Exam Two Flashcards

1
Q

What two things do you tell a person with a conversion disorder?

A

serious neurological issues have been ruled out

benign neurological disorder

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2
Q

What is the goal for factitious disorder?

A

to assume sick role

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3
Q

Is Malingeering a psychiatric disorder?

A

no

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4
Q

Is the goal of malingeering to assume a sick role?

A

no

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5
Q

What is the goal of malingeering?

A

to obtain some desired outcome

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6
Q

Disorder in what organ system have been linked to functional disorders?

A

neuro-endocrine

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7
Q

Avoid promising what?

A

a cure

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8
Q

Who cant oppositional defiant disorder be directed at?

A

sibling

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9
Q

After what age does the incidence of ODD decrease?

A

12

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10
Q

Do must children with ODD go on to develop Conduct Disorder?

A

no

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11
Q

Do most children with Conduct Disorder first develop ODD?

A

yes

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12
Q

Treatments of ODD are based off of what group?

A

family

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13
Q

Does childhood or adolescent onset of Conduct Disorder have a worse prognosis?

A

childhood

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14
Q

Comorbid substance abuse is common in which group with Conduct Disorder?

A

teenage girls

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15
Q

Are people with IED looking for a gain?

A

no

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16
Q

Do patients with IED feel regret?

A

yes

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17
Q

Is the prognosis better for kids or adults who set fires?

A

kids

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18
Q

When does the Id emerge?

A

at birth

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19
Q

What principle is the Id covered by?

A

pleasure principle

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20
Q

When does the Ego emerge?

A

after birth

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21
Q

Is the Id conscious or unconscious?

A

unconscious

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22
Q

What principle does the Ego function on?

A

reality principle

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23
Q

Which part of personality negotiates?

A

Ego

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24
Q

What does the Ego negotiate?

A

outside world

personal desires

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25
Q

What does the ego require to manage anxiety?

A

defense mechanisms

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26
Q

Which part of personality is the last to develop?

A

Superego

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27
Q

What causes the Superego to develop?

A

right and wrong

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28
Q

What is Displacement?

A

taking anger out on something

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29
Q

Passive-Aggression is expression of acting via what?

A

not acting

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30
Q

What is projection?

A

taking ones own unacceptable impulses and attributing them to someone else

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31
Q

What is rationalization?

A

stating a logically plausible and socially acceptable explanation for a behavior driven by emotion

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32
Q

What is Reaction Formation?

A

when an unconscious feeling that causes anxiety is transformed into a conscious feeling that is the exact opposite

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33
Q

What is sublimation?

A

when an unacceptable impulse is re-directed into a culturally worthy purpose or activity

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34
Q

What is the prevalence of sexual dysfunction in women?

A

38%

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35
Q

What is the prevalence of sexual dysfunction in men?

A

29%

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36
Q

A sexual dysfunction has to cause what two things?

A

distress

interpersonal difficulty

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37
Q

Generally, how long does a sexual dysfunction have to be present for to diagnose?

A

six months

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38
Q

Is there good or poor correlation between female sexual arousal and lubrication?

A

poor

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39
Q

In what percentage of sexual encounters must an erection dysfunction be present it?

A

> 75%

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40
Q

In what percentage of sexual encounters must a female orgasm disorder be present it?

A

> 75%

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41
Q

Do orgasms increase or decrease after 35?

A

increase

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42
Q

Are pain and penetration disorders more common in highly educated or low educated individuals?

A

high

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43
Q

What is the new drug for female hypoactive desire disorder?

A

filbanserin

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44
Q

What is a paraphilia?

A

preferential sexual interest

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45
Q

What is a paraphilic disorder?

A

disorder that results from the interest

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46
Q

DSM says a paraphilic disorder has to act on what?

A

impulses

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47
Q

Can a paraphilic disorder be made from an experiment?

A

no

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48
Q

Do paraphilic disorder begin before or after the age of 18?

A

before

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49
Q

Are paraphilic disorder more often male or female?

A

male

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50
Q

Are paraphilic disorder more often male or female?

A

male

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51
Q

Are paraphilic disorders more often homosexual or heterosexual?

A

hetero

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52
Q

What is the most common paraphilic disorder?

A

pedophilia

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53
Q

What is the most common paraphilic disorder?

A

pedophilia

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54
Q

Do paraphilic disorders increase or decrease after age 25?

A

decrease

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55
Q

What is exhibitionism?

A

exposure of one’s genitals

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56
Q

A paraphilic disorder requires a fantasy and what?

A

an intense urge to act out that fantasy

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57
Q

What is exhibitionism?

A

exposure of one’s genitals

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58
Q

What may exhibitionism be a sign of in later life?

