Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cell Bio > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What do prokaryotes and eukaryotes have in common?

A

Ribosomes, plasma membrane, cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A researcher made an interesting observation about a protein made by the rough endoplasmic reticulum and eventually found in a cell’s plasma membrane. The protein in the plasma membrane was actually slightly different from the proteins made in the ER. The protein was probably altered in the

A

Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which statement about the cytoskeleton is true?
- components of the cytoskeleton often mediate the movement of organelles within the cytoplasm
-microtubules are the chains of proteins that resist stretching
plant cells lack a cytoskeleton because they have a rigid cell wall
intermediate filaments are hollow tubes of proteins that provide structural support

A

components of the cytoskeleton often mediate the movement of organelles within the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is correct?
-they are found in animal cells but not plant cells
-they are found in the cells of human female but not those of human males
-they pair up in prophase II
-they are found in haploid cells
-they have genes for the same traits at the same loci

A

they have genes for the same traits at the same loci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When we say that Ann organism is haploid, we mean that

A

its cells have a single set of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At the end of telophase I of meiosis and the first cytokinesis, there are

A

two haploid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sister chromatids are

A

identical copies of each other formed through DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

a non-membrane enclosed region in a prokaryotic cell where the chromosome is located

A

nucleoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a complex of rRNA and protein molecules that functions as a site of protein synthesis

A

ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

has bound ribosomes; distributes transport vesicles and is a membrane factory for the cell

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

an organelle in eukaryotic cells that lack ribosomes; synthesizes lipid, metabolizes carbohydrates detoxifies drugs and poisons, and stores calcium ions

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

an organelle in eukaryotic cells that serves as the sit of cellular respiration; uses oxygen to break down organic molecules and synthesize ATP

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

an organelle in eukaryotic cells consisting of flattened membranous sacs called cistern; modifies products of the ER. manufactures certain macromolecules; sorts and packages materials into transport vesicles

A

Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

contains of most of the cell’s DNA

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

an organelle found in plants and photosynthetic protists that absorbs sunlight and is the site of photosynthesis

A

chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the membrane at the boundary of every cell that acts as a selective barrier, regulating the cell’s chemical composition

A

plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

large vesicle derived from the ER and Golgi apparatus that perform a variety of functions

A

vacuoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(phase of mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) The division of the cytoplasm usually well under way by the late telophase

A

cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(phase of mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) DNA replication

A

interphase (s-phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(phase of mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) Chromosomes’ centromeres are at the metaphase plate

A

mitosis (metaphase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) centrosomes move away from each other propelled partly by the lengthening microtubules

A

mitosis (prophase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) the cell plate enlarges until its surrounding membrane fuses with the plasma membrane along the perimeter of the cell

A

cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis)kinetochores of the sister chromatids attach to the kinetochore microtubules coming from opposite poles

A

mitosis (metaphase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) Begins when the cohesions are cleaved allowing the sister chromatids to part. Each chromatid becomes an independent chromosome

A

mitosis (anaphase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) kinetochore forms at each centime of each chromatid

A

mitosis (prometaphase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) nuclear envelopes arise from the fragments of the parent cell’s nuclear envelope and other portions of the end-membrane system

A

mitosis (telophase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) any remaining spindle microtubules depolymerize

A

mitosis (telophase)

28
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) microtubules from the centrosomes invade the nuclear area

A

mitosis (prometaphase)

29
Q

(phase of mitosis mitosis, interphase, or cytokinesis) the cleavage furrow deepens until the parent cell is pinched in two

A

cytokinesis

30
Q

(part of meiosis) nuclei form, chromosomes begin decondensing and cytogenesis occurs; each half of the cell has a complete haploid set of chromosomes; each chromomse has one sister chromatid

A

telophase II

31
Q

(part of meiosis) spindle apparatus forms; chromosomes (still consisting of two sister chromatids) are moved towards the metaphase plate by microtubules

A

prophase II

32
Q

(part of meiosis) homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles guide by the spindle apparatus; sister chromosome cohesion is maintained and the chromatids move together toward the same pole

A

anaphase I

33
Q

(part of meiosis) chromatids separate due to breakdown of the proteins holding them together chromatids move towards opposite poles as individual chromosomes

A

anaphase II

34
Q

(part of meiosis)centrosome movement, spindle formation, and nuclear envelope formation occurs as in mitosis; chromosomes condense; each chromosome pairs with its homolog; crossing over occurs microtubules from the poles attach to the kinetochores one at each homolog; the kinetochores on the sister chromatids of the homolog are linked together by proteins and act as a single kinetochore; microtubules move the homologous pairs towards the metaphase plate

A

prophase I

35
Q

(part of meiosis) pairs of homologous chromosomes are arranged at the metaphase plate; one chromosome of each pair facing each poole; both chromatids of the one homolog are attached to the kinetochore microtubules from one pole; the chromatids of the other homolog are attached to the kinetochore microtubules from the other pole

A

metaphase I

36
Q

(part of meiosis) chromosomes are positioned at the metaphase plate; the two sister chromatids are not genetically identical; kinetochores of sister chromatids are attached to microtubules extending from opposite poles

A

metaphase II

37
Q

(part of meiosis) begins when each half go the cell has a complete haploid set of chromosomes; each has two sister chromatids

A

telophase I

38
Q

When a protein is denatured, why does it lose its functionality?

