Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the GI system?

A
  1. digestion - break macromolecules (nutrients) into forms that can be transported across the epithelium
  2. absorption - transport nutrients, water, ions, vitamins across epithelium
  3. secretion - release of enzymes into the gut lumen (heavily regulated)
  4. motility - keep the gut contents moving (heavily regulated)
  5. maintain water balance - balance between secretion and reabsorption
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2
Q

What are some problems faced by the GI tract regarding its function?

A
  1. need to digest marcomolecules but not itself
    -break down of barriers? -> peptic, duodenal ulcers
  2. needs to allow entry of digested nutrients but not pathogens
    -GI lining is largest area of contact between internal and external environments
    -protection from pathogens mediated by:
    + epithelial barrier
    + mucus
    + digestive enzymes
    + acid
    + gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) - needs to react to pathogens but not foreign proteins associated with food
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3
Q

Anatomy

A
  1. stomach
  2. small intestine - duodenum, jejunum, ileum
  3. large intestine - colon, rectum
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4
Q

Muscosal surface anatomy

A
  1. mucosa - epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosa
  2. submucosa - Meissner’s (Submucosal) plexus
  3. smooth muscle layers - circular muscle, auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus, longitudinal muscle
  4. serosa
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5
Q

Differences between small intestine and stomach anatomy?

A

stomach:
-gastric glands
-oblique muscle
small intestine:
-villi, crypt
-Peyer’s patch (in mucosa)

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6
Q

What features increase surface area?

A

stomach - gastric glands
small intestine - crypts

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7
Q

What are the 2 major patterns of contraction for gut motility?

A
  1. peristalis - moving food from mouth to anus (forward movement)
  2. segmental contractions - mixing/churning, maximizes exposure to digestive enzymes and epithelium (little or no net forward movement)

these occur during/after a meal

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8
Q

Tonic vs. phasic contractions

A

-most gut muscle is a single unit smooth muscle, connected by gap junctions
-certain regions are tonically contracted for minutes to hours
+ smooth muscle sphincters
+ anterior part of the stomach (keeps food from moving backwards)
-other regions undergo phasic contractions
+ posterior stomach
+ small intestine

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9
Q

Migrating motor complexes

A

-a series of contractions that begin in the empty stomach and end in the large intestine (~90 minutes)
-“house keeping” function -> sweeps food remnants and bacteria out of GI tract and into the large intestine
-between meals

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10
Q

Slow wave potentials

A

-slow waves similar to pacemaker potentials in cardiac muscle except much less frequent, and do not necessarily reach threshold
+ below threshold = no contraction
+ above threshold = opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels -> action potentials -> contraction
-degree of contraction is graded according to amount of Ca2+ that enters
+ longer wave = more time for Ca2+ to enter = larger contraction
+ amplitude and duration of contraction influenced by: neurotransmitters (autonomic input), hormones, paracrine factors

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11
Q

Interstitial cells of cajal

A

-slow wave frequency varies in different regions of the tract
+ more frequent in duodenum vs. stomach
+ set by ‘pacemaker cells’ between smooth muscle layers “interstitial cells of Cajal”

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12
Q

What is secreted?

A

-water and ions (secreted into lumen then reabsorbed)
-enzymes
-mucus
-bile (from liver)
-saliva

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13
Q

How are water and ions secreted?

A

-mostly via membrane transporters
-water follows osmotic gradient
-water and ions in some regions can also pass between cells (paracellular pathway)
-similar channels/transports to kidney

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14
Q

transporters:

A

Na/K ATPase, NKCC cotransporter, Cl/CHO exchanger, Na/H+ exchanger, H/K exchanger

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15
Q

ion channels:

A

-ENaC, K+ channels, Cl channels (including CFTR)

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16
Q

How is acid secreted?

A

-secreted by parietal cells
1. CA forms bicarb in pariteal cells
2. basolateral side: HCO3- out and Cl- in
3. apical side: H+ out and K+ in (H+/K+ATPase), Cl- out via Cl- channel
bicarb moving out is absorbed in blood - ‘alkaline tide’ can be measured after a meal

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17
Q

How is bicarb secreted?

A

-secreted from epithelial cells lining ducts of pancreas -> duodenum to neutralize stomach acid
1. CA (H20 + CO2 -> HCO3- + H+) creates bicarb inside cells
2. basolateral side: Cl- in via NKCC transporter
3. apical side: bicarb secreted via Cl-/HCO3- exchanger, Cl- out via CFTR channel and reenters via Cl-/HCO3- exchanger

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18
Q

How is NaCl secreted?

A

-secreted from small intestine, colon, salivary glands
1) Na+, K+, 2 Cl- enter via NKCC transporter (basolateral side)
2) Cl- enters lumen through CFTR channel (apical side)
3) Na+ is reabsorbed (Na+/K+ ATPase) (basolateral side)
4) Negative Cl- in lumen attracts Na+ by paracellular pathway and water follows (from basolateral -> apical)
-crypt cells in small intestine and colon secrete ‘isotonicsaline’ that mixes with mucus secreted by goblet cells to lubricate gut contents

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19
Q

How does Cystic Fibrosis effect the pancreas?

A

-mutation in gene that encodes the CFTR channel
-leads to defects in Cl- (and water) transport
-named for changes in the pancreas
+ fluid-filled cysts and fibrosis (scarring)
mechanism:
1) Cl- not transported into ducts
2) various effects including decreased Na+ and water transport into ducts
3) mucus still produced but greatly thickened due to lack of water
4) blockage of pancreatic ducts
5) exocrine secretions of pancreas not released (bicarb, enzymes)
6) back pressure/inflammation -> damage to pancreas

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20
Q

How are enzymes secreted?

A

-enzymes secreted by either exocrine glands (pancreas, salviary) or epithelial cells of stomach and small intestine
+ synthesized by rough ER, packed by Golgi into vesicles, stored in cell under signal for release by exocytosis
-enzymes sometimes remain linked to apical membranes by protein or lipid ‘stalks’ (‘‘brush border’ enzyme)
-often released as inactive precursors (zymogens) to prevent auto-digestion
-secretion regulated by neural, hormonal, paracrine signals
+ usually stimulated by PNS stimulation (via vagus)

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21
Q

How is mucus secreted?

A

-mucus consists primarily of ‘mucins’ -> mixture of glycoproteins
-produced by exocrine cells
+ serous cells in salivary glands
+ mucous cells in stomach
+ goblet cells in intestine
-signals for secretion:
+ PNS stimulation
+ various neuropeptides (of enteric nervous system)
+ cytokines (from immune cells)
-infection and inflammation increase mucus secretion

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22
Q

How is saliva secreted?

A

secreted by acinar cells
-as it passes through ducts, epithelial cells take back Na+ and secrete K+, so that it eventually resembles intracellular fluid
-ducts have low water permeability, so water remains in saliva -> hypo-osmotic

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23
Q

-signals for secretion:

A

+ stimulated by Parasympathetic NS, inhibited by Sympathetic NS

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24
Q

Organization of hepatic lobule (bile flow)
How is bile secreted?

A

hepatocytes -> bile caniculi -> bile ductiles -> common hepatic duct (+ gall bladder) -> common bile duct -> duodenum

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25
Q

How does blood flow work in the liver?

A

-most absorbed nutrients fromGI system enter capillaries then into hepatic portal vein (fat go into lymphatic system rather than blood)
-xenobiotics (foreign substances) must first pass through the liver before reaching systemic circulation

25% hepatic artery + 75% hepatic portal vein -> sinusoids -> central vein -> hepatic vein

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26
Q

What are the key components of bile?

A

-bile salts (facilitate fat digetion)
-bile pigments (eg. bilirubin, from Hb breakdown)
-cholesterol
also:
-drugs and other xenobiotics being processed in liver and excreted in feces

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27
Q

Iron and RBC turnover: bilirubin

A

1) Fe+ from diet
2) Fe+ absorbed by active transport
3) bone marrow uses Fe+ to make hemoglobin (Hb)
4) spleen converts Hb to bilirubin
5) excess Fe+ stored in liver as ferritin
6) liver metabolizes bilirubin and excretes it in bile
7) bilirubin metabolites excreted in urine and feces
-bilirubin or its metabolites are responsible for:
+ normal colour of feces
+ normal colour of urine
-indicators of injury/pathology
+ yellow phase of bruises
+ yellow pigmentation of jaundice (hyper bilirubin anemia)

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28
Q

What is digestion?

A

combination of mechanical and enzymatic processes
-occurs in mouth, stomach, small intestine
-chewing, ‘churning’ -> expose more surface area to enzymes
+ emulsification via bile -> exposes more surface area for lipid digestion

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29
Q

What is absorption?

A

crossing the gut epithelium
-mostly in small intestine (some ions/water absorbed in the large intestine)
-use many of the same transporters as the kidney
+ exception: fat enters lymph vessels (lacteals)

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30
Q

Are digestion and absorption related?

A

not directly related
-influenced by motility and secretion, which are regulated

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31
Q

How does absorption in the small intestine occur?

A

lumen -> apical membrane -> epithelial cell (enterocyte) -> basolateral membrane -> interstitium -> capillary OR lymph

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32
Q

Carbohydrates

A

-constitute ~50% caloric intake (mostly starch, sucrose)
-can only be absorbed via a membrane transporter
+ we only have membrane transporters for MONOsaccharides
-artificial sweeteners: typically interact, in some way, with ‘sweet’ receptors, but cannot be digested to a form that can cross enterocytes

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33
Q

How are carbohydrates digested?

A

glucose polymers - (amylase) -> dissarcharides -> monosaccharides

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34
Q

How are carbohydrates absorbed?

A

1) glucose/galactose enter with Na+ on SGLT (apical side) and exits on GLUT2 (basolateral side)
2) fructose enters on GLUT5 (apical side) and exits on GLUT2 (basolateral side)

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35
Q

How is protein digested?

A

1) endopeptidases (aka proteases) digests internal peptide bonds of polypeptides - making smaller peptides
- example of endopeptidases: pepsin (stomach), trypsin, chymotrypsin (small intestine)
2) exopeptidases digest terminal peptide bonds to release amino acids
-examples of exopeptidases: aminopeptidase (from brush border), carboxypeptidase (from pancreas)

products of protein digestion = amino acids, di=peptides, tripeptides

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36
Q

How is protein absorbed?

A

proteins broken down into peptides
-di and tripeptides cotransport with H+
-amino acids cotransport with Na+
-small peptides are carried intact across the cell by transcytosis
+ normally only occurs in first few hours to days of life prior to ‘gut closure’

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37
Q

Fats

A

triglycerides (most fat calories are in this form, major lipid in plants and animals)
cholesterol, phospholipids, long chain fatty acids, fat soluble vitamins

-digestion complicated by solubility issues
-leave stomach as large droplets mixed with aqueous chyme
+ low surface area available to interact with enzymes
-broken down into smaller particles through action of bile salts
+ bile salts are derivatives of cholesterol ‘amphipathic’

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38
Q

Bile salts (bile acids)

A

primary bile acid
modified by gut bacteria -> secondary bile acid-> conjugated in liver -> conjugated bile acid
OR
conjugated in liver -> conjugated bile acid

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39
Q

How is fat digested? (part 1)

A

-bile salts coat lipids to make emulsions of large droplets
+ hydrophobic side associates with lipids
+ polar side chains (hydrophilic side) associates with water
-pancreatic lipases can act on triglycerides in droplets, aided by colipase from pancreas (break don into monoglyceride and free fatty acids)

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40
Q

How is fat digested? (part 2)

A

formation of micelles
-all fat is digested in smaller components except cholesterol
-micelles can then move close to the surface of enterocytes (epilthelial cells of SI) and lipids can diffuse across apical membrane into cells

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41
Q

How is fat absorbed?

A

1) bile salts coat fat droplets
2) pancreatic lipase and colipase break down fats into monoglycerides and free fatty acids stored in micelles
3a) monoglycerides and fatty acids diffuse from micelles across apical membrane into cells
3b) cholesterol is transported into cells
4) absorbed fats combine with cholesterol and proteins in intestinal cells to form chylomicrons
5) chylomicrons removed by lymphatic systems

more details:
-monoglycerides and fatty acids reform into triglycerides in smooth ER
-triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins form chylomicrons, which are packed into vesicles and exocytosed (short fatty acids can travel solo, entering capillaries rather than lymph)

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42
Q

How are nucleic acids digested and absorbed?

A

digested into nucleotides, then bases and monosaccharides
-bases -membrane transporters
-sugars -same transporters as other monosaccharides

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43
Q

How are vitamins digested and absorbed?

A

fat soluble (A, D, E, K)
-absorbed in small intestine along with fats
water soluble (C, most Bs)
-typically absorbed in small intestine via membrane transporters

exception: B12 (cobalamin) -participates in metabolic pathways in every single cell, particularly important in RBC synthesis
*absorption (in ileum) requires protein secreted by gastric parietal cells (‘intrinsic factor’)
*deficiency of intrinsic factor leads to deficiency of B12 that cannot be corrected by oral B12 supplementation

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44
Q

How are water and ions absorbed?

A

absorbed by small and large intestine
1) Na+ enters by multiple pathways
2) the Na+/K+ ATPase pumps Na+ into ECF
3) water and K+ move through paracellular pathway

in general: ions (espNa+) moves across apical side (various transporters); main driver on basolateral side is Na+/K+-ATPase; water follows by osmosis

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45
Q

How are iron and calcium absorbed?

A

two of the few substances for which intestinal absorption is regulated
-decreased levels -> detector -> signal -> increased intestinal uptake

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46
Q

iron:

A

-Fe2+ and H+ contransported across apical membrane by DMT1
-heme also transported across apical membrane
-heme broken down (polypherin + Fe2+)
-Fe2+ transported across basolateral membrane by ferroportin (regulated)

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47
Q

calcium:

A

-paracellular absorption not regulated
-Ca2+ crosses apical membrane via Ca2+ channel
-transport of Ca2+ across basolateral membrane regulated by vitamin D3

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48
Q

Describe long reflexes

A

integrated in CNS
-sensory info from GI tract to CNS
-‘feedforward’ reflexes that originate outside GI tract
+ include cephalic reflexes in response to sight, smell, thought of food, effects of emotion
-efferent limb always autonomic
+ parasympathetic = excitatory
+ sympathetic = generally inhibitory

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49
Q

Describe short reflexes

A

integrated in gut in ‘enteric nervous system’ (gut brain)
-neurons in submucosal plexus receive signals from lumen, regulate secretion
-neurons in myenteric plexus regulate motility

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50
Q

Describe reflexes involving gut peptides

A

-can act locally (paracrine) or travel via blood (endocrine)
+ effects on motility - altered peristalsis, gastric emptying
+ effects on both exocrine and endocrine secretion
-some gut peptides can also act on brain (some even produced there)

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51
Q

What are the similarities between the enteric and central nervous system?

A

-has intrinsic neurons that lie entirely within the gut (similar to interneurons in CNS)
-releases more than 30 different neurotransmitters and neuromodulators (not epi,NE,ACh but similar molecules used in CNS)
-has glial supported cells (similar to astrocytes of CNS)
-diffusion barrier -> capillaries surrounding ganglia are not very permeable (similar to blood-brain barrier)
-acts as integrating center (gut function can be regulated without CNS)

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52
Q

What was Pavlov’s contribution to the history of gut hormones?

A

-acid chyme passing into duodenum -> pancretic juice secreted
mechanism?
-vagus afferents from duodenum to brain -> vagal efferents from brain to pancreas -> pancreatic juice secreted into duodenum
-pancreatic secretion was thought to be controlled only by vagus nerve

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53
Q

What was Bayliss and Starling’s contribution to the history of gut hormones?

A

-carefully dissected away all nerves surrounding pancreas and duodenum
+ put acid in duodenum
+ pancreas still secreted
-hypothesis: acid caused release of signal from duodenum into blood
-tested hypothesis:
+ collected lining of duodenum
+ added acid to it
+ injected it intravenously
+ resulted in pancreatic secretion
-factor from duodenum that stimulated pancreatic secretion = secretin
-general term for blood-borne regulators: hormones

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54
Q

What are the families of gut hormones?

A

1) gastrin family
-includes gastrin, CCK
-major target are stomach (gastrin), intestine, and accessory organs (CCK)
2) secretin family
-secretin, vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP), gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP), glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1)
-both endocrine and exocrine targets
3) motilin
-acts on gut smooth muscle
-regulates migrating motor complexes

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55
Q

How does the mouth initiate digestion?

A

-saliva -> secretion under autonomic control
+ softens and lubricates food
+ digestion: salivary amylase, some lipase
+ antimicrobial: lysozyme, immunoglobins
-chewing (mastication)
-transfer to stomach (deglutition = swallowing)

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56
Q

Describe the swallowing reflex

A

1) tongue pushes bolous against soft palate and back of mouth, triggers swallowing reflex
2) breathing inhibited as bolous passes closed airway
3) food moves downward into esophagus, propelled by peristalic waves and aided by gravity
-swallowing reflex integrated in medulla
-sensory afferents in cranial nerve IX an somatic motor and autonomic neurons mediate reflex

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57
Q

Transition into the stomach

A

-lower esophageal sphincter guards entry into stomach
-if LES not closed acid from stomach can splash up into lower esophagus
+ during respiration (when intrathoracic pressure drops)
+ during churning of the stomach = gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) ‘heartburn’

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58
Q

Cephalic phase (neural control)

A

initiated with long vagal reflexe

anticipation/presence of food in mouth -> activation of neurons in medulla -> efferent signals to salivary glands, autonomic signals via vagus to enteric nervous system (gut brain) -> increase motility and secretion in stomach, intestine, and accessory organs

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59
Q

Gastric phase (neural control)

A

once food enters stomach, series of short reflexes

distention (stretching) or peptides and amino acids -> sensory signal to enteric nervous system -> increased motility and secretion in
stomach, intestine, accessory organs

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60
Q

What are the 3 functions of the stomach?

A
  1. storage - neurally mediated ‘receptive relaxation’ of upper stomach
    -importance of storage function has been more apparent as gastric surgeries have become more popular
    *‘gastric dumping syndrome’
  2. digestion - mechanical and chemical processing into chyme
    -secretions begin before food arrives …
    *enzymes, acid, hormones
  3. protection - against microbes -> acid
    -self-protection -> mucus-bicarbonate barrier
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61
Q

Functions of gastric secretory products

A
  1. parietal cells -> acid
    -activates pepsin
    -denatures proteins (more accessible to pepsin)
    -anti-microbial
  2. chief cells -> pepsin
    -endopeptidase (particularly affective on collagen=meat digestion)
  3. chief cells -> gastric lipase
    -minor contribution to fat digestion (co-secreted with pepsin)
  4. ECLs -> histamine
    -binds to H2 receptors on parietal cells and stimulates acid secretion
  5. G cells -> gastrin
    -triggered by long and short reflexes
    multiple roles
  6. D cells -> stomatostatin
    -stops secretion of acid and pepsin (negative regulator)
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62
Q

Integration of cephalic and gastric phases

A

1) food or cephalic reflexes initiate gastric secretion
2) gastrin stimulates acid secretion by direct action on parietal cells or indirectly through histamine
3) acid stimulates short reflex secretion of pepsin
4) somatostatin release by H+ is feedback signal that modulates acid and pepsin release

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63
Q

What is the purpose of mucus in the stomach?

A

bicarbonate barrier - protects itself from acid

breakdown of mucus-bicarb barrier = peptic ulcer
-acid and pepsin damage mucosal surface, creating holes that extend into submucosa and muscularis layers

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64
Q

Prevention/treatment of peptic ulcers

A

-main treatment was ‘antiacids’
+ substances that neutralized stomach acid
-more modern approaches include
+H2 receptors antagonists -> block histamine
+proton pump inhibitors -> block Na/K ATPase

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65
Q

How are parietal cells stimulated? (acid secretion)

A

-gastrin, histamine, and ACh (PNS stim) cause H+/K+ATPase expression on parietal cells

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66
Q

Intestinal phase

A

-stomach produces chyme by actions of acid, pepsin, perastalsis
-intestinal phase begins with controlled entry of chyme into small intestine
-sensors in duodenum feed back to stomach to control delivery of chyme, feed forward to intestine to promote digestion, motility and nutrient utilization

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67
Q

Enteroheptatic circulation of bile salts

A

bile salts are released into duodenum, absorbed in terminal ileum, enter portal circulation, travel back to liver
-recycled several times during a meal

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68
Q

How are pancreatic zymogens activated?

A
  1. pancreatic secretions (including zymogens and trypsinogen) enter lumen of small intestine
  2. enteropeptidase in brush border activates trypsin (trypsinogen -> trypsin)
  3. trypsin activates zymogens (zymogens -> activated enzymes)
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69
Q

How does absorption in the small intestine work?

A

most fluid is absorbed in small intestine
-transport of organic nutrients and ions creates osmotic gradient
-most absorbed nutrients move into capillaries in villi, then into hepatic portal vein
*fats go into lymphatic system rather than blood
xenobiotics (foregin body substances) must first pass through liver before reaching systemic circulation

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70
Q

What is the role of the large intestine?

A

-removes most of the remaining water -> forms feces
motility:
-ileocecal valve relaxes each time a peristalic wave reaches it (also relaxes when food leaves the stomach- gastroileal reflex)
-segmental contractions with little forward movement except when mass movements occur 3-4 times/day (wave of contractions that send bolus forward trigger distension of rectum -> defecation reflex)

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71
Q

What is diarrhea?

A

imbalance between intestinal absorption and secretion

  1. osmotic diarrhea= unabsorbed osmotically active solutes
  2. secretory diarrhea= bacterial toxins increase CL- secretion eg. cholera
    -can be adaptive (flushing out toxin) but can also lead to dehydration and metabolic acidosis
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72
Q

Intracellular trafficking of cholera toxin

A

-enters cell via pentameric B subunits
-travels in retrograde direction through golgi
-mimics a misfolded protein and gets dumped into the cytosol (normally to be degraded)
-instead A1 subunit (enyzme) modifies Galpha subunit -remains bound to GTP
-constant activation of AC
-persistent elevation on cAMP
-sustained activation of CFTR channel

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73
Q

Why is the frequency of cystic fibrosis so high?

A

suggestion:
*CF heterozygotes have some advantage over `non-CF’ homozygotes
-heterozygotes have ~ 50% functional CFTRs
*enough for normal function but allows them to resist death by cholera due to reduced Cl-secretion during infection?
*survive to pass on the gene to offspring??
BUT:
*cholera epidemics did not strike Northern Europe until 19th century
RESPONSE:
*CFTR channels involved in other diseases that were around earlier
-bronchial asthma, typhoid fever, …

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74
Q

Homeostatic vs. non-homeostatic eating

A

homesostatic:
-eating when energy fuels are depleted (metabolically driven)

non-homeostatic:
-eating in absense of hunger
-eating despite large fat reserves
(involves cognitive, reward, emotion factors)
(has neural similarities to addiction = hedonic eating)

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75
Q

Models for regulation of homeostatic eating

A

2 centres in hypothalamus: ‘hunger/feeding’ centre and ‘satiety’ centre

glucostatic theory:
*intake regulated by glucose levels, monitored by centres in the hypothalamus
-plasma glucose low -> satiety centre suppressed -> feeding centre dominant

lipostatic theory:
*signal from fat stores to brain modulates eating behaviour
1994: discovery of protein hormone synthesized in white adipose tissue = leptin

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76
Q

Leptin and mice

A

ob/ob mouse = mutation in leptin product
db/db mouse = mutation in leptin receptor

both cause mice to be obese and eat a lot

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77
Q

What signals from gut cause increased appetite?

A

stomach:
increased ghrelin - secreted by cells of empty stomach

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78
Q

What signals from gut cause decreased appetite?

A

stomach:
-increased stretch or increased acid
upper small intestine:
-increased CCK (in response to protein/fat)
-increased glucose in lumen
lower small intestine/colon:
-increased peptide YY (PYY)
-increased GLP1
(both triggered by macronutrients in lumen and also neural reflex from upper small intestine)

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79
Q

What is the key neurotransmitter in stimulation of appetite?

A

neuropeptide Y

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80
Q

What is metabolic rate?

A

C6H12O6+ O2+ ADP + Pi -> CO2+ H2O + ATP + heat
rate of oxygen consumption?
rate of CO2 production?
-But ratio of CO2produced / O2consumed is different for macronutrients other than glucose

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81
Q

What are the factors that affect metabolic rate?

A

*age, sex
*lean muscle mass -muscle has higher O2consumption than adipose even at rest
*activity level
*diet (heat production increases after eating, extent depends on what was eaten)
*hormones,gut peptides
*genetics

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82
Q

What are the 3 possible fates of ingested biomolecules?

A
  1. metabolized to provide energy to fuel mechanical work = oxodize
    2.used in synthesis reactions for growth and maintenance of tissues = build
    3.stored as glycogen (liver, skeletal muscles) or fat= store
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83
Q

What are the 2 states of metabolism?

A
  1. fed/absorptive state = anabolic, products of digestion being absorbed and used/stored
  2. fasted/postabsorptive state = catabolic, body taps into stores
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84
Q

What are the nutrient pools available for immediate use?

A

usually in plasma:
-free fatty acid pool
-glucose pool
-amino acid pool

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85
Q

How do enzymes control direction of metabolism?

A
  1. no regulation = pathway cycles bath and forth, no net synthesis of glucose or glycogen
  2. fed-state metabolism under the influence of insulin = glucose to glycogen reaction increases, enzymes for glycogen breakdown inhibited = net glycogen synthesis
  3. fasted state metabolism under the influence of glucagon = enzymes that break down glycogen are more active and enzymes that synthesize glycogen are inhibited = not glucose synthesis
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86
Q

What happens to carbs in fed state?

A

absorbed glucose travels to liver
-70% passes through to other tissues
-30% moves into hepatic cells
+ enters glycolysis (ATP synthesis or stored as glycogen or fat)

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87
Q

What happens to amino acids in fed state?

A

absorbed amino acids travel to the liver
-some pass through liver (used for synthesis)
-some move out of sinusoids into hepatic cells (for synthesis of liver proteins, enzymes)

if not used for protein synthesis AAs can be deaminated and and their carbon skeletons re-deployed
-converted to metabolites that can be used to generate glucose
-converted to acetoacetate to make fatty acids (ketogenic AAs)

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88
Q

What is a chylomicron?

A

formed in enterocyte
-cholesterol, TGs, phospholipid plus lipid-binding proteins (apoproteins)
-enter lymphatic drainage, eventually enter circulation
-acted upon by lipases in capillary endothelium
+FFA can be oxidized for energy (most cells)
+FFA plus glycerol can be re-esterified and stored as TG (adipose)
+remaining particles (HDL, chylomicron remnants) taken up by liver

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89
Q

What can the liver do with fat?

A

-break down fat (βoxidation of FAs)
-store fat (as TGs)
-use cholesterol to form bile salts (release into gut lumen)
-package FAs and cholesterol as LDL particles (release into circulation as sources of cholesterol and FAs)
+ can only be taken into cells by receptor-mediated endocytosis
*protein components (apoproteins) interact with receptors

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90
Q

How is fat synthesized?

A

1.Glycerol can be made from glucose through glycolysis.
2.Fatty acids made when 2-carbon acyl units from acetyl CoA linked together.
3.One glycerol plus 3 fatty acids = triglyceride (happens in smooth ER).
4.Even with zero dietary cholesterol, cholesterol can and will be synthesized from acetyl CoA

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91
Q

What is the goal of fasted state metabolism?

A

maintain plasma glucose levels
-achieved through pathways that yield glucose or ATP:
glycogenolysis
lipolysis
oxidation of amino acids
gluconeogenesis

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92
Q

Overview of fasted state metabolism (what happens in each cell type?)

A

1) liver glycogen -> glucose
2) TGs in adipose -> glycerol + FFAs -> enter blood
3) muscle uses glycogen for energy and also uses fatty acids and break down their proteins to amino
acids that enter blood.
4) brain only uses glucose and ketone bodies for energy

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93
Q

Glycogenolysis

A

breakdown of glycogen
most glycogen becomes glucose 6 phosphate:
-splitting off glucose by addition of Pi (most)
+ only liver can remove Pi to create free glucose
-splitting off glucose then spending an ATP to phosphorylate

*muscle can contribute to plasma glucose only indirectly by exporting pyruvate or lactate

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94
Q

Amino acid catabolism

A

-free amino acid pool is usually used for ATP production during fasted state (proteolysis- break down of proteins only occurs during extended fasts)
-amino acids are deaminated and create intermediates that can:
+ directly enter glycolysis or krebs cycle
+ be sent to the liver to be converted into glucose (gluconeogenesis)

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95
Q

How does lipolysis work? (fat breakdown)

A

1) lipases digest TGs into glycerol and FFAs
2) glycerol becomes a glycolysis substrate
3) B-oxidation chops 2 acyl units off FA
4) acyl units become acetyl CoA and can be used in krebs cycle

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96
Q

What is ketogenesis?

A

formation of ketone bodies
-occurs when lipids are broken down faster than acetyl CoA can be used in krebs cycle
-can enter blood and provide brain with energy during times of starvation
-typically generated by low carb, high protein/fat diets

ketogenesis can be dangerous
-certain ketone bodies are strong acids that can disrupt acid-base balance (ketoacidosis)

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97
Q

What does homesostatic regulation of metabolism mean?

A

whether transformations of energy substrates (carbs, fats, proteins) are biased toward storage/ anabolism or breakdown/ catabolism

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98
Q

How is metabolism regulated?

A

endocrine -primary role
-products of endocrine pancreas
*insulin/glucagon ratio

neural -regulation of food intake
-endocrine pancreas also innervated (autonomic)

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99
Q

What are Islets of Langerhans?

A

little islands of endocrine cells within exocrine cells of pancreas
-majority of pancreas is exocrine

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100
Q

Insulin vs. glucose in fed state

A

more insulin =
increase glucose oxidation
increase glycogen synthesis
increase fat synthesis

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101
Q

Insulin vs. glucose in fasted state

A

more glucagon =
increased glycogenolysis
increased gluconeogenesis
increased ketogenesis

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102
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

creating glucose from substrates

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103
Q

What causes insulin to be released?

A

increased plasma glucose
increased plasma amino acids
increased GLP1, GIP
increased PNS stimulation

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104
Q

What are the targets of insulin?

A

striated muscle, adipose (expressing glut4 transporter)
liver

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105
Q

What are the actions of insulin?

A

-increased transport into glut4 expressing target cells
-increased glucose metabolism
-increased glycogenesis
-increased fat synthesis, increased protein synthesis

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106
Q

What are the features of Beta cells involved in glucose monitoring and insulin release?

