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AOPI Behavioral Health > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The DSM IV-TR is the most current text on psychiatric diagnosis:
True or False

A

False

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2
Q

The OTPF-3 will be helpful to this course because it uses the most up-to-date OT language:
True or False

A

False

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3
Q

Psychopathology is the study and classification of the symptoms of mental illness that encompasses the lifespan from infancy to senior years:
True or False

A

True

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4
Q

Mental illness is associated with an increased risk of suicide, death, violence and a loss of freedom:
T or F

A

True

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5
Q

NAMI—National Alliance on Mental Illness is a self-help organization that provides mutual support, public education, research, and advocacy for persons with severe mental illness:
T or F

A

True

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6
Q

A definition of mental illness must include

A. Behavior that is culturally sanctioned
B. An impact on cognition
C. Politically motivated deviant behavior
D. Some form of distress

A

D. Some form of distress

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7
Q

All of the following are reasons that we diagnose mental illness accept:
a. Target specific behaviors and disorders for research purposes
b. Develop more effective and valid treatments
c. Predict the level of function
d. Provide a coding system for payment

A

c. Predict the level of function

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8
Q

One of the proven definitive causes of mental illness is
a. Poverty
b. none of the above
c. Infections/bacteria/inflammation
d. Environmental toxins

A

b. none of the above

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9
Q

Symptoms are
a. measurable
b. observable
c. signs
d. subjective

A

d. subjective

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10
Q

WHO developed the ICF to
a. Consider function and disability
b. all of the above
c. Be used internationally and cross-culturally
d. reflect a broader definition of diagnosis

A

b. all of the above

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11
Q

Approximately what percentage of individuals who suffer from depression have at least
one other psychiatric diagnosis at some point in their life?
15%
70%
50%
25%

A

70%

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12
Q

Which of these is NOT a characteristic symptom of how depression presents in
childhood or adolescence?
a. Clinging to parents
b. Irritability
c. Ritualized behaviors
d. School refusual

A

c. Ritualized behaviors

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13
Q

Approximately what % of the time does a patient with Bipolar Disorder Type 2 spend in
a manic or mixed state?
11%
50%
3%
25%

A

3%

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14
Q

The symptoms of bipolar disorder overlap significantly with the symptoms of each of
these conditions except:

Major depressive disorder
Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
None of the above
Borderline personality disorder

A

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

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15
Q

Which of these is an evidence-based intervention for suicide prevention that can be used by an OT?

Bright Light therapy
Safety planning
Prescribing anti-depressants
Bibliotherapy

A

safety planning

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16
Q

Symptoms of depression may include:
guilt
psychomotor issues
all of the above
suicidality

A

all the above

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17
Q

Suicide assessment should include the following:
a. all of the above
b. Access to means
c. Have you ever had thoughts about hurting yourself or taking your life?
d. Protective factors

A

a. all of the above

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18
Q

Geriatric depression
a. is underdiagnosed
b. all of the above
c. frequently presents with somatic complaints
d. is associated with increased mortality rates

A

b. all of the above

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT true:
a. The fear response is thought to originate in deep limbic structures while anxiety and worry may arise from disrupted activity in the prefrontal cortex
b. Generalized anxiety disorder is thought to be more strongly associated with anxious rumination than the fear response
c. Anxiety is more strongly associated with the fight-flight response as compared to fear
d. Fear usually refers to an immediate physiologic response to threat

A

c. Anxiety is more strongly associated with the fight-flight response as compared to fear

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20
Q

At a neurobiological level, studies have suggested that anxiety is characterized by:
a. Hyperactivity (increased activity) of the prefrontal cortex
b. Hypoactivity (decreased activity) of the thalamus
c. Hypoactivity (decreased activity) of the amygdala
d. Decreased connectivity between the prefrontal cortex and amygdala

A

d. Decreased connectivity between the prefrontal cortex and amygdala

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21
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. OT practitioners in primary care treatment settings can support clients to manage anxiety symptoms with multiple modalities of CBT-computerized, telephone-based, and guided self-help–now available in those settings.
b. all of the above
c. OT practitioners can use cognitive behavioral interventions for children whose anxiety is interfering with academic performance.
d. OT practitioners have underutilized CBT.

