final Flashcards

1
Q

physical definition of sound

A

sound is pressure changes in the air or other medium

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2
Q

perceptual definition of sound

A

sound is the experience e have when we hear

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3
Q

condensation

A

when vibrations pushes surrounding air molecules together

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4
Q

refraction

A

air molecules spread out to fill in the increased space

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5
Q

sound wave

A

pattern of air pressure changes

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6
Q

do the air molecules move with air pressure?

A

while air pressure changes move outward from the sound source, the air molecules at each location move back and forth but stay in about the same place

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7
Q

what is transmitted with the air pressure changes?

A

the pattern of increases and decreases in pressure that eventually reach the listeners ear

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8
Q

what is the simplest sound wave?

A

pure tones, made from a single frequency

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9
Q

how does the amplitude of a sine wave reflect pressure changes?

A

amplitude is the difference in pressure between high and low peaks of wave peak has maximal compression, and has increased air pressure at that point. trough has maximal refraction, lower air pressure

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10
Q

what kind of wave is sound?

A

longitudinal wave

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11
Q

how do we perceive amplitude?

A

as loudness, measured in decibels

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12
Q

what is the fundamental frequency?

A

the repetition rate of a tone

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13
Q

what are complex tones made up of?

A

made from a number of pure tones (sine wave) components added today, each called a harmonic

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14
Q

what is the first harmonic? what is it also called?

A

pure tone with the frequency equal to the fundamental frequency. also called the fundamental of the tone

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15
Q

what are higher harmonics?

A

pure tones with frequencies that are whole number multiples of the fundamental frequency. (n) (fundamental frequency)

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16
Q

what happens when you remove a harmonic?

A

removing a harmonic changes the tone’s waveform, but the rate of repetition stays the same

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17
Q

loudness

A

perceptual quality most related to the level of amplitude of an auditory stimulus. can be loud or soft

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18
Q

the audibility curve

A

indicates the threshold for hearing vs frequency

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19
Q

what is our range of hearing?

A

20 Hz (infrasound) to 20 000 Hz (ultrasound)

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20
Q

what frequencies are we most sensitive to? why?

A

most sensitive to frequencies between 2 000 and 4 000, because this is the range of frequencies that is most important for understanding speech

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21
Q

can we hear stuff below or higher than the auditory response curve?

A

we can only hear above the curve

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22
Q

what is the threshold of feeling?

A

upper boundary of the auditory response area, tones with him amplitude we can “feel” but they become painful and can cause damage to the auditory system

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23
Q

what is the equal loudness curve?

A

indicates the sound level that creates the same perception of loudness at different frequencies

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24
Q

what happens at low db?

A

unable to hear very low and high frequencies

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25
Q

conversational speech

A

between 500 hz to 3000. around 40-60 db

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26
Q

tone height

A

perceptual experience of increasing pitch that accompanies increases in a tone’s fundamental frequency

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27
Q

tone chroma

A

notes with the letter sound similar. every time we pass the same letter on the keyboard, we have gone up an interval called an octave. notes separated by octaves have frequencies that are multiples of each other

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28
Q

what is the effect of the missing fundamental?

A

pitch sounds constant, even when the fundamental or other harmonics are removed. its not the fundamental frequency that determines pitch, but the interval between harmonics

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29
Q

what is pitch determined by?

A

not the presence of fundamental frequency, but by information

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30
Q

timbre

A

quality that distinguishes between two tones that have the same loudness, pitch and duration but still sound different

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31
Q

what is timbre most closely related to?

A

harmonic structure of a tone. physical dimension of complexity. can be simple or complex

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32
Q

what is pitch most closely related to?

A

frequency. can be high or low

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33
Q

what does removing a harmonic do in terms of pitch and timbre?

A

does not effect pitch, but changes timbre

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34
Q

what constitutes timbre?

A

all other properties of sound except for loudness and pitch

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35
Q

what does timbre also depend on, besides the harmonic structure of a tone?

A

the time course of a tones attack or the tones delay

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36
Q

attack of tone

A

buildup of sound at the beginning of a tone

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37
Q

decay of tones

A

decrease in sound at the end of a tone

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38
Q

why does playing a tone backwards make it harder to determine one instrument from another?

A

tones original decay is now the attack, and the attack has become the delay

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39
Q

what is the fourier power spectrum?