A

the covalent bonds that hold the protein in its three-dimensional shape. Without the proper shape, the protein cannot function (breaks the weak hydrogen bonds); changes the temperatures, pH, or exposure to chemicals

39
Q

A substance that minimizes changes in the concentration of H+ and OH- in a solution is a __________.

A

buffer

40
Q

A hydrogen bond

A

are individually weak; form when H atom covalently bonded to one electronegative atom is also attracted to another electronegative atom

41
Q

Protein molecules are polymers (chains) of __________.

A

amino acids

42
Q

What can be correctly used to describe compounds that do NOT mix with water?

A

hydrophobic

43
Q

An element has eight protons, nine neutrons, and eight electrons. Its atomic number and atomic mass, respectively, are __________.

A

number= 8
mass= 17

44
Q

An acid is __________.

A

has a pH value less than 7; increased the H+ ions in a solution (Arrhenius); donates a proton (bronzed) accepts a pair of e- (lewis)

45
Q

The peptide bond is __________.

A

covalently links amino acids to together

46
Q

The partial charges on a water molecule occur because of __________.

A

oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, electrons of the polar bond spend more time closer to the oxygen atom, resulting in a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom and slight positive charges on the hydrogen atoms (unequal sharing of e-)

47
Q

The type of bond that forms to join monomers (such as sugars and amino acids) into polymers (such as starch and proteins) is a(n) __________ bond.

A

covalent

48
Q

Complete and balance the reaction: H2CO3 + Sr(OH)2 →

A

H2CO3 + Sr(OH)2 → CO3Sr + 2H2O

49
Q

Complete and balance the reaction: HCl + NaOH →

A

H2O + NaCl

50
Q

Complete and balance the reaction: Ca(OH)2 + H3PO4→

A

3Ca(OH)2 + 2H3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6H2O

51
Q

Complete and balance the reaction: HCl + Al(OH)3 →

A

3HCl + Al(OH)3 → AlCl3 + 3H2O

52
Q

Identify the functional group: NH2

A

amino group (amines)

53
Q

Identify the functional group: PO4

A

phosphate group ( organic phosphate)

54
Q

Identify the functional group: OH

A

hydroxyl group (alcohols)

55
Q

Identify the functional group: CH3

A

methyl group (methylated compounds)

56
Q

Identify the functional group: SH

A

sulfhydryl group (thiols)

57
Q

Indicate whether the following is monosaccharide, disaccharide, or polysaccharide: Glucose

A

monosaccharides

58
Q

Indicate whether the following is monosaccharide, disaccharide, or polysaccharide: Starch

A

polysaccharide

59
Q

Indicate whether the following is monosaccharide, disaccharide, or polysaccharide: Sucrose

A

disaccharide

60
Q

Indicate whether the following is monosaccharide, disaccharide, or polysaccharide: Fructose

A

monosaccharide

61
Q

Indicate whether the following is monosaccharide, disaccharide, or polysaccharide: Lactose

A

disaccharide

62
Q

Describe the 4 different levels of protein structure.

A
  • primary structure: unique sequence of amino acids “spell out what the protein is”
    -secondary structure: local folding of the polypeptide in some regions due to hydrogen bonding between carbonyl and amino acids groups in the peptide backbone; a-helix and B- pleated sheet
    -tertiary structure- the polypeptides unique 3D structure due to chemical interactions between R-groups on amino a acids influences by hydrophobic interactions of multiple polypeptides
    -quaternary structure: interaction of multiple polypeptides
63
Q

How are structural isomers different from cis trans isomers?

A

-structural isomer: different covalent arrangements of their atoms
-cis-trans isomer: same covalent bond but differ in their spatial arrangement

64
Q

Distinguish between a saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and a trans fat.

A

-saturated: maximum number of hydrogen atoms possible and no double bonds; all possible Hydrogens it can hold; made from saturated fatty acids; often solids at room temp
-unsaturated: one or more double bonds; made form unsaturated fatty acids; plant based
-trans: made by hydrogenation; process of converting unsaturated fats by adding hydrogen

65
Q

Explain why water is such a unique substance. Describe at least three of the properties where it is different from many other substances.

A

high cohesion, high adhesion, high surface tension, high specific heat, high heat vaporization, evaporative cooling; water is more dense than ice

66
Q

Describe one the roles proteins have.

A

-enzymatic proteins (speed up chemical reactions- digestive enzymes catalyze the hydrolysis of bonds in food molecules)

67
Q

Which summary of protein synthesis is correct?
-messenger RNA is made on a DNA template, and then amino-acid-bearing transfer RNAs bind to the mRNA through codon-anticodon pairing
-replicated DNA leaves the nucleus, is transported to a ribosome, and catalyzes the polymerization of amino acids in a protein
-DNA exchanges its thymine units with uracil in polymerase; this activates polymerase, and it starts joining amino acids together
-transfer RNA lineup on ribosome, and amino acids bind them with hydrogen bonds

A

messenger RNA is made on a DNA template, and then amino-acid-bearing transfer RNAs bind to the mRNA through codon-anticodon pairing

Cell Bio (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions