FINAL Flashcards
Pathogenic refers to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) multicellular parasites B) a disease or illness C) potential to cause disease D) weakening of the immune system
C
Infectious agents include all of the following except: A) protozoans B) fungi C) viruses D) protista
D
Viruses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) are obligate intracellular parasites B) are similar in size to bacteria C) can reproduce on their own D) are microscopic single cell organisms
A
Where are dendritic immune cells located? A) Blood B) Spleen C) Skin D) Lungs
C
A function of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ would be to alert neighboring cells of an infectious agent. A) prions B) cytokines C) surveillance cells D) B-lymphyocytes
B
Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Innate immunity does not require previous exposure to a foreign substance.
B) The digestive tract is the second line of defense of the acquired immunity.
C) Adaptive immunity typically takes several days to be effective.
D) The adaptive immunity and innate immunity are interdependent.
B
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ helps provide the skin and mucosal membranes with a protective barrier. A) Hyaluronic acid B) Vibrissiae C) Cdermumen D) Low pH and mucus
A
Which cells of innate immunity are first to arrive during an inflammatory response? A) Basophils B) T-lymphocytes C) Neutrophils D) Eosinophils
C
NK (natural killer) cells perform all of these functions except: A) immune surveillance B) release neurotoxins C) lysis by apoptosis D) destruction of tumor cells
B
Stimulation of macrophages to destroy virus-infected cells in an effect of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) eicosanoids B) natural killer cells C) interferon D) complement
C
Which complement protein binds to a portion of bacteria? A) Membrane attack complex (MAC) B) Interferon C) Perforin D) Opsonin
D
Inflammation is
A) the major effecter response of adaptive immunity.
B) an immediate local specific event that occurs in nonvascularized tissue.
C) successful in helping to eliminate most infectious agents.
D) a result of an immune deficiency disorder.
C
Chemotactic factors are released from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) mast cells B) platelets C) adhesion molecules D) eosinophils
A
One measure of immunologic memory is A) the extent of antigen exposure. B) the rate of lymphocyte differentiation. C) antibody titer in the blood. D) the length of the latent phase.
C
In severe infections pus may form, which is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) an abcess B) an exudate C) swelling D) infectious fluid
B
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ region of an antibody binds to an antigen. A) Fab B) Cytotoxic C) Perforin D) Apoptosis
A
Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation? A) Increased blood flow B) Stimulation of pain receptors C) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels D) Loss of function
C
Which of the following fever events would cause the hypothalamus to stimulate blood vessels in the skin to vasoconstrict? A) Onset B) Pyrexia C) Stadium D) Defervescence
A
Which immunoglobulin class is formed in response to allergic reactions? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgE D) IgD
C
The presence of memory lymphocytes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) delays immune response B) decreases latent phase C) assists primary response D) increases lag phase
B
Plasma cells are derived from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) cytotoxic lymphocytes B) killer T-cells C) memory lymphocytes D) B-lymphocytes
B
The function of a vaccine is to A) administer live microorganisms. B) increase T-lymphocytes. C) establish an infection. D) develop memory B-lymphocytes.
D
Active immunity results from
A) the transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus.
B) production of memory cells.
C) direct encounter with a pathogen.
D) the transfer of cells from another individual.
C
The lymphatic system helps maintain blood volume by A) transporting lymphocytes. B) regulating vessel fluids. C) aiding the cardiovascular system. D) functions of the spleen.
C
Which of these listed characteristics do not describe lymph?
A) Associated with the central nervous system
B) Originates in interstitial fluid
C) Can contain cell debris and pathogens
D) Amounts to about 3 liters a day
A
Lymphatic vessels are similar to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) deep arteries B) small veins C) pumping vessels D) capillaries
B
Lymphatic capillaries are NOT found in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) areolar connective tissue B) muscle C) epithelia D) intestinal walls
C
Which vessel is responsible for draining lymph from deep thoracic structures? A) Intestinal trunk B) Thoracic duct C) Bronchomediastinal trunk D) Lymphatic duct
C
The only primary lymphatic structure in this list is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) spleen B) tonsils C) MALT D) thymus
D
The process of wandering cancer cells from a primary tumor establishing a secondary tumor is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) breast cancer B) pathology C) metastisis D) lymphedema
C
The right lymphatic duct
A) drains lymph from the upper half of the body.
B) returns lymph to right internal jugular vein.
C) drains lymph from cisterna chyli.
D) extends from right side of the diaphragm.
B
Where would an immune response be initiated? A) Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue B) Immune response system C) Thymus D) Lymphatic vessel
A
Which description is NOT accurate?
A) Formed elements are produced in red bone marrow through the process of hemopoiesis.
B) The hormones thymosin, thymulin, and thymopoietin are produced in the thymus.
C) All formed elements leave the bone morrow and directly enter the blood and circulate.
D) An adult thymus has lost thymic tissue and gained adipose connective tissue.
C
Which of the following can be found in every organ? A) peyers patches B) white pulp C) secondary structures D) diffuse lymphatic tissue
D
The function of the spleen is to
A) help support formation of formed elements.
B) filter lymph before it returns to the blood.
C) promote lymphocyte maturation.
D) filter the blood and help initiate an immune response.
D
Which of the following formed elements does not mature in the blood? A) Basophils B) T-lymphocytes C) Eosionphils D) Neutrophils
B
Hemorrhaging could cause platelets to re-enter the blood from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) splenic artery B) red pulp C) plasma D) bone marrow
B
Adenoids are A) enlarged pharyngeal tonsils. B) clusters of lymph nodes. C) enlarged lingual tonsils. D) hormones produces by the thymus.
A
From innermost to outermost, what is the correct order of tissue layers in the kidney?
A) Renal fascia, paranephric fat, perinephric fat, fibrous capsule
B) Paranephric fat, perinephric fat, fibrous capsule, renal fascia
C) Fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat
D) Perinephric fat, fibrous capsule, renal fascia, paranephric fat
C
The microscopic, functional filtration unit of the kidney is the A) renal corpuscle. B) glomerulus. C) tubular pole. D) nephron.
D
The region of the kidney that drains urine is the A) renal papilla. B) renal sinus. C) renal column. D) renal pyramid.
B
Which is not part of a renal tubule? A) Glomerulus B) Proximal convoluted tubule C) Nephron loop D) Distal convoluted tubule
A
Intercalated cells A) regulate urine concentration. B) regulate urine and blood pH. C) establish a salt gradient. D) drain urine.
B
The blood vessels that carry blood away from the glomerulus are the A) segmental arteries. B) interlobular arteries. C) arcuate arteries. D) efferent arteries.
D
the cells that synthesize, store, and release renin are the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cells. A) granular B) cortical C) principal D) intercalated
A
What is the pathway that urine follows from its formation until its excretion?