A

plots relative amplitude of frequencies in a complex sound

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40
Q

pinnae

A

structure that sticks out from the sides of your head

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41
Q

auditory canal

A

tubelike structure that protects the delicate middle ear. amplifies sound in the 2-5kHz range

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42
Q

tympatic membrane

A

eardrum at the end of the canal that helps keep this membrane and the structures in the middle ear at a relatively constant temperature

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43
Q

resonance

A

occurs int he auditory canal when sound waves that are reflected back from the closed end of the auditory canal interact with sound waves that are entering the canal

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44
Q

what does resonance do?

A

reinforces some of the sound’s frequencies, with the frequency that is reinforced the most being determined by the length of the canal

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45
Q

resonant frequency

A

the frequency reinforced the most

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46
Q

middle ear

A

small cavity that separates the outer and inner ears. contains the ossicles, oval window, and middle ear muscles

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47
Q

malleus

A

hammer, sets into vibration by the tympanic membrane

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48
Q

incus

A

anvil, receives vibrations from the malleus

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49
Q

stapes

A

stirrup, vibrations transmitted from the incus to the stapes/ stapes then transmits its vibrations to the inner ear by pushing on the membrane covering the oval window

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50
Q

what does the inner ear contain?

A

watery liquid that is much denser than air (cochlea)

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51
Q

what do the middle ear muscles do?

A

attached to the ossicles, at very high sound levels they contract and dampen the ossicles vibrations

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52
Q

cochlea

A

main structure of the inner ear. liquid filled, set into movement by the stapes against the oval window

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53
Q

cochlear partition

A

separates the upper (scala vestibule) and lower half (scala tympani) cochlea when it is uncoiled. extends the entire length and contains the structurs that transform the vibrations into electricity

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54
Q

what is the function of the ossicles?

A

concentrate the vibrations on a smaller surface area which increases the pressure per unit area(17). also act as a level, increasing the vibration (1.3)

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55
Q

what does the outer ear contain?

A

pinnae, auditory canal, tympanic membrane

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56
Q

What does the cochlea contain?

A

the organ of corti, which contains the hair cells that act as receptors for hearing

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57
Q

what aids in the activation of hair cells?

A

the basilar membrane and the tectorial membrane

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58
Q

how many outer and inner hair cells?

A

12000 outer, 3500 inner

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59
Q

what do inner hair cells do compared to outer hair cells?

A

inner hair cells diverge (each connects to 8-30 auditory nerve fibers), and outer hair cells converge (each nerve fiber is connected to many outer hair cells)

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60
Q

how do hair cells get activated?

A

they have cili, which bends in response to pressure changes

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61
Q

how do vibrations bend the hair cells?

A

back and forth motion of the oval window transmits vibrations to the liquid inside the cochlea, which sets the basilar membrane into motion (vibrates at the same frequency as the stapes). the up and down motion of the basilar membrane causes the tectorial membrane to move back and forth, resulting in the cilia of the hair cells to bend

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62
Q

how does bending cause electrical signals? what allows this?

A

ion flow when the cilia of the hair cells bend. tip links allow this. movement in one direction causes them to stretch, opening up tiny ion channels in the membrane of the cilia. when the cilia bends in the other direction, tip links slacken and the ion channels close

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63
Q

what determines the timing of the electrical signals?

A

frequency

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64
Q

phase locking

A

auditory nerve fibers fire in synchrony with the rising and falling pressure of the pure tone

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65
Q

temporal coding

A

connection between the frequency of a sound stimulus and the timing of the auditory nerve fibre firing

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66
Q

what is the vibrating motion of the basilar membrane like?

A

a travelling wave

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67
Q

how does vibration change with frequency on the basilar membrane?

A

high frequency vibrates at the base (narrow and stiff), low frequency at the apex (wide)

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68
Q

place theory of hearing

A

states that the frequency of a sound is indicated by the place along the cochlea at which nerve firing is highest. each place on the basilar membrane is tuned to respond best to a different frequency

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69
Q

tonotopic map

A

orderly map of frequencies along the length of the cochlea

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70
Q

what is the location of the peak in the basilar membrane wave dependent on?

A

hair cells along the basilar membrane are sharply tuned to a best or character frequency

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71
Q

what did new research on frequency vibration show compared to Bekesy? why?

A

found that vibrations for a particular frequency is much more sharply localized than Bekesy had observed. this difference is because bekesy used cochleas from cadavers

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72
Q

what happens in healthy cochleas? what is this called?