A

dementia

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59
Q

What is Frotteurism?

A

involves touching or rubbing on a person

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60
Q

Pedophilia involves a child under what age?

A

13

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61
Q

What is a paraphilic disorder involving the feces called?

A

Coprophilia

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62
Q

What does transvestic voyeurism involve?

A

cross dressing

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63
Q

Is a paraphilic disorder presenting at an older or younger age worse?

A

younger

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64
Q

What is a paraphilic disorder involving enemas called?

A

Klismaphilia

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65
Q

Is a paraphilic disorder presenting at an older or younger age worse?

A

older

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66
Q

Is a history or intercourse good or bad for a paraphilia?

A

good

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67
Q

Are cross-sexed hormones FDA approved?

A

no

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68
Q

Name three viruses to vaccinate transgenders against?

A

HAV

HBV

HPV

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69
Q

Regarding Gender Identity, which two areas get discriminated against?

A

heterosexism

phobias

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70
Q

Assess for what two allergies for during testosterone supplementation?

A

cottonseed

sesame oil

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71
Q

What type of adenoma is a contraindication to estrogen therapy?

A

pituitary

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72
Q

Are women of higher education or lower education more likely to develop post-partum depression?

A

lower

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73
Q

What percentage range of women experience baby blues?

A

50-85%

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74
Q

On what day do symptoms of baby blues peak post-birth?

A

4th-5th day

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75
Q

Are baby blues a disorder?

A

no

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76
Q

Evaluation is needed is Baby Blues last longer than how long?

A

two weeks

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77
Q

What range of months post-partum does PPD arise?

A

2-3 months

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78
Q

Is there a correlation between hormone levels and PPD?

A

no

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79
Q

What is the rate of post-partum anxiety in relation to post-partum depression?

A

same rate

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80
Q

Post-partum OCD can manifest with what type of feelings towards the baby?

A

intrusive thoughts of harming the baby

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81
Q

What are the two most concerning risks of Postpartum Psychosis?

A

suicide and infanticide

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82
Q

Compared to control, 41% of depressed moms had what thought?

A

harming their baby

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83
Q

What is a stronger predictor of fetal outcome, maternal mood or medication exposure?

A

materal mood

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84
Q

Which SSRI do experts prefer?

A

Sertraline

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85
Q

Symptoms of neonatal exposure to SSRI usually resolve within how many weeks?

A

two weeks

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86
Q

Which two conditions always get treated in pregnancy?

A

bipolar and psychosis

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87
Q

What is the biggest risk to the child during post-partum depression? Boys or girls?

A

attachment issues

boys

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88
Q

What is the safest drug mood stabilizer to take during pregnancy?

A

lithium

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89
Q

What is the biggest risk to the child during post-partum depression?

A

attachment issues

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90
Q

What is the safest drug to use during breastfeeding regarding post-partum depression?

A

whichever drug gets the woman better

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91
Q

What is required during a mental health crisis?

A

urgent intervention

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92
Q

What is a mental health crisis an opportunity for?

A

intervention

93
Q

Do most mental health emergencies occur at night or in the day?

A

night

94
Q

What is a common source of error in ER psychiatry?

A

overlooking physical conditions

95
Q

What is a common provider behavior when feeling fear of a patient?

A

more restrictive measures than necessary

96
Q

What is a common provider behavior when feeling anger towards a patient?

A

over-react

punish

abandon

97
Q

What two psych disorders are associated with violence?

A

schizophrenia and mania

98
Q

Childhood aggression with what three additional symptoms is a strong predictor of future violence?

A

firesetting

cruelty to animals

enuresis

99
Q

Regarding personal safety guidelines, always do what?

A

plan ahead

100
Q

Yes or no for direct eye contact?

A

no

101
Q

Avoid what two articles of clothing?

A

neck tie or scarf

102
Q

What is the strongest predictor of suicide?

A

prior attempt

103
Q

Who has more regret, multiple attempters or or single attempters?

A

single

104
Q

Has inpatient treatment been found to be efficacious in lowering suicide rate?

A

no

105
Q

Does transport across BBB increase or decrease in geriatric population?

A

increase

106
Q

IQ is stable until what age?

A

80

107
Q

Does personality change with age?

A

no

108
Q

Regarding the workforce, what will most people who voluntarily retire do?

A

re-enter

109
Q

In the geriatric population, does frequency of orgasm increase or decrease with age?

A

decrease

110
Q

Who determines competency?

A

court

111
Q

Who determines capacity?

A

doc

112
Q

What two psychiatric conditions manifesting in later life may be alarming for neurocognitive disorder?

A

psychosis and mania

113
Q

What is a general rule for geriatric med doses?

