FAR Flashcards

1
Q

An ________ is a liability that represents an expense that has been recognized but not yet paid. A_________ is an asset that represents a prepayment of future expenses that have not yet been incurred.

A

accrued expense, deferred expense

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2
Q

SFAC 5 states that “Relevance is a primary qualitative characteristic. To be relevant, information about an item must have ______ value or ______ value (or both) for users and must be timely.”

A

feedback, predictive

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3
Q

_______ is the process of formally recording or incorporating an item into the financial statements of an entity as an asset, liability, revenue, expense, or the like.

A

Recognition

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4
Q

_______ is the process of converting noncash resources and rights into cash or claims to cash.

A

Realization

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5
Q

________, including consistency, is an enhancing quality that interacts with relevance and faithful representation to contribute to the usefulness of information.

A

Comparability

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6
Q

Comprehensive income is a broad measure of the effects of transactions and other events on an entity, comprising all recognized changes in equity (net assets) of the entity during a period from transactions and other events and circumstances except those resulting from __________.”

A

investments by owners and distributions to owners

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7
Q

_________ as “the amount of cash, or its equivalent, that could be obtained by selling an asset in orderly liquidation.”

A

current market value

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8
Q

______ is a measure of performance during a period that is concerned primarily with the extent to which asset inflows associated with cash-to-cash cycles substantially completed (or completed) during the period exceed (or are less than) asset outflows associated, directly or indirectly, with the same cycles.

A

Earnings

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9
Q

The term reliability is no longer part of the conceptual framework. ________ is now used to capture completeness, neutrality, and free from material error.

A

Faithful representation

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10
Q

The financial statements provide a wealth of information about the performance and financial position of the_______ , but they do not directly allow an evaluation of ______.

A

enterprise, management

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11
Q

Relevance can be broken down into _____ value and _____value.

A

predictive, confirmatory

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12
Q

Faithful representation can be broken down into ______, ______and______.

A

completeness, freedom from material error, and neutrality

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13
Q

______ is an example of an exit price. It equals the estimated selling price less the cost to complete and sell.

A

Net realizable value

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14
Q

Consolidated financial statements are an example of trying to account for the _______ that comprises more than one legal entity.

A

economic entity

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15
Q

The use of _______ valuation places upper (“ceiling”) and lower (“floor”) limits on the measurement of “market” that may not result in a true fair value measurement. Thus, the measurement of ______ at “market” is one of the few exceptions to the use of ASC 820 guidance for fair value measurement.

A

lower of cost or market, inventory

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16
Q

The main pronouncements published by the SEC are the _________ and the ________.

A

Financial Reporting Releases (FRR),

Staff Accounting Bulletins (SAB)

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17
Q

The ________ oversees the compliance with the securities acts and examines all filings made by publicly held companies.

A

Division of Corporate Finance

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18
Q

The ________ completes the investigation and takes appropriate actions when there is a violation of a securities law.

A

Division of Enforcement

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19
Q

The ________ oversees the secondary markets, exchanges, brokers, and dealers.

A

Division of Trading and Markets

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20
Q

The _________ oversees the investment advisers and investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940 and the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.

A

Division of Investment Management

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21
Q

A company that is a large accelerated filer must file its Form 10-Q with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission within how many days after the end of the period?

A

40 days.

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22
Q

Beginning in 20X6 the SEC changed the 10-K filing deadline for large accelerated filers to be _____ days from the fiscal year end. Accelerated filers still have____ days to file their 10-K.

A

60, 75

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23
Q

Regulation _____ governs the form and content of non-financial statement disclosures.

A

S-K

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24
Q

Regulation _____ governs the form and content of financial statements and financial statement disclosures.

A

S-X

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25
Q

The change from LIFO to FIFO is an accounting principle change which therefore does not affect current period income. It is reported as a direct adjustment to the beginning ___________.

A

retained earnings balance.

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26
Q

Net Income +________ = Comprehensive Income

A

Other Comprehensive Income

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27
Q

For trading securities, the changes in value are recorded in ________. However, for available-for-sale securities the changes in value go into a special account, which is called “unrealized gain/loss in __________”, which is located in _________.