A

-GLUT2 transporters -move glucose into beta cells by facilitated diffusion
- K+leak channels -usually open, closes when ATP binds to it “ATP-gated K+channel”
- voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
- secretory vesicles of insulin waiting for release signal

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107
Q

Describe a beta cell at rest

A

low blood glucose -> metabolism slows -> decreased ATP -> KATP channels open (leaking) -> cell at resting Em = no insulin released
(voltage gated Ca2+ channels closed)

KATP channels open, cell at RMP, no insulin released

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108
Q

Describe a beta cell during high blood glucose

A

high blood glucose -> increased metabolism -> increased ATP -> KATP channels close -> cell depolarizes -> voltage gated Ca2+ channels open -> insulin released

closure of K+ATP channels depolarizes cell, opening of Ca2+channels, exocytosis

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109
Q

How does the insulin receptor work?

A

-enzyme coupled, receptor, tyrosine kinase (RTK)
+ 2 alpha subunits, extracellular, insulin binds here
+ 2 beta subunits penetrate through the plasma membrane
-when activated, RTKs transfer phosphate groups from ATP to tyrosine residues on target proteins

insulin binds -> B subunits phosphorylate themselves -> activated RTK phosphorylates target proteins -> (altered protein/enzyme activity) -> cell responses

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110
Q

Insulin effects in muscle and adipose

A

fasted state = no insulin = no GLUT4 transporters on membrane
fed state = insulin signalling = GLUT4 inserted into membrane = glucose enters cell

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111
Q

Insulin effects in hepatocytes

A

fasted state = low blood glucose, low insulin
-hepatocytes make glucose and export it via GLUT2 transporters

fed state = high blood glucose, high insulin
-gradient favours glucose import via GLUT2
-insulin signalling activates hexokinase which:
glucose -> glucose 6 phophate ->….
(keeps free glucose low in cell)

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112
Q

How is insulin anabolic?

A

activates enzymes that enhance:
-glycolysis (glucose oxidation)
-glycogenesis (storage)
-AA utilization/protein synthesis
-lipogenesis

inhibits enzymes that enhance:
-gluconeogenesis
-glycogenolysis
-proteolysis
-lipolysis
-B oxidation of fatty acids

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113
Q

How does glucagon antagonize actions of insulin?

A

-produced by alpha cells of pancreas
-member of secretin family of peptides
-main trigger is low blood glucose
-main target is liver
-activates GPCR, cAMP
-main function is to prevent hypoglycemia
+ during overnight fast, ~75% of the glucose from the liver comes from glycogenolysis, ~25% from gluconeogenesis

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114
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

group of diseases characterized by elevated blood glucose (hyperglycemia) resulting from:
-inadequate insulin secretion (Type 1)
-abnormal target cell responsiveness or both (Type 2)

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115
Q

Type 2 diabetes

A

*accounts for ~90% of diabetes
-was once called “mature onset” diabetes (versus “juvenile”)
*typically there is “insulin resistance”, with delayed response to a glucose ‘challenge’ (oral glucose tolerance test)
-can be coupled with low, normal or high insulin secretion
*acute symptoms not as severe as Type 1, but metabolism is not normal
*Type 2 diabetes, atherosclerosis and hypertension often occur together, typically in association with obesity ‘Metabolic Syndrome’

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116
Q

Why does obesity occur?

A

*larger animals (such as humans) have significant energy stores so can go without food for relatively long periods
-but food restriction and fat depletion eventually lead to ‘hungry brain’
*powerful effector mechanisms that are adaptable, flexible, learn from experience
*major force ‘designing’ the system was the constant struggle throughout evolution to find enough food for survival
-resulted in very strong defence of the lower limits of adiposity

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117
Q

Why is obesity an issue for modern humans?

A

*modern environment acts on higher brain regions to over-stimulate food intake
-advertising, social cues, stress vulnerability, …
*procuring food is no longer demanding or dangerous
*exceeding the upper limits of body weight is no longer a disadvantage in terms of predator-prey relationships
-little or no selection pressure for leanness
*many obese humans become ‘leptin-resistant’
-also happens in lab animals when exposed to ‘human’ diets
-makes sense in the wild in seasonal animals
*elevated leptindoesn’t curb appetite in summer when food abundant (building up stores), leptinsensitivity restored in winter
-modern humans in perpetual ‘summer’

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118
Q

Are there leptin deficiencies in humans?

A

yes - few reported cases

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119
Q

Describe the adrenal gland

A

-located on top of the kidneys
-adrenal cortex (outside) secretes hormones:
aldosterone
catecholamines (mostly epi)
sex hormones
cortisol
-inside is neural

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120
Q

What are the targets of cortisol?

A

liver -> glucogenesis
muscle -> protein catabolism
adipose -> lipolysis
*team glucagon = break down to get glucose

also:
immune system -> supression

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121
Q

How is cortisol secreted?

A

in a circadian rhythm

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122
Q

What are the targets of glucocortisoids (cortisol)?

A

*receptors expressed by all nucleated cells!
*mostly longer-term (genomic) effects -classic steroid
-increased expression of enzymes
-“of receptors for other regulatory hormones
effects in general:
1. prevention of hypoglycemia
-adipose -> lipolysis -> FAs for energy, glycerol
-muscle -> proteolysis -> AAs
-liver -> gluconeogenesis
*permissive for full effects of glucagon and epinephrine
2. suppress immune response

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123
Q

Who is Hans Selye?

A

*built on work of Claude Bernard, Walter Cannon (homeostasis)
-developed concept that a wide variety of ‘stressors’ (harmless, noxious, positive, negative) caused a generic response:
*adrenal hypertrophy
*atrophy of thymus / lymph nodes
*GI ulcers
-failure to cope with / adapt to stresses caused diseases of adaptation (ulcers, hypertension, etc)
*led to many breakthroughs in hypothalamic-pituitary axis

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124
Q

Epinephrine and fight or flight response

A

*norepinephrine from sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons
*epinephrine from adrenal medulla
-rapid effects but very short half life (2 minutes)
*various effects throughout body
*metabolic effects: mobilize energy substrates
-↓ insulin release, ↑ glucagon release
-adipose -> lipolysis -> FAs for energy, glycerol
-muscle -> glycogenolysis
-liver -> glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis
-effects similar to glucagon but receptors expressed on a broader range of target cells

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125
Q

Synergistic effects on blood glucose?

A

epinephrine and glucagon and cortisol together greatly increase blood glucose levels

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126
Q

What is hypercortisolism?

A

aka. Cushing’s syndrome
*primary -cortisol-secreting adrenal tumors (not regulated by ACTH)
*secondary -pituitary tumor that over-secretes ACTH “adenoma”
*iatrogenic -secondary to cortisol therapy for other conditions “doctor’s fault”

would circulating ACTH be lower, higher, or normal?

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127
Q

What is hypocortisolism?

A

-primary- adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease)
*adrenal gland does not develop normally
*mutations in key steroidogenicenzymes
*adrenal gland damaged / destroyed (autoimmune)
-secondary -lack of ACTH

would circulating ACTH be lower, higher, or normal?

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128
Q

What is thyroid hormone?

A

*amino acid derivative (from tyrosine), containing iodine
-only known use of iodine in body
*mechanism of action more like steroids
-binds to nuclear receptor
*lipophilic, travels in circulation bound to thyroid-binding globulin
T4-main circulating form
T3-most active form, converted at target cell by deiodinases

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129
Q

What are the actions of thyroid hormone?

A

*essential for normal growth / development, esp nervous system
-thyroid hormone levels checked in all newborns in Canada
*in adults, not essential, but affects quality of life
*main function is to provide substrates for oxidative metabolism
-increase oxygen consumption and generation of heat (thermogenesis) in most tissues ‘basal metabolic rate’
*increase activity of Na+/K+-ATPase
-interact with other hormones to modulate carbohydrate, protein and lipid metabolism

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130
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

-decreased oxygen consumption, decreased metabolic rate (cold intolerant)
-neurological effects, fatigue
-effects on skin, hair, nails

most common cause is iodine deficiency -> enlarged thyroid gland ‘goitre’

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131
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

-increased oxygen consumption, increased heart production (intolerant of heat)
-muscle weakness (protein catabolism)
-neurological, cardiac effects
-exophthalmos (protruding eyes)

most common cause is graves disease -> autoantibodies that resemble TSH overstimulate thyroid gland (not subject to negative feedback regulation)

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132
Q

Growth Hormone (GH, Somatotropin)

A

control of growth depends on many factors:
*GH, plus many other hormones playing direct and permissive roles
-insulin, thyroid hormone, sex steroids
*adequate nutrition
*absence of chronic stress
*genetics
*released throughout life but much more important during childhood
*effects can be direct -
-target cells express GH receptor
*or indirect -
-mediated by insulin-like growth factors (IGFs = somatomedins) produced by liver or target cells themselves
*growth effects and metabolic effects

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133
Q

What are the actions of growth hormone?

A

1) metabolic
-carbohydrate -indirect effects lead to increased plasma glucose
-fat -increased lipolysis, increased oxidation
+ catabolic with respect to CHOs and fat, ‘anti-insulin’
protein -increased AA uptake, increased protein synthesis, decreased oxidation for energy
+ anabolic with respect to proteins, ‘pro-insulin’

2) growth
-increased proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes -> cartilage and bone growth
-increased muscle growth (see metabolic effects)
-increased growth of other soft tissues

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134
Q

Growth hormone deficiency

A

due to GH hyposecretion, GH-receptor mutations … dwarfism (though GH issues are not a common cause)

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135
Q

Excess growth hormone

A

depends on whether excess secretion is before or after closure of growth plates of long bones
-before -giantism
-after -acromegaly

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136
Q

Where is calcium located?

A

component of extracellular matrix of bones and teeth
-bone is largest reservoir of calcium but very little of it is ionized and available for exchange

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137
Q

What does calcium do?

A

*extracellular calcium involved in …
-secretion / exocytosis (neurotransmitters, secretory products)
-contraction of cardiac and smooth muscle
-clotting cascade
*intracellular calcium in SR, cytosol, mitochondria
-involved in muscle contraction, signalling pathways

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138
Q

Composition of bone

A

compact bone - dense, used for support
spongy bone - forms calcified lattice

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139
Q

How do bones grow?

A
  1. proliferating columns of chondrocytes at epiphyseal plate secrete collagen and other extracellular matrix components
  2. older chondrocytes degenerate, leaving spaces
  3. osteoblastsinvade spaces, lay down Ca-PO4matrix on cartilage base
  4. osteoblasts revert to less active form (osteocytes)
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140
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

large, multinucleate cells derived from hematopoietic stem cells
-breaks down bone for reabsorption

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141
Q

Where does Ca2+ come from?

A

only about 1/3 ingested calcium is absorbed
-by paracellular and transcellular routes
-absorption via transcellular route is hormonally regulated

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142
Q

Where does Ca2+ output occur?

A

-primarily via kidneys -freely filtered, most reabsorbed
*hormonally controlled reabsorption at distal nephron only

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143
Q

What is the main regulator of plasma Ca2+?

A

parathyroid hormone

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144
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A

PTH released in response to ↓ plasma Ca++
kidney:
↑ Ca++ reabsorption
bone:
↑ osteoclastactivity -> ↑ bone resorption
small intestine:
↑ Ca++ absorption (via transcellular route)

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145
Q

Vitamin D

A

*refers to group of fat soluble vitamins
*forms from diet and UV-induced conversion of dermal precursors not biologically active until hydroxylation steps in liver and kidney

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146
Q

What is hycocalemia?

A

too much calcium

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147
Q

How do you defend against hypocalcemia?

A

PTH from parathyroid gland
Vitamin D

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148
Q

What is physiology?

A

the science of the function of living systems

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149
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment (especially ECF)
-oscillation around a set point

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150
Q

Who is Walter Cannon?

A

the father of physiology
coined the term “homeostasis”

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151
Q

What is the difference between local and reflex control?

A

Local control = cells near site of change initiate response
Reflex control = cells at a distant site control response

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152
Q

What is negative feedback?

A

stabilizes variable (correction in opposite direction of change)

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153
Q

What is feedforward mechanism?

A

control anticipates change

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154
Q

What is positive feedback?

A

reinforces stimulus (NOT homeostatic)

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155
Q

What are the 3 ways cells can communicate long range?

A
  1. endocrine - chemical released in blood and distributed throughout the body
  2. neural - electrical signal travels down neuron then becomes chemical which travels to target cell
  3. neuroendocrine - electrical signal travels travel down neuron then becomes chemical signal that is secreted into the blood
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156
Q

What determines what type of receptors ligands will interact with?

A

chemical properties of the ligands
surface receptor = hydrophillic/lipophobic/water soluble
intracellular receptor = hydrophobic/lipophillic/water insoluble

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157
Q

How can cells change their response to different signals?

A

change receptor number or sensitivity
increase = increase expression of gene that codes for receptor or increase expression of receptor proteins on cell surface
decrease = internalize surface receptors
change receptor sensitivity = phosphorylation

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158
Q

How is a GPCR activated?

A

-signal molecule binds to receptor and causes conformational change
-activates G protein by exchanging GDP for GTP
-when GTp binds alpha subunit+GTP dissociates from the B and gamma subunits
-G alpha subunit turns itself off by hydrolizing GTP

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159
Q

What affect does Cholera Toxin have on the inactivation of G alpha subunit?

A

-blocks GTP hydrolysis (GTPase activity)
-results in persistent activation of adenylate cyclase

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160
Q

What are Cannon’s Postulates?

A

-the nervous system has a role in maintaining the ‘fitness’ of the internal environment
-some systems under tonic control
-some systems are under antagonistic control
-one chemical signal can have different effects in different tissues

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161
Q

Specificity of neural vs. endocrine control

A

neural = single target cell or limited number of adjacent target cells
endocrine = exposed to all cells but only those which receptors respond

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162
Q

Nature of signal for neural vs. endocrine control

A

neural = electrical signal that turns chemical (neurotransmitter)
endocrine = chemical signals

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163
Q

Speed of neural vs. endocrine control

A

neural = very rapid
endocrine = much slower than neural responses

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164
Q

Duration of action in neural vs. endocrine control

A

neural = usually very short
endocrine = longer than neural responses

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165
Q

Coding for stimulus intensity in neural vs endocrine control

A

neural = each signal is identical in strength. Increase intensity by increasing frequency
endocrine = intensity proportional to amount of hormone secreted

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166
Q

What are the evolutionary trends in the nervous system?

A

bilateral symmetry -> cephalization -> consolidation of PNS -> nerves -> ventral nerve cord -> dorsal nerve cord -> spinal cord -> increasing role of forebrain

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167
Q

Describe the development of the Human CNS

A

4 weeks: anterior end of neural tube specialized into 3 regions (forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain) and spinal cord
6 weeks: neural tube differentiates into major brain regions present at birth
forebrain -> diencephalon, cerebrum
midbrain
hindbrain -> medulla oblongata, cerebellum, and pons
11 weeks: growth of cerebrum much more rapid than that of other regions
birth: cerebrum covers most of other brain regions; convoluted surface due to rapid growth in confined space

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168
Q

What structures provide protection and support for CNS?

A

-surrounded by bony cage: cranium
-3 layers of connective tissues: meninges
-fluid between layer: cerebrospinal fluid

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169
Q

What are the meninges?

