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Microbio > Exam2 > Flashcards

Exam2 Flashcards

1
Q 
Enzymes speed up reactions by:
A. Lowering the activation energy
B. Raising the ^G
C. Denaturing the substrate
D. Increasing the product's kinetic energy
A

A. Lowering the activation energy

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2
Q

Fermentation can be defined as

a) Partial breakdown of organic food with the use of an electron transport system.
b) Partial breakdown of organic food without the use of an electron transport system
c) Complete breakdown of organic food with the use of an electron transport system
d) Complete breakdown of organic food without the use of an electron transport system

A

b) Partial breakdown of organic food without the use of an electron transport system

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3
Q

Which metabolic pathway produces NADPH but NOT NADH?

a) Entner-Doudoroff pathway
b) Embden-Meyerhoff-Parnas pathway
c) Pentose-phosphate pathway
d) Two of the above
e) All of the above

A

c) Pentose-phosphate pathway

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4
Q

What is the net result from one acetyl-CoA molecule entering the TCA cycle?

a) 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 FADH
b) 1 ATP, 1 NADH, 2 FADH
c) 2 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH
d) 1 ATP, 2 NADH, 1 FADH
e) 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH

A

e) 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH

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5
Q

Which of the following statements about the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is true?

a) It is composed of multiple subunits
b) It causes the loss of a CO2 from pyruvate
c) It causes formation of NADH from NAD+
d) Two of the above
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

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6
Q

The central intermediate in aromatic catabolism is

a) Ergosterol
b) Propionate
c) Catechol
d) Oxaloacetate

A

c) Catechol

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7
Q

The net equation for alcoholic fermentation is Glucose + 2 ADP + 2 Pi →

a) 2 ethanol + 2CO2 + 2 ATP
b) ethanol + lactic acid + CO2 + 2 ATP
c) 2 ethanol + 2 acetic acid + 2 ATP
d) 3 ethanol + 2 ATP

A

a) 2 ethanol + 2CO2 + 2 ATP

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8
Q

Reduction potential is defined as the tendency for a molecule to:

a) Release H+ in solution
b) Release OH– in solution
c) Accept electrons
d) Donate electrons

A

c) Accept electrons

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9
Q

The proton motive force drives which of the following processes in bacteria?

a) ATP biosynthesis from ADP and Pi
b) Flagellar rotation
c) Nutrient uptake
d) Two of the above
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

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10
Q

The chemiosmotic model explains the synthesis of ATP in all of the following EXCEPT

a) Substrate-level phosphorylations
b) The inner mitochondrial membrane
c) The chloroplast thylakoid membrane
d) Inner membranes of Gram-negative bacteria

A

a) Substrate-level phosphorylations

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11
Q

Enzymes transferring electrons at the start of the ETS are known as _______, whereas enzymes transferring
electrons to the terminal electron acceptor are called _______.
a) dehydrogenases; oxidases
b) oxidases; dehydrogenases
c) reductases; deoxygenases
d) deoxygenases; reductases

A

a) dehydrogenases; oxidases

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12
Q

Which of the following statements about the F1Fo ATP synthase is true?

a) It is a highly conserved protein complex
b) The Fo part functions in generating ATP
c) The F1 part functions in pumping protons
d) Two of the above
e) All of the above

A

a) It is a highly conserved protein complex

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13
Q

Terminal electron acceptors in anaerobic respiration include all of the following EXCEPT

a) Nitrous oxide
b) Hydrogen sulfide
c) Nitrate
d) Sulfate

A

b) Hydrogen sulfide

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14
Q

The acquisition of energy by oxidation of inorganic electron donors is best defined as

a) Phototrophy
b) Auxotrophy
c) Autotrophy
d) Heterotrophy
e) Lithotrophy

A

e) Lithotrophy

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15
Q 
Production of traditionally fermented foods typically relies on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ flora, whereas commercial fermentation 
generally relies on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 a) starter cultures; normal
 b) normal; indigenous
 c) starter cultures; indigenous
 d) indigenous; starter cultures
 e) indigenous; chemicals
A

d) indigenous; starter cultures

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16
Q

All of the following food products are produced by alkaline fermentation EXCEPT

a) Pidan
b) Natto
c) Kimchi
d) Dawadawa

A

c) Kimchi

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17
Q

The semisolid substance produced during milk fermentation is termed

a) Whey
b) Curd
c) Wort
d) Rennet

A

b) Curd

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18
Q

The genus _______ is responsible for the flavor of Swiss cheese.

a) Lactobacillus
b) Propionibacterium
c) Saccharomyces
d) Leuconostoc
e) Penicillium

