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Intro Psych > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Biopsychosocial Model

A

Means of explaining behaviour as a product of biological, psychological and sociocultural factors

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2
Q

Critical Thinking

A

Involves exercising curiosity and skepticism when evaluating the claims of others, and with our own assumptions and beliefs

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3
Q

Hypothesis

A

Testable prediction about processes that can beg observed and measured

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4
Q

Pseudoscience

A

An idea that is presented as science but does not actually utilize basic principles of scientific thinking or procedure

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5
Q

Psychology

A

Scientific study of behaviour, thought and experience, and how they can be affected by physical, mental, social and environmental factors

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6
Q

Scientific Literacy

A

Ability to understand, analyze and apply scientific information

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7
Q

Scientific Method

A

Way of learning about the world through collecting observations, developing theories to explain them and using theories to make predictions

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8
Q

Theory

A

An explanation for broad range of observations that also generates new hypotheses and integrates numerous findings into a coherent whole

  • not the same as opinions or beliefs
  • not all equally plausible
  • number of people who believe theory to be true is not a good measure of determining if theory is good or not
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9
Q

Behaviourism

A

Approach that focuses on studying only observable behaviour, with little to no reference to mental events or instincts as possible influences on behaviour

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10
Q

Clinical Psychology

A

Field of psychology that concentrates on diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders

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11
Q

Determinism

A

Belief that all events are governed by lawful, cause-and-effect relationships

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12
Q

Empiricism

A

Philosophical tenet that knowledge comes through experience

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13
Q

Functionalism

A

Study of purpose and function of behaviour and conscious experience

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14
Q

Gestalt Psychology

A

Approach that emphasizes psychologists need to focus on whole of perception and experience, not just parts

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15
Q

Humanistic Psychology

A

Focuses on unique aspects of each individual human, each person’s freedom to act, his or her rational thought, and belief that humans are fundamentally different from other animals

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16
Q

Materialism

A

Belief that humans and other living beings are composed of exclusively physical matter

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17
Q

Nature and Nurture Relationships

A

Inquiry into how heredity (nature) and environment (nurture) influence behaviour and mental processes

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18
Q

Psychoanalysis

A

Psychological approach that attempts to explain how behaviour and personality are influenced by unconscious processes

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19
Q

Psychophysics

A

Study of relationship between physical world and mental representation of that world

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20
Q

Structuralism

A

Attempt to analyze conscious experience by breaking it down into basic elements and to understand how these elements work together

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21
Q

Zeitgeist

A

General set of beliefs of a particular culture at a specific time in history

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22
Q

Anecdotal evidence

A

Individual’s story or testimony about an observation or even that is used to make a claim as evidence

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23
Q

Appeal to authority

A

Belief in an expert’s claim even when no supporting data or scientific evidence is present

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24
Q

Appeal to common sense

A

Claim that appears to be sound, but lacks supporting scientific evidence

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25
Q

Convenience sample

A

Samples of individuals who are most readily available

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26
Q

Demand characteristics

A

Inadvertent cues given off by experimenter or experimental context that provide information about how participants are expected to behave

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27
Q

Double-blind study

A

Neither the participant nor the experimenter knows the exact treatment for any individual

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28
Q

Ecological validity

A

Meaning do results of lab study apply, or can they be repeated in, natural environment

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29
Q

Falsifiable

A

Hypothesis is precise enough that it could be proven false

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30
Q

Generalizability

A

Refers to degree to which one set of results can be applied to other situations, individuals or events

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31
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

Behaviour change that occurs as a result of being observed

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32
Q

Objective measurements

A

Measure of an entity or behaviour that within an allowed margin of error, is consistent across instruments and observers

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33
Q

Operational definitions

A

Statements that describe the procedures and specific measures that are used to record observations

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34
Q

Peer review

A

Process in which papers submitted for publication in scholarly journals are read and critiqued by experts in the specific field of study

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35
Q

Placebo effect

A

Measurable and experienced improvement in health or behaviour that cannot be attributable to a medication or treatment

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36
Q

Population

A

Group that researchers want to generalize about

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37
Q

Random sample

A

Sampling technique in which every individual of a population has an equal chance of being included

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38
Q

Reliability

A

When some measure provides consistent and stable answers across multiple observations and points in time

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39
Q

Replication

A

Process of repeating a study and finding a similar outcome each time

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40
Q

Sample

A

Select group of population members

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41
Q

Single-blind study

A

Participants do not know true purpose of the study, or do not know which type of treatment they are receiving

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42
Q

Social desirability

A

Refers to research participants responding in ways that increase the chances that they will be viewed favourably

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43
Q

Validity

A

Refers to degree to which an instrument or procedure actually measures what it claims to measure

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44
Q

Variable

A

Object, concept, or event being measured

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45
Q

Between-subjects design

A

Experimental design in which we compare the performance of participants who are in different groups

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46
Q

Case study

A

In-depth report about the details of a specific case

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47
Q

Confounding variable

A

Variable outside of researcher’’s control that might affect or provide an alternative explanation for the results

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48
Q

Control group

A

Group that does not receive treatment or stimuli targeting a specific behaviour, this group serves as baseline to which the experimental group is compared

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49
Q

Correlational research

A

Involves measuring the degree of association between two or more variables

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50
Q

Dependent variable

A

Observation or measurement that is recorded during the experiment and compared across all groups

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51
Q

Experimental group

A

The group in the experiment that receives treatment or the stimuli targeting a specific behaviour

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52
Q

Independent variable

A

Variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between two or more groups

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53
Q

Naturalistic observation

A

Unobtrusive observation and recording as it occurs in the subject’s natural environment

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54
Q

Quasi-experimental research

A

Research technique in which two or more groups that are compared are selected based on predetermined characteristics, rather than random assignment