A

b. all the above

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22
Q

________________ is marked by excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activities.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Separation Anxiety Disorder
PTSD
Social Anxiety Disorder

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

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23
Q

T or F: CBT interventions are associated with improved mobility and independence in activities of daily living.

A

True

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24
Q

The following are characteristic of which anxiety disorder?

Disproportionate, persistent thoughts about seriousness of one’s symptoms

Persistently high level of anxiety about health or symptoms especially that will continue into the future and never stop

Excessive time and energy devoted to these symptoms or health concerns

As a result, there is a disruption in activities of daily living most of each day

a. somatic symptom disorder
b. posttraumatic stress disorder
c. separation anxiety disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder

A

a. somatic symptom disorder

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25
Q

ou are working with a patient with gait and mobility difficulty. The patient often tells you during your sessions “If I don’t get this exercise exactly right, I’ll never get better”. You astutely refer the patient to a skilled cognitive-behavioral therapist for anxiety treatment. The therapist is most likely to interpret the patient’s statement as an example of which thinking error:
a. All-or-nothing thinking
b. Emotional reasoning
c. Overgeneralization
d. Disqualifying the positive

A

a. All-or-nothing thinking

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26
Q

The three Cs of Cognitive Therapy are:
a. charge, check, & change
b. catch, check, & change
c. catch, cognitive, & change
d. cognitive, check, & change

A

b. catch, check, & change

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27
Q

Functional fMRI studies have identified four areas in the brain that show major differences in appearance for individuals diagnosed with ASD than those areas in neurotypically developing individuals. The area that has not been implicated is the:

amygdala
hippocampus
temporal association cortices
pons

A

pons

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28
Q

Open ended protocols have been found to be more effective than structured protocols in the treatment of ASD.

True
False

A

False

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29
Q

There is strong evidence for parent mediated strategies in the treatment of ASD.

True
False

A

true

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30
Q

Which of the following is true of suicide among individuals with schizophrenia?
a. Among individuals with schizophrenia, most completed suicides appear to occur early in the disease process
b. Overall prevalence estimate for completed suicide among individuals with schizophrenia is 2%
c. All of the above
d. Compared with the general population individuals with schizophrenia have a 2-fold greater risk of suicide
e. 10% of individuals with schizophrenia have a history of suicide attempts

A

a. Among individuals with schizophrenia, most completed suicides appear to occur early in the disease process

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31
Q

What is the only medication approved by the FDA for preventing suicide in patients with schizophrenia?
Olanzapine
Clozapine
Paliperidone
Aripiprazole
Lithium

A

Clozapine

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32
Q

What proportion of individuals with schizophrenia develop the illness after the age of 40 years?

A

23.5%

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33
Q

Which of the following symptoms is not part of the DSM 5-TR criteria for schizophrenia?
a. The presence of complex delusions
b. The presence of auditory hallucinations
c. Presence of visual hallucinations
d. Depressed mood

A

d. Depressed mood

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34
Q

Negative symptom cluster includes all but
flat affect
delusions
inability to enjoy anything
absence of complex thoughts

A

delusions

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35
Q

True or False: Negative and cognitive symptoms are most highly correlated with overall disability in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia.

A

True

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36
Q

The key features of ________________ (disorder) are the presence of a major mood disorder as well as a psychotic syndrome – both simultaneously, and at other times, temporally distinct from one another.
a. Brief Psychotic
b. Substance-induced Psychosis
c. Schizoaffective
d. Schizophreniform

A

c. Schizoaffective

37
Q

True or False: Enlarged lateral ventricles and widened sulci are the most often replicated structural imaging finding concerning schizophrenia.