A) Renal sinus, papillary duct, urethra, urinary bladder, ureter
B) Papillary duct, renal sinus, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
C) Renal sinus, urinary bladder, papillary duct, urethra, ureter
D) Urethra, renal sinus, papillary duct, urinary bladder, ureter
B
The movement of solutes, usually by active transport, out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called A) filtration. B) tubular reabsorption. C) tubular secretion. D) hydrostatic movement.
C
Which of the following is not normally filtered through the glomerular filtration membrane?
A) Glucose
B) Formed elements (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets)
C) Hormones
D) Vitamins B and C
B
What is the value of the NFP (net filtration pressure) if the glomerular hydrostatic pressure (HPg) is 60mm Hg, the blood colloid osmotic pressure (OPg) is 32mm Hg, and the capsular hydrostatic pressure (HPc) is 18mm Hg? A) 0 mm Hg B) 10 mm Hg C) 46 mm Hg D) 74 mm Hg
B
What hormone increases the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in response to distension of cardiac chambers due to an increase in blood volume or pressure? A) Aldosterone B) Antidiuretic hormone C) Atrial natriuretic peptide hormone D) Renal plasma hormone
C
The maximum plasma concentration of a substance that can be carried in the blood without eventually appearing in the urine is called A) transport maximum. B) paracellular transport threshold. C) net filtration concentration. D) renal threshold.
D
Water reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule occurs via A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) exchange pumps. D) facilitated diffusion.
A
What is the effect of an increase in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on urine production?
A) It decreases the volume of urine produced and creates a more concentrated urine.
B) It increases the volume of urine produced and creates a more dilute urine.
C) It creates urine with a higher pH value.
D) It creates urine with a lower pH value.
A
A decrease in blood pressure would result in A) an increase in sweating. B) a decrease in the thirst mechanism. C) an increase in urine volume. D) a decrease in urine volume.
D
What statement is true regarding the ureters?
A) The ureters use gravity to move the urine to the bladder.
B) The ureters use smooth muscle contraction to actively move urine to the urinary bladder.
C) The ureters use gravity to move the urine to the urethra.
D) The ureters use smooth muscle contraction to actively move urine to the urethra.
B
What is the innermost tunic of the bladder? A) Mucosa B) Submucosa C) Muscularis D) Adventitia
A
What statement is true regarding the differences between the urethra of a male and a female?
A) The male urethra is shorter than the female urethra.
B) The male urethra has both reproductive and urinary functions.
C) The female urethra has both reproductive and urinary functions.
D) The female urethra is partitioned into three segments, while there is only one segment in the male urethra.
B
The expulsion of urine from the bladder is called A) the urethral reflex. B) the prostatic reflex. C) micturition. D) continence.
C
The human body is composed of an average of \_\_\_\_\_\_ fluid by weight. A) 25% B) 45% C) 65% D) 85%
C
Which of the following situations would result in a relatively higher percentage of body fluid?
A) An increase in skeletal muscle tissue
B) An increase in adipose connective tissue
C) An increase in age
D) An increase in bone density
A
What situations would result in a net movement of water from the cells into the blood plasma?
A) Drinking two large cups of water
B) Becoming dehydrated
C) A decrease in plasma osmolarity
D) The intracellular compartment becomes hypertonic
B
The loss of water that always occurs, regardless of the state of hydration of the body is called A) sensible water loss. B) insensible water loss. C) obligatory water loss. D) facultative water loss.
C
What stimuli would activate (turn on) the thirst center? A) Increased blood pressure B) Decreased blood osmolarity C) Distension of the stomach D) Decreased salivary secretions
D
What statement is true regarding electrolytes?
A) Electrolytes decrease osmotic pressure.
B) Electrolytes dissociate in water.
C) Electrolytes include glucose, urea, and creatinine.
D) Electrolytes do not conduct an electric current.
B
What conditions would result in an increase in blood pressure? A) Na+ (sodium) intake is increased. B) The ECF becomes hypotonic. C) The plasma volume decreases. D) Sodium loss in urine increases.
A
The most abundant anion in the ECF is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) chloride. D) calcium.
C
What is an effect of Angiotensin II?
A) Stimulates vasoconstriction of systemic blood vessels, thereby increasing blood pressure
B) Increases urine output in order to decrease blood pressure
C) Inhibits the thirst center in the hypothalamus
D) Inhibits the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary
A
ADH is released in response to A) hormones from the hypothalamus. B) nerve signals from the hypothalamus. C) an increase in blood chloride levels. D) an increase in blood pressure.
B
One effect of aldosterone release is
A) a decrease in potassium (K+) secretion in to tubular fluid.
B) an increase of sodium (Na+) reabsorption into the blood.
C) a decrease in the reabsorption of water.
D) an increase in urine output.
B
How does ANP influence blood volume and blood pressure?
A) ANP causes the constriction of blood vessels.
B) ANP causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles in the kidneys.
C) ANP inhibits Na+ and water reabsorption by nephron tubules in the kidneys.
D) ANP decreases urine output.
C
The acid-base balance requires the regulation of hydrogen concentration in body fluids in order to maintain an arterial blood pH that is A) between 3.5 and 3.75. B) between 4 and 4.25. C) between 7.35 and 7.45. D) between 8.25 and 8.35.
C
When alkaline conditions are present, how do the renal tubules respond in order to maintain the acid-base balance?
A) They reabsorb more HCO3 - in the nephron tubule.
B) The decrease the secretion HCO3- from the blood into the filtrate.
C) They reabsorb more H+ from the filtrate.
D) They secrete Na+ into the filtrate.
C
What would an increase in respiratory rate cause? A) Blood CO2 levels are increased. B) Blood H+ concentration increases. C) Decreased levels of CO2 are expired. D) Blood pH levels increase.
D
The protein buffering system acts in what way to maintain body fluid pH?
A) It can act as a weak acid or a weak base to minimize pH changes in the body.
B) It acts as a strong acid to buffer bases in the body.
C) It acts as a strong base to buffer acids in the body.
D) It acts as neither an acid nor a base.
A
The response of physiologic buffering systems to acid-base disturbances that results in the return of blood pH to normal is called A) acid-base disturbance. B) compensation. C) uncompensation. D) acid-base imbalance.
B
Respiratory acidosis is defined as occurring when the PCO2 in the arterial blood becomes elevated above A) 15 mm Hg B) 35 mm Hg C) 45 mm Hg D) 60 mm Hg
C
The acid-base disturbance that occurs as a result of a decrease in HCO3- is called A) metabolic acidosis. B) metabolic alkalosis. C) respiratory alkalosis. D) renal acidosis.
A
In response to low pH, how would renal compensation help return the body to a normal pH level?
A) Excess CO2 is eliminated.
B) Decreases the elimination of CO2.
C) Excess H+ is eliminated and HC03- is reabsorbed.
D) H+ is reabsorbed and excess HC03- is eliminated.