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55
Q

Random assignment

A

Technique for dividing samples into two or more groups in which participants are equally likely to be placed in any condition of the experiment

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56
Q

Self-reporting

A

Method in which responses are provided directly to the people who are being studied, typically through face-to-face interviews, phone surveys, paper and pencil tests and web-based questionnaires

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57
Q

Third variable problem

A

Possibility that a third, unmeasured variable is actually responsible for a well-established correlation between two variables

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58
Q

Within-subjects designs

A

Experimental design in which same participants respond to all types of stimuli or experience all experimental conditions

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59
Q

Debriefing

A

Researchers must explain true nature of the study and especially the nature of and the reason for deception to participants

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60
Q

Deception

A

Misleading or only partially informing participants of the true topic or hypothesis under investigation

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61
Q

Informed consent

A

Potential volunteer must be informed and give consent to participate, without pressure

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62
Q

Research ethics board (REB)

A

Committee of researchers and officials at an institution charged with protection of human research participants

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63
Q

Behavioural genetics

A

Study of how genes and the environment influence behaviour

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64
Q

Behavioural genomics

A

Study of DNA and the ways in which specific genes are related to behaviour

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65
Q

Chromosomes

A

Structures in the cellular nucleus that are lined with genes an individual inherits

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66
Q

Dizygotic twins

A

Come from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm - fraternal twins (approximately 50% genes in common)

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67
Q

DNA

A

Molecule formed in a double-helix shape that contains four nucleotides

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68
Q

Epigenetics

A

Study of changes in gene expression that occur as a result of experience and that do not alter the genetic code

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69
Q

Evolution

A

Change in the frequency of genes occurring in an interbreeding population over time

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70
Q

Genes

A

Basic units of heredity, responsible for guiding process of creating the proteins that make up our physical structures and regulate development and physiological processes throughout the lifespan

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71
Q

Genotype

A

Genetic makeup of an organism - unique set of genes that comprise individual’s genetic code

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72
Q

Heritability

A

Statistic expressed as a number between zero and one that represents the degree to which genetic differences between individual differences in a behaviour or trait found in a population

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73
Q

Inter sexual selection

A

Situation in which members of one sex select a mating partner based on their desirable traits

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74
Q

Intrasexual selection

A

Situation in which members of same sex compete in order to win the opportunity to mate with members of the opposite sex

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75
Q

Monozygotic twins

A

Come from a single ovum - genetically identical

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76
Q

Natural selection

A

Process in which favourable traits become increasingly common in a population of interbreeding individuals, while unfavourable traits become less common

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77
Q

Phenotype

A

Physical traits or behavioural characteristics that show genetic variation, such as eye colour, shape and size of facial features, and personality

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78
Q

Acetylcholine

A

One of the most widespread neurotransmitters within body, found at the junctions between nerve cells and skeletal muscles - important for voluntary movement

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79
Q

Action potential

A

Wave of electrical activity that originates at base of axon and rapidly travels down its length
- cell goes from negatively charged to positively charged

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80
Q

Adrenal glands

A

Pair of endocrine glands located adjacent to the kidneys that release stress hormones such as cortisol and epinephrine

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81
Q

Agonists

A

Drugs that enhance or miimc the effects of a neurotransmitter’s action

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82
Q

All-or-none principle

A

Individual nerve cells fire at the same strength every time an action potential occurs

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83
Q

Antagonists

A

Drugs that inhibit neurotransmitter activity by blocking receptors or preventing synthesis of a neurotransmitter

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84
Q

Axon

A

Transports information in form of electrochemical reactions from the cell body to the end of the neuron

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85
Q

Cell body

A

Part of neutron that contains nucleus and houses the cell’s genetic material

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86
Q

Dendrites

A

Small branches from cell body that receive messages from other cells and transmit those messages toward the rest of the cell

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87
Q

Dopamine

A

Monoamine neurotransmitter involved in varied functions - from mood and control of voluntary movement to processing rewarding experiences

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88
Q

Endorphin

A

Hormone produced by pituitary gland and hypothalamus that functions to reduce pain and induce feelings of pleasure

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89
Q

GABA

A

Primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of nervous system, prevents neurons from generating action potentials

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90
Q

Glial cells

A

Specialized cells of nervous system involved in mounting immune responses in the brain, removing waste and synchronizing the activity of billions of neurons that constitute the nervous system

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91
Q

Glutamate

A

Most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brains of vertebrates

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92
Q

Hormones

A

Chemicals secreted by the glands of the endocrine system

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93
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Brain structure that regulates basic biological needs and motivational systems

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94
Q

Myelin

A

Fatty sheath that insulates axons from one another, resulting in increased speed and efficiency of neural communication

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95
Q

Neuron

A

Major type of cell found in nervous system, responsible for sending and receiving messages throughout the body

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96
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

Chemicals that function as messengers allowing neutrons to communicate with each other

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97
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Monoamine synthesized from dopamine molecules that is involved in regulating stress responses, including increasing arousal, attention and heart rate

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98
Q

Pituitary gland

A

Master gland of endocrine system that produces hormones and sends commands about hormone production to the other glands of the endocrine system

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99
Q

Refractory period

A

Brief period when neutron cannot fire

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100
Q

Resting potential

A

Relatively stable state during which the cell is not transmitting messages

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101
Q

Reuptake

A

Process whereby neurotransmitter molecules that have been released into synapse are reabsorbed into the axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron

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102
Q

Serotonin

A

Monoamine involved in regulating mood, sleep, aggression and appetite

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103
Q

Substance P

A

Neurotransmitter involved in experience of pain

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104
Q

Synapses

A

Microscopically small spaces that separate individual nerve cells

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105
Q

Synaptic cleft

A

Minute space between axon terminal and dendrite

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106
Q

Amygdala

A

Facilitates memory formation for emotional events, mediates fear responses and appears to play role in recognizing and interpreting emotional stimuli (facial expressions)