A

operating income, other comprehensive income, stockholders’ equity

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28
Q

a three-month U.S. Treasury bill meets the definition of a ___________. Three months is the maximum original ________ under the definition.

A

cash equivalent, maturity

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29
Q

_______ is not disclosed in a cash flow statement. It is a specifically prohibited disclosure under GAAP. The FASB did not want it to be confused with earnings per share.

A

Cash flow per share

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30
Q

All interest payments are defined as _______cash flows, in part, because they affect income.

A

operating

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31
Q

_______ method, reconciles from net income to cash provided by operating activities.

A

Indirect

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32
Q

_______ method, reports all cash receipts and cash payments from operating activities.

A

Direct

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33
Q

Although the indirect method does not report operating cash flows in the body of the statement, _______ and _______ must be disclosed in the notes or supplementary schedule.

A

income taxes paid, interest payments

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34
Q

Companies use S-T investments to park surplus cash. When such investments are classified as _______, cash use in their purchase and proceeds provided from their sale are included in _______ cash flow.

A

trading securities, operating

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35
Q

Defensive Interval Ratio =

A

Quick Assets/Daily Cash Expenses

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36
Q

Dividend payout ratio =

A

common dividends/net income

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37
Q

When the cash basis or the modified cash basis of accounting is used, the title Income Statement, which is appropriate when the accrual basis of accounting is used, should be replaced by the title ___________. This helps distinguish that the statement is not based on full accrual accounting consistent with U.S. GAAP.

A

Statement of Cash Receipts and Cash Disbursements

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38
Q

A ________ (_____) is always included in a set of personal financial statements, and a Statement of Changes in ________ may be included, but is not required.

A

Statement of Financial Condition (Balance Sheet), Net Worth

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39
Q

The ________ sets standards for private companies by weighing the relevance of the information versus the cost benefit.

A

Private Company Council (PCC)

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40
Q

________ is focused on informing the financial statement users that liquidation is imminent.

A

Liquidation basis of accounting

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41
Q

_________ annually review the strategy of the IFRS Foundation and the IASB and its effectiveness, including the consideration, but not the determination, of the IASB’s agenda.

A

The trustees of the IFRS foundation

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42
Q

There are two assumptions underlying the preparation and presentation of financial statements: _______ and _______.

A

accrual basis, going concern

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43
Q

Under IFRS for SMEs, either the cost method or equity method may be used by an investor to account for an investment in another entity (called an “associate” in IFRS for SMEs) over which the investor has__________.

A

significant influence

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44
Q

Under IFRS for SMEs, the _______ and _______ assumptions of cost flow may be used for inventory valuation purposes, but the _______ cost flow assumption may not be used.

A

FIFO, weighted average cost,

LIFO

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45
Q

Are the following items cash equivalent?

  1. Treasury Bill
  2. Treasury Stock
  3. Trading Securities
A
  1. yes
  2. no
  3. no
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46
Q

Freight-out is a ______ expense. It is not inventoried because the goods have reached ______ condition before incurring this cost. Only costs that contribute to preparing ____________ are inventoried.

A

delivery, salable, inventory for sale

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47
Q

In a period of rising prices, a liquidation of older inventory, which carries lower costs, will result in a ______ in the cost of goods sold and _____ profits.

A

decline, higher

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48
Q

This method most closely matches the physical flow of inventory.

A

FIFO

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49
Q

Average cost must be calculated each time additional inventory is purchased.

A

Moving-average

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50
Q

U.S. GAAP defines NRV the same as IFRS. However, U.S. GAAP uses NRV to determine a ______ and ______when determining market value.

A

floor, ceiling

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51
Q

The criterion for capitalizing post-acquisition costs is not whether the market value of the overall asset is increased. Rather, the criteria are (1) increase in ______ or (2) increase in ______or ______including cost reduction.

A

useful life, productivity or efficiency

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52
Q

______ is not subtracted when computing depreciation for DDB

A

salvage value

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53
Q

the best association of terms in the natural resources accounting area with the conceptual framework.

A

Successful efforts method-definition of asset

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54
Q

Recovery of impairment losses is _______under U.S. GAAP.

