the thrust will be set to 50% N1

Answer 167

1
on climb, thrust is automatically set to max climb thrust and on descent, the throttles are automatically retarded to idle thrust

Question 168

If an aircraft is flown with the centre of gravity ahead of the forward limit, it would display -

1
enhanced elevator authority
2
degraded elevator authority
3
improved lateral stability
4
decreased lateral stability

Answer 168

2
degraded elevator authority

Question 169

The speed in a jet aircraft which is not controlled by auto throttle is -

1
vertical speed
2
approach speed
3
descent speed
4
engine rotation speed
5
cruise speed

Answer 169

1
vertical speed

Question 170

Dynamic hydroplaning occurs as a result of the combination of -

1
aircraft weight and a wet runway
2
aircraft speed and locked brakes
3
aircraft speed, weight and a wet runway
4
aircraft speed, tyre pressure and a wet runway

Answer 170

4
aircraft speed, tyre pressure and a wet runway

Question 171

With an increase in altitude, the longitudinal stability of an aircraft -

1
increases
2
decreases
3
remains constant
4
increases to the tropopause then decreases

Answer 171

2
decreases

Question 172

A central air data computer (CADC) fitted to an aircraft receives -

1
static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
2
electrical signals from the pitot head and converts this data into static and pitot pressure for instrument displays and use by the flight management system
3
static and pitot pressure from the instrument display and converts this data into electrical signals for the pitot head and use by the flight management system
4
static and pitot pressure from the flight management system and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the pitot head

Answer 172

1
static and pitot pressure from the pitot head and converts this data into electrical signals for instrument displays and use by the flight management system

Question 173

The flight modes not able to be selected simultaneously on a typical autoflight system are -

1
THR HOLD, N1, V/S and FD
2
SPD, VNAV, LNAV and CMD
3
N1, V/S, HDG SEL and CMD
4
IDLE, G/S, LOC and F/D

Answer 173

1
THR HOLD, N1, V/S and FD

Question 174

With regard to jet transport electrical systems -

1
with a split bus system the generators are always paralleled
2
with a parallel bus system the generators are paralleled
3
with a split bus system the generators are connected in series
4
with a parallel bus system the generators are connected in series

Answer 174

2 with a parallel bus system the generators are paralleled

Question 175

On an aircraft with fully powered controls, manual reversion is required -

1
on all flight controls
2
on the rudder only
3
on the elevator only
4
unless triple redundancy is provided

Answer 175

4
unless triple redundancy is provided

Question 176

On a turboprop aircraft the purpose of the safety coupling is to -

1
disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque
2
disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque
3
disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive engine RPM
4
disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive torque

Answer 176

2
disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque

Question 177

Airflow behind a normal (vertical) shockwave compared to ahead of the shock will have a decrease in -

1
static pressure
2
energy (total pressure)
3
density
4
temperature

Answer 177

2
energy (total pressure)

Question 178

A Flight Management Computer (FMC) uses data from a variety of sources which may be termed internal or external.

An example of an external input would be -

1
airspeed
2
spiral stability
3
roll rate
4
pitch rate

Answer 178

1
airspeed

Question 179

The thrust output of a turbojet powered aircraft be greatest -

1
on the brakes on the runway at full thrust
2
between V1 and VR on the runway during the takeoff roll
3
on climb at maximum thrust
4
at VMO/MMO

Answer 179

1
on the brakes on the runway at full thrust

Question 180

The artificial feel system of a powered flight control system operates by feeding back control forces based on -

1
the difference between ambient pressure and dynamic pressure
2
the difference between static pressure and dynamic pressure
3
the difference between static pressure and pitot pressure
4
the difference between ambient pressure and total pressure

Answer 180

3
the difference between static pressure and pitot pressure

Question 181

An aircraft hydraulic system that employs a constant displacement pump requires -

1
a piston type accumulator
2
an in-line reservoir
3
a double action hand pump
4
a pressure regulator

Answer 181

4
a pressure regulator

Question 182

Various chemical methods are used in large jet aircraft to improve forward visibility in rain.

To ensure optimal performance of rain repellent fluid, it should be used -

1
only in conjunction with windshield wipers
2
only in light rain
3
periodically in heavy rain
4
prior to entering rain

Answer 182

3
periodically in heavy rain

Question 183

The RPM of a gas turbine Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) in a large jet transport aircraft is controlled by -

1
the fuel governor
2
the speed sensitive switch
3
the tacho/gen
4
the throttle

Answer 183

1
the fuel governor

Question 184

The fuel quantity indicating system on a modern jet transport aircraft may use capacitance type probes with compensators.

The compensators are designed to correct for variations in fuel -

1
temperature
2
density
3
volatility
4
viscosity

Answer 184

1
temperature

Question 185

Regarding aileron reversal -

1
aileron reversal can be reduced by increasing airspeed
2
aileron reversal can be aggravated by increasing wing stiffness
3
aileron reversal can be reduced by the use of inboard ailerons
4
aileron reversal can be aggravated by the use of spoilers

Answer 185

3
aileron reversal can be reduced by the use of inboard ailerons

Question 186

An advantage of NICAD batteries in an aircraft installation compared to lead acid batteries is -

1
no dangerous gases
2
no need for ventilation
3
greater load carrying capabilities
4
faster recharge cycle

Answer 186

4
faster recharge cycle

Question 187

Regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady climb -

1
lift equals weight and thrust equals drag
2
lift is greater than weight and thrust is greater than drag
3
lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag
4
lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag

Answer 187

4
lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag

Question 188

The component of the autopilot system which safeguards against a servomotor runaway is -

1
the artificial feel
2
the trim system
3
the comparitor
4
the torque limiter

Answer 188

4
the torque limiter

Question 189

The tracks provided between waypoints by the Flight Management Computer in a jet transport aircraft are -

1
great circles
2
rhumb lines
3
constant bearings
4
varying bearings

Answer 189

1
great circles

Question 190

Concerning aircraft CG position -

1
at the aft limit the aircraft is less stable
2
at the aft limit the aircraft is more stable
3
at the forward limit the aircraft is less stable
4
the position of the CG has no effect on aircraft stability

Answer 190

1
at the aft limit the aircraft is less stable

Question 191

If X is the speed for the maximum L/D ratio, the speed you would fly at for best angle of climb is -

1
X
2
greater than X
3
less than X
4
1.32 times X

Answer 191

1
X

Question 192

The APU compressor mass air flow is greater than needed to run itself -

1
because of the extra cooling needed
2
because it needs to supply the hydraulic system
3
so that bleed air is available in large quantities for use by the pneumatic system
4
to keep the exhaust noise to reasonable levels

Answer 192

3
so that bleed air is available in large quantities for use by the pneumatic system

Question 193

Flap should not be lowered at high flight levels.

One reason for this is -

1
the possibility of CAT
2
flap extension speed may be below the aircraft stall speed at high altitude
3
the increased effective wing camber would lead to early shockwave formation
4
the flap mechanism is disabled above FL150

Answer 193

2
flap extension speed may be below the aircraft stall speed at high altitude

Question 194

You are about to descend through cloud containing heavy freezing rain.

The best descent configuration to minimise the risk of airframe ice in these conditions is -

1
engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes out
2
engine RPM at idle and speedbrakes in
3
engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes out
4
engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes in

Answer 194

3
engine RPM up slightly and speedbrakes out

Question 195

The GPWS will provide no warning for -

1
excessive sink rate near the ground
2
an early touchdown in the landing configuration
3
going below the glidepath
4
sink rate after take-off

Answer 195

2
an early touchdown in the landing configuration

Question 196

Weather radar returns may be displayed on the EHSI when -
1
in Map, VOR or ILS with an expanded compass scale selected
2
a full compass scale has been selected
3
in any mode
4
in Map mode only

Answer 196

1
in Map, VOR or ILS with an expanded compass scale selected

Question 197

On a conventional flight director panel (not EFIS), regarding the difference between the APP AUTO mode and APP MAN mode -

1
APP AUTO mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP MAN mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glideslope from above
2
there is no difference between the modes for ILS capture but GS will not be captured from below in APP MAN
3
APP MAN mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP AUTO mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glideslope from above
4
there is no difference between the modes for ILS capture but GS will not be captured from above in APP MAN

Answer 197

1
APP AUTO mode arms capture of the ILS and GS when on an intercept heading and APP MAN mode commands an immediate capture of the ILS and GS with a selected intercept heading and a descent to acquire the glideslope from above

Question 198

In a turbo jet, the right engine fails after takeoff in IMC. The pilot maintains balance control of the aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards the live engine. The bank minimises the -

1
weight side force
2
assymetric thrust
3
side slip force
4
torque effect

Answer 198

3
side slip force

Question 199

The component of an aircraft electrical system providing the initial excitation field for a constant speed PMG type alternator is -

1
the permanent magnet generator or pilot exciter
2
the main exciter
3
the static inverter
4
there is no initial excitation required with an alternator

Answer 199

the permanent magnet generator or pilot exciter

Question 200

The autothrottle mode which will not provide the FMC commanded thrust setting is -

1
THR HOLD
2
N1
3
SPD
4
IDLE

Answer 200

1
THR HOLD

Question 201

The specific gravity (SG) of a particular turbine fuel is 0.787.

This means that -

1
100 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 78.7 lt
2
100 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg
3
1000 kg of the fuel will occupy a volume of 787 lt
4
1000 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg

Answer 201

2
100 lt of the fuel will weigh 78.7 kg

Question 202

In an aircraft equipped with two flight management computers and the EHSI’s selected to map mode, a failure of the Captain’s (L) FMC will cause -

1
the Captain’s Map display on the EHSI to be supplied automatically from the opposite side FMC, with an FMC FAIL message on the EHSI
2
the Captain’s Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side FMC
3
the Captain’s Map display to show an FMC FAIL flag, with an FMC fail message on the CDU. The map display is automatically restored by data from the opposite side FMC
4
the Captain’s Map display to go blank, with a map fail message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) map switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side EHSI

Answer 202

2
the Captain’s Map display to show a map flag, with an FMC FAIL message on the CDU. The map display can be restored by selecting the alternate (ALTN) FMC switch, which feeds the Captain’s map display from the opposite side FMC

Question 203

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) fitted to a particular aircraft alerts the flight crew when one of the following mode thresholds are exceeded between 50 ft and 2450 ft radio altitude:

1 excessive descent rate
2 excessive terrain closure rate
3 altitude loss after take off or go around
4 unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration
5 below glideslope deviation

A ‘WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP’ aural warning can be given by -

1
modes 1, 2 and 5
2
modes 2 and 4
3
all modes
4
modes 1 and 2

Answer 203

4
modes 1 and 2

Question 204

With regard to a conventional flight instrument display when an aircraft is on an ILS -