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107
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

Portion of PNS that is responsible for regulating the activity of organs and glands

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108
Q

Basal ganglia

A

Group of three structures involved in facilitating planned movements, skill learning, integrating sensory and movement information with the brain’s reward system

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109
Q

Brain stem

A

Bottom of the brain - consists of two structures: medulla and pons

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110
Q

Central nervous system

A

Consists of brain and spinal chord

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111
Q

Cerebellum

A

Lobe-like structure at the base of the brain that is involved in the monitoring of movement, maintaining balance, attention and emotional responses

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112
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

Convoluted, wrinkled outer layer of the brain that is involved in multiple higher functions, such as thought, language and personality

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113
Q

Corpus callosum

A

Collection of neural fibres connecting two cerebral hemispheres

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114
Q

Forebrain

A

Visibly most obvious region, consists of all the neural structures that are located above the midbrain - critical to complex processes such as emotion, memory, thinking and reasoning

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115
Q

Frontal lobes

A

Important in a number of cognitive functions such as planning, regulating impulses and emotion, language production and voluntary movement

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116
Q

Hippocampus

A

Critical for learning and memory, particularly formation of new memories

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117
Q

Limbic system

A

Integrated network involved in emotion and memory

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118
Q

Midbrain

A

Resides just above the hindbrain, primarily functions as relay station between sensory and motor areas

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119
Q

Neuroplasticity

A

Capacity of brain to change and rewire itself based on individual experience

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120
Q

Occipital lobes

A

Located at rear of the brain and are where visual information is processed

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121
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Helps maintain homeostasis in presence of change

- following sympathetic arousal it works to return body to baseline

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122
Q

Parietal lobes

A

Involved in our experiences of touch and bodily awareness

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123
Q

Peripheral nervous system

A

Division of nervous system that transmits signals between the brain and the rest of the body and is divided into two subcomponents

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124
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

Portion of PNS that consists of nerves that control skeletal muscles, which are responsible for voluntary and reflexive movement; also consists of nerves that receive sensory input from the body

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125
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Responsible for fight-or-blight response of an increased heart rate, dilated pupils, decreased salivary flow - responses that prepare body for action

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126
Q

Temporal lobes

A

Located at sides of brain and are involved in hearing and some other aspects of vision such as object and face recognition

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127
Q

Thalamus

A

Set of nuclei involved in relaying sensory information to different regions of the brain

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128
Q

Computerized tomography scan (CT)

A

Structural neuroimaging technique in which x-rays are sent through the brain by a tube that rotates around the head

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129
Q

Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

A

Form of structural neuroimaging allowing researchers or medical personnel to measure white-matter pathways in the brain

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130
Q

Electroencephalogram

A

Measures patterns of brain activity with use of multiple electrodes attached to scalp

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131
Q

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

A

Measures brain activity by detecting influx of oxygen-rich blood into neural areas that were just active

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132
Q

Functional neuroimaging

A

Type of brain scanning that provides information about which areas of the brain are active when a person performs a particular behaviour

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133
Q

Lesioning

A

Technique in which researchers intentionally damage an area in the brain

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134
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

Structural imaging technique in which clear images of brain are created based on how different neural regions absorb and release energy while in magnetic field

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135
Q

Magnetoencephalography (MEG)

A

Neuroimaging technique that measures tiny magnetic fields created by electrical activity of nerve cells in brain

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136
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET)

A

Type of scan in which low level of radioactive isotope is injected into the blood and tis movement into regions of the brain engaged in a particular task is measured

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137
Q

Structural neuroimaging

A

Type of brain scanning that produces images of different structures of brain

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138
Q

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

A

Procedure in which electromagnetic pulse is delivered to a targeted region of brain

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139
Q

Absolute threshold

A

Minimum amount of energy or quantity of a stimulus required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented

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140
Q

Bottom-up processing

A

Occurs when we perceive individual bits of sensory information and use them to construct a more complex perception

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141
Q

Difference threshold

A

Smallest difference between stimuli that can be reliably detected at least 50% of the time

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142
Q

Divided attention

A

When we are paying attention to more than one stimulus at the same time

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143
Q

Doctrine of specific nerve energies

A

Idea that different senses are separated in the brain - proposed by Johannes Müller in 1826

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144
Q

Inattentional blindness

A

Failure to notice clearly visible events or objects because attention is directed elsewhere

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145
Q

Perception

A

Involves attending to, organizing and interpreting stimuli that we sense

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146
Q

Selective attention

A

Involves focusing on one particular event or task

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147
Q

Sensation

A

Process of detecting external events by sense organs and turning this stimuli into neural signals

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148
Q

Sensory adaptation

A

Reduction of activity in sensory receptors with repeated exposure to a stimulus

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149
Q

Signal detection theory

A

States that whether a stimulus is perceived depends on both sensory experience and judgment made by the subject

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150
Q

Top-down processing

A

Occurs when our perceptions are influenced by our expectations or by our prior knowledge

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151
Q

Transduction

A

When specialized receptors transform the physical energy of the outside world into neural impulses

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152
Q

Binocular Depth cues

A

Distance cues that are based on differing perspectives of both eyes

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153
Q

Cones

A

Photoreceptors that are sensitive to the different wavelengths of light that we perceive as colour

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154
Q

Convergence

A

Occurs when eye muscles contract so that both eyes focus on a single object

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155
Q

Cornea

A

Clear layer that covers the front portion of the eye and contributes to the eye’s ability to focus

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156
Q

Dark adaptation

A

Process by which rods and cones become increasingly sensitive to light under low levels of illumination