A

prohibited

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55
Q

Long-lived assets need to be tested for impairment when facts or circumstances indicate that the __________.

A

carrying amount may not be recoverable.

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56
Q

If an asset is held for _______, previous losses can be recovered. The logic is that the recovery will be realized in the near future if the asset is in the process of being _______.

A

disposal, disposed

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57
Q

According to IFRS the recoverable amount is the ________ of fair value less cost to sell or value in use (discounted cash flow).

A

greater

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58
Q

IFRS does not permit “cherry picking” which assets are remeasured within each class of assets. When an asset is revalued,_________ of property, plant, and equipment to which that asset belongs must be revalued.

A

the entire class

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59
Q

In the absence of other relevant factors, an investor is considered to have significant influence over an investee if it owns _____ -_____ of the voting securities of the investee.

A

20% - 50%

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60
Q

Redeemable preferred stock ________ an equity security for investment accounting purposes. Redeemable preferred stock = callable preferred stock

A

is not considered

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61
Q

An investor MAY elect to use _____ to account for or measure some investments that otherwise would be accounted for using amortized cost or the equity method

A

fair value

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62
Q

Premature sale of held-to-maturity securities are considered at maturity if either (1) the sale occurs so ________ that interest rate risk is virtually eliminated, or (2) the sale occurs after at least _____% of the principal has been collected.

A

close to maturity, 85%

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63
Q

The LCM method is no longer applicable to investments. Investments in available-for-sale securities are reported at _______ under the fair value method.

A

market value

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64
Q

Under IFRS, debt securities, changes in fair value may be reported in profit/loss or in other comprehensive income, depending on whether or not the investment is ________or not.

A

held for trading purposes

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65
Q

Under IFRS, Only investments in ______securities may be transferred between categories.

A

debt

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66
Q

Under IFRS, When investments are transferred between categories, financial statements of prior periods presented for comparative purposes must be restated (Statement II). True/False??

A

True

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67
Q

An investment in the debt of another entity _________ the investor an ownership interest or the right to vote in corporate elections.

A

does not give

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68
Q

Goodwill resulting from an investment in another entity (i.e., the excess of the cost of the investment over the investor’s share of the fair value of the investee’s identifiable assets) _______ amortized.

A

is not

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69
Q

Under IFRS, the fair value option can only be applied by certain investors such as _______, _______ or ______.

A

venture capitalist, mutual funds or unit trusts

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70
Q

The life assigned to the intangible asset is the shorter of its ______and ______life.

A

legal, useful

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71
Q

Under GAAP, ___________ intangibles are not subject to amortization. All intangibles are subject to impairment, however.

A

indefinite life

72
Q

In the past, firms capitalized and amortized organization costs. However, now, organization costs are ________immediately. Such costs are internally generated. Typically, only costs paid to outside entities are capitalized to intangible assets, and only those intangibles with ____________ are amortized.

A

expensed, definite lives

73
Q

Under U.S. GAAP, research and development costs must be ________.

A

expensed

74
Q

How we got the patent is irrelevant. Whether we internally developed or purchased the patent from a third party, we can capitalize the litigation costs only if ____________.

A

the defense was successful

75
Q

The greater of __________ or__________ is the recoverable amount according to IFRS.

A

fair value less cost to sell, value in use

76
Q

value in use

A

The value in use of an asset is its present net worth, calculated by estimating its net future value, including its disposable value if the asset becomes impaired.

77
Q

Under IFRS impairment losses associated with __________ are recoverable. Impairment losses associated with goodwill are NOT recoverable.

A

identifiable intangibles

78
Q

The partially secured creditors receive payment from the assets pledged for partially secured creditors. Any remaining claims fall under the ___________ category.

A

unsecured non-priority

79
Q

Dividends are not liabilities until _______.

A

declared

80
Q

Debenture bonds are ________ but rather are backed only by the ________ of the issuing firm.

A

not secured, general credit

81
Q

Is Promotion costs a bond issue cost?

A

yes

82
Q

Nongovernmental not-for-profit organizations use full accrual accounting and the flow of _____________ measurement focus.

A

economic resources

83
Q

The statement of financial position for nongovernmental not-for-profit organizations includes _____, _____ and _____. “_______” is used rather than “retained earnings” by not-for-profits.