1
no manual pitch control is available
2
altitude hold is not available
3
the TO/FROM indicator covered by a red warning flag
4
the TO/FROM indicator is not displayed

Answer 204

4
the TO/FROM indicator is not displayed

Question 205

As altitude increases, the indicated minimum control speed airborne VMCA with the critical engine inoperative and the other engine(s) at maximum continuous thrust, will -

1
increase as directional stability decreases
2
decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor
3
remain constant
4
increase or decrease, depending on aircraft and engine type

Answer 205

2
decrease up to the altitude where the stall speed becomes the limiting factor

Question 206

The pilot of a large, heavy aircraft on approach to land with an excessively aft CG will experience -

1
heavy elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
2
heavy elevator controls and increased pitch stability
3
light elevator controls and decreased pitch stability
4
light elevator controls and increased pitch stability

Answer 206

3
light elevator controls and decreased pitch stability

Question 207

In an aircraft flying beyond M CRIT, turbulence felt through the elevator controls is likely to be due to -

1
high speed stall
2
high speed buffet
3
symptoms of MMO
4
Mach tuck

Answer 207

2
high speed buffet

Question 208

In a supersonic air stream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave -

1
decreases
2
increases
3
experiences no change
4
increases then decreases
5
increases to ambient static pressure

Answer 208

decreases

Question 209

The auto pilot depends on devices to measure aircraft attitude changes so that information may be used to achieve controlled flight. Accelerometers assist in a -

1
coordinated turn
2
set rate of climb and descent
3
coordinated climb and descent
4
level turn

Answer 209

2
set rate of climb and descent

Question 210

On an EADI the ATT flag appears. Other affected elements of the display are -

1
pitch and roll information and airspeed
2
pitch and roll information, flight director bars and glideslope and localiser deviation
3
all display symbols
4
pitch and roll information and flight director bars

Answer 210

4
pitch and roll information and flight director bars

Question 211

The highest gas pressure in a gas turbine engine is found -

1
at the combustion chamber entry
2
at the compressor inlet
3
at the nozzle guide vanes
4
in the exhaust duct

Answer 211

1
at the combustion chamber entry

Question 212

With regard to the thrust output of a jet engine -

1
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 50% of RPM
2
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 25% of RPM
3
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 10% of RPM
4
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 5% of RPM

Answer 212

2
approximately 50% of the thrust is produced by the top 25% of RPM

Question 213

Buffet boundaries for a jet transport category aircraft will increase with an increase in -

1
altitude
2
gross weight
3
mach number
4
fuel burn

Answer 213

4
fuel burn

Question 214

A method of airflow control in an axial flow compressor of a gas turbine engine is -

1
variable nozzle guide vanes
2
variable propelling nozzles
3
variable stator vanes
4
variable rotor blades

Answer 214

3
variable stator vanes

Question 215

The CSD of a large jet aircraft electrical system is required to control -

1
DC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
2
AC generator output to ensure maximum load sharing capacity
3
AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency
4
DC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency

Answer 215

3
AC generator output to ensure a constant output frequency

Question 216

Vortex generators may be used on the wings of a high speed aircraft to delay the onset of compressibility buffet and high speed drag associated with shock induced flow separation.

In this case the vortex generators are placed on -

1
the upper wing surface only
2
the lower wing surface only
3
surfaces which do not suffer from high speed drag problems
4
both the upper and lower wing surfaces

Answer 216

1
the upper wing surface only

Question 217

The nosewheel centering system of large jet aircraft operates to straighten the nose wheel -

1
prior to gear retraction
2
during gear retraction
3
after gear retraction
4
prior to gear extension

Answer 217

1
prior to gear retraction

Question 218

Gas turbine engine mass air flow is governed primarily by -

1
the number of combustion chambers, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
2
the RPM, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature
3
the turbine inlet temperature, the RPM and the number of combustion chambers
4
the RPM, the airspeed and the air density

Answer 218

4
the RPM, the airspeed and the air density

Question 219

The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on -

1
compressor outlet pressure, air temperature and density
2
compressor inlet pressure, indicated airspeed and RPM
3
true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
4
compressor inlet temperature, indicated airspeed and RPM

Answer 219

3
true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure

Question 220

The hydraulic reservoir in a jet aircraft hydraulic system is pressurised by bleed air to -

1
reduce foaming as altitude increases
2
ensure a positive fluid supply to the pumps at all times
3
maintain hydraulic fluid temperature at the required level
4
pressurise the supply lines to the using systems

Answer 220

2
ensure a positive fluid supply to the pumps at all times

Question 221

The inlet duct of a jet engine at subsonic speeds is designed to convert -

1
kinetic energy into pressure energy
2
potential energy into kinetic energy
3
kinetic energy into potential energy
4
potential energy into pressure energy

Answer 221

1
kinetic energy into pressure energy

Question 222

On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display, the aircraft current position is depicted by -

1
the apex of the triangle symbol
2
the base of the triangle symbol
3
the centre of the triangle symbol
4
different symbols at different ranges

Answer 222

1
the apex of the triangle symbol

Question 223

On the MAP mode of the B767 EHSI display the track trend vector shows -

1
the predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals
2
the angle of bank required for a rate one turn based on current airspeed
3
the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on track crossing the holding fix
4
the recommended entry procedure for a holding pattern (direct, offset, parallel) based on heading crossing the holding fix

Answer 223

1
the predicted path of the aircraft over the ground based on current bank angle and groundspeed using segments representing 30, 60 and 90 second time intervals