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157
Q

Fovea

A

Central region of retina

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158
Q

Iris

A

Round muscle that adjusts size of the pupil and gives eyes characteristic color

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159
Q

Lens

A

Clear structure that focuses light onto the back of the eye

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160
Q

Monocular cues

A

Depth cues that we we can perceive with only one eye

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161
Q

Opponent-process theory

A

States that we perceive colour in terms of opposing pairs: red to green, yellow to blue and white to black - proposed by Ewald Hering

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162
Q

Optic nerve

A

Dense bundle of fibres that connect to the brain

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163
Q

Perceptual constancy

A

Ability to perceive objects as having constant shape, size and colour despite changes in perspective

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164
Q

Pupil

A

Regulates the amount of light that enters the eye by changing its size
- dilates to allow more light and constricts to allow less light

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165
Q

Retina

A

Lines inner surface of the eye and consists of specialized receptors that absorb light and send signals related to the properties of light to the brain

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166
Q

Retinal disparity

A

Difference in relative position of an object as seen by both eyes, which provides information to the brain about depth

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167
Q

Rods

A

Photoreceptors that occupy peripheral regions of the retina and are highly sensitive under low light levels

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168
Q

Sclera

A

White outer surface of the eye

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169
Q

Trichromatic theory

A

Theory that colour vision is determined by three different cone types that are sensitive to short, medium and long wavelengths of light

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170
Q

Activation-synthesis hypothesis

A

Suggests that dreams arise from brain activity originating from bursts of excitatory messages from the pons

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171
Q

Circadian rhythms

A

Internally driven daily cycles of approximately 24 hours affecting physiological and behavioural processes

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172
Q

Endogenous rhythms

A

Biological rhythms that are generated by our body independent of external cues such as light

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173
Q

Entrainment

A

When biological rhythms become synchronized to external cues such as light, temperature or even a clock

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174
Q

Insomnia

A

Disorder characterized by extreme lack of sleep

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175
Q

Jet lag

A

Discomfort a person feels when sleep cycles are out of sychronization with light and darkness

176
Q

Latent content

A

Actual symbolic meaning of a dream built on suppressed sexual or aggressive urges

177
Q

Manifest content

A

Involves images and storylines that we dream about

178
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Disorder in which a person experiences extreme daytime sleepiness and even sleep attacks

179
Q

Night terrors

A

Intense bouts of panic and arousal that awaken the individual, typically in a heightened emotional state

180
Q

Nightmares

A

Particularly vivid and disturbing dreams that occur during REM sleep

181
Q

Polysomnography

A

Set of objective measurements used to examine physiological variables during sleep

182
Q

Preserve and protect hypothesis

A

Suggests that two or more adaptive functions of sleep are preserving energy and protecting the organism from harm

183
Q

Problem-solving theory

A

Theory that thoughts and concerns are continuous from waking to sleeping and that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake

184
Q

REM sleep

A

Stage of sleep characterized by quickening brain waves, inhibited body movement, and rapid eye movements

185
Q

Restless legs syndrome

A

Persistent feeling of discomfort in the legs and urge to continuously shift them into different positions

186
Q

Restore and repair hypothesis

A

Idea that the body needs to restore energy levels and repair any wear and tear experienced during the day’s activities

187
Q

Sleep apnea

A

Disorder characterized by temporary inability to breathe during sleep

188
Q

Sleep deprivation

A

Occurs when an individual cannot or does not sleep

189
Q

Sleep displacement

A

Occurs when an individual is prevented from sleeping at the normal time although she may be able to sleep earlier or later in the day than usual

190
Q

Somnambulism

A

aka sleepwalking - disorder that involves wandering and performing other activities while asleep

191
Q

Brain death

A

Condition in which the brain, specifically brain stem, no longer functions

192
Q

Coma

A

State marked by a complete loss of consciousness

193
Q

Dissociation theory

A

Explains hypnosis as a unique state in which consciousness is divided into two parts: an observer and hidden observer

194
Q

Hypnosis

A

Procedure of inducing a heightened state of suggestibility

195
Q

Locked-in-syndrome

A

Disorder in which the patient is aware and awake but, because of an inability to move his or her body, appears unconscious

196
Q

Meditation

A

Any procedure that involves a shift in consciousness to a state in which an individual is highly focused, aware and in control of mental processes

197
Q

Minimally conscious state

A

Disordered state of consciousness marked by the ability to show some behaviours that suggest at least partial consciousness, even if on an inconsistent basis

198
Q

Persistent vegetative state

A

State of minimal to no consciousness in which the patient’s eyes may be open and the individual will develop sleep-wake cycles without clear signs of consciousness

199
Q

Social-cognitive theory

A

Explain hypnosis by emphasizing the degree to which beliefs and expectations contribute to increased suggestibility

200
Q

Social-cognitive theory

A

Explain hypnosis by emphasizing the degree to which beliefs and expectations contribute to increased suggestibility

201
Q

Acquisition

A

Initial phase of learning in which a response is established

202
Q

Classical conditioning

A

Learning that occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response that was originally caused by another stimulus

203
Q

Conditioned emotional response

A

Consist of emotional and psychological responses that develop to a specific object or situation

204
Q

Conditioned response

A

Learned response that occurs to the conditioned stimulus

205
Q

Conditioned stimulus

A

Once neutral stimulus that later elicits a conditioned response because it has a history of being paired with an unconditioned stimulus

206
Q

Conditioned taste aversion

A

Acquired dislike or disgust of a food or drink because it was paired with illness

207
Q

Discrimination

A

Occurs when an organism learns to respond to one original stimulus but not to new stimuli that may be similar to the original stimulus

208
Q

Extinction

A

Loss or weakening of a conditioned response when a conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus no longer occur together

209
Q

Generalization

A

Process in which a response that originally occurs to a specific stimulus also occurs to different, though similar, stimuli

210
Q

Learning

A

Process by which behaviour or knowledge changes as a result of experience

211
Q

Preparedness

A

Biological predisposition to rapidly learn a response to a particular class of stimuli

