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Biochem Final > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of the genome codes for genes?

A

1.5%

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2
Q

Does a gene chip bind to DNA or RNA?

A

RNA

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3
Q

Euchromatin vs. Heterochromatin

A

Euchromatin: less condensed
Heterochromatin: more condensed

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4
Q

What inhibit phosphodiesterases?

A

Caffeine, Viagra, tadafil, vardenafil

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5
Q

What does diphtheria toxin inactivate?

A

GTP-bound elongation factor that powers the translocation of the ribosome

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6
Q

What does the pertussis toxin do?

A

Prevents activation of Gi subunit via ADP ribosylation; decreases GTPase activity of alpha subunit

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7
Q

What does the cholera toxin do?

A

Prevents inactivation of Ga subunit via ADP ribosylation

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8
Q

Antihistamines block ______________.

A

binding of histamine to GPCR

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9
Q

What is HER2?

A

RTK; inhibited by herceptin

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10
Q

Ras and cancer

A

Mutation leads to decrease in GTPase activity; therefore, locking in “on”; ex: neurofibromatosis

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11
Q

G1 checkpoint

A

Assesses for DNA damage

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12
Q

G2 checkpoint

A

Verifies completeness of DNA replication

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13
Q

Metaphase checkpoint

A

Monitors attachment of chromosomes to mitotic spindles

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14
Q

Permanent Cells

A

Stay in G0; ex: cardiac muscle, neurons, RBCs

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15
Q

Stable cells

A

Have ability to enter G1 when stimulated by growth factors; regenerate damaged tissue; ex: hepatocytes, epithelial cells of kidney tubules

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16
Q

Labile cells

A

Never enter G0 and constantly divid to replace lost cells; ex: gut epithelium, skin cells, hair follicles, bone marrow

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17
Q

What does INK4 do?

A

binds to G1 CDKs and prevents them from associating with cyclin D

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18
Q

Which tumor suppressor does benzopyrene affect?

A

P53

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19
Q

List proto-oncogenes

A

RAS, HER2, EGF, N-MYC, C-MYC, ABL

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20
Q

List tumor suppressors

A

P53, RB, APC, DCC, BRCA, NF-1

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21
Q

Alkylating agents

A

Effect all cell phases; ex: ifosfamide, cyclophosphamide, cisplatin; blocks DNA replication

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22
Q

Topoisomerase II inhibitors

A

S phase; ex: topotecen; inhibits topoisomerase II

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23
Q

Antimetabolites

A

S phase; ex: cytarabine, 5-Fluor outa like, gemcitabine, methotrexate; inhibits enzymes of DNA synthesis

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24
Q

Cytotoxic Antibiotics

A

S & G2 phase; ex: daunorubicin, doxorubicin, epirubicin; intercalated btw bases to inhibit DNA synthesis

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25
Q

Topoisomerase I inhibitors

A

S, G2, & M phase; ex: etoposide, teniposide; inhibits topoisomerase I

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26
Q

Mitotic Inhibitors

A

M phase; ex: docetaxel, paclitaxel, vinblastine; arrests cells in mitosis during metaphase

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27
Q

Deamination of cytosine gives you what?

A

Uracil

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28
Q

what does cytarabine inhibit?

A

DNA pol

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29
Q

What does rifampicin inhibit?

A

RNA synthesis

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30
Q

What are vorinostat and entinostat?

A

HDAC inhibitors; cancer treatments

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31
Q

What is SOS?

A

The GEF in RTK pathway

32
Q

Elliptocytosis

A

AD; oval-shaped RBCs; caused by defect in self-association of spectin; defective binding of spectrum to ankryin; abnormal glycophorin; symptoms: anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly

33
Q

Spherocytosis

A

AD; deficiency in spectrum; spherical RBCs; different diameter; lack central pale area

34
Q

Thalassemia Syndromes

A

Heritable anemia characterized by defective synthesis of alpha or beta chains of hemoglobin

35
Q

When does erythroblastis fetalis occur?