Question 224

In an aircraft equipped with 2 Electronic Attitude Director Indicators (EADIs) and 2 Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicators (EHSIs), one each for the captain and first officer, the number of Symbol Generators (SGs) required is -

1
three
2
two
3
one
4
four

Answer 224

1
three

Question 225

The incorrect statement regarding the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -

1
to act as a pressure reservoir
2
to reduce peak pump demand
3
to smooth out system pressure variation
4
to act as a fluid reservoir

Answer 225

4
to act as a fluid reservoir

Question 226

The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on -

1
compressor outlet pressure, air temperature and density
2
compressor inlet pressure, indicated airspeed and RPM
3
true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure
4
compressor inlet temperature, indicated airspeed and RPM

Answer 226

3
true airspeed, RPM and compressor outlet pressure

Question 227

Comparing a swept wing aircraft and a straight wing aircraft both with an increasing angle of attack -

1
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase
2
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a greater lift increase
3
the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a greater lift increase
4
the swept wing aircraft will have a lesser drag increase and a lesser lift increase

Answer 227

1
the swept wing aircraft will have a greater drag increase and a lesser lift increase

Question 228

Concerning the effect of increasing altitude on the spiral stability of a particular aircraft -

1
spiral stability increases with increase in altitude
2
spiral stability decreases with increase in altitude
3
spiral stability remains the same with increase in altitude
4
spiral stability only changes with changing CG position

Answer 228

1
spiral stability increases with increase in altitude

Question 229

The item of jet engine performance that remains constant in a climb if the thrust lever position remains unchanged is -

1
N1 RPM
2
EGT
3
EPR
4
Fuel Flow

Answer 229

1
N1 RPM

Question 230

The speed of operation of pneumatic brake systems compared to a hydraulic brake systems is -

1
faster for application and increased pressure for the same operating pressure
2
slower for application and increased pressure for the same operating pressure
3
faster for application and less pressure for the same operating pressure
4
slower for application and less force transmitted for the same operating pressure

Answer 230

4
slower for application and less force transmitted for the same operating pressure

Question 231

Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and Map mode is -

1
Plan is the normally used display and shows information against a moving map background
2
Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed without current track and heading information
3
Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track and heading information at the top of the screen
4
Map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown

Answer 231

4
Map shows the flight plan displayed against a small scale map of the route to be flown

Question 232

Compresser stall/surge will cause
RPM
FUEL FLOW
EGT

Answer 232

RPM FALL
FUEL FLOW RISE
EGT RISE

Question 233

The correct air to fuel mixture ratio is?

Answer 233

15:1

Question 234

The effect of an increase in altitude alone will have on the Low Pressure compressor of a gas turbine engine if constant thrust is maintained is?
1 it will stall more readily
2 discharge pressure will increase
3 rpm will decrease
4 rpm will increase

Answer 234

4 rpm will increase

Question 235

Ram effect
1- has a negligible effect on the efficiency of a jet engine as aircraft speed varies
2- lowers the efficiency of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
3- raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases
4- cools the air as it enters the engine intake

Answer 235

3- raises the thrust output of a jet engine as aircraft speed increases

Question 236

In passing through the turbine section of a pure turbojet engine -
1 gas pressure, velocity and temp decrease
2 gas pressure increases, velocity falls and temp increases
3 gas pressure remains constant and temp increases
4 gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temp decreases

Answer 236

4 gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temp decreases

Question 237

Most modern turbofan engines have two or more spools because
1 this allows the compressors to run closer to their ideal RPM
2 manufacturing is made simpler and cheaper
3 maintenance is simplified
4 shaft strength is increased

Answer 237

1 this allows the compressors to run closer to their ideal RPM

Question 238

An ideal jet engine air intake delivers air to the compressor with
1 no turbulence and pressure lower than ambient
2 no turbulence and temperature higher than ambient
3 no turbulence and velocity higher than ambient
4 no turbulence and pressure higher than ambient

Answer 238

4 no turbulence and pressure higher than ambient

Question 239

Air that is bypassed through a turbofan engine
1 goes to the rear of the of the combustion chamber for cooling
2 does not pass through the compressor
3 is stored for later use
4 is used to drive the air turbine

Answer 239

2 does not pass through the compressor

Question 240

One compressor bleed outlet is for cabin pressurisation and air conditioning. Another is used to
1 reduce combustion chamber back pressure
2 give balance to the air loses
3 prevent compressor stall and surge when operating off design RPM
4 cool the brakes

Answer 240

3 prevent compressor stall and surge when operating off design RPM

Question 241

The row of stator blades after each row of rotating in compressor blades is designed to
1 longitudinally balance the engine
2 stop the swirl that would otherwise form
3 convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
4 increase the velocity of the air

Answer 241

3 convert kinetic energy into pressure energy

Question 242

A turbofan is more efficient than a turbojet because
1 it accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively low velocity
2 it accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively high velocity
3 it accelerates a relatively small mass of air to a relatively low velocity
4 it accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively high velocity

Answer 242

1 it accelerates a relatively large mass of air to a relatively low velocity

Question 243

Apart from bigger, stronger blades a turbofan enjoys better FOD protection than a pure turbojet because
1 these engines have intake screens
2 most of the air bypasses the engine
3 most FOD are smaller than the blades
4 the engine RPM is lower

Answer 243

2 most of the air bypasses the engine

Question 244

A turbofan is not as efficient as a turboprop at low speeds. This is because the turbofan has
1 A lower airmass accelerated to a lower velocity
2 A higher airmass accelerated to a higher velocity
3 A lower airmass accelerated to a higher velocity
4 A higher airmass accelerated to a lower velocity