212
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

Reoccurrence of a previously extinguished conditioned response, typically after some time has passed since extinction

213
Q

Unconditioned response

A

Reflective, unlearned reaction to an unconditioned stimulus

214
Q

Unconditioned stimulus

A

Stimulus that elicits a reflexive response without learning

215
Q

Avoidance learning

A

Specific type of negative reinforcement that removes the possibility that a stimulus will occur

216
Q

Continuous reinforcement

A

Every response made results in reinforcement

217
Q

Discriminative stimulus

A

Cue or event that indicates that a response, if made, will be reinforced

218
Q

Escape learning

A

Occurs if a response removes a stimulus that is already present

219
Q

Extinction

A

Weakening of an operant response when reinforcement is no longer available

220
Q

Fixed-interval schedule

A

Reinforces the first response occurring after a set amount of time passes

221
Q

Fixed-ratio schedule

A

Reinforcement is delivered after a specific number of responses have been completed

222
Q

Negative punishment

A

Occurs when a behaviour decreases because it removes or diminishes a particular stimulus

223
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

Involves strengthening of a behaviour because it removes or diminishes a stimulus

224
Q

Operant conditioning

A

Type of learning in which behaviour is influenced by consequences

225
Q

Partial reinforcement

A

Only a certain number of responses are rewarded or a certain amount of time must pass before reinforcement is available

226
Q

Partial reinforcement effect

A

Refers to a phenomenon in which organisms that have been conditioned under partial reinforcement resist extinction longer than those conditioned under continuous reinforcement

227
Q

Positive punishment

A

Process in which a behaviour decreases in frequency because it was followed by a particular, usually unpleasant stimulus

228
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

Strengthening of behaviour after potential reinforcers such as praise, money or nourishment follow that behaviour

229
Q

Primary reinforcer

A

Consist of reinforcing stimuli that satisfy basic motivational needs-needs that affect an individual’s ability to survive

230
Q

Punisher

A

Stimulus that is contingent upon a response and results in a decrease in behaviour

231
Q

Punishment

A

Process that decreases the future probability of a response

232
Q

Reinforcement

A

Process in which an event or reward that follows a response increased the likelihood of that response occurring again

233
Q

Reinforcer

A

Stimulus that is contingent upon a response and that increases the probability of that response occurring again

234
Q

Schedules of reinforcement

A

Rules that determine when reinforcement is available

235
Q

Secondary reinforcer

A

Consist of stimuli that acquire their reinforcing effects only after we learn that they have value

236
Q

Shaping

A

Procedure in which a specific operant response is created by reinforcing successive approximations of that response

237
Q

Variable-interval schedule

A

First response is reinforced following a variable amount of time

238
Q

Variable-ratio schedule

A

Number of responses required to receive reinforcement varies according to an average

239
Q

Amnesia

A

Profound loss of at least one form of memory

240
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

Inability to form new memories for events occurring after a brain injury

241
Q

Attention

A

Selects which information will be passed on to STM

242
Q

Central executive

A

Control centre of working memory, coordinates attention and exchange of information among the three storage components

243
Q

Chunking

A

Organizing smaller units of information into larger, more meaningful units

244
Q

Consolidation

A

Process of converting, short-term memories into long-term memories in the brain

245
Q

Control process

A

Shift information from one memory store to another

246
Q

Declarative memory

A

Memories that we are consciously aware of and that can be verbalized, including facts about the world and one’s own personal experiences

247
Q

Encoding

A

Process of storing information in the LTM

248
Q

Episodic buffer

A

Storage component of working memory that combines the images and sounds from the other two components into coherent, story-like episodes

249
Q

Episodic memory

A

Declarative memories for personal experiences that seem to be organized around “episodes” and are recalled from a first-person perspective

250
Q

Long-term memory

A

Holds information for extended periods of time, if not permanently

251
Q

Long-term potentiation

A

Process that demonstrated that there is an enduring increase in connectivity and transmission of neural signals between nerve cells that fire together

252
Q

Non declarative memory

A

Include actions or behaviours that you can remember and perform without awareness

253
Q

Phonological loop

A

Storage component of working memory that relies on rehearsal and that stores information as sounds or an auditory code

254
Q

Proactive interference

A

Process in which the first information learned occupies memory, leaving fewer resources left to remember the newer information

255
Q

Procedural memory

A

Patterns of muscle movements

256
Q

Rehearsal

A

Repeating information until you do not need to remember it anymore

257
Q

Retrieval

A

Brings information from LTM back into STM

258
Q

Retroactive interference

A

Most recently learned information overshadows some older memories that have not yet made it into LTM

259
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

Condition in which memory for the events preceding trauma or injury is lost

260
Q

Semantic memory

A

Declarative memories that include facts about the world

261
Q

Sensory memory

A

Memory store that accurately holds perpetual information for a very brief amount of time

262
Q

Serial position effect

A

In general, people recall the first few items from a list and the last few items but only an item or two from the middle

263
Q

Short-term memory

A

Memory store with limited capacity and duration (less than a minute)

264
Q

Stores

A

Retain information in memory without using it for any specific purpose

265
Q

Visuospatial sketchpad

A

Storage component of working memory that maintains visual images and spatial layouts in a visuouspatial code

266
Q

Working memory

A

Model of short term remembering that includes a combination of memory components that can temporarily store small amounts of information for a short period of time

267
Q

Acronym

A

Pronounceable words whose letters represent the initials of an important phrase or set of items

268
Q

Dual coding

A

Occurs when information is stored in more than one form - i.e. verbal description and visual image

269
Q

Elaborative rehearsal

A

Prolonging exposure to information by thinking about its meaning

270
Q

Encoding specificity principle

A

Retrieval is most effective when it occurs in the same context as encoding

271
Q

First-letter technique

A

Uses first letters of a set of items to spell out words that form a sentence

272
Q

Flashbulb memory

A

An extremely vivid and detailed memory about an event and the conditions surrounding how one learned about the event