A

During 3rd trimester (cytotrophoblast absent); cannot occur during 1st pregnancy because only IgM ab formed (cant cross placenta)

36
Q

What are granulocytes

A

Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils

37
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Decreased number of platelets

38
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

Increase number of platelets

39
Q

Cell-cell adhesion proteins

A

Cadherins, desmosomal cadherins, selectins, integrins

40
Q

Which cell-cell adhesion proteins are homophilic?

A

Cadherins, desmosomal cadherins, Ig (homo & heterophilic)

41
Q

Cell-Matrix adhesion proteins

A

Integrins & transmembrane proteoglycans

42
Q

To get from the pluripotent stem cell to a myeloid stem cell, what two factors do you need?

A

G-CSF and SCF

43
Q

To get from a myeloid stem cell to a BFU-E cell what factor do you need?

A

GM-CSF

44
Q

Which subunits to fetal Hb have?

A

Alpha and gamma

45
Q

Which subunits to adult Hb have

A

Alpha and beta

46
Q

Affinity for O2 _______ as pH decreases

A

Decreases

47
Q

Iron is stored in the _______ as ______

A

Liver; ferritin

48
Q

Dietary iron is in what form?

A

Ferric (Fe3+)

49
Q

What does ferroportin require to transport Fe out of the cell?

A

Ferroxidase (Hephaestin)

50
Q

Transfer of iron to mitochondria

A

Endoscope docks on mitochondria and transfers iron directly

51
Q

DMT1 brings iron _____

A

INTO the enterocyte; OUT of the endosome

52
Q

Causes of iron deficiency

A

Insufficient dietary intake, menstruation, aspirin abuse, ulcers of GI tract

53
Q

Hereditary Hemochromatosis

A

Organ dysfunction due to iron overload; cirrhosis, arthritis, endocrinmyopathy, skin pigmentation, cardiomyopathy

54
Q

Classical HH

A

AR; mutations in HFE gene

55
Q

Which peptide regulates iron homeostasis?

A

Hepcidin

56
Q

How does hepcidin work?

A

It binds to ferroportin and causes its internalization, which is then destroyed; when iron is high, hepcidin expression is increased & ferroportin levels decreased; opposite for low iron

57
Q

What does HFE regulate?

A

Hepcidin expression; HFE binds to Tfr2, which signals hepcidin expression

58
Q

Production of RBCs is dependent on what?

A

B12 and folate

59
Q

Deficiency of B12 and folate cause what?

A

Megoblastic anemia

60
Q

Anemic occurs as a result of what?

A

Diminished DNA in bone marrow erythroblasts

61
Q

Megoblastic Macrocytic anemia

A

Large RBCs; normal Hb content

62
Q

What causes pernicious anemia?

A

Deficiency in intrinsic factor

63
Q

What is the defective enzyme in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase (rxn that brings the 4 pyrole rings together)

64
Q

A defect in what enzyme causes congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

A

Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthatase

65
Q

A defect in what enzyme causes porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Uroporphyinogen decarboxylase (last step in forming ring)

66
Q

A defect in what enzyme causes variegated porphyria?

A

Protoporphyrinogen oxidase

67
Q

What is the rate limiting step in removing bilirubin from the blood?

A

Conjugation in the liver

68
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

Too many RBCs; blood becomes thicker and heart has to work harder

69
Q

Secondary polycythemia

A

Bone marrow normal; physiological response to low oxygen (i.e.: altitude)

70
Q

Polycythemia vera (primary)

A

Bone marrow making RBC when doesn’t need to; sometimes in response to mutation for TPO receptor

71
Q

What do tetracyclines inhibit?

A

Block the entry of aminoacyl-trnas to the A site; bind 30s su

72
Q

What inhibits peptidyl transferase?

A

Chloramphenicol and cycloheximide

73
Q

Hematopoiesis in yolk sac

A

Btw wks 3-8

74
Q

Hematopoiesis in liver

A

Wks 6-30

75
Q

Hematopoiesis in spleen

A

Wks 9-28

76
Q

Hematopoiesis in bone marrow

A

Wks 28-adult

Biochem Final (1 decks)

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