Answer 244

3 A lower airmass accelerated to a higher velocity

Question 245

A turboprop cannot operate at high speeds of a turbofan because the turboprop has
1 inadequate power output
2 gearbox rpm limitations
3 shockwaves at prop blade tips at high Mach number
4 no wing sweep

Answer 245

3 shockwaves at prop blade tips at high Mach number

Question 246

A free turbine turboprop uses a smaller starter motor than other turboprops because
1 of the need to save weight
2 of the simpler design
3 only the engine core is rotated for starting
4 the engine as a whole is lighter

Answer 246

3 only the engine core is rotated for starting

Question 247

One way to increase performance of a jet engine would be to
1 introduce the air into the engine at low speed
2 increase the engine operating temperature
3 alter the angle of the nozzle guide vanes
4 reduce the engine operating RPM

Answer 247

2 increase the engine operating temperature

Question 248

Of a turbofans total air intake 20% passes through the core. This bypass ratio would be closest to
1 4:1
2 5:1
3 1:4
4 1:5

Answer 248

1 4:1

Question 249

Turboprops are designed for which type of flying
1 high speed long
2 low speed short
3 high speed short
4 low speed long

Answer 249

2 low speed short

Question 250

An aircraft may need to dump fuel. To ensure that the total fuel supply is not dumped
1 manual shut off fuel when enough has been dumped
2 automatic shut off fuel when a preset amount has been dumped
3 use of standpipes in the fuel dumping system
4 use a timer controlled cut off switch

Answer 250

3 use of standpipes in the fuel dumping system

Question 251

A turbofan produces less thrust at take off than a similar sized turboprop because
1 a turboprop is very efficient at modestly accelerating a large mass of air
2 prop blades can bite the air faster
3 the fan is experiencing mach number interference at take off rpm
4 turbofan cant take off at full thrust for noise considerations

Answer 251

1 a turboprop is very efficient at modestly accelerating a large mass of air

Question 252

With a CSU turboprop engine power output in controlled by fuel flow. The pilot controls this by
1 control of the fuel flow control unit
2 control of the prop blade angle
3 control of the CSU
4 direct control of air fuel ratio

Answer 252

1 control of the fuel flow control unit

Question 253

The primary engine power gauge of a turboprop is
1 fuel flow
2 engine temp gauge
3 TRQ
4 EPR gauge

Answer 253

3 TRQ

Question 254

One reason jet aircraft use kerosene and not avgas is that kerosene has
1 a higher flashpoint
2 less calorific value
3 less viscosity
4 less chemical instability

Answer 254

1 a higher flashpoint

Question 255

The APU of a b767 may be operated
1 in flight only
2 on the ground only
3 whenever it is required
4 anytime, but only if monitored by an on board crew member

Answer 255

3 whenever it is required

Question 256

The purpose of the fuel system filter bypass is
1 to save wear on the filter when the fuel is warm
2 to ensure fuel flow even when the filter is blocked
3 to maintain a constant pressure differential
4 to recirc fuel

Answer 256

2 to ensure fuel flow even when the filter is blocked

Question 257

If a turbojet thrust lever unlocked light comes on during flight
1 the situation is not potentially serious, keep an eye on it
2 the situation is potentially serious, be prepared to reduce thrust if the level comes up
3 the situation is not series as it is impossible for a reverser to deploy in flight
4 the situation is potentially critical shut down the engine if yaw loss of airspeed or buffet is detected

Answer 257

4 the situation is potentially critical shut down the engine if yaw loss of airspeed or buffet is detected

Question 258

The main reason for stating upper limit fuel temp
1 allow greatest temp rise through engine
2 ensure fuel lubricant properties are maintained
3 to stop chemical breakdown
4 to ensure vapour release (vapour lock) does not occur

Answer 258

4 to ensure vapour release (vapour lock) does not occur

Question 259

An APU auto shutdown will not be caused by
1 overspeed
2 underspeed
3 low oil pressure
4 fire

Answer 259

2 underspeed

Question 260

the apu does not directly provide
1 shaft power to drive electric gen
2 hydraulic pressure
3 bleed air for air con
4 bleed air for pneumatics

Answer 260

2 hydraulic pressure

Question 261

An in flight problem a turbine engine with low flight idling RPM may have is
1 excessive turbine temp in climb in cruise
2 flame out on descent
3 excessive rapid acceleration
4 maximum rpm not available

Answer 261

2 flame out on descent

Question 262

Air turbine starters for gas turbine engines normally
1 cannot be used if the apu of another engine or compressed air source is available
2 have a cockpit light to warn of low air pressure
3 are used on small turbine engines
4 can be used to supply the pneumatic system

Answer 262

1 cannot be used if the apu of another engine or compressed air source is available

Question 263

The safeguards to prevent inadvertent engine thrust reverser deployment in flight are
1 through crew training
2 an autostow mechanism and mechanical and electrical interlocks and isolation valves which prevent full reverse thrust unless the thrust levers are at idle and the reversers are fully deployed
3 hydraulic pressure required to activate deployment
4 guarded buttons

Answer 263

2 an autostow mechanism and mechanical and electrical interlocks and isolation valves which prevent full reverse thrust unless the thrust levers are at idle and the reversers are fully deployed