273
Q

Maintenance rehearsal

A

Prolonging exposure to information by repeating it

274
Q

Method of loci

A

Mnemonic that connects words to be remembered to locations along a familiar path

275
Q

Mnemonic

A

Technique intended to improve memory for specific information

276
Q

Storage

A

Refers to time and manner in which information is retained between encoding and retrieval

277
Q

Testing effect

A

Finding that taking practice tests can improve exam performance, even without additional studying

278
Q

Categories

A

Clusters of interrelated concepts

279
Q

Classical categorization

A

Theory that claims objects or events are categorized according to a certain set of rules or a specific set of features

280
Q

Concept

A

Mental representation of an object, event or idea

281
Q

Graded membership

A

Observation that some concepts appear to make better category members than others

282
Q

Linguistic relativity

A

Theory that the language we use determines how we understand the world

283
Q

Whorfian hypothesis

A

Linguistic relativity

284
Q

Prototypes

A

Mental representations of an average category member

285
Q

Semantic network

A

Interconnected set of nodes and the links that join them to form a category

286
Q

Algorithms

A

Problem-solving strategies based on a series of rules

287
Q

Anchoring effect

A

Occurs when an individual attempts to solve a problem involving numbers and uses previous knowledge to keep the response within a limited range

288
Q

Availability heuristic

A

Entails estimating the frequency of an event based on how easily examples of it come to mind

289
Q

Belief perseverance

A

When an individual believes he or she has the solution to the problem or the correct answer and accepts only evidence that will confirm those beliefs

290
Q

Confirmation bias

A

When an individual searches for only evidence that will confirm his or her beliefs instead of evidence that might disconfirm them

291
Q

Functional fixedness

A

Occurs when an individual identifies an object or technique that could potentially solve a problem, but can think of only its most obvious function

292
Q

Heuristics

A

Problem-solving strategies that stem from prior experiences and provide an educated guess as to what is the most likely situation

293
Q

Mental set

A

Cognitive obstacle that occurs when an individual attempts to apply a routine solution to what is actually a new type of problem

294
Q

Problem solving

A

Accomplishing a goal when the solution or path to the solution is not clear

295
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

Making judgments of likelihood based on how well an example represents a specific category

296
Q

Anthropometrics

A

Methods of measuring physical and mental variation in humans

297
Q

Intelligence

A

Ability to think, understand, reason and adapt to or overcome obstacles

298
Q

Intelligence quotient

A

Calculated taking a person’s mental age, dividing it by his chronological age and then multiplying by 100

299
Q

Mental age

A

Average intellectual ability score for children of a specific age

300
Q

Raven’s Progressive Matrices

A

Intelligence test that is based on pictures, not works, making it relatively unaffected by language or cultural background

301
Q

Stanford-Binet test

A

Test intended to measure innate levels of intelligence

302
Q

Stereotype threat

A

Occurs when negative stereotypes about a group cause group members to underperform on ability tests

303
Q

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

A

IQ test that is specialized for adult population - most common intelligence test in use today

304
Q

Crystallized intelligence

A

Type of intelligence that draws upon past learning and experiences

305
Q

Factor analysis

A

Statistical technique that examines correlations between variables to find clusters of related variables or “factors”

306
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

Type of intelligence used in learning new information and solving new problems not based on knowledge the person already possesses

307
Q

General intelligence factor

A

Represents a person’s “mental energy” reflecting belief that some people’s brain are more powerful than others

308
Q

Multiple intelligences

A

Model claiming that there are eight different forms of intelligence, each independent from the others

309
Q

Savant

A

Individual with low mental capacity in most domains but extraordinary abilities in other specific areas such as music, math or art

310
Q

Triarchic theory of intelligence

A

Theory that divides intelligence into three distinct types: analytical, practical and creative

311
Q

Triarchic theory of intelligence

A

Theory that divides intelligence into three distinct types: analytical, practical and creative

312
Q

Cohort effect

A

Differences between people that result from being born in different time periods

313
Q

Cross-sectional design

A

Used to measure and compare samples of people at different stages at a given point in time

314
Q

Developmental psychology

A

Study of human physical, cognitive, social and behavioural characteristics across the lifespan

315
Q

Embryonic stage

A

Spans weeks two through eight, during which the embryo begins to develop major physical structures such as heart and nervous system and beginning of arms, legs, hands and feet

316
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Involves abnormalities in mental functioning, growth and development in offspring of women who use alcohol during pregnancy

317
Q

Fetal stage

A

Spans week eight through birth, during which time skeletal, organ and nervous systems become more developed and specialized

318
Q

Germinal stage

A

First stage of prenatal development, spans from conception to two weeks

319
Q

Longitudinal design

A

Follows development of same set of individuals through time

320
Q

Preterm infant

A

Born earlier than 36 weeks and typically have underdeveloped brains and lungs

321
Q

Reflexes

A

Involuntary muscular reactions to specific types of stimulation

322
Q

Sensitive period

A

Window of time during which exposure to a specific set of environmental stimulation is needed for normal development of a specific ability

323
Q

Synaptic pruning

A

Loss of weak nerve cell connections

324
Q

Snyaptogenesis

A

Describes forming of new synaptic connections

325
Q

Teratogen

A

Substances such as drugs or environmental toxins, that impair the process of development

326
Q

Zygote

A

Initial cell formed when nuclei of egg and sperm fuse

327
Q

Accomodation

A

Creative process whereby people modify their belief structures based on experience

328
Q

Assimilation

A

Conservative process, whereby people fit new information into the belief system they already possess