A

true

38
Q

A pervasive pattern of grandiosity (in fantasy or behavior), need for admiration, beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of contexts.
Borderline personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
Histrionic personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder

A

Narcissistic personality disorder

39
Q

A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15.
Avoidant personality disorder
Schizoid personality disorder
Personality disorder not otherwise specified
Antisocial personality disorder

A

Antisocial personality disorder

40
Q

Pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity beginning by early adulthood and present in various context.
a. Schizoid personality disorder
b. None of these
c. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
d. Borderline personality disorder

A

d. Borderline personality disorder

41
Q

Pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive, clinging behavior and fear of separation, beginning by early adulthood and present in various contexts.
Dependent personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
None of these
Borderline personality disorder

A

Dependent personality disorder

42
Q

Which of the following description indicates that an individual might have a Cluster A Personality Disorder

a. Exhibit erratic behavior, with frequent emotional outbursts
b. Exhibit behavior that others describe as odd or eccentric
c. Individual have constant feelings of inadequacy and hypersensitive to criticism
d. Individual greatly fear of abandonment and may be seen as “clingy”

A

b. Exhibit behavior that others describe as odd or eccentric

43
Q

Which trait best describes the cluster C Personality Disorder

Angry
Fearful
Sad
Submissive

A

fearful

44
Q

Why is psychotherapy short-term instead of prolonged when treating dependent personality disorder?

a. Patients may develop attachment to their therapist
b. Patients should move to group therapy after six weeks
c. Patients only need some therapy when using medication
d. Patients respond better to short term cognitive behavioral treatment than psychoanalysis

A

a. Patients may develop attachment to their therapist

45
Q

Which of the following statements regarding involuntary hospitalization in New York State is false?
a. The standard for involuntary commitment is one based on the perceived dangerousness of the patient.
b. Patients have a right to go to Court to contest an involuntary commitment.
c. Federal law governs the procedures for involuntary hospitalization.
d. Patients have the right to an attorney to represent them with respect to any involuntary hospitalization.

A

c. Federal law governs the procedures for involuntary hospitalization

46
Q

Treating a patient over that patient’s objection on a psychiatric unit in New York State:
a. Is never allowed.
b. May be done if two physicians believe it is medical necessary.
c. Is only permitted in the event of an emergency.
d. Requires a Court hearing except in the event of an emergency.

A

d. Requires a Court hearing except in the event of an emergency.

47
Q

Which of the following statements regarding assisted outpatient treatment (AOT) in New York State is false?
a. One purpose of AOT is to try to prevent individuals from decompensating and needing inpatient treatment.
b. None of the above.
c. A treatment plan must be filed with the Court.
d. Non-adherence with treatment is one of the conditions that must be present to apply for AOT for a patient.

A

b. None of the above.

48
Q

Tarasoff v. The Board of Regents of the University of California:
a. Is a California Court case that established a duty on the part of a therapist to protect third persons from dangerous acts of their outpatients.
b. Resulted in Court cases and laws in other states mandating some kind of duty on the part of outpatient doctors and/or therapists.
c. All are true.
d. Technically only applies in the State where it was decided – California, but has national application.

A

c. All are true.

49
Q

Which of the following statements about the New York State Safe Act is true:
a. The SAFE Act is designed to help prevent suicides by all methods.
b. Being reported under the SAFE Act results in a lifetime ban on purchasing a licensed firearm in New York State.
c. The SAFE Act applies in hospital settings but not to individual practitioners.
d. The SAFE Act is an effort to keep firearms out of the hands of individuals who appear likely to harm themselves or someone else.

A

d. The SAFE Act is an effort to keep firearms out of the hands of individuals who appear likely to harm themselves or someone else.

50
Q

T or F: OTs should avoid participating in bartering for services because of the potential for exploitation and conflict of interest unless there are no harmful outcomes or bartering is a culturally appropriate custom.

A

True

51
Q

The following statement(s) describe(s) the term fidelity as it relates to the practice of occupational therapy according to the Occupational Therapy Code of Ethics.
a. Occupational therapy personnel shall treat colleagues and other professionals with respect, fairness, discretion, and integrity.
b. Occupational therapy personnel shall provide services in a fair and equitable manner.
c. all of the above
d. Occupational therapy personnel shall provide comprehensive, accurate, and objective information when representing the profession.

A

a. Occupational therapy personnel shall treat colleagues and other professionals with respect, fairness, discretion, and integrity.

52
Q

T or F: According to the OT Code of Ethics, it is acceptable to participate in sexual relationships or activities, if consensual, with any recipient of service, including family or significant other, student, research participant, or employee, after services have ended.

A

True

53
Q

Offering pro bono (“for the good”) or reduced-fee occupational therapy services for selected individuals when consistent with guidelines of the employer, third-party payer, and/or government agency is an example of __________________ according to the OT Code of Ethics.
a. social justice
b. nonmaleficence
c. autonomy
d. beneficence

A

a. social justice

54
Q

Cognitive symptoms seen in dementia include all but:
aphasia
agnosia
aggression
apraxia

A

aggression

55
Q

Symptoms characteristic of Alzheimer’s Disease include:
abnormal gait/coordination
focal neurological findings
seizures
none of these

A

none of these

56
Q

The second most common dementia after Alzheimer’s is:
vascular dementias
Parkinson’s Disease
Lewy body dementia
focal cortical dementias

A

Lewy body dementia

57
Q

Sensory perceptual changes are referred to as
apraxia
aphasia
amnesia
agnosia

A

agnosia

58
Q

T or F: Non-AD dementias include parkinsonian, focal cortical, vascular, and rapid progressive syndromes.

A

True

59
Q

Functional impairments often associated with a dementia process include
a. motor vehicle driving impairment and financial difficulties
b. all of the above
c. self-feeding and eating problems
d. self-hygiene and continence changes

A

b. all of the above

60
Q

Risk factors of Alzheimer’s include all but

education
gender
illicit drugs
genetics

A

illicit drugs

61
Q

The following are utilized by OTs in the treatment of dementias.

a. all of the above
b. family acceptance and aging in place
c. tape on the floor for directions to the bathroom
d. sleep hygiene and reminiscence groups

A

a. all of the above

62
Q

What is the name of the fine, thin hair that may develop on someone with an eating disorder who has lost body heat due to decreased fat insulation?
Lanugo
Hair fuzz
None of the above
Jaundice

A

Lanugo

63
Q

Which of the following are common behaviors among people suffering from an eating disorder?

a. Increased participation in social events involving food
b. Hallucinations and delusions
c. Impulsivity, extroversion
d. Rigid scheduling, defensiveness, and depression

A

d. Rigid scheduling, defensiveness, and depression

64
Q

Medical complications of Anorexia Nervosa include all but

Dry skin
Arthritis
Slow thyroid function
Reduced brain size

A

Arthritis

65
Q

A good predictor of outcome of anorexia nervosa is

Family involvement (in younger patients)
Early onset
Early intervention
All of the above

A

All of the above

66
Q

T or F: In Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID), there is no body weight or shape concern.

A

True

67
Q

OT code of ethic: demonstrate a concern for well-being & safety of recipients

a. beneficence
b. autonomy
c. nonmaleficence
d. social justice
e. veracity
f. fidelity
g. procedural justice

A

a. beneficence

68
Q

OT code of ethic: intentionally refrain from actions that causes harm. (ie. not practicing under the influence of alcohol OR not getting involved romantically with client)

a. beneficence
b. autonomy
c. nonmaleficence
d. social justice
e. veracity
f. fidelity
g. procedural justice