A

half

114
Q

Is the prevalence of depression in older individuals higher or lower than in younger individuals?

A

lower

115
Q

Compared to younger individuals, older individuals with depression are more likely to present with what symptom?

A

somatic symptoms

116
Q

Which SSRI can prolong QT?

A

citalopram

117
Q

Which SNRI can raise BP?

A

venlafaxine

118
Q

Which SNRI can cause bleeding?

A

duloxetine

119
Q

Which two tricyclics can prolong QT?

A

nortriptyline

Doxepin

120
Q

What is the most common anxiety disorder in the geriatric population?

A

Phobia

121
Q

Avoid which sleep benzo in elderly?

A

Zolpidem

122
Q

Alzheimers is uncommon before what age?

A

65

123
Q

What type of dementia often exists with Alzheimers?

A

vascular

124
Q

Treat Lewy Body Dementia with what type of drug family?

A

cholinesterase inhibitors

125
Q

Dont treat Lewy Body Dementia with what type of drug family?

A

anti-psychotics

126
Q

In which decade does Pick’s Disease most commonly arise?

A

50s

127
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Huntingtons?

A

autosomal dominant

128
Q

What are the two symptoms of Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

amnesia and confabulations

129
Q

What is the inherited Prion disease?

A

Gerstmann Strauser Shenker

130
Q

What must one do when assessing dementia?

A

identify cause

131
Q

What type of surgery carries the highest risk in the geriatric population?

A

cardiac

132
Q

Which antipsychotic for delirium?

A

haldol

133
Q

Which drug for alcohol induced psychosis in elderly?

A

benzo

134
Q

Beware of what type of side-effects on sedating antidepressants?

A

anti-cholinergic

135
Q

What class of medication has a higher mortality in elderly patients?

A

anti-psychotics

136
Q

Which two antipsychotics for delirium in elderly?

A

risperidone

olanzapine

137
Q

Which anticonvulsant for geriatric?

A

carbamazepine

138
Q

Is memantine an NMDA receptor agonist or antagonist?

A

antagonist

139
Q

Where in the brain is dopamine produced?

A

ventral tegmental area

140
Q

Regarding reward, where does the VTA project?

A

nucleus accumbens

141
Q

Are alcoholics in withdrawal more likely to have auditory or visual hallucinations?

A

visual

142
Q

Which opioid antagonist is used for alcohol abstinence maintenance therapy?

A

naltrexone

143
Q

Which two neurotransmitters is acamprosate associated with?

A

GABA and glutamate

144
Q

What is the most widely used illicit substance?

A

marijuana

145
Q

Are tox screens reliable for K2?

A

no

146
Q

Which hallucinogen can present with violent behavior?

A

PCP

147
Q

Do hallucinegens dilate or constrict the pupils?

A

dilate

148
Q

Is there withdrawl from inhalants?

A

no

149
Q

Do hallucinogens cause nystagmus?

A

yes

150
Q

Do the pupils dilate or construct during opioid withdrawls?

A

dilate

151
Q

What type of agonist is Buprenorphine?

A

partial opioid agonist

152
Q

Is there tobacco intoxication?

A

no

153
Q

Are SSRIs structurally similar or dissimilar?

A

similar

154
Q

Which two SSRIs have active metabolites?

A

sertraline and fluoxetine

155
Q

Which two SSRIs have more side-effects?

A

paroxetine and fluvoxamine

156
Q

At lower doses, does venlafaxine selectively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine?

A

serotonin

157
Q

Other than NE or serotonin , at higher doses venlafaxine can inhibit the reuptake of what neurotransmitter?

A

dopamine

158
Q

Is bupropion useful for anxiety?

A

no

159
Q

Bupropion inhibits the reuptake of which two neurotransmitters?

A

dopamine and NE

160
Q

Which TCA is relatively selective for serotonin reuptake?

A

clomipramine

161
Q

Can MAOIs be used with other anti-depressants?

A

no

162
Q

What is the safest SSRI in pregnancy?

A

sertraline

163
Q

Which antihistamine can be used as an anxiolytic?

A

hydroxizine

164
Q

Which system in the brain do benzos effect?

A

Limbic

165
Q

Which two drugs for anxiety if SSRIs fail?

A

SNRIs and mirtazapine

166
Q

In regards to antipsychotics, what is more important, prevention of side-effects or relapse?

A

relapse

167
Q

Use what type of drug to treat the pseudo-Parkinsonism of anti-psychotics?

A

anti-cholinergics

168
Q

Which type of drug can be used to treat akasthasia?

A

beta-blocker

169
Q

What makes tardive dyskinesia worse?