329
Q

Attachment

A

Enduring emotional bond formed between individuals

330
Q

Attachment behavioural system

A

askjh

331
Q

Attachment behavioural system

A

Focused on meeting our own needs for security

332
Q

Caregiving behavioural system

A

Focused on meeting the needs of others

333
Q

Concrete operational stage

A

Ages 7 to 11 when children develop skills in logical thinking and manipulating numbers

334
Q

Conservation

A

Knowledge that the quantity or amount of an object is not the same as the physical arrangement and appearance of that object

335
Q

Core knowledge hypothesis

A

Proposes that infants have inborn abilities for understanding some key aspects of their environment

336
Q

Dishabituation

A

Increase in responsiveness with presentation of a new stimulus

337
Q

Egocentric

A

Only consider one’s own perspective

338
Q

Formal operational stage

A

Ages 11 to adulthood involves development of advanced cognitive processes such as abstract reasoning and hypothetical thinking

339
Q

Habituation

A

Refers to a decrease in responding with repeated exposure to an event

340
Q

Inductive discipline

A

ahas

341
Q

Inductive discipline

A

Involves explaining the consequences of a child’s acton on other people, activating empathy for others’ feelings

342
Q

Introjection

A

Internalization of the conditional regard of significant others

343
Q

Preoperational stage

A

Stage devoted to language development, using symbols, pretend play and mastering concept of conservation

344
Q

Scaffolding

A

Highly attentive approach to teaching in which teacher matches guidance to the learner’s needs

345
Q

Self-awareness

A

Ability to recognize one’s individuality

346
Q

Sensorimotor stage

A

From birth to two years, during which infants’ thinking about and exploration of the world are based on immediate sensory and motor experiences

347
Q

Strange situation

A

Way of measuring infant attachment by observing how infants behave when exposed to different experiences that involve anxiety and comfort

348
Q

Theory of mind

A

Ability to recognize the thoughts, beliefs and expectations of others and to understand that these can be different from one’s own

349
Q

Zone of proximal development

A

Idea that development is ideal when children attempt skills and activities that are just beyond what they can do alone, but they have guidance from adults who are attentive to their progress

350
Q

Zone of proximal development

A

Idea that development is ideal when children attempt skills and activities that are just beyond what they can do alone, but they have guidance from adults who are attentive to their progress

351
Q

Conventional morality

A

Regards social conventions and rules as guides for appropriate moral behaviour

352
Q

Delay gratification

A

Putting off immediate temptations in order to focus on longer-term goals

353
Q

Identity

A

Clear sense of what kind of person you are, what types of people you belong with and what roles you should play in society

354
Q

Menarche

A

Onset of menstruation, typically around age 12

355
Q

Post conventional morality

A

Considers rules and laws as relative

356
Q

Preconventional morality

A

Characterized by self-interest in seeking reward or avoiding punishment

357
Q

Primary sex traits

A

Changes in body that are part of reproduction

358
Q

Secondary sex traits

A

Changes in the body that are not part of reproduction

359
Q

Spermarche

A

First ejaculation of sperm, at around age 14

360
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

Degenerative and terminal condition resulting in severe damage to the entire brain

361
Q

Dementia

A

Refers to mild to severe disruption of mental functioning, memory loss, disorientation, poor judgment and decision making

362
Q

Generativity

A

Involves being engaged in meaningful and productive work, as well as making contributions to future generations

363
Q

Menopause

A

Termination of menstrual cycle and reproductive ability

364
Q

Allostasis

A

Anticipation of future needs that influences motivation

365
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A

Eating disorder that involves starvation and is characterized by an intense fear of weight gain and dissatisfaction with one’s body and denial of serious consequences of severely low weight

366
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

Eating disorder characterized by periods of deprivation, binge-eating and purging

367
Q

Drive

A

Biological trigger that tells us we may be deprived of something and causes us to seek out what is needed, such as food or water

368
Q

Glucose

A

Sugar that serves as a primary energy source for the brain and body

369
Q

Homeostasis

A

Body’s physiological processes that allow it to maintain consistent internal states in response to the outer environment

370
Q

Motivation

A

Concerns physiological and psychological processes underlying the initiation of behaviours that direct organisms toward specific goals

371
Q

Obesity

A

Disorder of positive energy balance, in which energy intake exceeds energy expenditure

372
Q

Satiation

A

Point in a meal when we are no longer motivated to eat

373
Q

Unit bias

A

Tendency to assume that the unit of sale or portioning is an appropriate amount to consume

374
Q

Gender roles

A

Accepted attitudes and behaviours of males and females in a given society

375
Q

Libido

A

Motivation for sexual activity and pleasure

376
Q

Refractory period

A

Time period during which erection and orgasm are not physically possible

377
Q

Sex guilt

A

Negative emotional feelings for having violated culturally accepted standards of appropriate sexual behaviour

378
Q

Sexual orientation

A

Consistent preference for sexual relations with members of the opposite sex, same sex, or either sex

379
Q

Sexual response cycle

A

Describes phases of physiological change during sexual activity, which comprises four primary stages: excitement, plateau, orgasm and resolution

380
Q

Sexual scripts

A

Set of rules and assumptions about the sexual behaviours of males and females

381
Q

Testosterone

A

Hormone that is involved in development of sex characteristics and motivation of sexual behaviour

382
Q

Achievement motivation

A

Drive to perform at high levels and accomplish significant goals

383
Q

Amotivation

A

Feeling of having little or no motivation to perform a behaviour

384
Q

Approach goal

A

Enjoyable and pleasant incentive that a person is drawn toward, such as praise, financial reward or a feeling of satisfaction

385
Q

Companionate love

A

Related to tenderness and affection we feel when our lives are intertwined with another person

386
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

Performance motive

387
Q

Framing effect

A

When the correct course of action is not obvious the different phrasing of the question or problem can produce different results

388
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Process of being internally motivated to perform behaviours and overcoming challenges