A
The primary reproductive organs in females and males are called A) gametes. B) greater vestibular glands. C) gonads. D) glans.
C
The organs that produce gametes and sex hormones are the
A) ovaries and testis.
B) greater vestibular gland and bulbourethral gland.
C) accessory reproductive organs.
D) labia majora and glans of penis.
A
When the hypothalamus begins secreting \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, puberty is initiated. A) gametes B) growth hormone C) prolactin D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone
D
Which of the following is NOT a component of the urogenital triangle? A) Anus B) Vaginal orifices C) Base of the penis D) Scrotum
A
Human somatic (body) cells contain \_\_ pair(s) of autosomes, and \_\_\_ pair(s) of sex chromosomes. A) 46; 2 B) 22; 1 C) 1; 23 D) 16; 2
B
Which of the following statements is true regarding meiosis?
A) Meiosis is the division of somatic cells.
B) Meiosis results in two daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
C) Meiosis involves a process called crossing over.
D) Meiosis produces daughter cells that are diploid.
C
The cell division that is also known as the reduction division is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) meiosis I B) meiosis II C) mitosis I D) mitosis II
A
During \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the homologous pairs of replicated chromosomes line up above and below the equator of the cell, forming a double line of chromosomes. A) prophase I B) metaphase I C) anaphase I D) telophase I
B
Which of the following is NOT an accessory reproductive organ in human females? A) Uterine tubes B) Uterus C) Vagina D) Ovaries
D
Which of the following represents the correct order of ovarian follicle development?
A) Vesicular follicle, primary follicle, secondary follicle, primordial follicle
B) Primordial follicle, primary follicle, secondary follicle, vesicular follicle
C) Primary follicle, secondary follicle, vesicular follicle, primordial follicle
D) Secondary follicle, primordial follicle, vesicular Follicle, primary follicle
B
The follicle that contains a secondary oocyte is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ follicle. A) vesicular B) secondary C) primary D) primordial
A
Ovulation occurs on day \_\_\_\_ of a 28-day ovarian cycle. A) 5 B) 9 C) 14 D) 21
C
he end of the luteal phase is marked by A) menses. B) ovulation. C) puberty. D) oogenesis.
A
The broad, curved superior region of the uterus is the A) cervix. B) isthmus. C) body. D) fundus.
D
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is(are) the site(s) of sperm cell production in the testes. A) seminiferous tubules B) tunica albuginea C) ductus deferens D) venous spaces
A
Which is the correct path of gametes through the male reproductive tract?
A) Ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, epididymis, efferent ductules
B) Ductus deferens, efferent ductules, Ejaculatory duct, epididymis
C) Efferent ductules, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct
D) Epididymis, efferent ductules, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens
C
The function of the seminal vesicles is to
A) secrete a viscous fluid containing fructose and prostaglandins.
B) secrete mucus to serve as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.
C) secrete an acidic fluid rich in citric acid.
D) secrete spermatozoa into the ejaculate.
A
How do parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation work together in the male reproductive system?
A) Sympathetic innervation is needed to achieve an erection, while parasympathetic innervation promotes ejaculation.
B) Parasympathetic innervation is needed to achieve an erection, while sympathetic innervation promotes ejaculation.
C) Sympathetic innervation promotes sperm development, and parasympathetic innervation promotes an erection.
D) Parasympathetic innervation is needed to enter the refractory period, and sympathetic innervation promotes the resolution phase.
B
Which of the following statements regarding genetic and phenotypic sex is NOT true?
A) A person with one X and one Y chromosome is a genetic male.
B) Phenotypic sex refers to the appearance of an individual’s genitalia.
C) If the Y chromosome has an abnormal SRY gene, a female phenotypic sex results.
D) It is impossible for an individual to be a genetic male and have a female phenotypic sex.
D
Menopause typically occurs A) between the ages of 35 and 45. B) between the ages of 45 and 55. C) between the ages of 65 and 75. D) after age 75.
B
The process by which two gametes fuse together to form a new diploid cell containing genetic material from both parents is called A) capacitation. B) fertilization. C) acrosome reaction. D) cleavage.
B
The period of time that begins with fertilization and ends two weeks later is called the A) pre-embryonic period. B) embryonic period. C) fetal period. D) prenatal period.
A
What is the correct order of the developmental stage or process during pre-embryonic development?
A) Cleavage, blastocyst, implantation, zygote, morula
B) Cleavage, blastocyst, implantation, morula, zygote
C) Zygote, cleavage, morula, blastocyst, implantation
D) Implantation, zygote, morula, cleavage, zygote
C
Which of the following statements is true regarding cleavage?
A) The overall size of the pre-embryo increases in relation to an increase in cell number.
B) There is an increase in cell number, but not an increase in the size of the pre-embryo.
C) It occurs following implantation.
D) It ends when the pre-embryo reaches the 2-cell stage.
B
The physiological conditioning that makes it possible for the sperm to penetrate the egg is called A) sperm migration. B) capacitation. C) morulation. D) cleavage.
B
Which is not a function of the placenta?
A) Exchange of metabolic products between fetal and maternal blood
B) Exchange of respiratory gases between fetal and maternal blood
C) Hormone production
D) Blockage of maternal antibodies
D
The embryonic period extends from A) fertilization to week 3. B) week 3 to week 8. C) week 8 through week 16. D) week 16 through birth.
B
Almost all of organogenesis occurs A) during the pre-embryonic period. B) during the embryonic period. C) during the fetal period. D) after birth.
B
During which period of development does the fetus experience its most rapid period of growth? A) Pre-embryonic period B) First trimester C) Second trimester D) Third trimester
D
Which of the following statements is true regarding maternal hormonal changes during pregnancy?
A) HCG peaks during the first trimester and its levels drop thereafter.
B) Prolactin and oxytocin levels decrease toward the end of pregnancy.
C) Levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease after the second trimester.
D) Human placental lactogen (HPL) peaks during the first trimester and drops thereafter.
A
True labor is initiated due to __________ being released by the fetus and the mother, causing a _________ feedback cycle.
A) progesterone; positive
B) estrogen; negative
C) oxytocin; positive
D) human chorionic gonadotropin; negative
C
Which of the following events occurs during the expulsion stage of labor?
A) The uterus experiences rhythmic contractions and the cervix dilates to 10 centimeters.
B) The baby is expelled from the mother’s body.
C) The placenta and fetal membranes are expelled from the uterus.
D) The fetus secretes oxytocin, causing the cervix to stretch.
B
Ectoderm gives rise to A) most of the cardiovascular system. B) most muscle. C) cartilage and connective tissue. D) epidermis, hair, and sense organs.
D
The hormone that is responsible for milk production is A) prolactin. B) human chorionic thyrotropin. C) relaxin. D) estrogen.
A
After giving birth, the mother experiences which of the following changes?