A

layers of connective tissue that surround the brain and spinal cord
dura mater = outermost layer
arachnoid mater = middle layer
pia mater = innermost layer

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170
Q

Describe the fluid filled cavities in the CNS

A

-ventricles within the brain and hollow central canal within the spinal cord
-2 lateral ventricles and 2 descending ventricles that extend through in brain stem
-CSF in ventricles continuous with fluid in central canal of spinal cord
-CSF is secreted by the choroid plexus within each ventricle (choroid plexuses produce ~500mL of CSF/day)

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171
Q

Extracellular fluids of the CNS

A
  1. interstitial fluid - surrounds neurons and glial cells
  2. plasma - within cerebral blood vessels
  3. cerebrospinal fluid - within ventricular system and bathes external surfaces of the brain between meninges (removed and replaced ~4 times per day)
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172
Q

Plasma vs. CSF

A

CSF has:
- lower K+, Ca2+, HCO3-, glucose, pH
-similar Na+
-very low protein, no blood cells (presence of elevated protein or blood cells collected from CSF indicates infection)

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173
Q

Glial cells of the CNS

A
  1. oligodendrocytes - form myelin sheaths within CNS “white matter”
  2. microglia - immune cell lineage
  3. astrocytes - regulate local ECF by releasing chemicals (numerous in the brain)
  4. ependymal cells - creates barrier between compartments (decide what ends up in CSF)
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174
Q

What are the special features of the cerebral vasculature?

A
  1. astrocyte foot processes- secrete paracrine factors that promote tight junction formation
  2. tight junctions- prevent solute movement between endothelial cells
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175
Q

Describe the blood-brain ‘barrier’

A

-lipid soluble molecules cross readily (o2, co2)
-hydrophillic substances (ions, amino acids, peptides, proteins) will only cross if specific transporters/carriers are present in endothelial cells of capillaries within CNS
-considerations for drugs that are and are not wanted to reach the CNS: antihistamines and treating diseases of the CNS

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176
Q

What are the metabolic needs of the CNS?

A
  1. oxygen requirement- neurons are “obligate aerobes’ (require O2 to functions) so O2 readily crosses the blood brain barrier
  2. glucose requirement- capillaries of CNS express high levels of glucose transporters to provide adequate levels of glucose (brain responsible for 1/2 body’s glucose consumption)
  3. vaculature to deliever O2 and glucose- approximately 15% of cardiac output received by the brain
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177
Q

Describe the spinal cord

A

-major path for information flow between CNS, skin, joints and muscles
-contains neural networks involved in locomotion
-divided into 4 regions (cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral) each of which is divided into 4 segments
-each segment gives rise to a pair of spinal nerves

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178
Q

Describe the segments of the spinal cord

A
  1. white matter (myelinated axons) - consists of ascending and descending tracts
    -ascending tracts: dorsal columns (fine touch, proprioception, vibration) or spinothalamic (pain,temp, crude touch)
    -descending tracts: corticospinal tracts (voluntary movement)
  2. grey matter (synapse + cell bodies) - consists of sensory and motor nuclei
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179
Q

Where does sensory info enter spinal cord?

A

dorsal root -> dorsal horn gray matter

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180
Q

Where does motor (efferent) info leave the spinal cord?

A

ventral horn gray matter -> ventral root

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181
Q

What is a spinal reflex?

A

-spinal reflex initiates response without input from the brain (integrating center within spinal cord)
-still sends feedback to the brain

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182
Q

Describe the brain stem

A

-medulla pons and midbrain
-oldest most primitive part of the brain
-organized much like the spinal cord (most cranial nerves originate here)
-contains nuclei associated with reticular formation (diffuse network of neurons involved in processes such as arousal/sleep, muscle tone, coordination of breathing, blood pressure)

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183
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

coordination of eye movement, visual and auditory reflexes

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184
Q

What is the function of the medulla?

A
  1. gray matter involved in control of many involuntary functions (blood pressure, breathing, swallowing, vomiting)
  2. white matter - ascending somatosensory tracts, descending corticospinal tracts
  3. site of deccusation for most neurons in corticospinal tract
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185
Q

What is the function of the pons?

A

relay station between cerebrum and cerebellum (also works with medulla to coordinate breathing)

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186
Q

Describe the cerebellum

A

2nd largest structure in the brain
coordinates movement

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187
Q

Describe the diencephalon

A

located between brain stem and cerebrum
1. thalamus - relays and integrates sensory info from lower parts of the CNS, ears, eyes, motor info from cerebellum
2. hypothalamus - homeostasis: contain centers that drive behavior related to hunger, thirst and influences autonomic responses, endocrine systems
3. pituitary gland - regulated by hypothalamus
4. pineal gland - secretes hormone melatonin (involved in circadian and seasonal rhythms)

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188
Q

Describe the cerebrum

A

-site of higher brain functions
-each cerebral hemisphere divided into 4 lobes (parietal, temporal, frontal, occipital)
-groove = sulcus
-convolution = gyrus (raised parts)
-degree of folding not related to higher processing

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189
Q

How is the cerebrum organized?

A

3 regions of cerebral gray matter:
1. basal ganglia - coordination of movement
2. limbic system - linking emotion/fear with higher cognitive functions
3. cerebral cortex

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190
Q

What are the functional areas of the cerebral cortex

A
  1. sensory areas - sensory input translated into perception (awareness)
    2 motor areas - control skeletal muscles
  2. association areas - integrate info from sensory and motor areas
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191
Q

Describe the primary motor cortex

A

-on ridge just anterior to central sulcus
-cell bodies of descending ‘upper’ or ‘first order’ motor neurons

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192
Q

Describe the primary somatosensory cortex

A

-on ridges just posterior to central sulcus
-terminals of ascending sensory pathways from skin, musculoskeletal system, viscera (info about touch, pain, pressure, temperature, body position)

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193
Q

Where are cortex’s for special senses?

A

special senses have devoted regions (ex. visual cortex, auditory cortex)

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194
Q

Who is Wilder Penfield?

A

developed the Montreal procedure
-having patient lay awake and probed different area of their brain (mapped the brain)
-burnt toast

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195
Q

How does information travel on sensory pathway?

A

stimulus -> receptor tranduces stimulus into intracellular signal (usually change in Em) -> APs travel along afferent neuron -> info reaches subcorticol integrating/relay centres (thalamus, medulla) -> information reaches appropriate regions in cortex (only becomes conscious when processing reaches cortex)

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196
Q

How do sensory receptors vary?

A
  1. free nerve endings - cutaneous receptors for pain, temp, crude touch
  2. receptors with nerve endings enclosed in connective tissue capsules - Pacinian corpuscle (vibration)
  3. specialized receptor cell that release neurotransmitter onto sensory neuron - special senses, hair cell in inner ear
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197
Q

What are the different types of sensory receptors?

A

chemoreceptors - O2, pH, glucose, smell, taste
mechanoreceptors - pressure (baroreecptors), cell stretch (osmoreceptors), vibration, acceleration, sound, touch
photoreceptors - photons of light
thermoreceptors - varying degrees of heat

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198
Q

What is are the adequate stimuli of each receptor type?

A

each sensory receptor has an adequate stimulus… type of energy to which it best responds
thermo - increased temp
mechano - deformations of membrane that open ion channels
photoreceptors - light

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199
Q

What is receptor potential?

A

change in membrane potential

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200
Q

Describe receptive fields

A

-somatosensory and visual neurons are activated by stimuli that fall within a certain physical area
-at least 2 afferent neurons in pathway to CNS
1. first order (primary) sensory neuron - directly associated with stimuli
2. second order (secondary) sensory neuron - relays info from first neuron
-receptive fields often determined by neurons further up the pathway (sensory input can then be gathered by more than one primary sensory neuron)
-several primary neurons converge into a secondary neuron
-convergence allows summation (creates larger receptive fields)

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201
Q

What is the problem with convergence of sensory neurons?

A

no 2-point discrimination:
-2 stimuli fall within same receptive field and only 1 signal goes to the brain = perceived as a single point
-smaller receptive fields = better 2 point discrimination (activate different pathways to the brain and perceived as distinct stimuli)

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202
Q

How is sensory info integrated in the CNS?

A

-olfactory pathways from nose projected through olfactory bulb to olfactory cortex
-most sensory pathways (hearing, taste, vision, somatic) project to thalamus which modifies and relays info to cortical centres
-equilibrium pathways project primarily to the cerebellum (some to thalamus)
-visceral sensory info most integrated in brain stem and spinal cord (usually does not reach conscious processing)

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203
Q

How are different sensations distinguished if all stimuli are converted to APs?

A

CNS must be able to decode:
-type of stimulus: modality
-location
-intensity
-duration

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204
Q

What is labelled line coding?

A

adequate stimulus for that receptor type -> brain associates information from that receptor type with that modality
ex. touch receptors - perceived as touch

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205
Q

How is location of sensory stimulus coded for?

A

-location is coded according to which receptive fields are activated (touch receptors in specific part of body project to certain area in somatosensory cortex)
-special senses are different (ex. hair cells respond to different frequencies but no receptive fields relating to location of sound source)

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206
Q

What is lateral inhibition?

A

-primary neuron response is proportional to stimulus strength
-pathway closest to the stimulus inhibits neighbours
-inhibition of lateral neurons enhances perception of stimulus (better localization)

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207
Q

How is stimulus intensity coded for?

A
  1. # of receptors activated (population coding)-different thresholds for stimulation among groups of receptors
    -with low intensity stimulus most sensitive (lowest threshold) receptor recruited first
    -as stimulus intensifies, more receptors activated
  2. frequency of APs coming from individual receptor cells
    -frequency of APs increases with stimulus intensity until a max. is reached
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208
Q

How is stimulus intensity and duration coded for?

A

-receptor potential strength and duration vary with stimulus
-receptor potential is integrated at the trigger zones
-duration of a series of APs is proportional to duration of the stimulus
-neurotransmitter release varies with pattern of APs arriving at the axon terminal
-some receptors adapt to sustained stimuli
1. tonic receptors - slowly adapting, respond throughout stimulus
2. phasic receptors - rapidly adapt to a sustained stimulus and turn off

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209
Q

Merkel’s disk

A

cutaneous sensory receptor
location: superficial
receptive field: small
adaptation: slow (tonic)
function: sustained touch/pressure, texture

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210
Q

Meissner’s corpuscle

A

cutaneous sensory receptor
location: superficial
receptive field: small
adaptation: fast (phasic)
function: beginning and end of fine touch/pressure

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211
Q

Ruffini’s corpuscle

A

cutaneous sensory receptor
location: deep
receptive field: large
adaptation: slow (tonic)
function: sustained gross touch/vibration/stretch

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212
Q

Pacinian corpuscle

A

cutaneous sensory receptor
location: deep
receptive field: large
adaptation: fast (phasic)
function: beginning and end of gross touch/vibration

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213
Q

Free Nerve Endings

A

cutaneous sensory receptor
location: variable
receptive field: variable
adaptation: variable
function: pain, temperature, hair movement

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214
Q

Nociception

A

-found in many tissues (not just skin)
-“pain” is a sensation rather than a stimulus
-nociception is mediated by free nerve endings expressing ion channels that respond to a variety of strong stimuli (chemical/mechanical/thermal)
-pain (eg. due to tissue injury) is mediated via release of local chemicals (K+, histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin, substance P): can either directly activate nociceptors or sensitize them (inflammation)
-mediated by Transient Receptor Potential (TRP) channels

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215
Q

Transient Receptor Protein (TRP) channels

A

-mediate a wide variety of sensations including pain, heat/warmth, cold, some tastes, pressure, vision, osmotic pressure, stretch
-relatively non-selective ion channels

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216
Q

Somatic pain

A

-information from nociceptors can follow many different pathways
1. spinal reflexes
2. ascending pathways to cerebral cortex (info also sent to limbic system and hypothalamus)
*emotional reactions
*autonomic responses (sweating, vomiting, nausea)

-different types of pain travel on different fibre types

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217
Q

Describe the conduction velocities of different fibre types

A
  1. alpha motor neurons = fastest
    -myelinated
    -diameter = largest
    -function: innervates extrafusal muscle fibres, afferent from muscle spindle, afferent from Golgi tendon organ
  2. cutaneous mechanoreceptors (fine touch)
    -myelinated
    -diameter = medium
  3. free nerve endings of crude touch/pressure, fast pain, temp and innervates intrafusal muscle fibres (gamma)
    -myelinated
    -diameter = small
  4. slowest = slow pain, itch, temp
    -unmyelinated
    -diameter = small
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218
Q

How are neural reflexes classified?

A
  1. according to effector
    -skeletal muscle (controlled by somatic motor neurons)
    -smooth and cardiac muscle, glands, adipose tissue (controlled by autonomic neurons)
  2. according to integrating centre
    -spinal reflexes, ‘cranial’ reflexes
  3. innate (inborn) vs. conditioned (learned)
  4. number of neurons in pathway
    -monosypnaptic (only afferent and efferent neurons): somatic motor reflexes only
    -polysynaptic (eg. autonomic reflexes, involving interneurons)
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219
Q

Autonomic (visceral) reflexes

A

-some are spinal reflexes (can often be modulated via signals from higher centers and inhibition by higher centres can be a learned response)
-others integrated in the brain (hypothalamus, thalamus, brain stem)
-emotional stimuli can be converted into visceral responses

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220
Q

Skeletal muscle reflexes

A

-monitor: proprioception (position of limbs in space relative to other body parts) and effort exerted in lifiting/holding objects
-integrating centre = CNS (via networks of excitatory or inhibitory neurons)
-efferent pathway: somatic motor neurons (alpha motor neurons)
-effectors: contractile skeletal muscle fibres (extrafusal muscle fibres)

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221
Q

Proprioceptors

A

-receptors that sense changes in joint movements, muscle length, muscle tension, and send info the CNS
-depending on appropriate response, CNS activates motor neurons to make motor units contract or activates inhibitory interneurons to make muscles relax
-examples of proprioceptors: muscle spindles (muscle stretch), Golgi tendon organs (muscle tension), joint receptors (distortions as bones are repositioned)

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222
Q

Muscle spindles

A

-each spindle consists of 3-12 intrafusal muscle fibres (arranged in parallel to extrafusal muscle fibres)
-most sensitive to muscle stretch (increased length)
-tonically active, sending stream of APs even at rest
-mediate stretch reflexes (introduces contraction when muscle is stretched, tends to maintain muscle at constant length)
-unloaded when muscle shortens unless tightened up by intrafusal muscle fibres (alpha-gamma coactivation)
-alpha MN innervates extrafusal
-gamma MN innervates intrafusal

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223
Q

Explain how a stretch reflex works

A

-muscle stretched
-increased firing from sensory neuron associated with spindle
-increased firing of alpha motor neuron to biceps
-biceps contracts
-increased firing of inhibitory interneuron
-decreased firing of alpha motor neuron to triceps (reciprocal inhibition)
-antagonist muscle relaxes

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224
Q

Golgi Tendon Organ

A

-between fibres and tendon (in series with muscle fibres)
-whether isotonic or isometric, contraction of muscle causes tendon and GTO to stretch (most sensitive to isometric contraction)
-relatively insensitive to muscle stretch
-monitors tension (force of contraction)

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225
Q

What are the purposes of skeletal muscle reflexes?

A
  1. stretch reflex (sensor: muscle spindle - change in length)
    -maintenance of posture
    -positional info to CNS (usually includes reciprocal inhibition)
  2. monitoring muscle tension (sensor: Golgi tendon organ)
    -eg. maintaining constant grip on a paper cup
  3. withdrawal reflex (sensor: pain receptors)
    -get away from pain, ideally while maintaining posture and balance (usually involves reciprocal inhibition and crossed extensor reflex)
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226
Q

How is control of movement integrated?