A

discontinuation of drug

170
Q

Which anti-psychotic is approved to treat the agitation of autism?

A

risperidone

171
Q

What is the most effective of the SGAs?

A

clozapine

172
Q

Use what drug for the weight gain of anti-psychotics?

A

metformin

173
Q

Pts with schizophrenia are at an increased risk of what disease with or without medications?

A

diabetes

174
Q

What type of kinetics does lithium follow?

A

linear

175
Q

Do diuretics increase or decrease lithium levels?

A

increase

176
Q

At what level is lithium toxic?

A

> 1.5

177
Q

What are the two MOAs of valproate?

A

inhibit sodium channels

inhibit GABA degradation

178
Q

Which receptors does ECT downregulate?

A

beta

179
Q

Does ECT cause anterograde amnesia?

A

no

180
Q

What is the MOA of atomexitine?

A

selective norepinephrine re-uptake inhibitor

181
Q

Is psychotherapy top-down or bottom-up?

A

top-down

182
Q

Is pharmacology top-down or bottom-up?

A

bottom-up

183
Q

What does psychodynamic theory focus on?

A

early life experiences

184
Q

What does Behavior Therapy focus its attention on?

A

conditioning and reinforcement

185
Q

What is the most important thing in making a referral?

A

relationship

186
Q

Psychological evaluations are sensitive to what two things?

A

context and time

187
Q

Be cautious about what during psychological testing?

A

prediction

188
Q

Does somatic symptom disorder disrupt life?

A

yes

189
Q

Are symptoms mild or severe during Somatic Symptom Disorder?

A

severe

190
Q

Are symptoms mild or severe during Illness Anxiety Disorder?

A

mild

191
Q

Should the provider accept symptoms as real when dealing with Patients with Unexplained Symptoms?

A

yes

192
Q

Which trait is associated with all Impulse Control Disorders?

A

disinhibition

193
Q

Is ODD more common in males or females?

A

males

194
Q

Can suicide risk persist after gender reassignment?

A

yes

195
Q

What is the goal of transgender care?

A

improve quality of life

196
Q

What fold increase is there in women of relapsing in depression if they discontinue their medication prior to pregnancy?

A

six fold

197
Q

Does lifelong pedophilia more likely occur with boys or girls?

A

boys

198
Q

Which SNRI has a ‘significant’ risk of Discontinuation Syndrome?

A

venlafaxine

199
Q

Are MAOIs reversible or irreversible?

A

irreversible

200
Q

Longterm use of lithium can lead to elevations in what electrolyte?

A

calcium

201
Q

Is atomexitine a stimulant?

A

no

202
Q

Can conversion disorder coexist with an actual neurological problem?

A

yes

203
Q

What is the best predictor of violence?

A

previous violence

204
Q

Transferance is used by what therapy?

A

psychodynamic psychotherapy

205
Q

What does ACT require?

A

good therapist

206
Q

What does IPT focus on?

A

current relationships

207
Q

What is critical for Couple Therapy?

A

timing

208
Q

How long must illness anxiety be present to diagnose?

A

6 months

209
Q

What is the Tx for somatic symptom disorder?

A

Psychotherapy

210
Q

What is there a risk of during Somatic Symptom Disorder?

A

real illness being missed

211
Q

How many PCPs should a patient with Unexplained Symptoms have?

A

one

212
Q

When does ODD occur in males?

A

prior to adolescence

213
Q

Childhood Conduct Disorder must present with symptoms before what age?

A

ten

214
Q

Does IED result in physical damage?

A

no

215
Q

Are partners aware of their partners paraphilia?

A

no

216
Q

How many paraphilias does a paraphilic usually have?

A

3- 5

217
Q

How old must a pedophile be?

A

16 plus five years older

218
Q

Yes or no for oral steroids?

A

no

219
Q

What is the route for estrogens?

A

sublingual

220
Q

What is the greatest predicotor for natal depression?

A

previous depression

221
Q

Is portpartum depression indistinguishable or distiguishable from MDE?

A

indistinguishable

222
Q

Which SSRI can have anti-cholinergic properties?

A

Paroxetine

223
Q

Educate about which two substances concerning elderly sleep hygiene?

A

caffeine and alcohol

224
Q

What are the three substances for Alzheimers?

A

Neurofibrillay tangle

neuritic plaques

amyloid

225
Q

What type of hallucinations for Lewy Body?

A

visual

226
Q

Is naltrexone an opioid antagonist or agonist?

A

antagonist

227
Q

Does duloxetine have equal or unequal reuptake inhibition?

A

equal

228
Q

Are TCAs effected by p450 system?

A

yes

229
Q

Which SSRI is not given once daily?

A

fluvoxamine