A) Blood volume and cardiac output increase
B) Estrogen and progesterone levels rise
C) Respiratory rate and pulmonary ventilation decrease
D) Fluid retention increases
C
The physical expression of a genetic trait in an individual is called the A) allele. B) locus. C) genotype. D) phenotype.
D
If a person has two identical alleles for a trait, the individual is said to be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for that trait. A) homozygous B) heterozygous C) incompletely dominant D) autosomal
A
If one parent has a dominant allele for a trait, and the other parent has a recessive allele for the same trait, the offspring will express the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ allele. A) dominant B) recessive C) homozygous D) incompletely dominant
A
The practice of incising the perineal muscles in order to create a wider opening for the baby to pass through during childbirth is called a(n) A) crowning procedure. B) episiotomy. C) lochia. D) dilation.
B
The block-like masses that are responsible for the formation of the axial skeleton, most musculature, and most of the cartilage, dermis, and connective tissues of the body are A) intermediate mesoderm. B) lateral plate mesoderm. C) head mesenchyme. D) somites.
D
The tissue of which organ is called pulp?
A.thymus
B.spleen
C.lymph nodes
D.tonsils
B
The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)
A.artery
B.arteriole
C.vein
D.capillary
C
The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks are the
A.thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
B.thoracic duct and left lymphatic duct
C.subclavian duct and bronchomediastinal duct
D.cisterna chyli and thoracic duct
A
Lymph nodes of the axillary region receive lymph primarily from the
A.scalp and face
B.arm and mammary gland
C.thoracic viscera
D.abdominal viscera
B
The thoracic duct
A.empties into the right subclavian vein
B.drains the right side of the head and neck
C.is the shorter of the two collecting ducts
D.drains lymph from most of the body
D
Afferent lymph vessels
A.carry lymph toward lymph nodes
B.carry lymph toward the thoracic duct
C.enter a lymph node at the hilum
D.combine to form lacteals
A
The functions of the lymphatic system include
A.draining excess interstitial fluid
B.transporting dietary lipids
C.carrying out immune responses
D.all of these Choices
D
Lymphatic vessels are lined with
A.ciliated columnar epithelium
B.pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
C.endothelium
D.white fibrous connective tissue
C
Medullary sinuses of lymph nodes
A.are filled with lymph
B.contain germinal centers
C.filter blood
D.are strands of lymphocytes
A
Lymph from the cisterna chyli empties into the
A.liver
B.thoracic duct
C.left brachiocephalic vein
D.heart
B
The largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the adult human body is the
A.liver
B.spleen
C.thymus
D.pancreas
B
All of these choices are non-specific defense mechanisms except
A.flow of saliva
B.phagocytosis
C.neutralization of an antigen by an antibody
D.gastric juice acidity
C
Lymphocytes that destroy cancerous cells in a non-specific fashion are called:
A.carcinolytic cells
B.natural killer cells
C.cytotoxic T cells
D.macrophages
B
Which of the following does NOT function to increase vasodilation and permeability of blood vessels?
A.defensins
B.histamine
C.prostaglandins
D.kinins
A
Interferon is produced in response to the presence of
A.viruses
B.specific bacterial cells
C.chemical irritants
D.lymphocytes
A
The two major types of phagocytic cells are
A.monocytes and eosinophils
B.macrophages and neutrophils
C.neutrophils and macrophages
D.monocytes and lymphocytes
C
Which of the following cell types is derived from monocytes?
A.neutrophil
B.wandering macrophage
C.mast cell
D.histiocyte
B
Which of the following cell types is derived from monocytes?
A.neutrophil
B.wandering macrophage
C.mast cell
D.histiocyte
C
Emigration refers to the
A.release of lymphokines
B.lysis of cell walls by lymphotoxins
C.apoptosis of cells
D. movement of cells from the circulatory system into infected areas
D
The proper sequence of phases in the process of phagocytosis is
A.adherence, ingestion, chemotaxis B.adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion
C.chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion
D. chemotaxis, ingestion, adherence
C
After phagocytosis, which intracellular chemicals kill the microbe by a process called an oxidative burst?
A.lethal oxidants
B.lysozyme
C.defensins
D.complement
A
The first stage of inflammation is
A.tissue repair
B.vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels
C.phagocyte migration and cytolysis by complement
D.activation of cell mediated immunity
B
The lymphokine interleukin – 2
A.is toxic only to the target cells
B.promotes phagocytic activity
C.attracts leukocytes chemically
D.stimulates T-cell proliferation
D
Which of the following is a specific body defense mechanism?
A.phagocytosis
B.inflammation
C.immunity
D.fever
C
Normal immune responses require the presence of
A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. both T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
D. NK cells
C
A hapten is an antigen that has
A.immunogenicity but not reactivity
B.reactivity but not immunogenicity
C.both immunogenicity and reactivity
D.neither immunogenicity nor reactivity
B
Interleukin – 1
A.is toxic only to the target cells
B.promotes phagocytic activity
C.initiates chemotaxis
D.is a fever-causing cytokine
D
B lymphocytes
A.migrate from the thymus to other lymphatic organs
B.are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity
C.secrete lymphokines
D.are phagocytic
B
The Class I major histocompatibility complex (MHCI) antigens
A.are a large group of bacterial related antigens that cause many diseases
B.are located only on viruses, not bacteria
C.are difficult to produce antibodies against because they are constantly mutating
D.mark the surfaces of all your body cells except your red blood cells
D
Antigen presenting cells (APCs) include
A.macrophages
B.killer T cells
C.neutrophil
D.plasma cells
A
Antigen recognition by a T-cell receptor with CD4 or CD8 proteins is the ____________________ in the activation of a T-cell.
A.first signal
B.second signal
C.third signal
D.fourth signal
A
When stimulated, T cells that display the CD8 molecule develop into
A.plasma cells
B.cytotoxic T cells
C.memory cells
D.helper T cells
B
Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells directly by secreting
A.cytokines
B.antibodies
C.lysozyme
D.perforin and granulysin
D
The most abundant type of immunoglobin is
A.IgA
B.IgD
C.IgE
D.IgG
D
After recovering from certain diseases, one may have developed _____ immunity to the diseases.
A.naturally acquired active
B.artificially acquired active
C.naturally acquired passive
D.artificially acquired passive
A
The antibodies involved in allergic reactions are:
A.called allergens
B.secreted by mast cells
C.in the IgE class
D.produced only after immunization
C
An immunoglobulin is
A.an antigen
B.an antibody
C.a nucleoprotein
D.found in platelets
B
Complement:
A.is produced by eosinophils and neutrophils
B.is chemotactic and attracts phagocytic cells
C.contains enzymes which reduce the inflammatory response
D.lyses B-cells, thus releasing antibodies
B
An activated B cell develops into a clone of
A. T cells
B.Natural Killer cells
C.antibody-producing plasma cells
D.IgG antibodies
C
Antibodies are composed of
A.1 heavy and 3 light polypeptide chains
B.2 heavy and 2 light polypeptide chains
C.2 heavy and 2 light polysaccharide chains
D. 1 light and 3 heavy polysaccharide chains
B
Lack of reactivity of T cells and B cells to fragments of one´s own proteins is known as
A.self-tolerance
B.self-recognition
C.positive selection
D.negative selection
A
A tissue transplant in which one’s own tissue is grafted to another part of the body is called
A) an autograft
B) an isograft
C).an allograft
D)a xenograft
A
The immune cells that are very ‘macrophage-like’ and are found in almost all tissues are called
A) Plasma cells
B) Dendritic cells
C) Mast cells
D) Lymphocytes
B
Dendritic cells possess almost all the characteristics of macrophages, but they are not derived from monocytes. They reside in almost all the body’s tissues.
Secretions such as sweat, tears, saliva, and mucous are important components of the body’s innate immune responses (nonspecific)
T/F
T
This statement is true. These secretions contain antibacterial chemicals such as lysozyme and lactoferrin that are harmful to bacteria. Furthermore, because mucous is sticky, it traps bacteria in respiratory and digestive tracts.
Which of the following is NOT a typical event of inflammation?
A) Increased vasodilation and capillary permeability
B) Release of inflammatory mediators
C) Release of specific antibodies
D) Increased rates of phagocytosis
C
Antibody production is an adaptive immune response while inflammation is an innate immune response. Inflammation is a complex process beginning with the release of inflammatory mediators that increase vasodilation and capillary permeability. These events allow phagocytes to move into the infected area leading to an increase in phagocytosis.
Chemotaxis
A) Refers to the chemical attraction of erythrocytes to the site of inflammation
B) Is the mechanism by which neutrophils and monocytes migrate to the scene of microbial invasion or injury
C) Is responsible for the activation of lymphocytes in the innate immune response
D) Is stimulated by the presence of antibodies
B
hemotaxis is the chemically-mediated movement of neutrophils and monocytes to an area of injury or infection. Erythrocytes do not participate in the immune response, and antibody production by B-lymphocytes requires antigen binding and stimulation by cytokines
Which of the following statements regarding phagocytes and phagocytosis is true?
A) Lymphocytes can act as phagocytes
B) Contact of phagocytes with microbes stimulates the phagocytes to release chemicals that stimulate the inflammatory response
C) Phagocytosis is stimulated by the presence of proteins called rhodopsins
D) Phagocytosis is a negative feedback regulation of inflammation
B
Contact with microbes causes the phagocytes to release chemicals into the extracellular fluid that stimulate the inflammatory response. Lymphocytes are not phagocytic cells. The primary phagocytic cells are neutrophils, dendritic cells, and macrophages. Phagocytosis is stimulated by a variety of proteins referred to as opsonins, but rhodopsin is not one of these proteins (it is a photosensitive protein found in the retina). Phagocytosis provides a positive feedback mechanism for inflammation.
Which of the following statements regarding phagocytosis is true?
A) Macrophages are the only phagocytes in the tissues
B) The microbe engulfed by the phagocyte is killed by lysosomal enzymes and hydrogen peroxide
C) Phagocytosis is controlled by a negative feedback mechanism whereby phagocytes release chemicals that inhibit further phagocytosis
D) The microbe engulfed by the phagocyte is killed by the membrane attack complex (MAC)
B
Enzymes in the phagolysosome, including enzymes that generate hydrogen peroxide, destroy the microbe. The lysosomes produce nitric oxide and hydrogen peroxide both of which damage the microbe’s macromolecules. Macrophages are not the only phagocytes that are found in tissues; dendritic cells and neutrophils are also phagocytic. When phagocytes become activated, they release cytokines that activate other phagocytes; this is a form of positive feedback regulation. Phagocytes do not kill cells via a membrane attack complex (MAC) mechanism, but rather by lysosomal digestion of the microbe. MAC is produced by the complement protein system and results in lytic destruction of the microbe.
The membrane attack complex (MAC) is composed of
A) Complement proteins B) Chemokines C) Cytokines D) C-reactive proteins
A
omplement proteins form the membrane attack complex in response to activation by infection or tissue damage. Cytokine is a general term that refers to protein messengers secreted by the cells of the immune system. Chemokines are a group of cytokines that have chemoattractant actions. C-reactive proteins are plasma protein that can act as opsonins.
Interferons
A) Are synthetic drugs developed to combat viruses
B) Are a type of antibody
C) Are a family of cytokines that inhibit viral replication of specific viruses
D) Are a family of cytokines that non-specifically inhibit viral replication inside host cells
E) Are mainly secreted by lymphoid organ cells in response to viral infections
D
Interferons inhibit replication of viruses inside target cells but do so non-specifically. Interferons are a family of cytokines (proteins released by the cells of the immune system) that are released from many types of body tissues in response to viral attack. Interferons have been successful in treating viral hepatitis and similar diseases.
Foreign molecules that can trigger an adaptive immune response are called
A) Immunoglobulins
B) Antigens
C) Antibodies
D) Cytokines
B
Antigens are foreign molecules that can initiate an immune response. Antigens are bound by immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies. Cytokines are chemicals used for cell to cell communication and are secreted by a variety of cells.
Lymphocytes express hundreds of distinct antigen receptors. This increases the likelihood that a given lymphocyte will be able to bind a foreign organism.
T/F
F
This statement is false. Each lymphocyte expresses only a single type of antigen receptor. Thus, each lymphocyte is specific for just one type of antigen. If that lymphocyte binds an antigen and becomes activated, it will make many copies of itself (clones), all capable of producing more copies of that antigen receptor.
The ability to vaccinate individuals against a disease is possible because memory cells are produced by clonal expansion, and they allow for a rapid response if an antigen should return.
T/F
T
This statement is true. Memory cells produced by clonal expansion are rapidly activated by a return of an antigen. Vaccinations involve administration of killed or incapacitated microbes to allow the immune system to mount an immune response without any danger of actually acquiring an infection. This immune response produces the memory cells that prevent future infection by the same organism.
Which of the following statements regarding lymphoid organs is NOT correct?
A) The spleen is the largest primary lymph organ
B) Lymph nodes and tonsils are examples of secondary lymphoid organs
C) Bone marrow and thymus are examples of primary lymphoid organs
D) Mature lymphocytes of the secondary lymphoid organs originate from bone marrow and thymus
A
The spleen is the largest secondary lymph organ. Only bone and the thymus gland are primary lymph organs. Lymphoid organs are the organs which deal with production and maintenance of lymphocytes. The primary organs are the site of development of lymphocytes and the secondary organs host cells which have been derived in the bone marrow and thymus but have migrated into the secondary structures (lymph nodes and spleen) to carry out their defense functions.
The two broad categories of specific immune responses are antibody-mediated and humoral.
T/F
F
This statement is false. The two broad categories of specific immune responses are cellular immunity, which is mediated by T cells, and humoral immunity, which is mediated by B cells. Humoral immunity and antibody-mediated immunity are the same thing
Which of the following statements regarding B cells is NOT correct?
A) B cells can act as antigen-presenting cells
B) B cells can secrete antibodies
C) Activation of B cells requires class 1 MHC proteins
D) B ell activation is stimulated by cytokines
E) B cells usually require helper T cells to be activated
C
B cell activation does not require MHC class I proteins. B cell activation is stimulated by certain cytokines, especially those released by activated helper T cells. Activated B cells secrete antibodies, but can also act as antigen-presenting cells.
B and T cells are preprogrammed to recognize specific antigens.
T/F
T
This statement is true. Each B cell has a receptor on its plasma membrane that recognizes a specific molecular conformation. Similarly, T cells have specific membrane-bound T cell receptors. B and T cells recognize only antigens that bind to these receptors.
In cell-mediated immune responses, immune cells directly kill antigen-bearing cells.
T/F
T
This statement is true. Cytotoxic T cells directly destroy antigen-bearing cells by perforating these cells and by causing them to undergo apoptosis.
Which of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin proteins produced by B cells is NOT correct?
A) They have a Y-shape structure with light chains and heavy chains
B) They have constant (conserved) and variable ends in their protein structure
C) They occur in a large variety in order to recognize and neutralize diverse infectious agents
D) They are found at all ages, although not uniformly, so that some may be added during fetal life, others during lactation and still others during later adult life
E) All immunoglobulin proteins produced by B cells are secreted
E
Antigens presented in association with class I MHC proteins are recognized by _______, while antigens presented in association with class II MHC are recognized by _______.
A) B cells; cytotoxic T cells
B) Helper T cells; cytotoxic T cells
C) B cells; helper T cells
D) Cytotoxic T cells; helper T cells
E) Helper T cells; B cells
D
Along with antigen presentation, additional stimulation for activation of helper T cells is the result of the release of ______ by antigen presenting cells.
A) Interleukin-1
B) Interleukin-2
C) Tumor necrosis factor
D) Interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor
E) Interleukin-1 and interleukin-2
D
Antigen presenting cells release IL-1 and TNF which provides stimulation for activation of helper T cells. This causes the T cell to secrete and express receptors for IL-2. The IL-2 then stimulates the helper T cell to proliferate.
Which of the following statements concerning NK cells is NOT correct?
A) They are a distinct class of lymphocytes
B) The are “natural killer” cells
C) They are functionally similar to cytotoxic T-cells
D) They attack cancer cells and virus infected cells
E) They are antigen specific and must recognize an antigen on a target cell before attacking it
E
NK abbreviation stands for “natural killer” cells. These cells are a distinct class of lymphocytes which act similar to Cytotoxic T-cells. They attack many cancer cells and virus-infected cells but in contrast to Cytotoxic T-cells, do not need to recognize an antigen on the surface of a target cell before attacking it.
Which of the following statements regarding antibody types is correct?
A) IgD and IgM are the most abundant antibodies produced
B) IgG antibodies participate in allergic reaction
C) IgA antibodies are commonly found in secretions
D) IgE antibodies have a function that remains unclear
C
IgA antibodies are found in secretions. IgG and IgM antibodies are the most abundant antibodies. IgE antibodies participate in allergic reactions. IgD antibodies have a function that remains unclear.
Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe antibodies?
A) Antibodies are secreted by plasma cells
B) Antibodies protect against bacteria and viruses by binding to them and presenting them to phagocytes
C) Antibodies protect against viruses by binding to them and neutralizing them
D) Antibodies activate complement
E) Antibodies protect against bacteria by binding to them and perforating them
E
Cytotoxic T cells destroy viral infected body cells by phagocytosis.
T/F
F
This statement is false. Cytotoxic T cells do not act as phagocytes. They destroy antigen-bearing cells by releasing the contents of their secretory vesicles (through exocytosis) into the space between it and the target cell to which it is attached. The vesicle contains perforin, which inserts into the membrane of the target cell causing it to lyse. Cytotoxic T cells also release molecules that cause cells to undergo apoptosis.
Fever is part of the acute phase response to disease, and it is considered beneficial to the immune system.
T/F
T
This statement is true. Fever is part of the acute phase response. The increase in body temperature enhances many immune responses.
Which of the following statements concerning the disease AIDS is NOT correct?
A) It is called Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
B) It is a hereditary disorder
C) It is a viral disease caused by the HIV virus
D) It can be transmitted from mother to fetus
E) The infected individuals lose their reserves of T-cells, particularly the helper T-cells
B
Antibiotics are all synthetic compounds that interfere with some essential function of the infectious microbes (such as bacteria).
T/F
F
Which of the following cells play major roles in rejection of a tissue graft (such as a kidney transplant from an unrelated donor)?
A) Cytotoxic and Helper T- cells
B) Plasma cells
C) Macrophages
D) B-cells
E) NK cells
A
Antibodies against both type A and type B antigens are found in the plasma of a person whose blood type is ________.
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type AB
D) Type O
D
Which of the following people may suffer from a type of hemolytic anemia called “hemolytic disease of the newborn”?
A) An Rh+ fetus being carried by an Rh- mother.
B) An Rh- mother who is pregnant with an Rh+ fetus.
C) An Rh- fetus being carried by an Rh+ mother.
D) An Rh+ mother who is pregnant with an Rh- fetus.
E) An Rh- fetus who has an Rh+ father.
A
Autoimmune diseases are caused by production of certain inappropriate antibodies which recognize body proteins as non-self (foreign) and attack them causing tissue destruction and diseases.
T/F
T
Which of the following correctly matches a body fluid compartment with its approximate volume?
a) intracellular fluid: 40% of total body fluids
b) extracellular fluid: 20% of total male body mass
c) interstitial fluid: 20% of extracellular fluid
d) plasma: 20% of interstitial fluid
e) solids: 55% of total female body mass
A
Metabolic water contributes about half of the daily water gain.
T/F
F
Thirst may be stimulated by
- decreased flow of saliva.
- decreased blood pressure.
- decreased blood osmolarity.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2 are correct.
e) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
D
Atrial natriuretic peptide helps to regulate the volume and osmolarity of body fluids by
a) stimulating the desire to drink fluids to quench thirst.
b) stimulating the secretion of aldosterone.
c) increasing urinary excretion of sodium and chloride ions accompanied by water.
d) increasing the permeability of the collecting ducts to water.
e) increasing urinary reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions accompanied by water.
C
Decreased blood sodium levels may cause cells to swell because of decreased interstitial fluid osmolarity
T/F
T
All of the following are functions of electrolytes in the body EXCEPT
a) control osmosis of water between fluid compartments.
b) act as enzymes in some metabolic pathways.
c) serve as enzyme cofactors.
d) help maintain acid-base balance.
e) carry electrical current.