A
  1. muscle reflex
    -primarily driven by external stimuli
    -inherent (vs. learned), rapid
    -mostly handled at the level of the spinal cord and brain stem with modulation by higher centres
  2. voluntary movement
    -most complex, integrated in cerebral cortex
    -learned movements can improve with practice (become subconscious)
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227
Q

How are voluntary movements coordinated?

A
  1. sensory inputs- sensory cortex, motor cortex
  2. planning and decision making- prefrontal cortex, motor association areas, basal ganglia, thalamus
  3. coordination and timing- input from cerebellum
  4. execution- corticospinal tract to skeletal muscles
  5. execution- brain stem, spinal cord
  6. continuous feedback to sensory cortex
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228
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

-results from death of dopamine secreting neurons in a particular region of basal ganglia
-motor symptoms include tremor at rest, slowness of movement, rigidity (increased muscle tone) and many non-motor effects
-main treatment is replacing dopamine with L-dopa (able to cross the blood-brain barrier

229
Q

Olfaction (smell)

A

-the only sensory modality that does not go through the thalamus; does not cross the midline
-the only special sense for which the sensory cell itself is the neuron that carries the info to the CNS
-much more important in other species than humans (closely linked with taste and emotion/memory)

230
Q

Olfactory Receptor Neurons (OLNs)

A

-bipolar neurons (replaced every ~60 days)
-dendrites end in non-motile cilia which express odorant receptor proteins
-axons go through gaps in cribiform plate; synapse on 2nd order neurons
-odorant receptor proteins are GPCRs, form one of the largest gene families in vertebrates (3/5% of genome)
(1000s of different types of receptors)

231
Q

Coding of Olfactory ‘Quality’

A

-each ORN expresses only one type of odorant receptor protein
BUT
-each receptor can recognize more than one odorant
-each odorant can stimulate more than one receptor

-subsequent processing en route to olfactory cortex (input of 100s of olfactory neurons in combination is then interpreted as a particular odour)

232
Q

Structure and Odour perception

A

-small organic compounds that are simple enough to go up in the air
-different sturctures have different odours

233
Q

Gustation (taste)

A

combination of 5 basic tastes:
1. sweet (carbs -> energy)
2. sour (H+)
3. salty (Na+)
4. bitter (many compounds -> possible toxicity)
5. umami (glutamate, some nucleotides -> protein)
-taste receptor cells are non-neural epithelial cells (frequently come into contact with chemicals so replaced every 10 days)

234
Q

Taste buds

A

-number of taste buds per papillae depends on type (circumvallate, foliate, fungiform) can be 1000-2000
-each taste bud contains 50-150 taste receptor cells
-supporting epithelial cell secrete fluid into lumen of taste pore

235
Q

The myth of the chemotopic tongue map

A

-we can taste all flavours around our tongue, but some tastes more concentrated in certain areas

236
Q

Taste transduction

A
  1. ligands activate TRCs
  2. various intracellular pathways are activated
  3. Ca2+ signal triggers exocytosis (sour H+) or ATP formation (sweet, bitter, umami)
  4. neurotransmitter (sour H+) or ATP (sweet, bitter, umami) released
  5. primary sensory neuron fires; APs sent to the brain
    -sweet, bitter, umami ligands believed to be GPCRs
    -ultimately release ATP as signal molecule
237
Q

Taste pathway

A
  1. taste info travels through many cranial nerves to medulla
  2. thalamus
  3. gustatory complex
238
Q

Signal transduction in hair cells (hearing)

A
  1. normal position = some ion channels open, tonic rate of APs
  2. bent to the right = more ion channels open, cation entry depolarizes cell, increased frequency of APs
  3. bent to the left = channels closed, less cation entry hyperpolarizes cell, no APs
239
Q

Sound waves

A

-pattern in air pressure (amplitude and frequency)
-amplitude = volume
-frequency = pitch

240
Q

Sound transmission through the ear

A
  1. sound wave strike tympanic membrane and become vibrations
  2. sound wave energy is transferred to the 3 bones of the middle ear (malleus, incus, stapes) which vibrate
  3. the stapes is attatched to the membrane of the oval window. Vibrations of the oval window create fluid waves within the cochlea
  4. the fluid waves push on the flexible membranes of the cochlear duct. Hair cells bend and ion channels open, creating an electrical signal that alters neurotransmitter release
  5. neurotransmitter release onto sensory neurons creates APs that travel through the cochlear nerve to the brain
  6. energy from the waves transfers across the cochlear duct into the tympanic duct and is dissipated back into the middle ear and the round window
241
Q

Cochlea

A

-perilymph (similar to plamsa- high Na+, low K+)
-endolymph (similar to ICF- low Na+, high K+)
-cochlear duct contains the Organ of Conti (sensory hair cells and support cells)

242
Q

Neural coding for pitch - place code hypothesis

A

-sound wave trigger activity at different places along the cochlea’s basillar membrane and are perceived as different pitches ‘tonographic map’
*waves travel along cochlea, hair cells in areas that bend the most at a given frequency encode that pitch
*‘labelled line’ based on which hair cells are stimulated
-this explanation based on the anatomy of the ear
-dominated for over 100 years
-distance from stapes (farther = low frequency)

243
Q

Neural coding for pitch - temporal code hypothesis

A

-frequency of sound wave determines frequency of APs travelling along auditory nerve, perceived as pitch (location along basillar membrane irrelevant)
-eg. low frequency -> slow waves along basillar membrane -> low firing rate of primary sensory neurons -> perceived as low pitch sound
-problem: we can hear pitches at 20,000 Hz but we cannot transmit APs at this frequency

244
Q

Current hypothesis for coding of pitch

A

-groups of neurons working as a team (with staggered firing rates) carry the temporal code
*pooled neural response interpreted as pitch
-place coding also plays a role (which region hair cells along the basillar membrane are stimulated)
-relative importance of place and temporal coding depends on pitch (low pitches -> temporal coding, high pitches -> place coding)

245
Q

Neural pathways for auditory information

A
  1. primary auditory neurons project from the cochlea to the medulla
  2. from the medulla, secondary sensory neurons project to 2 higher nuclei (one ipsilateral - on the same side of the body and one contralateral - on the opposite side). Splitting info into 2 ascending tracts means that each side of brain receives info from both ears
    3a. ascending tracts synapse in midbrain and thalamus before projecting to the auditory complex
    3b. collateral pathways take info to cerebellum and reticular formation
  3. brain accounts for time difference between sides to create 3D representation of sound source (tell which side sound is coming from)
246
Q

Hearing loss

A
  1. conductive
    -no transmission through either external or middle ear (issues with wax or fluid in middle ear- can usually be repaired)
  2. central
    -damage to neural pathways between ear and cerebral cortex or damage to the cortex itself (ex stroke) -uncommon
  3. sensorineural
    -damage to structures of inner ear
    -eg. death of hair cells due to loud noise
    -common in youth and elderly
    -hair cells cannot yet be replaced in mammals
247
Q

Equilibrium - vestibular apparatus

A
  1. dynamic component - movement of the body through space
  2. static component - position of head
    -integrated with info from other sensory systems (muscle + joint proprioceptors and vision)
    -like hearing, detected by hair cells lining fluid-filled (endolymph) chambers
    * otolith organs- utricle, saccule -> linear acceleration and head position
    * 3 semicircular canals- rotational acceleration (superior, posterior, horizontal)
248
Q

Vesitbular apparatus (cristae, macula, semicircular canals)

A
  1. cristae are sensory receptors for rotational acceleration
    -hair cells grouped in cristae, within ampulla of canals
    -movement of endolymph pushes on the gelatinous capula and activates hair cells
  2. macula are sensory receptors for linear acceleration and head position
    -otoliths are crystals that move in response to gravitational forces
249
Q

Neural pathways for equilibrium

A
  1. vesitbular hair cells are tonically active and release neurotransmitter into primary sensory neurons of the vestibular nerve
    2a. sensory neurons either synapse in medulla (vestibular nuclei) or continue to cerebellum (primary site for equilibrium processing)
    2b. collateral pathways run from the medulla to the cerebellum or upward through the reticular formation and thalamus
250
Q

Steps to vision

A
  1. light enters the eye and the lens focuses light onto the retina
  2. photoreceptors of retina tranduce light into electrical signals
  3. neural pathways from retina to brain process electrical signals into visual images
251
Q

Neural pathway for vision

A
  1. optic nerve
  2. optic chiasm
  3. optic tract
  4. thalamic relay
  5. visual cortex (occipital lobe)
252
Q

Pupillary light reflex

A

-control of pupil diameter according to intensity of light
-autonomic ‘reflex’
1. detector: photoreceptors in retina (not rods and cones)
2. afferent: afferent neurons travelling in optic nerve
3. integrating centre: thalamus/brain stem (midbrain)
4. efferent: motor neurons travelling in oculomotor nerve
5. effectors: smooth muscles regulating pupil diameter
a) circular (sphincter) = constriction (PNS)
b) radial = dilation (SNS)

253
Q

Phototransduction

A

-conversion of light into changes in membrane potential by photoreceptor cells in the retina
-photoreceptors = rods and cones
-modified ganglion cells (mediate pupillary light reflex, circadian/seasonal rhythms): non-visual responses to light

254
Q

Pathways for pupillary light reflex

A

-there are 2 opportunities to cross:
1. optic chiasm
2. midbrain
-contraction of the same eye that received light = ipsilateral response
-contraction of the opposite eye that received light = consenual response

255
Q

Cellular organization at the retina

A

-both rods and cones
-rod vision = high convergence (good sensitivity to low light but poor resolution)
-biploar cells
-ganglion cells

256
Q

Cellular organization at the fovea

A

-ALL cones
-low convergence (high resolution, small receptive fields, low sensitivity- not good for low light)
-biploar neurons
-ganglion cells

257
Q

Signal transduction in photoreceptor cells

A
  1. dark: rhodopsin inactive, cGMP high, CNG and K+ channels open = tonic release of glutamate onto bipolar neurons
  2. light: activated opsin, cGMP decreases, closes CNG channels, cell hyperpolarized = glutamate decreases in proportion to amount of light (less neurotransmitter)
  3. in the recovery phase, retinal binds with opsin
258
Q

Where do sympathetic preganglionic fibres orginate?

A

thoracic and lumbar segments of spinal cord in grey matter

259
Q

Where do parasympathetic fibres originate?

A

cranial and sacral segments of the spinal cord

260
Q

Why not only filter the 1% of filtrate that needs to be excreted?

A

filtering all then excreting selected solutes is easier because there isn’t a need for specific transport mechanisms
-able to happen quickly

261
Q

Why are the roles of the kidneys?

A

1) regulation of ECF volume and blood pressure
2) regulates plasma osmolarity (Na+,CL-)
3) regulates ion balances
4) excretion of waste
5) regulates plasma pH
6) endocrine

262
Q

Describe the urinary tract pathway

A
  1. fluid moves from plasma into nephrons (hollow tubules) in the kidneys
  2. nephrons modify the composition of the fluid as it passes through
  3. modified fluid leaves the kidneys and enters hollow tube called ureter
  4. ureters lead from kidney to bladder
  5. bladder fills and expands until it conracts and expels urine through a single tube called urethra
263
Q

What are the vascular elements of a nephron?

A

renal artery
smaller arteries
1) afferent arteriole
2) glomerulus (capillaries)
3) efferent arteriole
4) peritubular capillaries
5) vasa recta (juxtamedullary only)

264
Q

What is contained in the cortex of the nephron? the medulla of the nephron?

A

cortex:
-all Bowman’s capsules
-PCTs
-DCTs
medulla:
-Loop of Henle
-collecting ducts

265
Q

What are the tubular elements of the nephron in order?

A

renal corpuscle (Bowman’s capsule + glomerulus)
proximal tubule
descending limb
Loop of Henle
ascending limb
distal tubule
collecting duct
to bladder

266
Q

Describe renal circulation in general

A

artery -> capillary -> vein -> capillary -> vein -> heart
nephrons have 2 capillary beds (glomerulus capillaries and pertitubular capillaries)

267
Q

What is the difference between renal circulation in juxtaglomedullary nephrons and corticol nephrons?

A

jutaglomerular nephrons go through vasa recta

268
Q

Describe the detailed pathway of renal circulation

A

abdominal aorta -> renal artery -> branches of smaller arteries -> 1. afferent arterioles -> 2. glomerulus (capillaries) -> 3. efferent arteriole -> 4. peritubular capillaries/ 5. vasa recta -> venules -> veins -> renal vein -> vena cava

269
Q

Overview of kidney function

A

-kidneys process over 180 L plasma/day but only 1.5 L secreted - 99% of fluid is reabsorbed
1) filtration
2) reabsorption
3) secretion

270
Q

What is filtration?

A

movement of water/solute from blood into tubules
-occurs in renal corpuscles
-once in tubules, filtrate will be excreted if not reabsorbed

271
Q

What is reabsorption?

A

movement of water/solute from filtrate back into blood (peritubular capillaries)

272
Q

What is secretion?

A

removing molecules from blood, adding them to filtrate
-much more selective than filtration

273
Q

Where does filtration occur?

A

only at the glomerulus
-blood to lumen

274
Q

What does urinary excretion depend on?

A

filtration, reabsorption and secretion
amount of solute excreted = amount filtered - amount reabsorbed + amount secreted

275
Q

filtrate at the renal corpuscle

A

-filtrate is almost identical to plasma in composition (isoosmatic with plasma, Na+ Cl-)
-minus blood cells and most of the protein

276
Q

Reabsorption and secretion in the nephron

A

-70% of filtrate and solute is reabsorbed in proximal tubule (iso-osmotic reabsorption)
-fluid leaving ascending Loop of Henle is hypo-osmotic relative to plasma (at this point 90% of fluid has been reabsorbed)
-distal tubule/collecting duct: “fine tuning” of water-salt balance (endocrine control)

277
Q

Filtration at the renal corpuscle

A

~20% of the plasma moves out of glomerular capillaries into tubules (the rest exits in the efferent arteriole)

278
Q

What is filtration fraction?

A

% of total plasma volume that filters into tubule

279
Q

What is the function of the macula densa?

A

modifies tubular epithelium
-macula densa cells release paracrine factors that act on smooth muscle of afferent arteriole

280
Q

What are the barriers to glomerular filtration?

A

1) endothelium of glomerular capillaries
-“fenestrated”: allow most substances to pass
-exceptions: cells (too big) and most proteins (repelled by negatively charged proteins on pore surfaces)

2) basement membrane
-layer of ECM between capilary endothelium and epithelium of Bowman’s capsule
*collagens, other proteins (negatively charged)
*acts as a course sieve, keeping most proteins in plasma

3) epithelium of Bowman’s capsule
-gaps between foot processes of podocytes leave narrow slits closed by semi-porous membrane

281
Q

What are the 3 types of capillaries?

A

1) continuous
-most common
-muscle, neural tissue, connective tissue
-tight junctions, intracellular clefts
2) fenestrated
-kidney, intestine
-fenestrations, tight junctions
3) sinusoid
-no basement membrane
-bone marrow, lymph nodes, liver, spleen

282
Q

Filtration in Systemic capillaries: Starling forces

A

hydrostatic pressure = pressure that forces fluid out of the capillary (ie. blood pressure)
colloid osmotic pressure = pressure of proteins within the capillary that pulls fluid into the capillary

filtration = hydrostatic pressure > colloid osmotic pressure
reabsorption = hyrostatic pressure < colloid osmotic pressure
net pressure = hyrsotatic pressure - colloid osmotic pressure

283
Q

What drives glomerular filtration?