A

assets, liabilities, and net assets

Net assets

84
Q

According to SFAS No. 117 para. 26, ____________ (VHWO) must prepare a Statement of Functional Expenses along with their other financial statements.

A

voluntary health and welfare organizations

85
Q

Expenses for not-for-profit organizations fall into two broad categories:

(1) _________ and
(2) __________.

A

program services, supporting services

Expenses for program services are incurred because of the stated mission of the not-for-profit. All other expenses fall under the supporting services classification.

86
Q

Only the amounts that are restricted to a specific purpose by the _______, a party external to the organization, can be included in Temporarily Restricted Net Assets.

A

donor

87
Q

According to FASB Statement No. 124, not-for-profit organizations report their investment in debt securities and equity securities at ________.

A

fair value

88
Q

_____________ to a not-for-profit organization do not need to be capitalized.

A

Collections (i.e., inexhaustible fixed assets) donated

89
Q

(Non-Profit)Three conditions must exist in order for donated services to be recognized as contributions:

A

(1) the services require specialized skills, (2) the persons providing the services possess those skills, and (3) the services would have been purchased if they had not been donated.

90
Q

Hospital revenues are classified broadly into three major categories:

A

Patient Service Revenues,
Premium Fees, and
Other Revenues.

91
Q

The adoption of a balanced budget supports ________ because it is an attempt to ensure that the current generation of citizens does not shift the burden of paying for current-year services to future-years’ taxpayers (GASB Concepts Statement 1).

A

interperiod equity

92
Q

______ equity transfers are nonrecurring or nonroutine transfers of equity between funds (GASB Codification 1800.102). These transfers occur within one accounting period and do not support interperiod equity as an objective of financial reporting.

A

Residual

93
Q

GASB Concept Statement No. 1 defines two paramount objectives for financial reporting in government: (1) _______and (2) __________.

A

Accountability, interperiod equity

94
Q

Measures of _______ are the amount (quantity) of financial and nonfinancial resources that are applied to a service. Example: the amount of salaries paid to firefighters.

A

effort

95
Q

Measures of _____ are the quantity of service provided. Example: the number of fire calls responded to by firefighters.

A

output

96
Q

______ measures indicate the accomplishments or results that occur because of the services provided.

A

Outcome

97
Q

_______ measures related efforts to the output of services. Example: the cost per fire call answered.

A

Efficiency

98
Q

GASB Concepts Statement No. 1 states that interperiod equity is a basic component of _______ and ________to public administration.

A

accountability, fundamental

99
Q

GASB Concepts Statement No. 1 lists the following four financial reporting implications associated with the legally adopted annual budget:

A

(1) expression of public policy, (2) expression of financial intent, (3) form of control, and (4) it may provide a basis for evaluating performance (if the government established service efforts and accomplishment goals as part of its budget process).

100
Q

An _______Fund is commonly used in situations where user fees are the primarily source of revenue and the fee charged is based on an amount sufficient to cover the costs of operations and to provide for capital maintenance

A

Enterprise

101
Q

Fiduciary funds include the following 4 types of funds (PIPPA):

A

P ension trust funds, I nvestment trust funds, P rivate- P urpose trust funds, and A gency funds.

102
Q

A fund is both a ______and an ______ entity. A fund is “_______” because it has assets, liabilities, revenue, expenditure or expense, and fund balance or other equity accounts. A fund is “_______” because it has its own ledgers and contains a self-balancing set of accounts.

A

fiscal, accounting, fiscal, accounting

103
Q

A fund ______ a separate legal entity.

A

is not

104
Q

Proprietary Fund includes 2 types of funds:

A

Enterprise Funds, Internal Service Funds

105
Q

Transfers in from other funds are classified as “__________” and _______ revenues.

A

Other Financing Sources, are not

106
Q

Annual depreciation under the production method is:

___________

A

(current year production/tot.est.production)(cost-salvage)

107
Q

Under IFRS, a cash generating unit (CGU) is:

A

the smallest group of assets that can be identified that generates cash flows independently of the cash flows from other assets.