Question 264

The a gas turbine engine with a free power turbine
1 the free power turbine is independent of the other engine spools
2 the free power turbine drives the compressor
3 a free power turbine wheel is independent of all other turbine wheels
4 the free power turbine is driven by the compressor

Answer 264

1 the free power turbine is independent of the other engine spools

Question 265

The advantages of an axial flow compressor compared to a centrifugal flow compressor of the same frontal area are
1 ruggedness and compactness
2 higher pressure ratios and greater mass airflow
3 high resistence to FOD
4 higher SFC

Answer 265

2 higher pressure ratios and greater mass airflow

Question 266

A TRQ meter in a turboprop is required for the operation of
1 autofeather
2 beta
3 pitch lock
4 prop governor

Answer 266

1 autofeather

Question 267

Regarding the measurement of temperature in a gas turbine engine
1 EGT measures turbine entry gas temp
2 TOT measures combustion gas temp
3 JPT measures jet pipe gas temp
4 ITT measures compressor outlet temp

Answer 267

3 JPT measures jet pipe gas temp

Question 268

Function of negative torque system in a turboprop is to
1 disconnect prop from gearbox in the event of overspeed
2 increase prop blade angle to prevent the turbine from being driven by the propeller
3 prevent the prop from reversing its direction
4 stop the PNF from accidentally feathering engines

Answer 268

2 increase prop blade angle to prevent the turbine from being driven by the propeller

Question 269

The EPR gauge in a jet aircraft measure
1 pressure intake through engine
2 pressure ratio between the exhaust air and intake (ambient) air
3 the pressure ratio between the compressor and combustion chamber
4 torque on main drive shaft

Answer 269

2 pressure ratio between the exhaust air and intake (ambient) air

Question 270

The n1 gauge on turbofan indicates
1 fan rpm
2 high pressure compressor temp
3 turbine speed
4 turbine temp

Answer 270

1 fan rpm

Question 271

A turbofan climbs through the tropopause thrust will
1 increase
2 remain constant
3 reduce at the same rate below the trop
4 reduce at a greater rate compared to below the tropopause

Answer 271

4 reduce at a greater rate compared to below the tropopause

Question 272

In a turboprop the term powerplant refers to
1 the compressor combustion chamber and turbine
2 gas turbine engine gearbox and prop
3 gas turbine engine gearbox
4 prop and gearbox

Answer 272

2 gas turbine engine, gearbox and prop

Question 273

The reverse thrust system on a turbojet aircraft has interlocks to prevent
1 full reverse thrust from being applied at low speed
2 full reverse thrust until the reversers are in the full reverse position
3 the prop from going into negative pitch
4 the fan from reversing direction in flight

Answer 273

2 full reverse thrust until the reversers are in the full reverse position

Question 274

With reference to a gas turbine engine
1 TIT is the temp of the gas between the HP and LP compressor
2 EGT is the temp of the gas entering the turbine
3 JPT is the temp of the gas exiting the combustion chamber
4 TGT is the temp of the gas between the turbine stages
5 N2 is the temp of the gas at the front of the high pressure compressor

Answer 274

4 TGT is the temp of the gas between the turbine stages

Question 275

A b727 is maintaining a constant flight level and the TAS is increased from 180 to 460kt thrust available at max thrust is
1 increase
2 decrease
3 increase then decrease
4 decrease then increase

Answer 275

3 increase then decrease

Question 276

the flow flow transmitter on a large jet is loaded?
1 inlet to high pressure pump
2 outlet to high pressure pump
3 inlet to fuel control unit
4 outlet from fuel control unit

Answer 276

4 outlet from fuel control unit

Question 277

As the thrust levers of a turbojet engined aircraft are advanced for take off
1 airflow increases causing higher fuel flow and rpm
2 fuel flow increases causing a higher egt and increased rpm
3 egt increases causing a higher mass airflow and increassed fuel flow
4 thrust increases causing increase exhaust gas velocity

Answer 277

2 fuel flow increases causing a higher egt and increased rpm

Question 278

The pressure rise in the centrifugal compressor of a gas turbine occurs
1 impeller only
2 diffuser only
3 impeller and diffuser
4 the stator vanes

Answer 278

3 impeller and diffuser

Question 279

On a wet day takeoff in a jet engine the igniter plugs may be selected to continuous ignition. In this case the spark will be
1 high value low volt to prevent overheating nozzle
2 low value high voltage to preserve the igniter plus and ignition unit
3 high value at high voltage to ensure fast relight in the event of a flame out
4 low value low volt to conserve power

Answer 279

2 low value high voltage to preserve the igniter plus and ignition unit

Question 280

The design feature which not an advantage of an annular combustion chamber design in a modern gas turbine compared to other multi chamber designs is
1 improved combustion efficiency
2 less cooling air required
3 elimination of flame propagation problems
4 compact
5 greater structural integrity

Answer 280

5 greater structural integrity

it is NOT more structurally sound

Question 281

A particular turbine fuel has a specific gravity of .8 at a given temperature. A temperature rise of 20 degrees will result in a calorific value for a fuel which is
1 the same energy value as for the original temp per litre of fuel
2 the same energy value as for the original temp per kg of fuel
3 less energy than for the original temp per kg of fuel
4 more energy than for the original temp per kg of fuel
5 more energy than for the original temp per litre of fuel

Answer 281

2 the same energy value as for the original temp per kg of fuel

Question 282

The function of the torque meter in a turboprop powered aircraft is to
1 brake the prop
2 feather the prop
3 lock the propeller at the fine pitch lock
4 monitor shaft output power