A

the outer hair cells expand and contract in response to the vibration of the basilar membrane (motile response), which amplifies and sharpens the vibration. this action of the outer hair cells cochlea amplifier

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73
Q

acoustic prism

A

the way the cochlea separates frequencies along its length

74
Q

how are complex tones represented on the basilar membrane?

A

basilar membrane is a frequency analyzer, vibrates to each of tones harmonics

75
Q

timing code

A

frequency of the sound is reflected in the firing of neurons

76
Q

volley principle

A

neurons cant fire at 700 hz, so the high firing rates are accomplished by ensembles of nerve fibers. works up till 4000 hz

77
Q

where do simple and complex sounds activate in the cortex?

A

simple sounds activate the core area belt, and complex stimuli made up of many frequencies activate the perabelt

78
Q

columnar organization in cortex

A

neurons in the same column prefer the same characteristic frequency

79
Q

what stream is used for sound identification?

A

what or ventral stream. starts in the anterior portion of the core and belt and extends to the prefrontal cortex

80
Q

what stream is used for sound localization?

A

where or dorsal stream. starts in the posterior core and belt and extends to the parietal and prefrontal cortices

81
Q

binaural cues? what are the two?

A

uses info reaching both ears to determine the azimuth of sound. interaural time difference and interaural level difference

82
Q

monaural cues

A

depend on just one ear. spectral cue primary

83
Q

azimuth

A

extends from left to right

84
Q

elevation

A

up and down

85
Q

what do barn owls do?

A

hunt using sound localization, can locate within 2 degrees

86
Q

interaural time difference (ITD)

A

difference between when a sound reaches the left ear and when it reaches the right ear. effective to low freq.

87
Q

interaural level difference (ILD)

A

based on the difference in the sound pressure level of the sound reaching the two ears. effective for high freq

88
Q

what does the head create?

A

an acoustic shadow, reducing the intensity of sound that reaches the far ear

89
Q

what does the acoustic shadow effect more?

A

high frequency waves are small compared to the size of the head and are disrupted by the head and create the acoustic shadow

90
Q

what is the time difference for ITD?

A

600 microseconds

91
Q

our sound localization is accurate to what degree?

A

1 or 2, therefore we are sensitive to ITDs of 7-8 microseconds

92
Q

spectral cue

A

primary monaural cue for localization, info for localization is contained in differences in the distribution (spectrum) of frequencies that reach each ear from different location, based on the reflection of the various folds of the pinnae

93
Q

what happens when a mold is covering the pinnae?

A

localization is poor for elevation immediately after the mold is inserted (can still work for azimuth). after a few weeks, performance improved. localization remained good after removal of earl mold

94
Q

what do ITD and ILD work for?

A

azimuth locations (ITD for low freq, ILD for high)

95
Q

what do spectral cues work best for?

A

judging elevation

96
Q

what is the pathway for ITD?

A

nucleus magnocellularis (NM) to nucleus laminaris (NL) to MLD (lateral mesenscephalic nucleus)

97
Q

what is the pathway for ILD?

A

nucleus angularis (NA) to MLD (lateral mesenscephalic nucleus)

98
Q

what are the cells in the MLD specific to?

A

space specific. there is a “space map” in MLD, it is a computed map based on time and intensity differences

99
Q

what do cells in MLD respond to?

A

a particular ITD

100
Q

what is the auditory pathway to the cortex?

A

begins at cochlear nucleus and continues to SONIC MG, then to the primary auditory cortex/auditory receiving area/A1

101
Q

why is processing in the SON important?

A

important for binaural localization because it is here that signals from the left and right ear first meet

102
Q

Jeffress neural coincidence model

A

used to show how signals from the left and right ear can be combined to determine the ITD. proposes that neurons are wired so that they each receive signals from the two ears

103
Q

coincidence detector

A

part of jeffress model, only fires when both signals coincide by arriving at the neuron simultaneously

104
Q

what is the head directional transfer function?

A

HDTF, uses pinnae to localize the elevation of sound sources

105
Q

what is the posterior belt associated with?

A

spatial tuning

106
Q

what is the anterior belt associated with?

A

identifying different types of sound

107
Q

what did adding the mold to the pinnae do?