B
Because of the involvement of carbon dioxide in the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system, this buffer system provides protection against pH changes due to respiratory problems that lead to an excess or shortage of carbon dioxide.
T/F
F
Respiratory acidosis
a) may be caused by inadequate inhalation of carbon dioxide.
b) may be corrected by hyperventilation.
c) is due to a increase in blood bicarbonate levels.
d) is most commonly caused by excessive vomiting.
e) may be a side effect of diabetic ketosis.
B
Depression of the central nervous system is one of the major physiological effects of acidosis.
T/F
T
An infant with severe diarrhea and vomiting may experience greater problems with fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance than an adult with the same disorder because
a) more of an infant’s body mass is water.
b) infants have a slower metabolic rate.
c) the less developed kidney function in infants causes increased excretion of acid.
d) body surface area: body volume is less in infants than in adults.
e) newborns have a tendency toward metabolic alkalosis to start with.
A
- What change in renal regulation of H+ would help compensate for a metabolic acidosis?
A. an increase in the production of new plasma HCO3-
B. reabsorption of H+ from the tubular fluid
C. an increase in the urinary pH
D. a decrease in the filtered load of H+
E. a decrease in the amount of H+ secreted in the proximal tubule
A
Water and NaCl reabsorbed from the loop of Henle directly re-enter what blood vessels?
A. efferent arterioles B. afferent arterioles C. collecting ducts D. cortical peritubular capillaries E. vasa recta
E
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) The female urethra extends from the internal to external urethral orifices, and is significantly longer then the male urethra
b) The male urethra consist of two segments
c) Both the male and the female urethra contain transitional epithelium, simple cuboidal (keratinized), stratified columnar epithelium, and stratified squamous epithelium.
d) All of the statements are correct.
e) None of the statements are correct.
E
All of the following might be observed in a freshly voided normal urine sample EXCEPT
a) amber color.
b) transparency.
c) ammonia odor
d) pH 6.0
e) specific gravity 1.020.
C
The action of symporters which actively reabsorb ions from the tubular fluid in the ___________________ lowers the osmolarity of the tubular fluid
a) glomerulus.
b) proximal convoluted tubules.
c) descending limb of the nephron loop.
d) thick segment of the ascending nephron loop
e) collecting ducts.
D
A large number of sodium ions and glucose molecules may be reabsorbed through
a) sodium-glucose symporters in the proximal convoluted tubules.
b) sodium-glucose antiporters in the nephron loop.
c) sodium-glucose symporters in the collecting duct
d) sodium-hydrogen ion antiporters in the late distal convoluted tubule.
e) sodium-glucose antiporters in the proximal convoluted tubules
A
Glomerular filtration rate is decreased by all of the following EXCEPT
a) increased production of angiotensin II.
b) increased secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide.
c) constriction of smooth muscle fibers in afferent arterioles.
d) dilation of smooth muscle fibers in efferent arterioles
e) increased activity of renal sympathetic nerves.
B
Which of the following equations is CORRECT?
a) NFP = GBHP + CHP – BCOP
b) NFP = GBHP – CHP + BCOP
c) NFP = GBHP + CHP + BCOP
d) NFP = GBHP – CHP – BCOP
e) NFP = GBHP – BCOP
D
The glomerular filtrate contains a lower concentration of____ than does blood plasma.
a) albumin
b) glucose
c) water
d) sodium
e) urea
A
Juxtamedullary nephrons
a) make up about 80-85% of the nephrons within the kidney.
b) allows excretion of very dilute or concentrated urine.
c) have renal corpuscles located in the outer portion of the renal cortex.
d) have very short nephron loops.
e) have very thick descending nephron loops.
B
All of the following are wastes removed by the kidneys EXCEPT
a) urea.
b) bilirubin.
c) creatinine.
d) drugs.
e) water.
E
T/F
The primary difference between active and passive immunity is that in active immunity, antibodies are produced in response to the presence of an antigen, while in passive immunity; pre-formed antibodies are provided from one person to another.
T
Which of the following negatively affects the immune system?
a) smoking
b) lack of sleep
c) sedentary lifestyle
d) stress
e) all of these choices
E
The lack of reactivity to the body’s own proteins is known as:
a) positive selection
b) self-recognition
c) deletion
d) self-tolerance
e) anergy
D
Which antibody crosses the placenta?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgG
e) IgM
D
Which is not true of the cytokines?
a) are small proteins
b) can help regulate adaptive immune responses
c) can influence cell growth
d) are secreted by erythrocytes
e) include the interleukins secreted by T cells
D
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens?
a) are also called human leukocyte antigens
b) are a major reason for tissue rejection in transplantation surgery
c) mark each body cell surface except the white blood cells
d) primary function is to aid the T cells in recognizing foreign antigens
e) there are two major types
C
When T and B cells develop the ability to carry out adaptive immune responses, this is known as
a) lymphology
b) immunocompetence
c) memory
d) specificity
e) genetic recombination
B
Which is not a sign or symptom of inflammation?
a) contracture of tissue
b) triggering of nociceptors
c) erythema
d) loss of function
e) localized increase in tissue size
A
Which is not true in the comparison of natural killer (NK) cells and phagocytes?
a) macrophages are major phagocytes
b) NK cells identify B and T cells
c) macrophages get rid of cellular debris
d) NK cells secrete a substance that creates holes in the membrane of a microbe
e) macrophages can remain in a tissue or travel throughout the body
B
Which of the following is not part of the second line of defense/internal defenses?
a) phagocytes
b) erythrocytes
c) interferons
d) natural killer cells
e) antimicrobial proteins
B
Which is not true in the comparison of natural killer (NK) cells and phagocytes?
a) macrophages are major phagocytes
b) NK cells identify B and T cells
c) macrophages get rid of cellular debris
d) NK cells secrete a substance that creates holes in the membrane of a microbe
e) macrophages can remain in a tissue or travel throughout the body
A
All of the following are true of lymphatic vessels except:
a) both lower extremities eventually drain into the thoracic duct
b) the subclavian trunks drain the upper appendages
c) the right bronchomediastinal trunk, right subclavian trunk, and right jugular trunk drain into the right lymphatic duct
d) the intestinal trunk drains into the right lymphatic duct
e) the left bronchomediastinal trunk, left subclavian trunk, and left jugular trunk drain into the thoracic duct
D
Which of the following is not true of lymph and the lymphatic system?
a) it returns excess interstitial fluid to the blood
b) it responds to certain microbes and abnormal cells
c) lymph is found in the intracellular fluid
d) it carries fat-soluble vitamins
e) lymph is a relatively clear liquid
C
Primary spermatocytes go through meiosis I; the two haploid cells formed during meiosis I are called
a) Spermatogonia
b) Tertiary spermatocytes
c) Secondary spermatocytes
d) Spermatids
e) Spermatozoa
C
The acrosome of a sperm contains the mitochondria needed for ATP production
T/F
F
Sperm are transported within the spermatic cord through
a) pampinform plexux
b) epididymis.
c) ductus deferens.
d) rete testis and epididymis are both correct.
e) rete testis, epididymis, and ductus deferens are all correct.