Answer 282

4 monitor shaft output power

Question 283

Boost pumps in the fuel system of a large jet transport category aircraft are generally
1 piston
2 variable displacement
3 gear type or impeller type
4 plunger type

Answer 283

3 gear type or impeller type

Question 284

The effect of a change in temp on the specific gravity of AVTUR is
1 variations in temp have no effect on SG
2 specific gravity increases as temp increases
3 specific gravity decreases as temp decreases

Answer 284

3 specific gravity decreases as temp decreases

Question 285

Air in the combustion chamber is slowed to
1 provide better mixture for combustion
2 reduce possibility of flameout
3 contain flame in small area
4 keep combustion area cool

Answer 285

2 reduce possibility of flameout

Question 286

Turbine fuel requires
1 high viscosity
2 high calorific value
3 high compressibility
4 low chemical stability

Answer 286

2 high calorific value

Question 287

When climbing at a constant Mach number the CAS will
1decrease if temp decreases
2 decrease
3 decrease if the temp increases
4 increase
5 remain constant

Answer 287

2 decrease

Question 288

When climbing at a constant Mach number the TAS will
1decrease if temp decreases
2 decrease
3 decrease if the temp increases
4 increase
5 remain constant

Answer 288

1decrease if temp decreases

Question 289

As an aircraft accelerates from subsonic to supersonic to Cd will
1 increase
2 decrease
3 increase then decrease
4 decrease then increase
5 remain constant

Answer 289

3 increase then decrease

Question 290

The variable most directly affecting the speed of sound is
1 density
2 pressure
3 altitude
4 temp

Answer 290

4 temp

Question 291

For high subsonic speeds the reason best to delay the formation of wing shockwaves is
1 minimise noise
2 keep drag penalty to a minimum
3 so that mach trimmers are not required
4 to stop tailplane vibration

Answer 291

2 keep drag penalty to a minimum

Question 292

Fast transport aircraft may have a supercritical wing section. This is to
1 give maximum lift at low speed
2 give maximum lift at high speed
3 reduce the top wing surface acceleration
4 reduce the bottom wing surface acceleration

Answer 292

3 reduce the top wing surface acceleration

Question 293

An aircraft is slowly accelerating through its Mcrit to transonic cruise. the Co of L
1 decrease then increase
2 increase then decrease
3 keeps increasing
4 keeps decreasing

Answer 293

2 increase then decrease

Question 294

Jet aircraft maximum rate of climb Vy is determined by
1 thrust over weight
2 drag over thrust
3 excess power over weight
4 excess power over drag

Answer 294

3 excess power over weight

Question 295

Vs is
1 minimum steady flight speed
2 stall speed
3 the sinking speed

Answer 295

1 minimum steady flight speed

Question 296

You want your jet aircraft to stay airborne as long as possible. You would achieve this by flying -
1 at the appropriate holding speed at any level
2 at an altitude where use of the engine design RPM would result in a speed of Vimd
3 as high as possible at a speed of 1.32 Vimd
4 as low as possible at a speed of Vimd

Answer 296

2 at an altitude where use of the engine design RPM would result in a speed of Vimd

Question 297

To achieve maximum angle of climb, you would climb at
1Vmo using max cruise power
2 Vs using maximum climb power
3 Vref using max thrust
4 Vimd using maximum thrust

Answer 297

4 Vimd using maximum thrust

Question 298

Va is

Answer 298

manoeuvring

Question 299

Swept wing employ a stick pusher which operates at
1 Vs 1.3
2 10 kt above stalling
3 the speed below which controlled level flight is not sustainable
4 15 degrees AoA

Answer 299

3 the speed below which controlled level flight is not sustainable

Question 300

Jet aircraft overspeed warnings occur at
1 At Vmo/Mmo
2 slightly above Vmo/Mmo
3 slightly below Vmo/Mmo
4 slightly below Vdf/Mdf

Answer 300

2 slightly above Vmo/Mmo

Question 301

Airflow through a shockwave will experience
1 a decrease in temp, density and pressure but an increase in velocity
2 a decrease in temp density pressure and velocity
3 an increase in temp density pressure and velocity
4 an increase in temp, density and pressure but a decrease in velocity

Answer 301

4 an increase in temp, density and pressure but a decrease in velocity

Question 302

Jet aircraft SAR as as comparison of air distance per tonne of fuel consumed would be expressed in the form
1 10anm/100kg
2 100anm/1000kg
3 1anm/10kg
4 10kg/anm

Answer 302

2 100anm/1000kg

Question 303

Optimum range is achieved by flying at
1 a constant flight level 1.32 Vimd and max cruise RPM
2 a cruise climb 1.32 Vimd and max continuous RPM
3 a constant flight level 1.32 Vimd and design RPM
4 a cruise climb 1.32 Vimd and design RPM

Answer 303

4 a cruise climb 1.32 Vimd and design RPM

Question 304

Climb IAS decreases with increased altitude because
1 maximum excess power occurs at a lower IAS at high altitude
2 maximum excess power occurs at a lower TAS at high altitude
3 a constant AoA is required
4 the engines are producing less thrust as altitude increases

Answer 304

1 maximum excess power occurs at a lower IAS at high altitude

Question 305

A jet aircraft climbs at a certain mach number after a certain altitude has been reached because
1 we need to maintain a constant AoA
2 This equates with the required reducing IAS and to prevent Mach overspeed
3 This equates with the required reducing TAS
4 the IAS is too low to use accurately