A

Pfluid= fluid pressure created by fluid in Bowman’s capsule
net filtration pressure = Ph - colloid osmotic pressure - Pfluid

-net driving force is low, but combined with leakiness of the barrier, filtration rate is HIGH
-glomerular filtration rate (GFR) = 180 L/day; plasma volume is ~3L

284
Q

What factors influence Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?

A

-net filtration pressure
-“filtration coefficient”
*surface area of glomerular capillaries
*permeability of the interface
*note parallels with gas exchange in alveoli
(partial pressure, surface area, thickness/permeability of barrier)
-would expect glomerular filtration be heavily influenced by changes in Ph (blood pressure) BUT GFR relatively constant over wide range of BPs
*kidneys are good at auto-regulating

285
Q

Effect of changes in arteriole resistance on GFR

A

1) increase resistance of afferent arteriole (vasoC)
-decrease renal blood flow, decrease Ph, decrease GFR
2) increase resistance of efferent arteriole (vasoC)
-decrease renal blood flow BUT increase Ph and GFR

286
Q

Regulation of GFR

A

-primarily regulated by altering renal blood flow via changes in resistance of afferent arteriole
multiple mechanisms:
1) myogenic response: ‘autoregulation’
-instrinsic response of arteriolar smooth muscle to pressure changes (vasoC in response to increase BP more effective in normalizing GFR than vasoD in response to decrease BP)
-similar to autoregulation in other systemic arterioles (also important in the brain)

2) tubuloglomerular feedback
-flow through tubule influences GFR
-involves juxtaglomerular apparatus

3) endocrine and autonomic control
-changing resistance in arterioles
-altering filtration coefficient

287
Q

Juxtaglomerular apparatus and regulation of GFR

A

-modification of both tubule and arteriolar walls where they come into contact with each other
*modified tubular epithelim -> macula densa
*modified arteriolar wall -> specialized smooth muscle cells called granular cells (aka JG)
-granular cells secrete renin
+involved in salt/water balance
-macula densa cells release paracrine factors that act on smooth muscle of the afferent arteriole

288
Q

Tubuloglomerular feedback and regulation of GFR

A

1) increase GFR (ie. increase BP)
2) increase flow though tubules
3) increase flow of NaCl past macula densa
4) paracrine signal from macula densa acts on afferent arteriole
5) afferent arteriole constricts
-decrease renal blood flow
-decrease Ph
-decrease GFR

289
Q

Endocrine and autonomic control of GFR

A

-due to the importance of kidneys in homeostatic regulation of blood pressure, integrating centres outside the kidney can override local control
1) autonomic effects on GFR:
-via SNS innvervation of afferent & efferent arterioles
-moderate SNS activity has little effect on GFR
*extreme conditions (ie. bleeding,severe dehrydation) : sharp drop in Bp -> SNS vasoC -> decreae GFR
2) endocrine effects:
-AgII -> potent vasoconstrictor
-prostaglandins -> vasodilators
*both can also affect filtration coefficient through actions on podocytes(alters size of slits) and mesangial cells (shape of glomerular capillaries)

290
Q

What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation to the kidneys?

A

increased renin secretion

291
Q

What is reabsorption? (in detail)

A

filtration removes foreign / toxic substances in addition to endogenous material
-high rate of filtration clears these substances quickly
-setting the default to ‘filtered -> excreted’ makes it easy to clear solutes without specific transport mechanisms

292
Q

Principles governing tubular reabsorption

A

filtrate in capsule has same [solute] as interstitial fluid (ICF)
-to reclaim solute, tubular cells must create gradients (chemical or electrical) by active transport pump Na+out of tubule into interstitium
anions follow
water follows
-loss of water from tubule
remaining solute in tubular fluid @ higher conc
(K+, Ca2+, urea)
these solutes move into interstitium
(if tubular epithelial cells are permeable to them)

293
Q

How does tubular reabsorption happen?

A

1) Na+ reabsorbed (tubule -> ICF) by active transport
2) Electrochemical gradient created drives anion reabsorption
3) H2O moves by osmosis, following solute reabsorption into ICF
-concentrations of other solutes in the tubule increase as fluid volume decreases
4) Permeable solutes are reabsorbed by diffusion through membrane transporters or paracellular pathway

294
Q

How do solutes cross epithelial layer?

A

1) paracellular pathway
-through cell-cell junctions (tight junctions aren’t that tight- can sneak through)
2) epithelial (trans-cellular) transport
-can be regulated
-crossing apical and basolateral membranes of epithelial cells
-mechanism depends on driving force
*down gradient-‘leak’ channels or facilitated diffusion
*against gradient- primary or indirect active transport
-Na+ directly or indirectly involved in most transport, both passive and active

295
Q

Active transport of Na+ in the proximal tubule

A

1) Na+ enters cell through various membrane proteins (ENaC), moving down its electrochemical gradient
2) Na+ pumped out basolateral side of cell by Na+/K+-ATPase.

-net result: Na+ reabsorption across tubular epithelium

296
Q

What is ENaC?

A

ENaC= epithelial sodium channel
-expressed in apical membranes of epithelial cells (especially kidney)
-expression / activity regulated in some regions of nephron
*major role in Na+and K+homeostasis (target of many diuretics)

297
Q

Na+-Linked reabsorption (secondary active transport)

A

1) Na+moving down its electro-chemical gradient uses SGLT transporter to pull glucose into the cell against its concentration gradient.
2) glucose diffuses (facillitated diffusion) out basolateral side of cell using GLUT protein.
3) Na+pumped out by Na+/K+-ATPase

-same basic mechanism responsible for reabsorption of amino acids, lactate, Krebs cycle intermediates, phosphate, sulphate, …
*apical symporter + basolateral facilitated diffusion carrier or ion exchanger

298
Q

How is urea reabsorbed?
passive reabsorption

A

-urea has no transporters in proximal tubule but can move across membrane passively down its gradient
-up to 40% of filtered urea reabsorbed in proximal tubule

1) Na+ and other solutes absorbed at proximal tubule
2) water follows by osmosis
3) water loss results in higher [urea]
4) urea moves passively out of tubule through epithelial cells into ICF

299
Q

What molecules can pass directly through membranes?

A

relative permeability (high -> low)
1. hydrophobic molecules (O2, CO2, N2)
2. small polar uncharged molecules (H2O, urea)
3. large polar uncharged molcules (glucose, fructose)
4. ions (K+, Cl-, Na+)

300
Q

Why is urea reabsorbed?

A

~40% of the filtered urea is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule
About urea:
*formed from ammonia, product of AA metabolism
*small, neutral, neither acidic or basic, non-toxic
*handy to have around …
-key intermediate in nitrogen metabolism (urea cycle)
*kidney doesn’t have much choice, since urea movement is passive

301
Q

Renal handling of proteins

A

[protein] in urine are usually very low but kidney is major route of ‘elimination’ of small proteins

302
Q

What are the major proteins in plasma?

A

serum albumin (~55% of total plasma protein)
globulins (~38%)
fibronogen (~7%)
size = > 50 kDa (BIG)

303
Q

Are proteins filtered at the glomerulus?

A

-depends on size, charge, conformation of protein
-general cut-off is 50 kDa proteins < 50 kDa are filtered
small proteins:
glycoprotein hormones - FSH, LH, hCG
many protein hormones- insulin, GH

304
Q

What happens to small proteins that are filtered?

A

1) proteins / complex polypeptides:
-exocytosis through apical membrane then leave as AA’s out of the basical membrane into the ICF
-enter vasculature as AA’s
2) small, linear peptides
-break down into AA’s and enter apical membrane and leave as AA’s

305
Q

How does renal transport become saturated?

A

most renal transport involves membrane proteins
-exhibit specificity, competition, and saturation

transport maximum (Tm) = transport rate at saturation
renal threshold = plasma [substrate] at which Tm (saturation) occurs
*need to keep concentrations of substrates that need to be brought back into the blood below the renal threshold

306
Q

Glucose filtration/reabsorption and diabetes

A

-you can filter any volume of blood glucose
-you can only reabsorb a certain amount of glucose (renal threshold)
-if plasma [glucose] is normal, it falls below renal threshold so all glucose is reabsorbed
-in people with diabetes melitus plasma [glucose] is above renal threshold so not all glucose is reabsorbed (SLGT is saturated) and some is excreted in urine
-excretion = filtration - reabsorption

307
Q

How are substrates transferred from ICF into plasma?

A

-lower hydrostatic pressure (blood pressure) in peritubular capillaries results in net reabsorption of ICF

308
Q

Examples of substances cleared by renal secretion

A

1) small protein/peptide hormones from peritubular capillaries taken up by epithelial cells of proximal tubule (e.g. insulin)
-requires receptor on basolateral face of epithelial cells
2) K+and H+secreted by epithelial cells of distal nephron
-major means of their homeostatic regulation
3) many organic compounds secreted by proximal tubule
-endogenously produced metabolites, xenobiotics
*secretion of organic compounds is active process (typically secreted across proximal tubule epithelium by indirect active transport)

309
Q

Secretion of organic anions at proximal tubule

A

1) Direct active transport. The Na+/K+ATPase keeps intracellular [Na+] low
2) Secondary inactive transport. NaDC cotransporter concentrates dicaroboxylate inside the cell using energy stored in [Na+] gradient
3) Teritary indirect active transport. Basolateral OAT transporters concentrates organic anions (OA-) inside cell, using energy stored in dicarboxylate gradient.
4) Organic anions enter the lumen of tubule by facilitated diffusion

310
Q

What are NaDC?

A

Na+-dicarboxylate cotransporters
-on both apical and basolateral membranes
-dicarboxylates-two carboxyl groups (citrate-, oxaloacetate-, αKG-, krebs cycle intermediates)

311
Q

What are OAT?

A

OAT = organic anion transporters
-able to transport range of anions
*endogenous -bile salts, cyclic nucleotides, …
*exogenous -benzoate, salicylate, saccharine, penicilli

312
Q

OAT Transporters and drug interactions

A

-compounds that compete with drugs for OAT transporter will slow that drug’s clearance from the blood
*used during WWII to extend limited supplies of penicillin
-led to development of probenecid (early 1950s)
-current uses of probenecid:
*antibiotic-sparing agent in severe infections (also works for certain antivirals)
*prevent nephrotoxicity for certain drugs
*masking agent (on anti-doping list)

313
Q

What is excretion?

A

excretion = filtration - reabsorption + secretion

314
Q

Composition of urine vs. original filtrate

A

composition of urine versus original filtrate:
*glucose, amino acids, other useful metabolites gone
*proteins mostly gone
*waste products much more concentrated
-water and ions variable depending on needs

315
Q

Why is how a substance is handled by the kidneys of clinical interest?

A

1) GFR - indicator of overall kidney function
2) details of renal handling is required for drug approval

316
Q

What is renal clearance?

A

“the rate at which a substance X disappears from the body by excretion or metabolism”
clearance rate (mL/min) = excretion rate of X (mg/min)/[X] in plasma (mg/mL)

317
Q

What is inulin clearance an indicator of?

A

inulin clearance = GFR
inulin:
-storage carbohydrate from roots of many plants
‘soluble fibre’
-all the inulin filtered at glomerulus ends up being excreted (none reabsorbed or secreted)

318
Q

What is normal GFR?

A

100-125 mL/min

319
Q

What is creatinine clearance important for?

A

can be used to estimate GFR
-endogenous substitution for inulin
-freely filtered, some secreted, none reabsorbed

320
Q

Using clearance to determine “Renal Handling”

A

-with 1) GFR, 2) its plasma concentration and 3) its excretion rate, can determine how the kidney handles any solute
filtered load of X = [X] in plasma x GFR

-compare filtered load with excretion rate:
less in urine than was filtered? net reabsorption
more in urine that was filtered? net secretion

*e.g.glucose
*filtered load is 125 mg glucose / min; none in urine
*conclusion: all reabsorbed

321
Q

Renal handling of inulin

A

100% of filtered inulin is excreted

322
Q

Renal handling of glucose

A

No glucose is excreted (100% reabsorbed)
-when would it not be 0? SLGT saturation, plasma [glucose] above renal threshold

323
Q

Renal handling of urea

A

50% is excreted
Would you expect urea clearance to be lower or higher than GFR?
-can never be higher, always expect some clearance

324
Q

Renal handling of penicillin

A

more excreted than was filtered
How can penicillin clearance be higher than GFR?
-in addition to being filtered you also secrete more in

325
Q

Urination (aka micturation)

A

*filtrate (now urine) can no longer be modified once it leaves collecting ducts
*opening between bladder and urethra guarded by two sphincters
-internal -smooth muscle (continuation of bladder wall)
-external -skeletal muscle
*tonic stimulation from CNS keeps it closed most of the time
*micturition is simple spinal reflex, but subject to both conscious and unconscious control from CNS
-bladder fills -> activates stretch receptors -> afferent information travels to spinal cord
*activates two sets of neurons
-parasympathetic: acts on smooth muscle of bladder
-somatic: inhibits motor neurons to external sphincter

326
Q

Bladder at rest

A

-internal sphincter passively contracted
-external sphincter stays contracted via tonic discharge from CNS

327
Q

Micturation

A

1) stretch receptors fire
2) parasympathetic neurons fire. Motor neurons stop firing (tonic discharge inhibited)
3) smooth muscle contracts. Internal sphincter passively pulled open. External sphincter relaxes

328
Q

Water balance

A

water gain:
-food and drink (2.2L)
-metabolism (0.3L)
water loss:
-insensible water loss: skin and lungs (0.9L)
-urine (1.5L)
-feces (0.1L)

329
Q

What do kidneys do to maintain water balance?

A

can conserve water but cannot replace lost water
-volume loss can be replaced only by volume
input from outside the body
-volume gain = drinking
-GFR can be adjusted
-regulated H2O reabsorption
-kidneys conserve water

-if water volume falls too low GFR stops

330
Q

Role of the kidneys in water balance

A

*osmolarity of urine is indicator of how much water is being excreted by the kidneys
-to eliminate excess water: -50 mOsM
*diuresis, diuretics
-to conserve water” -1200 mOsM(human)
*agents that promote water conservation = antidiuretics

*changes in osmolarity (therefore water loss vs conservation) achieved by varying amt of water and Na+ reabsorbed in distal nephron (distal tubule and collecting duct)
1) to produce dilute urine: reabsorb solute without letting water follow
2) to concentrate urine: reabsorb water but leave solute in tubules

331
Q

How does water cross cell membranes?

A

1) ‘leaks’ through lipid bilayer
-happens in most cells but doesn’t explain the rapid movement through some cells
2) travels through ‘water channels’ aquaporins (Nobel Prize 2003)
-13 different aquaporins in mammals (so far)
*6 of them expressed on apical or basolateral surfaces of epithelial cells in various regions of renal tubules

332
Q

How can movement of solute and water be ‘divorced’?

A

1) produce dilute urine: reabsorb solute without letting water follow??
*epithelial cells that transport solutes but are impermeable to water
-reduced expression of aquaporins = less water reabsorbed
2) produce concentrated urine: reabsorb water but leave solute in tubules??
*make epithelial cells (and surrounding interstitium) more saltythan tubular fluid
AND
*make tubular epithelial cells highly permeable to water
-accomplished in renal medulla, by juxtamedullar nephrons
*high osmolarity of medullary interstitium allows urine to become concentrated as it flows through collecting duct

333
Q

Osmolarity changes through a juxtamedullary nephron

A

1) iso-osmotic fluid leaving proximal tubule becomes progressively more concentrated in descending limb.
2) removal of solute in thick ascending
limb creates hyposmotic fluid.
3) permeablilty to water and solutes is regulated by hormones.
4) urine osmolarity depends on reabsorption in
collecting duct.