A

c. nonmaleficence

69
Q

OT code of ethics: respect the right of the individual to self-determination (ie. respecting the right of clients to refuse services)

a. beneficence
b. autonomy
c. nonmaleficence
d. social justice
e. veracity
f. fidelity
g. procedural justice

A

b. autonomy

70
Q

OT code of ethics: provide services in a fair & equitable manner (ie. assisting at a health fair to help promote the health of members in the facility)

a. beneficence
b. autonomy
c. nonmaleficence
d. social justice
e. veracity
f. fidelity
g. procedural justice

A

d. social justice

71
Q

OT code of ethics: comply with institutional rules, local state, federal, and international laws, and AOTA documents applicative to the profession

a. beneficence
b. autonomy
c. nonmaleficence
d. social justice
e. veracity
f. fidelity
g. procedural justice

A

g. procedural justice

72
Q

OT code of ethics: provide comprehensive, accurate, and objective information when representing the profession (ie. ensuring documentation is accurate and truthful)

a. beneficence
b. autonomy
c. nonmaleficence
d. social justice
e. veracity
f. fidelity
g. procedural justice

A

e. veracity

73
Q

OT code of ethics: treat colleagues and other professionals with respect, fairness, discretion, and integrity

a. beneficence
b. autonomy
c. nonmaleficence
d. social justice
e. veracity
f. fidelity
g. procedural justice

A

f. fidelity

74
Q

Cluster A personality disorder are described as having…
a. dramatic/ erratic behavior
b. odd/ eccentric behavior
c. anxiety & fear

A

b. odd/ eccentric behavior

75
Q

Which personality disorders fall under Cluster A:

a. paranoid personality disorder
b. borderline personality disorder
c. schizoid personality disorder
d. schizotypal personality disorder

A

a. paranoid personality disorder
c. schizoid personality disorder
d. schizotypal personality disorder

76
Q

Cluster B personality disorder is described as having…
a. dramatic/ erratic behavior
b. odd/ eccentric behavior
c. anxiety & fear

A

a. dramatic/ erratic behavior

77
Q

Cluster C personality disorder is described as having…
a. dramatic/ erratic behavior
b. odd/ eccentric behavior
c. anxiety & fear

A

c. anxiety & fear

78
Q

Which personality disorders fall under cluster B

a. antisocial personality disorder
b. borderline personality disorder
c. histrionic personality disorder
d. narcissistic personality disorder
e. all of the above

A

all of the above!

79
Q

Which personality disorders fall under cluster C

a. avoidant personality disorder
b. dependent personality disorder
c. OCD
d. antisocial personality disorder

A

a. avoidant personality disorder
b. dependent personality disorder
c. OCD

80
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of distrust & doubts about loyalty?

a. schizoid
b. schizotypal
c. paranoid

A

c. paranoid

81
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of social withdrawal

a. schizoid
b. schizotypal
c. paranoid

A

a. schizoid

82
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of distorted reality/ “magical thinking”

a. schizoid
b. schizotypal
c. paranoid

A

b. schizotypal

83
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of disregard for others

a. borderline
b. anti-social
c. histrionic
d. narcissistic

A

anti-social

84
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of instability in relationships & self-image & impulsivity

a. borderline
b. anti-social
c. histrionic
d. narcissistic

A

a. borderline

85
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of excessive emotionality & attention seeking

a. borderline
b. anti-social
c. histrionic
d. narcissistic

A

c. histrionic

86
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of grandiosity, need for admiration & lack of empathy

a. borderline
b. anti-social
c. histrionic
d. narcissistic

A

d. narcissistic

87
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of inadequacy, hypersensitive to negative evaluation

a. avoidant
b. dependent
c. obsessive

A

avoidant

88
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of clingy, need to be taken care of

a. avoidant
b. dependent
c. obsessive

A

dependent

89
Q

which personality disorder shows signs of perfectionism & control

a. avoidant
b. dependent
c. obsessive

A

c. obsessive

AOPI Behavioral Health (1 decks)

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