Answer 305

2 This equates with the required reducing IAS and to prevent Mach overspeed

Question 306

If required to cruise at a level with significant headwind when max range is required is required?
1 you would fly faster than the theoretical maximum range speed because you need to arrive with planned reserves in tact
2 you would fly faster than the nil wind maximum range speed because you need to achieve the best GS/Drag ratio

Answer 306

2 you would fly faster than the nil wind maximum range speed because you need to achieve the best GS/Drag ratio

Question 307

In a steady climb compared to nil wind a headwind will affect
1 rate of climb only
2 angle of climb and rate of climb
3 neither rate or angle of climb
4 angle of climb only

Answer 307

4 angle of climb only

Question 308

Va is
1 fixed for all weights and alts
2 higher at higher gross weights and lower at lower gross weights

Answer 308

2 higher at higher gross weights and lower at lower gross weights

Question 309

As airflow passes through a normal shockwave
1 velocity changes from subsonic to supersonic with no change in direction
2 velocity changes from supersonic to subsonic with no change in direction

Answer 309

2 velocity changes from supersonic to subsonic with no change in direction

Question 310

Concerning slotted and fowler flaps
1 slotted flaps increase the camber and preserve the energy in the boundary layer while fowler flaps increase the camber and chord

Answer 310

Question 312

Q14 The component in the hydraulic system which can prevent excessive hydraulic fluid loss is the -
A priority valve
B check valve
C pressure relief valve
D hydraulic fuse

Answer 312

D hydraulic fuse

Question 313

In gas turbine engines, effective thrust output during reverse thrust is less than forward thrust
because during reverse the -
A exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited
B engine rpm is limited to 70% N1
C turbine is not as effective due to build up of back pressure
D ingestion of exhaust gas causes compressor stall and loss of engine thrust

Answer 313

A exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited

Question 314

922 In a conventional flight instrument system in an aircraft, the autopilot altitude hold information
comes from -
A the captain’s altimeter
B the co-pilot’s altimeter
Cthe Air Data Computer (ADC
D the autopilot aneroid

Answer 314

D the autopilot aneroid

Question 315

In an B767 with three autopilots, for a fail operational autoland approach, the number of electrical systems required is -

1 AC/DC system
2 AC/DC systems
3 AC/DC systems
4 AC/ DC systems

Answer 315

3 AC/DC systems

Question 316

In a B767 EFI system, if the Heading Reference Switch is selected to TRUE, and the aeroplane is flying from SYDNEY to PERTH, the following EHSI mode which will NOT display TRUE track UP is -
A plan
B map
C VOR

Answer 316

C VOR

Question 317

Hot air for engine and nacelle anti-icing is normally obtained from the -
A high pressure compressor stage
B Low pressure compressor stages
Cturbine outlet
D compressor outlet

Answer 317

B Low pressure compressor stages

Question 318

The environmental variable which will result in an increased Vmca in a multi-engine aeroplane is an increase in -
A temperature
B density
C pressure altitude
D humidity

Answer 318

B density

Question 319

A b767 is in crise with stabiliser trim set correctly for a relatively forward Centre of Gram, position of the elevator would be
A up
B down
C faired
D automatically adiusted by the autopilot

Answer 319

C faired

Question 320

An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag curve to move -
A up and left
Bup and right

Answer 320

Bup and right

Question 321

The deployment of spoilers will cause the position of the total drag curve to move -
A up and left
B up and right

Answer 321

B up and right

Question 322

More range will be achieved in a gas turbine powered aircraft with -
A 1 kg of AVTUR
B 1L of AVTUR
C neither, the range is the same for both
D either, it depends on the temperature

Answer 322

A 1 kg of AVTUR

Question 323

In the event of total hydraulic failure with nose wheel steering, safety valves (emergency valves) .
Acentralise the nose wheel
Blimit the angle of turn
C allow the nose wheel to swivel
D prevent nosewheel shimmy

Answer 323

C allow the nose wheel to swivel

Question 324

The function of a pneumatic restrictor valve in an large aircraft pneumatic system is to -
adjust the speed of the air flow

Answer 324

adjust the speed of the air flow

Question 325

The type of rectifiers normally used in large aircraft AC generators to provide DC for field excitation of the main generator are
1 half wave rectifier
2 quarter wave rectifier
3 three wave rectifier
4 full wave bridge rectifier

Answer 325

4 full wave bridge rectifier

Question 326

Answer 326

D

Question 327

Answer 327

A

Question 328

Answer 328

B

Question 329

Answer 329

KvaREACTIVE

Question 330

Question 331

Answer 331

B

Question 332

Answer 332

A

Question 333

Answer 333

A
A
B

Question 334

Answer 334

B
C
B

Question 335

Answer 335

D

Question 336

Answer 336

B

Question 337

Answer 337

C
A
B
A

Question 338

Answer 338

A

C

Question 339

Answer 339

B
B

Question 340

Answer 340

D
D

Question 341

Answer 341

B
A

Question 342

Answer 342

C

Question 343

Hardover

Answer 343

Question 344

Answer 344

C
C
D

Question 345

Answer 345

D
A
B
C

Question 346

Answer 346

C

Question 347

Answer 347

A
C

Question 348

Answer 348

D

Question 349

Answer 349

E

Question 350

Answer 350

C
D

Question 351

Answer 351

A

Question 352

Answer 352

D

Question 353

Answer 353

B

Question 354

Answer 354

A
C

Question 355

Answer 355

B
D

Question 356

Answer 356

C

Question 357

Answer 357

C

Question 358

Answer 358

B