108
Q

**Since the Debt Service Fund uses the modified accrual basis of accounting, revenues are recognized with measurable and available. A $200,000 is not expected to be available and it should be reported as a _________.

A

deferred inflow or resources

109
Q

According to GASB Statement No. 54, outstanding encumbrances are no longer reported as _____ in the fund balance section, which was the practice prior to Statement No. 54. Significant encumbrances should be _____________.

A

Reserves, disclosed in the notes to the financial statements

110
Q

The __________ is used to reconcile the difference between estimated revenues and appropriations in the entry to record the budget.

A

Budgetary Fund Balance account

111
Q

According to GASB Statement No. 54, a _________ classification pertains to amounts that cannot be spent either because they are not in a spendable form (e.g., inventory, long-term receivables, or property held for resale) or are legally or contractually required to be maintained intact.

A

Nonspendable Fund Balance

112
Q

Amounts that can only be used for a specific purpose, because of constraints imposed by formal action of the government’s highest level of decision making authority, should be reported as _______ Fund Balance.

A

Committed

113
Q

The ______ Fund Balance classification should be used when constraints are placed on the use of resources are either (a) externally imposed by creditors, grantors, contributors, or laws or regulations of other governments, or (b) imposed by law through constitutional provisions or enabling legislation.

A

Restricted

114
Q

Only the ________ Fund can report a positive amount in Unassigned Fund Balance.

A

General

115
Q

___________ – The residual classification for the general fund for amounts not classified as restricted, committed, or assigned. (Note: typically, this classification is only used by the general fund with one exception: _________ amounts in other governmental fund types are reported as unassigned.)

A

Unassigned Fund Balance, negative fund balance

116
Q

The term “________” is not used in government-wide financial statements. A summary reconciliation of conversion of total governmental ________ to _______ of governmental activities in the government-wide statement of net position must be prepared.

A

fund balance, fund balances, net position

117
Q

“_______” represent the difference between assets and liabilities in government-wide financial statements (GASB Statement No. 34) and in fund-level financial statements for proprietary fund types and fiduciary fund types.

A

Net position

118
Q

Net position has three categories: (1) ________, (2) ________, and (3) ________.

A

Net investment in capital assets,
restricted,
unrestricted

119
Q

Fund Balance Classifications:

A
  1. Nonspendable

2. Spendable – a. Restricted, Committed, Assigned & Unassigned.

120
Q

The _________ (_____) includes Fund statements from all three fund categories (governmental, proprietary, fiduciary). The ______ include data from the Governmental and Proprietary Funds only.

A

Comprehensive Annual Financial Report (CAFR),

government-wide statements

121
Q

The Comprehensive Annual Financial Report (CAFR) has three sections:

A

(1) introductory, (2) financial, and (3) statistical.

122
Q

If a city government is the primary reporting entity, what methods are acceptable methods to present component units in its combined financial statements? Two approaches are used for component units:

A

(1) discrete presentation in a separate column of the Government-Wide Financial Statements and (2) blended with the primary government.

123
Q

Discretely presented component units are presented in the __________ only and not in the fund-level statements.

A

Government-Wide Financial Statements

124
Q

If cash from the General Fund is transferred to a Debt Service Fund, the entry in the Debt Service Fund would be a debit to cash and a credit to:

A

Other Financing Sources.

**This type of inter-fund activity is a transfer from one fund to another fund without an equivalent return of assets and without a requirement for repayment. They are classified as Other Financing Sources.

125
Q

Permanent Funds account for the receipt of the endowment principal that is donated to a government and is to be held in trust for the benefit of the government (or of its citizenry as a whole) as ______.

A

revenue

126
Q

Shared Revenues are revenues levied by one government but _____ on a predetermined basis with another governmental unit. Since Shared Revenues are not the result of the_______ activities of the fund, they should not be classified as Operating Revenues.

A

shared, on-going

127
Q

According to GASB, governments are required to use the ______ method to report cash flow from operating activities in the Statement of Cash Flows. (Except private sectors)

A

direct

128
Q

The funded ratio compares the ____________ to the _____________.