A

b) Propionibacterium

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19
Q

Malolactic fermentation is involved in the production of

a) Wine
b) Beer
c) Cheese
d) Yogurt
d) Sauerkraut

A

a) Wine

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20
Q

Which pathogen is the most likely hazard to be found in food products preserved through refrigeration?

a) Salmonella enterica
b) Listeria monocytogenes
c) Clostridium botulinum
d) Escherichia coli
e) Enterobacter aerogenes

A

b) Listeria monocytogenes

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21
Q

Which of the following is the reducing cofactor typically used in biosynthesis?

a) NADH
b) NADPH
c) FAD
d) FADH2

A

b) NADPH

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22
Q 
How many turns of the Calvin cycle does it take to feed one molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate into the 
biosynthesis of glucose?
 a) One
 b) Two
 c) Three
 d) Six
 e) None of the above
A

d) Six

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23
Q

All of the following statements about fatty acid biosynthesis are true EXCEPT

a) It involves successive condensations of malonyl-ACP.
b) A dehydratase is used to generate an unsaturated bond.
c) NADH is generally involved in hydrogenation.
d) The initial step involves addition of CO2 to acetyl-CoA

A

c) NADH is generally involved in hydrogenation.

24
Q

Which of the following is a precursor for all tetrapyrroles?

a) Heme
b) Chlorophyll
c) Uroporphyrinogen III
d) Coenzyme B12
e) Phosphoribosyl I

A

c) Uroporphyrinogen III

25
Q

The level of nitrogen fixation is highest under which of the following conditions?

a) High levels of O2 and low levels of NH4+
b) Low levels of O2 and high levels of NH4+
c) High levels of O2 and high levels of NH4+
d) Low levels of O2 and low levels of NH4+

A

d) Low levels of O2 and low levels of NH4+

26
Q

Nitrogen fixation is found only in a few organisms and is tightly regulated because

a) Nitrogen fixation is energy-intensive.
b) Nitrogenase enzyme is difficult to make.
c) Fixed nitrogen is abundant, so nitrogenase is rarely needed.
d) Nitrogen fixation occurs only at high oxygen levels

A

a) Nitrogen fixation is energy-intensive.

27
Q 
Microbial life appeared on this planet as early as \_\_\_\_\_ years ago
A) 8.5 billion
B) 3.7 billion
C) 1.2 billion
D) 531 million
E) 27 million
A

B) 3.7 billion

28
Q 
Chemical indicators of life left in the geological fossil record are known as
A) Biosignatures
B) microfossils
C) abiotic artifacts
D) enzyme markers
E) biotic matter
A

A) biosignatures

29
Q 
All of the following are thought to have been present in early cell metabolism EXCEPT
A) light-driven ion pumps
B) aerobic respiration 
C) redox reactions
D) methanogenesis
A

B) aerobic respiration

30
Q

How do Archaea differ from Bacteria?
A) archaea contain membrane-bound organelles; bacteria do not
B) bacteria can be psychrophiles; archaea cannot
C) archaea contain ester-linked membrane fatty acids; bacteria do not
D) bacteria start protein production with formylmethionine; archaea do not
E) bacteria have introns; archaea do not

A

D) bacteria start protein production with formylmethionine; archaea do not

31
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_refers to the description of distinct life-forms and their organization into different categories with shared traits
A) classification
B) identification
C) nomenclature
D) taxonomy
A

D) taxonomy

32
Q 
The endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts was proposed by
A) Carl worse
B) Francis crick
C) Lynn margin is
D) Rosalind Franklin 
E) Erwin chargaff
A

C) Lynn margulis

33
Q

The heartworm disease is caused by which infectious organism?

a) Alga: Chlamydomonas reinhardtii
b) Protozoa: Paramecium bursaria
c) Fungus: Aspergillus nidulans
d) Bacterium: Burkholderia cepacia
e) Nematode: Dirofilaria immitis

A

E) nematode: dirofilaria immitis

34
Q

A bacterial phylum is a group of organisms that share a common ancestor that diverged early from other bacteria, which is based on

a) 16S ribosommal RNA sequences
b) The presence of certain plasmids
c) The size of their genome
d) Having 70S or 80S ribosomes
e) The presence or absence of a cell wall

A

a) 16S ribosomal RNA sequences

35
Q

Cyanobacteria fix CO2 in _______ and fix N2 in ______.

a) chlorosomes; heterocysts
b) chlorosomes; carboxysomes
c) carboxysomes; chlorosomes
d) carboxysomes; heterocysts
e) heterocysts; carbosysomes

A

d) carboxysomes; heterocysts

36
Q

The “low-GC” species of Gram-positive bacteria belong to the phylum

a) Actinobacteria
b) Proteobacteria
c) Firmicutes
d) Spirochetes
e) Nitrospirae

A

c) Firmicutes

37
Q

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

a) Clostridium - forms endospores
b) Epulopiscium - gives “live birth”
c) Streptomyces - contains telomeres
d) Mycoplasma - “fried-egg” colonies
e) Leuconostoc - actin-propulsion system