A

changed the head directional transfer function

108
Q

precedence effect

A

several kinds of sounds come into your ear, both direct and indirect. we perceive the sound as coming from the source that reaches our ear first (within 5ms)

109
Q

reverberation time

A

time it takes for sound to decrease to 1/1000 the original pressure

110
Q

what happens when reverberation time is too short?

A

music sounds dead

111
Q

what happens when the reverberation time is too long?

A

muddled

112
Q

what is the optimal reverberation time?

A

1.5 to 2 seconds

113
Q

what is intimacy time and the best intimacy time?

A

time between when sound leaves its source and when the first reflection comes back (Best around 20 ms)

114
Q

bass ratio

A

the ratio of low frequencies to middle frequencies that are reflected from surfaces. high bass ratios are the best

115
Q

spaciousness factor

A

fraction of all the sound received by listener that is indirect. high spaciousness factors are the best

116
Q

best reverberation in classrooms and auditoriums?

A

.4 to .6 for classrooms, 1.0 to 1.5 for auditoriums

117
Q

what signal to noise ratio can we have?

A

ideal 10-15, we can as low as 4

118
Q

Auditory stream segregation

A

when we hear alternating high and low notes, we group the high notes together and the low notes together

119
Q

what is auditory stream segregation based on?

A

pitch but also the rate at which tones are presented

120
Q

good continuation

A

phonemic restoration effect. The (cough)eel was on the orange = peel. established after the effect

121
Q

melody schema

A

representation of a familiar melody that is stored in a persons memory

122
Q

what is the link between metrical structure and movement? what was this due to?

A

movement influences the perceptual grouping or metrical structure of beats. due to stimulation of the vestibular system

123
Q

what is the link between metrical perception and language?

A

also under the influence of long term experience, the stress patterns in a persons language can effect the persons perception of grouping

124
Q

cutaneous senses

A

responsible for perceptions such as touch and pain that are usually caused by stimulation of the skin

125
Q

kinesthesis

A

ability to sense the movement of the body and limbs

126
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

receptors that respond to mechanical stimulation such as pressure, stretching, and vibration

127
Q

what are the two type 1 fibers and what are their receptive fields like?

A

merkel disks and meissner corpuscles. they have small receptive fields, and are on the surface of the skin.

128
Q

merkely disks

A

slowly adapting type one, SA1. fire continuously as long as the stimulus is on. for sensing fine detail

129
Q

meissner corpuscles

A

rapidly adapting type one, RA1. fire only when the stimulus is first applied and when it is removed. for controlling hand grip

130
Q

what are the two type 2 fibers and what are their receptive fields like?

A

ruffini cylinder and pacinian corpuscle. have larger receptive fields. are deep in the skin

131
Q

ruffini cylinder

A

slow adapting type two, SA2. respond continuously to stimulus. for perceiving stretching of skin

132
Q

pacinian corpuscle

A

rapidly adapting type two, RA2. responds when the stimulus is applied and removed. for sensing rapid vibrations and fine texture

133
Q

what pathway do signals enter the spinal cord?

A

dorsal root

134
Q

what are the two pathways that transmit stuff from the spinal cord to the brain?

A

medial lemniscal pathway and spinothalamic pathway

135
Q

medial lemniscal pathway

A

large fibers that carry signals related to sensing the position of the limbs (proprioception) and perceiving touch. high speed, important for movement and reacting to touch

136
Q

spinothalamic pathway

A

consists of smaller fibers that transmit signals related to temperature and pain

137
Q

where to the fibers from the spinal cord synapse in the thalamus

A

ventrolateral nucleus

138
Q

do signals in the spinal cord go straight up?

A

no, they cross over the side of the body

139
Q

homonclus

A

map of the body on the somatosensory cortex

140
Q

what are two things wrong with the homunclus?

A

face is upside down (working with epileptic patients who hd changed maps), genitals should be with the hips and smaller

141
Q

what do parvocellular and magnocellular parts of the LGN show?

A

parvocellular shows sustained response and magnocellular shows transient response

142
Q

warm fibers

A

increase firing rate in response to warm (44 deg), decrease to cold

143
Q

cold fibers

A

increase firing rate in response to cold (30 deg), decrease to warn

144
Q

nociceptors

A

respond to intense pressure, temperature, and damaging chemicals

145
Q

what three are over represented in the homunclus?

A

lips, tongue, and hands

146
Q

how does experience have an impact on the amount of cortical tissue devoted to specific parts of the body?