A

actuarial value of plan assets,

actuarial accrued pension liability

129
Q

General Fund Transfers to the Debt Service Fund to provide for the servicing of debt is an example of a regular, routine, reoccurring transfer of resources between funds to subsidize current activities that are classified as __________.

A

Operating Transfers

130
Q

The entry to record a purchase order is a debit _______ and a credit to _________. Vouchers Payable is used to record _________ and________.

A

Encumbrances, Budgetary Fund Balance,

invoices for goods, services received

131
Q

__________ is used to record the original legally adopted budget, any subsequent revisions to the budget, and to close out the budget at year-end.

A

Appropriation Control

132
Q

GASB #33 requires that property taxes net of the __________ be recognized as Revenue in the year for which they were levied, regardless of when cash is actually collected.

A

estimated uncollectible taxes

133
Q

GASB Stmt. #33 defines ___________as amounts that are assessed against and billed to taxpayers by the government entity. The most common example of an __________ is Property Tax Revenue.

A

Imposed Nonexchange Revenues, Imposed Nonexchange Revenue

134
Q

GASB Stmt. #33 defines _________ Transactions as legally mandated transfers of resources among governmental entities. Use of these resources is restricted to the purposes defined in the legislation. Revenue sharing monies and entitlements (e.g. Social Security and Medicare, drug abuse programs) are examples of __________ Transactions.

A

government mandated Nonexchange, Government-Mandated Nonexchange

135
Q

GASB Stmt. #33 defines _________ Transactions as transfers of resources resulting from a contractual agreement willingly entered into by two or more entities. These resources must be used for purposes specified in the contract.
Grants (eg. opportunity unlimited) are the primary examples of this type of transaction.

A

voluntary NonExchange

136
Q

GASB Stmt. #33 defines_________ as Nonexchange Revenues that are based on (or derived from) Exchange Transactions. Examples of derived non-Exchange Transactions include tax imposed on hotel charges to support tourism, sales taxes and income taxes.

A

derived tax revenues

137
Q

What is the major difference between an Exchange Transaction and a non-Exchange Transaction for governmental units?

A

Exchange Transactions involve a direct relationship between the charge and the service. Nonexchange Transactions, which are frequent in governments, do not have this relationship (e.g., taxes and fines).

138
Q

Donated fixed assets should be recorded in the fund to which they relate or in the __________, as appropriate, at their _________ when received. GASB 1400.113

A

General Fixed Asset Account group, estimated fair value

139
Q

“Supplies” is one of the _______ class of expenditures, which describes the type of item purchased or service obtained. The ______class of Expenditure describes the fund that accounted for the expenditure (e.g., General Fund).

A

object, fund

140
Q

_______ classes of Expenditures describe period or periods benefited (i.e., current operating, capital outlay, debt service) or as intergovernmental. ______ classes of Expenditure describe the department or organization unit associated with the expenditure (e.g., Public Safety).

A

Character, Functional

141
Q

Property taxes are both __________ and _________ to finance current period expenditures and, therefore, are “susceptible for accrual,” and revenues are recorded prior to when cash is collected.

A

objectively measurable, available

e.g. Fines and Forfeits, Licenses and Permits, service charges are not objectively measurable

142
Q

The gain or loss on retirement of debt is included in__________.

A

income from continuing operations.

143
Q

Dividends in arrears are _______ only. They are not recognized as a liability until ________.

A

footnoted, declared

144
Q

A property dividend should be recorded in retained earnings at the property’s____________

A

Market value at date of declaration.

145
Q

Less than 20%-25% => small dividends. Small stock dividends are capitalized at _________.

A

market value

146
Q

Appropriations of retained earnings is actions by the board of directors to disclose __________.
It is merely a partitioning of retained earnings into two parts: (1) _________, and (2) ________.

A

amounts not available for dividends,

(1) available for dividends, and (2) unavailable

147
Q

simple capital structure refers to a corporation that _______________.

A

does not issue dilutive securities to finance its organization.

148
Q

___________ Method assumes convertible securities were converted at the beginning of the period

A

If-converted method

149
Q

A dividend issued in the form of a note payable is a ________ dividend.

A

Scrip dividend

150
Q

A form of compensation which allows employees to receive stock or cash for the difference between the stated value and the market value.