334
Q

Regulation of water permeability of distal nephron

A

permeability of distal nephron to water is regulated
-via hormone-induced changes in expression of aquaporinson apical surface
-basis of cellular responses to hyper/hypotonic environments
known by various names:
*antidiuretichormone, ADH
-prevents diuresis -> conserves water
*vasopressin, arginine vasopressin, AVP
-named for ‘pressor’ (vasoconstrictive) effect
(even though there is no pressor effect at physiological concentrations …)

335
Q

How does AVP alter water permeability?

A

AVP causes insertion of aquaporins into apical membrane
1) AVP binds to membrane receptor
2) receptor activates cAMP messenger system
3) AQP2 inserted into apical membrane.
4) water absorbed by osmosis into the blood

aquaporins added to plasma membrane by exocytosis and removed by endocytosis:
“membrane cycling”

336
Q

How is AVP synthesized?

A

AVP synthesized by ‘magnocellular’ neurons in supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus
1) AVP is made and packaged in cell body of neuron
2) Vesicles are transported down the cell..
3) Vesicles containing AVP are stored in posterior
pituitary.
4) AVP is released into blood.

337
Q

What triggers release of AVP?

A

increased plasma osmolarity
decreased blood volume/pressure

338
Q

Why is it so important to regulate ECF osmolarity?

A

1) affects cell size/volume - physical integrity of cells and tissues
2) affects ionic strength - activity of macromolecules

339
Q

Why does osmolarity fluctuate?

A

(normal variation 1-3%)
1) variations in water intake / water loss
2) variations in Na+ intake / Na+ excretion

340
Q

What are the consequences of osmotic perturbations?

A

too much salt (e.g. ingestion of salt to induce vomiting)
= seizures, death

too much water -hypo-osmolarity (e.g. excessive voluntary drinking, compulsive drinking, accidental overhydration in hospital)
= headache/ nausea/ vomiting -> mental confusion -> seizures -> coma ->death

341
Q

Osmoreceptors

A

plasma osmolarity monitored by stretch-sensitive neurons (mechanoreceptors) that increase firing rate as osmolarity increases
*stimulated by “cellular dehydration”

342
Q

Peripheral osmoreceptors

A

*oropharyngeal cavity (back of mouth/ throat)
*within blood vessels that collect solutes absorbed from intestines

*How do we know there are peripheral osmoreceptors?
-Water intake satisfies thirst long before ECF hyperosmolarity is fully corrected.
-Gastric water loading lowers AVP release long before plasma osmolarity decreases.
*peripheral osmoreceptorscan detect osmotic strength of ingested materials and induce anticipatory responses
*however, central osmoreceptorsare the major points of regulation

343
Q

Central osmoreceptors

A

*circumventricular organs (around ventricles)
-organum vasculosum laminae terminalis (OVLT)
-subfornicalorgan (not shown)
*supraopticnucleus in hypothalamus (SON; origin of AVP-secreting neurons)

344
Q

Circadian Rhythm of AVP Secretion and Nocturnal Enuresis (bed-wetting)

A

lack of nocturnal rise in AVP -> failure to concentrate urine -> output of high volume/dilute urine -> bedwetting

345
Q

What is an AVP agonist?

A

desmopressin

346
Q

What creates the salt gradient in the renal medulla?

A

key to producing concentrated urine is high osmolarity of medullary interstitium
-creates osmotic gradient for reabsorption of water

Why doesn’t osmolarity of interstitium decrease as water is drawn out of tubules??
-related to anatomical arrangement of loop of Henleand associated vasculature, vasarecta
*arterial and venous vessels traveling very close to each other, with fluid moving in opposite directions
*allows transfer from one vessel to another
-“countercurrent exchange system”

347
Q

Concurrent ‘Multiplier’ in the renal medulla

A

1) filtrate in descending limb becomes progressively more concentrated as it loses water
2) blood in vase recta removes h2o leaving loop of henle
3) ascending limb pumps out Na+, K+, Cl- filtrate becomes hyposmotic

descending limb - permeable to water but doesn’t trnasport ions
ascending limb - impermeable to water but pumps Na, K, an Cl out of tubules

348
Q

Ion transport in the thick ascending limb

A

1) 1200 mOsm entering ascending loop
2) salt reabsorption (NKCC symporter)
3) water cannot follow solute
4) 100 mOsm leaving loop

NKCC symporter:
-expressed on apical membrane
-moves Na+, K+, 2 Cl-
-secondaryactive transport

K+and Cl-leave basolateral side via cotransporters or open channels
-inhibition of NKCC transporter is target of ‘loop diuretics’

349
Q

Why is the Loop of Henle a loop?

A

the two limbs of the loop of Henle are inter-dependent:
*salt is pumped out of ascending limb
*salty interstitium draws water out of descending limb
*as water leaves descending limb, tubular fluid becomes more concentrated, making it easier for ascending limb to pump out salt
*which draws more water out of descending limb …

350
Q

Defence of osmolarity: Na+ balance

A

*typical North American diet, 9 g NaCl per day consumed
-if kidneys weren’t clearing any salt, would need to take in 1.1 L extrawater per day just to maintain normal [Na] in ECF
*would result in major gain in ECF volume = effects on blood pressure!
-if no water ingested to offset Na intake, unacceptable increase in [Na] in ECF -> hyperosmolarity->cell shrinkage ->etc
*kidneys responsible for most Na excretion
-loss via feces, sweat normally minimal
exceptions: vomiting, diarrhea, heavysweating
Note: Na+regulated, but not Cl-
-Cl-normally follows Na+
-via electrochemical gradient
-via NKCC, NaClsymporters

351
Q

How is Na+ reabsorption regulated?

A

recaps:
*all Na+is filtered at the glomerulus
*70% reabsorbed in proximal tubule (iso-osmotic, unregulated)
*~25% reabsorbed in ascending loop of Henle(unregulated)

*only reabsorption through the distal nephronis regulated
-regulated by hormone aldosterone
*aldosterone synthesized ‘on demand’ in adrenal cortex
-acts via intracellular receptors
*drives transcription of genes with upstream ‘aldosterone response elements’
synthesis of new proteins
insertion of new pumps/channels
modulation of existing pumps/channels

352
Q

What are the target cells for aldosterone?

A

‘Principal cells’ within epithelium of distal nephron
1) aldosterone binds to cytoplasmic receptor
2) hormone receptor complex = transcription factor -> initiates transcription
3) new proteins, channels, and pumps synthesized
4) aldosterone-induced protein modulate existing channels and pumps
5) result in increased Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

353
Q

Where is Na+/H2O reabsorption regulated/unregulated?

A

at proximal tubule:
*Na+reabsorption unregulated (ENac, Na/K-ATPase)
-water reabsorption automatically follows by osmosis (proximal tubule always permeable to water)

at loop of Henle:
*Na+reabsorption (in ascending limb via NKCC) unregulated
*water reabsorption (in descending limb) unregulated

at distal tubule and collecting duct:
*water reabsorption regulated by AVP insertion of aquaporins
*Na+ reabsorption regulated by aldosterone
*increased expression / activity of channels and pumps
-apical channels -Na+import, K+export
-basolateralpumps -Na/K-ATPase

354
Q

What stimulates aldosterone secretion?

A

*primary action of aldosterone is Na+ reabsorption (and K+secretion)
two primary stimuli for aldosterone release:
1) increased plasma [K+] -monitored by cells in the adrenal cortex
-aldosterone protects against ‘hyperkalemia’
2) decreased blood pressure -involves a complex pathway

355
Q

K+ homeostasis

A

*only a small proportion (2%) of the K+ in our bodies is in ECF
-mostly within cells
*yet important to maintain ECF K+concentrations in narrow range
-major determinant of resting membrane potential / excitability in excitable cells

hyperkalemia: reduced concentration gradient, more K+stays in cell

hypokalemia: greater concentration gradient, more K+leaves cell

356
Q

Renin-Angiotensin System (RAS)

A

1) angiotensingen - liver
2) renin - from kidneys (juxtaglomerular cells)
3) AgI (inactive)
4) ACE - in endothelium of blood vessels
5) AgII
6) aldosterone - made on demand in adrenal cortex
7) principal cells

357
Q

Activation of RAS

A

*activated in response to low blood pressure
*renin from kidney initiates pathway

358
Q

What stimulates renin release from granular cells of juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A
  1. granular (JG) cells themselves monitor blood pressure in afferent arteriole, release renin in response to decreased BP
  2. paracrine feedback from macula densa cells in distal tubule
    -decreased flow rate = increased renin release (and vice versa)
    3.s ympathetic pathways originating in cardio control centre in medulla terminate on granular cells
    -part of baroreceptor response to decreased BP
359
Q

RAS and Hypertension

A

blocking angiotensin II is of great interest for treatment of hypertension
-ACE inhibitors
-angiotensin receptor blockers (antagonists)
*fewer side effects than ACE inhibitors?
-direct renin inhibitors (recently approved)

360
Q

What mechanisms oppose AVP and aldosterone?

A

atrialnatriureticpeptide (ANP):
*produced in specialized myocardial cells, mostly in atria
*released when these atrial cells stretch more than normal

oppose RAS

361
Q

Behavourial mechanisms in Na+ and Water balance

A

1) replacing water = thirst
*sensors in hypothalamus
-thirst triggered by:
*hyper-osmolarity = shrinkage of osmoreceptors
*angiotensin II acting on hypothalamus
-act of drinking relieves thirst (i.e.before water is absorbed and osmolarity corrected)
2) replacing Na+:
*low Na+ triggers salt appetite
*linked to angiotensin II and aldosterone (and Na+balance)

362
Q

Hemmorage vs. sever dehydration

A

similarity:
*both trigger a ‘low volume alarm’
differences:
*dehydration involves loss of more water than solute
(sweat is hypotonic)
-hyperosmolarity
*hemorrhage involves equal loss of water and salt
-no hyperosmolarity

363
Q

Why is acid-base balance important?

A

*normal plasma pH 7.38-7.42, intracellular pH is similar
-fluids ‘outside’ the body can have pH outside this range
*GI tract, renal tubules, …
*H+concentration closely regulated
-affects tertiary structure of proteins -> enzyme function
*abnormal pH affects the nervous system
acidosis -neurons become less excitable; CNS depression
alkalosis -hyperexcitable; sensory changes, twitches, tetanus
*pH disturbances are associated with K+disturbances
-partly due to renal transporter, H+/K+-ATPase
*antiporter,acidosis -excretes H+, reabsorbs K+
alkalosis -vice versa

364
Q

What is the primary source of H+?

A

-dealing with CO2 produced during aerobic respiration is the main source of acid in the body
-reaction takes place in all cells and in plasma, but slowly
*occurs very rapidly in some cells due to high levels of carbonic anhydrase

CO2 + H2O <-> H2CO3 <-> HCO3- + H+

365
Q

Components of pH homeostasis

A

1) buffers
-combine with or release H+
-first line of defence
-cellular proteins, phosphate ions, hemoglobin, bicarbonate
2) ventilation
-rapid response, second line of defence
-corrects 75% of disturbances; can also cause them …
3) renal regulation
-slower, but highly effective
-directly by excreting or reabsorbing H+
-indirectly by changing in the rate at which HCO3-is reabsorbed or excreted

366
Q

How do these systems interact to maintain pH homeostasis?

A

-if plasma pH moves out of normal range, buffering has been overwhelmed, it is up to respiratory and renal mechanisms
-if primary cause respiratory, only renal mechanisms remain
-if primary cause metabolic, both respand renal mechanisms can be used

367
Q

Ventilation and pH homeostasis

A

hypoventilate:
*reaction shifts right, higher [H+] = acidosis
hyperventilate:
*reaction shifts left, lower [H+] = alkalosis

368
Q

Renal compensation for acidosis

A

2 general mechanisms:
1) excreting (vs. reabsorbing) H+
2) reabsorbing (vs. excerting) HCO3-

-excreted H+is buffered by NH3 and HPO42-in urine
-reabsorbed HCO3- helps buffer H+ in ECF

369
Q

Where in the nephron does acidosis compensation occur?

A

*huge amounts of bicarbonate are filtered at the glomerulus, that must be reabsorbed to maintain buffering capacity
-occurs in proximal tubule
*no transporters for HCO3-on apical membrane, so indirect method used:
HCO3- converted to CO2 to cross membrane then back to HCO3- before leaving the cell

*fine-tuning of acid-base balance carried out in distal nephron
-in intercalated cells(I cells), interspersed among principal cells (P cells)
*type A intercalated cells secrete H+and reabsorb bicarb
-deal with acidosis
*type B do the opposite, compensating for alkalosis

370
Q

Reabsorption of filtered HCO3- in proximal tubule

A

1) NHE secretes H+
2) H+ in filtrate plus filtered HCO3- forms CO2
3) CO2 diffuse into the cell
4) CO2 plus water forms HCO3- and H+
5) H+ secreted again
6) HCO3- is reabsorbed with Na+
7) glutamine metabolized to NH4+ and HCO3-
8) NH4+ secreted and excreted

371
Q

Compensation in the distal nephron

A

acidosis:
type A cells excrete H+; HCO3- and K+ are reabsorbed

alkalosis:
type b cells excrete HCO3- and K+; H+ is reabsorbed

372
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

not ventilating enough to remove enough CO2
-alveolar hypoventilation -> CO2 retention -> ↑plasma PCO2
-causes respiratory depression (drugs), asthma, fibrosis, severe pneumonia, other diseases affecting breathing

373
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

too much CO2 lost
= ↓ plasma PCO2
-excessive artificial ventilation …. (solution: turn down ventilator)
-anxiety-driven Hyperventilation …. (solution: bag breathing)

374
Q

What is metabolic acidosis?

A

increased acidity or loss of HCO3-
*H+input (dietary, metabolic) exceeds H+excretion
-lactic acidosis -anaerobic metabolism
-ketoacidosis -excessive breakdown of fats or certain AAs (type I diabetes, low carb diets)
-ingestion of certain toxins (methanol, ethylene glycol)
*loss of bicarb-diarrhea

375
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis?

A

decreased acidity due to loss of H+
*loss of H+ from stomach (excessive vomiting)
*ingestion of excessive bicarb-based antacids (TUMS)

376
Q

What is a hormone?