C
__________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete __________.
A. Luteinizing hormone (LH); testosterone
B. Luteinizing hormone (LH); estrogen
C. Luteinizing hormone (LH); androgen-binding protein (ABP)
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); androgen-binding protein (ABP)
E. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH); LH
A
All of the following structures are considered to be part of the spermatic cord EXCEPT the
a) pampiniform plexus.
b) ductus deferens.
c) cremaster muscle.
d) prostatic urethra.
e) lymphatic vessels.
D
The prostate secretes all of the following EXCEPT
a) sperm.
b) citric acid (ATP production)
c) proteolytic enzymes (break up clotted sperm)
d) seminalplasmin (antibiotics)
A
During oogenesis, the first haploid stage is the
a) oogonium
b) primary oocyte.
c) secondary oocyte.
d) ovum.
e) zygote.
C
10) Which of the following statements about the uterus is NOT correct?
a) The uterus is anterior to the urinary bladder.
b) The fundus is the portion of the uterus that is superior to the uterine tubes.
c) The isthmus is located between the body of the uterus and the cervix.
d) The internal os is the superior opening of the cervical canal.
e) The cervix projects inferiorly and posteriorly.
A
the __________ of the uterus is part of the visceral peritoneum.
a) stratum functionalis.
b) stratum basalis
c) perimetrium
d) myometrium
e) endometrium
C
The extensive blood supply of the uterus is essential to support regrowth of a new stratum basalis following menstruation.
T/F
F
Shedding of the endometrial lining occurs:
A. because ovulation disrupts the growing follicle.
B. because of an increase in the level of FSH.
C. a day after the LH surge.
D. as a result of a fall in plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone.
E. because the non-dominant follicles undergo atresia.
D
The secretory phase of the uterine cycle is associated with
a) increased secretion of progesterone and formation of the corpus albicans.
b) increased secretion of progesterone and formation of the corpus luteum.
c) increased secretion of luteinizing hormone and rupture of the mature follicle.
d) increased secretion of estrogen and maturation of the secondary follicle.
e) increased secretion of follicle stimulating hormone and ovulation.
B
Fertilization in humans generally occurs in the
a) uterus.
b) ovary.
c) uterine tube.
d) cervix.
e) fimbriae.
C
A morula is a solid sphere of cells about the size of the original zygote, and still surrounded by the zona pellucida
T/F
T
The ____________ supplies nutrients to the embryo and is the source of blood cells during early embryonic development
a) trophoblast
b) hypoblast
c) epiblast
d) bilaminary embryonic disc
e) yolk sac
E
The muscles, bones, other connective tissues, and the peritoneum are all derived from the endoderm
T/F
F
The stages of labor are; dilation, expulsion and placental
T/F
T
The neural plate, neural folds, and neural tube form through the process of
a) gastrulation.
b) neurulation.
c) invagination.
d) induction.
e) somatization.
B
Which of the following is a sac filled with fluid that acts as a shock absorber, regulates temperature, and can help prevent the fetus from drying out?
a. yolk sac
b. allantois
c. amniotic sac
d. chorionic villus
e. none of the above
C
The placenta forms from the chorionic villi of the mother and the decidua basalis of the embryonic endoderm.
T/F
F
. Which of the following are functions of the hormone relaxin? This is a multiple-multiple; choose all that apply.
a. help increase the flexibility of the pubic symphysis during labor
b. help dilate the cervix during labor
c. stimulate the mammary glands to relax during the milk-let-down reflex
d. stimulate uterine contractions during true labor
e. stimulate ovulation along with the LH surge
A, B
Progesterone is required during pregnancy to
a) stimulate the corpus luteum.
b) ensure relaxation of the uterine myometrium.
c) increase the flexibility of the pubic symphysis.
d) decrease glucose usage by the mother while making it more available to the fetus.
e) help establish the timing of labor and delivery.
B
The shift of blood flow from the uterus to the muscles and skin during exercise may result in an inadequate blood supply to the placenta.
T/F
F
False labor exhibits which of the following symptoms?
a) contractions at regular intervals.
b) pain at irregular intervals that does not intensify.
c) discharge of blood-containing mucus into the cervical canal.
d) alteration of pain by walking.
e) cervical dilation.
B
Closure of the ductus arteriosus requires
a) closure of the foramen ovale.
b) functioning of the lungs.
c) decreasing blood oxygen levels at birth.
d) ligation of the umbilical cord.
e) collapse of the ductus venosus.
B
Prolactin stimulates contraction of myoepithelial cells in the breast to cause milk ejection.
T/F
F
Which of the following statements concerning the process of differentiation of the reproductive organs is correct?
A )Androgens direct the development of the male genitalia and reproductive tract
B) In male embryos, the Wolffian ducts will regress spontaneously (i.e. without intervening factors)
C) Androgens direct the development of male reproductive organs in genetic males and estrogens direct the development of female reproductive organs in genetic females
D) SRY gene is necessary for the development of the female reproductive system
A
For every primary spermatocyte, two sperm bearing an X chromosome and two sperm bearing a Y chromosome will be produced.
T/F
T
This statement is true. In mammals, one half of the sperm produced during meiosis contain an X chromosome and one half of the sperm produced during meiosis contain a Y chromosome.
In the testis, Leydig cells
A) Synthesize and secrete the androgen hormone testosterone
B) Are responsible for the secretion of hormone inhibin
C) Aid in sperm formation and form androgen binding protein (ABP)
D) Help in storage and biochemical maturation of the sperm
A
Sertoli cells
A) Are found in the space between the seminiferous tubules
B) Are responsible for the secretion of hormone testosterone
C) Aid in sperm formation and form androgen binding protein (ABP)
D) Enable the sperm to become motile
E) Give the sperm their ability to fertilize the egg
C
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A) Spermatogenesis occurs primarily from puberty until death
B) Meiotic divisions of gametogenesis produce cells with 23 chromosomes
C) Oogenesis lasts only from puberty until menopause
D) A female fetus has already begun mitotic cell division for gametogenesis
C
Which of the following structures aids in transport of sperm through the male reproductive tract during ejaculation?
A) Seminal vesicles and prostate
B) Vas deferens
C) Cowper’s (bulbourethral) glands
D) Urethra
E) Epididymides
B
In males, secretion of adrenal gland androgens stimulates the initial changes in secondary sex characteristics at puberty.
T/F
T
This statement is true. In males, these androgens cause the very early development of pubic and axillary hair, as well as the early stages of the pubertal growth spurt in concert with growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor I.