A

e) Leuconostoc - actin-propulsion system

38
Q

All of the following are members of the phylum Proteobacteria EXCEPT

a) Bdellovibrio
b) Chlamydia
c) Neisseria
d) Ricketssia
e) Myxococcus

A

b) Chlamydia

39
Q

Swarming motility is a characteristic of which bacterial genus?

a) Proteus
b) Streptococcus
c) Streptomyces
d) Micrococcus
e) Mycoplasma

A

a) Proteus

40
Q

Periplasmic flagella are produced by

a) Proteus
b) Salmonella
c) Borrelia
d) Chlamydia
e) Myxococcus

A

c) Borrelia

41
Q

The ____ lack cell walls and have a double membrane around the nucleoid; their tolerance for low concentrations of nutrients is called ________.

a) planctomycetes; auxotrophy
b) planctomycetes; oligotrophy
c) myxomycetes; auxotrophy
d) myxomycetes; oligotrophy
e) actinomycetes; oligotrophy

A

b) planctomycetes; oligotrophy

42
Q

Archaeal membranes contain ____ lipid side chains.

a) glycoprotein
b) retinal
c) isoprenoid
d) diether
e) ester

A

c) isoprenoid

43
Q

Which of the following is unique to Archaea?

a) S-layers
b) Supercoiled DNA
c) Thermophiles
d) Pseudopeptidoglycan
e) Psychrophiles

A

d) Pseudopeptidoglycan

44
Q

Archaea of the genus _______ are known as double extremophiles, because they require high temperature and high acidity simultaneously.

a) Sulfolobus
b) Desulfurococcus
c) Ignicoccus
d) Thermosphaera
e) Pyrodictium

A

a) Sulfolobus

45
Q

Ammonia oxidizers contribute to the global cycling of

a) Phosphorus
b) Nitrogen
c) Sulfur
d) Oxygen
e) Hydrogen

A

b) Nitrogen

46
Q

All of the following are characteristic of methanogens EXCEPT they

a) Possess rigid cell walls
b) Are crenarchaeotes
c) Include mesophiles and thermophiles
d) Are obligately aerobic
e) Can produce methane via different routes

A

d) Are obligately aerobic

47
Q

_____ have retinal- associated light-driven membrane ion pumps.

a) Sulfolobales
b) Haloarchaea
c) Thermoproteales
d) Nanoaarchaeota
e) Thaumarchaeota

A

b) Haloarchaea

48
Q

The red coloration of the haloarchaeotes is due to the pigment

a) Bacteriorhodopsin
b) Bacterioruberin
c) Halorhodopsin
d) Methanofuran
e) Ferredoxin

A

b) Bacterioruberin

49
Q

Which of the following traits are shared by most fungi?

a) Absorptive nutrition
b) Cell walls composed of chitin
c) Cell membranes containing ergosterol
d) Two of the above
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

50
Q

All of the following are fungal phyla EXCEPT

a) Ascomycota
b) basidiomycota
c) chytridimycota
d) discoidomycota

A

d) discoidomycota

51
Q

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of secondary endosymbiotic algae?

a) loss of heterotrophy (i.e., organism is phototrophic only)
b) chloroplast is surrounded by an extra membrane
c) secretion of a mineral shell
d) presence of the apical coplex

A

b) chloroplast is surrounded by an extra membrane

52
Q

Amoeboid movement is controlled by

a) Cytroplasmic streaming into the extending pseudopodia
b) paired flagella formations extending off of the cell membrane
c) cilia structures surrounding the cell
d) regulation of osmotic and gas vacuoles within the cytoplasm
e) barophilic pumps within the cell membrane

A

a) cytoplasmic streaming into the extending pseudopodia

53
Q

Plasmodium falciparum is a(n)_____ and is transmitted to the human host by the bite of a_____.

a) apicomplexan; mosquito
b) trypanosome; mosquito
c) apicomplexan; tsetse fly
d) trypanosome; tsetse fly
e) apicomplexan; sand fly

A

a) apicomplexan; mosquito

54
Q

Red tide is caused by species of

a) Ciliates
b) Dinoflagellates
c) Apicomplexans
d) Excavates
e) Trypanosomes

A

b) Dinoflagellates

55
Q

The causative agent of African sleeping sickness is

a) Candida albicans
b) Leishmania major
c) Cryptosporidium parvum
d) Giardia lamblia
e) Trypanosoma brucei

A

e) Trypanosoma brucei

Microbio (2 decks)

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