389
Q

Mastery motive

A

Intrinsic motivation

390
Q

Need to belong

A

Motivation to maintain relationships that involve pleasant feelings such as warmth, affection, appreciation and mutual concern for each person’s well-being

391
Q

Passionate love

A

Associated with physical and emotional longing for another person

392
Q

Performance motive

A

Motivation geared toward gaining rewards or public recognition, or avoiding embarrassment

393
Q

Self-determination theory

A

Theory that states that an individual’s ability to achieve their goals and attain psychological well-being is influenced by the degree to which he or she is in control of the behaviours necessary to achieve those goals

394
Q

Self-efficacy

A

Individual’s confidence that he or she can and execute a course of action in order to solve a problem

395
Q

Avoidance goal

A

Attempt to avoid an unpleasant outcome such as shame, embarrassment, losing money or feeling emotional pain

396
Q

Amygdala

A

Group of nuclei in medial portion of the temporal lobes in each hemisphere of the brain

397
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

A

Suggests that the brain interprets a situation and generates subjective emotional feelings and that these representations in the brain trigger responses in the body

398
Q

Display rules

A

Refer to unwritten expectations we have regarding when it is appropriate to show a certain emotion

399
Q

Emotion

A

Behaviour with three components: subjective thought/experience with accompanying patterns of neural activity and physical arousal and an observable behavioural expression

400
Q

Emotional dialects

A

Variations across cultures in how common emotions are expressed

401
Q

Facial feedback hypothesis

A

Suggests that our emotional expressions can influence our subjective emotional states

402
Q

James-Lange theory of emotion

A

Suggests that our physiological reactions to stimuli precede emotional experience

403
Q

Two-factor theory

A

Holds that patterns of physical arousal and cognitive labels we attach to them form the basis of our emotional experiences

404
Q

Dark Triad

A

Refers to three traits that describe a person who is socially destructive, aggressive, dishonest and likely to commit harm in general: Machiavellianism, psychopathy, and narcissism

405
Q

Factor analysis

A

Used to group items that people respond to similarly

406
Q

Five Factor Model

A

Trait-based theory of personality based on the finding that personality can be described using five major dimensions

407
Q

HEXACO model of personality

A

Six factor theory that generally replicates the five factors of FFM and adds one factor: Honesty-Humility

408
Q

Idiographic approach

A

Focuses on creating detailed descriptions of a specific person’s unique personality characteristics

409
Q

Nomothetic approach

A

Examines personality in large groups of people with the aim of making generalizations about personality structure

410
Q

Personality

A

Characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling and behaving that is unique to each individual and remains relatively consistent over time and situations

411
Q

Personality trait

A

Describes a person’s habitual patterns of thinking, feeling and behaving

412
Q

Reciprocal determinism

A

States that behaviour, internal factors, and external factors interact to determine one another and that our personalities are based on interactions among these three aspects

413
Q

Right-Wing Authoritarianism

A

Highly problematic set of personality characteristics that involve three tendencies: obeying orders and deferring to established authorities, supporting aggression against those who dissent or differ from social order, believing strongly in maintaining existing social order

414
Q

State

A

Temporary physical or psychological engagement that influences behaviour

415
Q

Arousal theory of extraversion

A

Argues that extraversion is determined by people’s threshold for arousal - high extraversion = higher threshold

416
Q

Ascending reticular activating system

A

Brain system that plays central role in controlling arousal response

417
Q

Behavioural activation system

A

“GO” system, arousing person to action in the pursuit of desired goals

418
Q

Behavioural inhibition system

A

“Danger” system, motivating person to action in order to avoid punishments or other negative outcomes

419
Q

Humourism

A

Theory that explains both physical illnesses and disorders of personality as resulting from imbalances in key fluids in the body

420
Q

Phrenology

A

Theory that personality characteristics could be assessed by carefully measuring the outer skull

421
Q

Analytical psychology

A

Focuses on role of unconscious archetypes in personality development

422
Q

Archetypes

A

Images and symbols that reflect common “truths” held across cultures, such as universal life experiences or types of people

423
Q

Collective unconscious

A

Separate, non-personal realm of unconscious that holds the collective memories and mythologies of humankind, stretching deep into our ancestral past

424
Q

Conscious mind

A

Current awareness, containing everything you are aware of right now

425
Q

Defence mechanisms

A

Unconscious strategies the ego uses to reduce or avoid anxiety

426
Q

Ego

A

Decision maker, frequently under tension, trying to reconcile the opposing urges of the id and superego

427
Q

Fixation

A

Becoming preoccupied with obtaining pleasure associated with a particular stge

428
Q

Id

A

Represents collection of basic biological drives, including those directed toward sex and aggression

429
Q

Inferiority complex

A

Struggle that many people have with feelings of inferiority, which stem from experiences of helplessness and powerlessness in childhood

430
Q

Person-centred perspective

A

Assumption that people are basically good and given the right environment their personality will develop fully and normally

431
Q

Personal unconscious

A

Vast repository of experiences and patterns that were absorbed during the entire experiential unfolding of the person’s life

432
Q

Projective tests

A

Personality tests in which ambiguous images are presented to an individual to elicit responses that reflect unconscious desires or conflicts

433
Q

Rorschach inkblot test

A

People are asked to describe what they see on inkblot and psychologists interpret this description using standardized scoring and interpretation method

434
Q

Self-actualization

A

Drive to grow and fulfill one’s potential

435
Q

Superego

A

Comprised of our values and moral standards

436
Q

Thematic Apperception Test

A

Asks respondents to tell stories about ambiguous pictures involving various interpersonal situations

437
Q

Unconscious mind

A

Much more vast and powerful but inaccessible part of consciousness, operating without conscious endorsement or will to influence and guide behaviours

Intro Psych (1 decks)

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