A

expansion of area devoted to stimulated body part was greatly expanded

147
Q

tactile acuity

A

ability to detect details on the skin

148
Q

two point threshold

A

minimum separation between two points on the skin that when stimulated is perceived as two points

149
Q

grating acuity

A

pressing grooved stimulus onto the skin and asking the person to indicate the orientation of the grating

150
Q

where do you have the lowest two point threshold? high two point threshold?

A

lips and fingertips, because they have smallest receptive fields. calf has lowest

151
Q

how does size of receptive field relate to acuity?

A

points that are close together on the finger might fall on receptive fields that dont overlap, cause neurons that are separate in the cortex to fire

152
Q

why is the pacinian corpuscle good for detecting vibrations?

A

there is a corpuscle surrounding the nerve fiber, with layers like an onion and fluid filled. transmits rapidly applied pressure to the nerve fiber, does not transmit continuous pressure

153
Q

what happens when you dissect away the corpuscle?

A

fiber responds to continuous pressure

154
Q

what kind of neurons are in the somatosensory system?

A

There are some centre-surround receptive fields in the somatosensory system
There are are also direction sensitive neurons

155
Q

spacial cues

A

provided by relatively large surface elements, such as bumps and grooves, that can be felt both when the skin moves across the surface elements and when it is pressed onto the elements

156
Q

temporal cues

A

occur when the skin moves across a textured surface like fine sandpaper, responsible for the perception of fine texture

157
Q

Duplex theory of texture perception

A

idea that there are two types of receptors involved in texture perception

158
Q

active touch

A

touch in which a person actively explores an object, usually with fingers and hands. cutaneous, better for perception of objects

159
Q

passive touch

A

occurs when touch stimuli are applied to the skin. cutaneous, for sensations

160
Q

haptic perception

A

perception in which 3D objects are explored with the fingers and hand

161
Q

Exploratory procedures (EP’s)

A

people use a number of distinctive movements to identify objects, and the types of EP’s used depended on the object qualities

162
Q

what are three types of propriception/kinesthesis neurons?

A

rapidly adapting neurons (fire when limb moves in a particular direction), slowly adapting neurons (respond when a limb is moving and when the limb is in a particular position), positional neurons (respond to static position of a limb)

163
Q

what are the 4 types of EPs?

A

lateral motion, pressure, enclosure, contour following

164
Q

what do people use to judge texture? to judge shape?

A

mainly lateral motion and contour following to judge texture. enclosure and contour following to judge exact shape

165
Q

how are S1 (somatosensory receiving area) neurons affected by attention?

A

response rate is greater when the perceiver is paying attention

166
Q

how is roughness judgment affected by movement?

A

ability to tell roughness is enhanced with movement

167
Q

what is infrared detection and who is the best at it?

A

not detected by the eye, but modified somatosensory warm detectors. the rattlesnake is the best at this, has the biggest pit that acts like the surface of a retina

168
Q

what is pain?

A

derived form latin word “poena”, means punishment or penalty. an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience

169
Q

inflammatory pain

A

caused by damage to tissue or inflammation of joints or by tumour cells. aching pain.

170
Q

neuropathic pain

A

caused by lesions or other damage to the nervous system

171
Q

nociceptive pain

A

pain caused by activation of receptors in the skin called nociceptors, which are specialized to respond to tissue damage or potential damage

172
Q

what are the two types of small pain fibers?

A

A delta and c fibers

173
Q

what are a delta fibers

A

burning or stinging fibers, bigger than C because they are myelinated for fast transmission

174
Q

c fibers

A

throbbing or aching pain, slow transmission

175
Q

what are large pain fibers for?

A

touch and pressure sensations

176
Q

how does the gate control model of pain work?

A

nociceptor fibers (s) fire on the transmission cell (+), which excites the dorsal horn and opens the gate and results in pain. mechanoreceptors signal (+) on the negative neurons, which sends a negative signal to the transmission cell, which closes the gate and decreases pain. central control fires excitatory on negative neurons, which decreases firing of transmission cells closes the gate and decreases pain

177
Q

pain matrix

A

all the brain regions that are involved in pain perception

178
Q

multimodal nature of pain

A

both sensory and emotional experience

179
Q

what is the ACC important for?

A

for determining the affective component of unpleasantness

180
Q

what does naloxone do?

A

increases pain by blocking endorphins. also decreases analgesic effect of placebos