A

Stock appreciation rights

151
Q

When a company goes through a quasi-reorganization, its balance sheet carrying amounts are stated at:

A

Fair Value

152
Q

_________ Method recognizes no income until the cash collections exceed the cost of the equipment.

A

Cost Recovery Method

153
Q

The installment method of revenue recognition recognizes deferred gross profit equal to the__________multiplied by the related amount of __________.

A

gross profit percentage,

gross accounts receivable

154
Q

Deferred gross profit is a _____ account to accounts receivable which _______ net accounts receivable to its cost equivalent.

A

contra, reduces

155
Q

Collections (i.e., inexhaustible fixed assets) donated to a not-for-profit organization do not need to be capitalized. Three conditions must be met:

A

(1) the asset is held for public exhibition, education, or research rather than financial gain; (2) the asset must be protected, unencumbered, cared for, and preserved; and (3) the asset is subject to a policy that requires proceeds from sales of collection items to be used to acquire other items for the collection. Only the famous painting donated for display appears to meet these three conditions.

156
Q

All________ companies are required to report EPS information. However, only the ________year is affected. ________of prior-year statements is not required.

A

publicly traded, current, Restatement

157
Q

Total revenues for a consolidated entity are calculated by adding the total revenue of the parent for the year and the total revenue of the subsidiary from __________________.

A

the date of acquisition

158
Q

Under IFRS, contingent assets__________. Under U.S. GAAP, contingent assets are recognized if the item meets the criteria of the definition of an asset.

A

are not recognized

159
Q

Under IFRS, redeemable preferred stock would likely be treated in its entirety as a _________ because the stock can be redeemed (repurchased) by the issuing corporation at its discretion. Since the preferred shares can be redeemed at the discretion of the issuing corporation, it is not treated as ________, but rather as a _______.

A

financial liability, equity, liability

160
Q

________ does not have a category of financial assets for loans and receivables; _______does have such a category.

A

U.S. GAAP, IFRS

161
Q

Under _______, an impairment loss on a financial asset is measured as the difference between the carrying value and the fair value of the asset; under ________, an impairment loss on a financial asset is measured as the difference between the carrying value and the recoverable amount of the asset.

A

U.S. GAAP, IFRS

162
Q

An option where the price of the underlying is equal to the strike or exercise price.

A

At the money

163
Q

An agreement between the two parties to buy and sell a specific quantity of a commodity, foreign currency, or financial instrument at an agreed-upon price, with delivery and/or settlement at a designated future date. (需透过交易所,直接买卖双方交易。)

A

Forward contract

164
Q

A forward-based contract to make or take delivery of a designated financial instrument, foreign currency, or commodity during a designated period, at a specified price or yield. (Highly standardized, 需透过交易所)

A

Futures contract

165
Q

A call option where the price of the underlying is greater than the strike or exercise price of the underlying.

A

In the money

166
Q

The referenced associated asset or liability, commonly a number of units.

A

Notional amount

167
Q

A call option where the strike or exercise price is greater than the price of the underlying.

A

Out of the money

168
Q

A specified price or rate such as a stock price, interest rate, or commodity price.

A

Underlying

169
Q

Contingency Gain are not recognized in the financial statements until the contingency is __________.

A

removed

170
Q

When a range of losses is possible for a recognized contingent liability, with no one point in the range more probable than the others, the _________limit of the range is the amount recognized.

A

lower

171
Q

A reasonably possible loss contingency is ___________, but not __________.

A

disclosed in the footnotes, recognized as a liability

172
Q

Only when the contingent loss is both_______and ________ is the loss accrued (recognized).

A

probable, estimable (缺一不可)

173
Q

Warranty liability (separate contract) is a __________ liability. Warranty liability (regular warranty - not separable from sale) is a __________ liability.

A

definite, contingent

174
Q

By definition (SFAS #52), an entity’s functional currency is the currency of the _______________ in which the entity operates.

A

primary economic environment

175
Q

According to GASB Statment No. 68 (para 46(b)(1)(d), governmental employers must report as required supplemental information, the ______________as a percentage of the actuarially determined total pension liability.

A

pension plan’s fiduciary net position