A

*chemical messenger secreted into the blood by specialized cells
*regulate long-term and/or on-going functions
-growth, development
-metabolism
-regulation of internal environment (temp, water balance, ions)
-reproduction
*hormone act on target cells by regulating …
-enzyme activity
-ion transport across a membrane
-gene expression protein synthesis

377
Q

Endocrinology

A

Arnold Adolph Berthold
*long known that removing testes from farm animals reduced masculine behaviour and phenotype
*Berthold wondered whether effects were due to neural connections with testes
experimental model: male chickens
-first experiment in endocrinology

378
Q

First experiment in “Applied” endocrinology

A

Charles-ÉdouardBrown-Séquard(1817-1894)
*claimed that injecting himself (age 74) with extracts of testes (bull, dog, guinea pig, monkey?) ground up in water caused …
-sexual rejuvenation, extension of life

379
Q

Classic approaches in experimental endocrinology

A

*ablate(remove suspected gland)
*replace(gland or extract of gland)
*create situation of excess
-isolate active substance characterize chemically
-through these classic approaches, ‘classic’ hormones were identified
major tool of endocrinologists, then and now:
biological assays (bioassays)
-biological systems (intact animals, tissue/cell cultures)
-introduce putative hormone -> monitor response

380
Q

Exocrine vs. endocrine glands

A

exocrine has an exit point, outside
endocrine has no connection with the surface, travels in blood

381
Q

Features of classic hormones

A

*secreted by a group of cells derived from epithelial tissue that form discrete glands
*secreted into blood
*travel to distance targets
*act at very low concentrations
-nanomolar(10-9), picomolar(10-12)

382
Q

Features of non-classic hormones

A

-not secreted by identifiable glands
-secreted by neurons, immune cells, endocrine cells of gut
-act locally -diffusion through ECF
-clearly identified as hormones in one context but also secreted within CNS, act as neurotransmitters

383
Q

Peptide/protein hormones

A

*by far the largest group
*3 amino acids -> larger peptides -> proteins -> glycoproteins
*t1/2(half life) in ECF brief (seconds to minutes)
-sustained responses require continuous release of hormone
*hydrophilic -bind to membrane receptors

384
Q

Hormone

A

chemical messenger secreted into the blood by specialized cells

385
Q

Endogenous

A

Generated from within

386
Q

Exogenous

A

Generated from outside

387
Q

Hormones regulate

A

long-term and/or on-going functions

388
Q

Arnold Berthold

A

Removed testes from farm animals

389
Q

How were classic hormones identified?

A

A system of excess was established in which isolated active substances were generated to characterize each substances chemically.

390
Q

What are the 3 major classical approaches to experimentation in endocrinology?

A
  • ablation
  • extract
  • induction of “excess” hormone
391
Q

Endocrine glands dump __ whereas exocrine glands dump _

A

Into blood vessels, onto surface

392
Q

At what concentrations are hormones effective?

A

Nanomolar or picomolar

393
Q

Target cells are defined as

A

having receptors for said hormone being examined

394
Q

Classic hormones are

A
  • secreted by a group of cells derived from epithelial tissue
  • secrete into blood
  • travel to distant targets
  • act at very low concentrations
395
Q

Non-classic hormones are

A

secreted by Neurons, immune cells and endocrine cells of gut

396
Q

What does the location of a receptor say about the chemistry of the hormone?

A

Implications of hydrophobicity/ philicity

397
Q

What are the 3 ways to classify hormones?

A
  • source
  • mechanism
  • chemistry
398
Q

Where do protein hormones act?

A

Membrane surface receptors

399
Q

How are hormones released?

A

via a secretory pathway

400
Q

What can break down hormones into inactive forms?

A

Non-specific proteases in ECF

401
Q

Preprohormone

A

A large precursor to hormones that is a product of the ribosome

402
Q

The preprohormone is cleaved to the prohormone as it moves from the

A

Endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus

403
Q

Peptide hormone-producing cells can be identified by

A

their caches of peptide hormones

404
Q

What receptor type do many protein hormones act by?

A

GPCR

405
Q

What two AAs are all amine hormones derived from?

A

Tryptophan and tyrosine

406
Q

What two classes of hormones do tyrosine yield?

A

Catecholamines and thyroid hormones

407
Q

What do all steroid hormones start as?

A

Cholesterol

408
Q

Are steroids stored?

A

No, they’re made on demand by increasing activity of enzymes.

409
Q

What can steroids be found circulating with

A

Circulate in blood while bound to proteins, either specific carriers or albumin

410
Q

Is cholesterol directly converted into a steroid?

A

No, there are numerous precursors between a steroid and cholesterol

411
Q

Steroid receptor proteins are known as __, which bind to __

A

ligand-activated transcription factors, steroid response elements

412
Q

Neurohormones are produced by the

A

hypothalamus

413
Q

Neurohormones are made by the __ but stored in the __

A

hypthalamus, posterior pituitary gland

414
Q

Prolactin, GH, TSH and ACTH are examples of

A

trophic hormones

415
Q

Hypothalamic hormones are

A

Releasing hormones

416
Q

Anterior pituitary hormones are

A

tropic hormones

417
Q

What are the 3 integrating centers of the feedback loops involving the hypothalamus-pituitary?

A
  • hypothalamus
  • anterior pituitary gland
  • endocrine target of pituitary hormone
418
Q

Hormones can be the feedback signal to the

A

hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary

419
Q

If there is very low or no hormone, there will be a __ in FSH and LH and __ steroid

A

increase, low

420
Q

Hormone interactions can be

A

Synergistic,
Permissive
Antagonistic

421
Q

Synergistic hormone interaction

A

combined effect is greater than the sum of individual effects of hormones

422
Q

Permissive hormone interaction

A

Hormone is required for a effect to occur but is not enough on its own for the full effect

423
Q

Antagonistic hormone interaction

A

One substance opposes the action of another

424
Q

Thyroid hormone is __ for the onset of puberty

A

permissive

425
Q

__ effect of blood glucose can be shown with glucagon, epinephrine and cortisol

A

Synergistic

426
Q

Insulin is an example of __

A

Antagonism

427
Q

Hypersecretion of hormones can result in

A

benign tumors or cancerous tumors of glands

428
Q

Hyposecretion has to deal with

A

the inability to produce a hormone

429
Q

The inability to produce a hormone (hyposecretion) can be due to

A

Mutations in genes that code for hormones or enzymes that produce said hormones,

atrophy of gland due to disease process

deficiency in iodine

430
Q

Exogenous hormones (exogenous androgen) can cause __ of the adrenal gland, such as testes

A

suppression

431
Q

Diabetes insipidus could be due to a mutation in

A

vasopressin receptor

432
Q

The ‘classic’ mechanism of action for steroids would be best described as

A

Driving transcription of particular genes leading to synthesis of proteins

433
Q

Thyrotropes, the cells in the anterior pituitary gland that secrete TSH, would be expected to express receptors for

A

Thyroxin (aka thyroid hormone, T4) and TRH

434
Q

Plasma concentrations of gonadotropins (LH, FSH) in a ‘neutered’ male cat (testes removed) would be expected to be

A

high

435
Q

Taking an exogenous thyroid hormone supplement would be expected to __ plasma levels of TSH and __ the size of the thyroid gland

A

decrease, decrease

436
Q

How is genetic (chromosomal) sex determined

A

By the presence of either 2 X chromosomes (female)
or 1 X and 1 Y (male)

437
Q

How many pairs of autosomes do humans have?

A

22 pairs

438
Q

At what point in maturity is chromosomal sex determined?

A

at fertilization
-female can only donate X
-male can donate X and Y

439
Q

Sexual differentiation begins with building _______ gonads

A

“indifferent”

440
Q

What are three steps to sexual differentiation?

A

-differentiate gonads down either male or female pathway
-build appropriate ductwork for internal transport of gametes
-build appropriate external genitalia for receipt/delivery of male gametes

441
Q

What is required to begin differentiation down either the male or female pathway?

A

-requires expression of master gene on the Y choromsome –> Sry gene

442
Q

What happens if you do not have the Sry gene?

A

you default to ovary

443
Q

Testes are differentiated from what components?

A

germ cell precursors plus two major somatic cell types: Laydig cells, Sertoli cells

444
Q

What two major somatic cell types are required for testes?

A

Leydig cells, sertoli cells

445
Q

Male “ductwork” is built from…

A

components of urinary tract (mesonephric duct)

446
Q

Female “ductwork” is built from…

A

components of paramesonephric duct

447
Q

Mesonephric duct is associated with (male/female)

A

male

448
Q

Paramesonephric duct is associated with (male/female)

A

female

449
Q

What is another name for the mesonephric duct

A

Wolffian duct

450
Q

What is another name for the paramesonephric duct?

A

Mullerian duct

451
Q

What hormones are needed to build appropriate “ductwork” for males?

A

-need testosterone from Leydig cells (to support male tract)
-need Anti-mullerian hormone (AMH) from Sertoli cells to regress Mullerian duct

452
Q

What is the function of testosterone in the development of appropriate “ductwork” in males. Where does it come from?

A

-from Leydig cells
-to support male tract

453
Q

What is the function of Anti-mullerian hormone (AMH) in the development of appropriate “ductwork in males”. Where does it come from?

A

-comes from Sertoli cells
-to regress Mullerian duct

454
Q

What is needed to build appropriate external genitalia in males?

A

-testosterone –> dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

455
Q

T/F in development, humans build two pairs of kidneys, one of which degenerates

A

F. Build THREE pairs of kidneys and TWO sets degenerate

456
Q

What ducts are formed in both sexes? How do they differ?

A

Each sex forms paramesonephric ducts –> but they are only retained in females

457
Q

The mesonephric duct in males forms from what?

A

primitive kidney

458
Q

The parallel ductwork formed in females is called…

A

paramesonephric duct

459
Q

Explain how urinary and reproductive systems are inter-related

A

-the early version of the kidney is called the pronephros and then stops growing (and later degenerates)
-the second set is is called the mesonephros and contains mesonephric ducts –> these are lost in females and retained in males
-similar idea in females but with para-mesonephric duct
-metanephros is the mature kidney that is retained

460
Q

What are the derivatives needed for development of male internal genitalia?

A

-Wolffian derivatives:
-epididymis
-vas (ductus) deferens
-accessory sex glands

461
Q

What are the derivatives needed for development of female internal genitalia?

A

Mullerian derivatives:
-oviducts (Fallopian tubes)
-uterus
-cervix
-upper vagina

462
Q

If you have built a “bipotential” gonad, germ cell precursors arrive and somatic cells organize around them. What next?

A

-if somatic cells in testes express Sry = testis
-if somatic cells do not express Sry = ovary

463
Q

What signalling is involved in reproductive development of males?

A

-testis leads to spermatogonia, Sertoli cells and Leydig cells
-Sertoli cells produce AMH = Mullerian duct regresses
-Leydig cells secrete testosterone = Wolffian duct retained + DHT = male genitalia

464
Q

What signalling is involved in reproductive development of females?

A

ovary leads to oogonia, granulosa cells, theca cells
-ovary –> oocytes
-granulosa cells = no AMH = mullerian duct retained + no androgen = female external genitalia
-theca cells = no T = Wolffian duct regresses

465
Q

What are some potential disorders of sexual differentiation?

A

-5-alpha-reductase in XY individuals
-21-hydroxylase in XX individual
-androgen receptor in XY individual

466
Q

What is the role of 21-hydroxylase?

A

converts progesterone to corticosterone and involved in the production of cortisol

467
Q

What is the role of 5-alpha-reductase?

A

converts testosterone to DHT

468
Q

What happens if there is a loss of function gene mutation in 5-alpha-reductase

A

-don’t have conversion of testosterone to DHT which means we don’t see male genitalia develop

469
Q

What happens if there is a loss of function gene mutation in 21-hydroxylase?

A

-won’t be able to produce cortisol = enlargement of adrenal
-leads to higher production of androgens (male hormones) which leads to masculinizing effects in women

470
Q

What happens if there is a loss of function mutation in an XY individual

A
  • androgen insensitivity syndrome which leads to intra-abdominal testes
471
Q

T/F the time line of germ cell/gamete development is very different in males vs females

A

T

472
Q

When does mitosis in stem cells start in females?

A

-stem cells = oogonia
-starts and ends in fetal life

473
Q

What is interesting about the number of oocytes females are born with?

A

females are born with all the oocytes they will ever have

474
Q

What happens to eggs that enter meiosis in the fetal ovary?

A

arrest in meiosis 1

475
Q

When is meiosis 1 completed? When is meiosis 2 completed?

A

1: when follicle/egg is selected for ovulation. Then meiotic arrest (again)
2: Meiosis II completed only if/when that oocyte is fertilized

476
Q

When does mitosis in male ‘stem’ cells (spermatogonia) begin?

A

at puberty

477
Q

When does meiosis get completed in spermatogonia

A

-complete meiosis and differentiation into functional sperm without arrests

478
Q

Unlike females, which are born with a limited number of eggs…

A

male germ cells undergo mitosis/meiosis throughout life

479
Q

Explain the stages of division as they pertain to female germ cells

A

-Germ cell = oogonium –> proliferates by mitosis (have 46 diploid chromosomes per cell) and differentiates to produce oogonia
-DNA replicates but no cell division –> meiosis 1 arrest until selected for ovulation = primary oocyte
-meiosis 1 occurs and we have formation of a polar body and a secondary oocyte (again arrested development, 23 chromosomes, duplicated)
-egg is released from ovary at ovulation
-if fertilized, undergoes meiosis 2, forms another polar body and a zygote

480
Q

Explain the stages of cell division as they apply to male germ cells

A

-At puberty, spermatogonium begin proliferating by mitosis (46 chromosomes per cell) to produce spermatogonia
-some spermatogonia differentiate to yield primary spermatocytes
-undergoes meisosis 1 to produce secondary spermatocytes
-undergo meiosis 2 to yield spermatids which develop into sperm and can fertilize an egg

481
Q

How many eggs are produced by one primary oocyte?

A

one egg

482
Q

How many sperm are produced by one primary spermatocyte

A

4 sperm

483
Q

How many polar bodies are produced during meiosis in females? What happens to them?

A
  1. They degenerate
484
Q

When do mitosing steps happen in the germ cells of males and females?

A

Females: from the beginning, but primary oocyte is arrested until ovulation
males: start mitosing at puberty

485
Q

What is the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis?

A

The interaction between the CNS, hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary in regulating gamete production in the gonads

486
Q

Describe the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (HPG) axis

A

-Internal and environmental stimuli are detected by the CNS
-stimulate hypothalamus to release gonadotropin-releasing hormone
-acts on anterior pituitary to release luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone
-LH acts on endocrine cells to produce steroids for gamete production
-FSH acts in gamete production

487
Q

What kind of feedback occurs in the HPG axis

A

hormones in anterior pituitary feed back to regulate release
-steroids produced in the HPG axix feed back to GnRH in hypothalamus and to the anterior pituitary

488
Q

Which hormones from the gonads feed back in the HPG axis?

A

-main hormones of testes: testosterone (androgen)
-main hormone of ovaries: estradiol (estrogen), progesterone (progestin)

489
Q

Name the classes that testosterone, estradiol and progesterone belong to

A

-testosterone (androgen)
-estradiol (estrogen)
-progesterone (progestin)

490
Q

Testosterone undergoes peripheral conversion to __________

A

DHT

491
Q

T/F All gonadal steroids mediate -ve feedback at hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

A

T (kind of). With exception of estradiol under certain conditions

492
Q

Under what conditions do we not see negative feedback in the HPG axis?

A

-sustained high levels of estradiol will cause massive “surge” release of LH/FSH = positive feedback

493
Q

What is a feature of testicular development in some species of mammals

A

testicular migration into scrotal sac

494
Q

Testicular migration into scrotal sac is dependent on….

A

androgen dependent

495
Q

In species where you see androgen-dependent testicular migration, normal spermatogenesis requires what conditions?

A

temperature 2-3 degrees celsius less than body temperature

496
Q

What do you call the condition where the testes fail to descend?

A

cryptorchidism

497
Q

Describe the anatomy of the testes

A

In the testes, have highly coiled seminiferous tubules –> progresses into epididymis and then the vas deferns

498
Q

At what phase of cell division are spermatogonia?

A

mitotic

499
Q

At what phase of division are primary spermatocytes

A

-has entered meiosis 1

500
Q

At what phase of division are secondary spermatocytes

A

-has entered meiosis 2

501
Q

What are spermatids

A

-haploid sperm that have completed meiosis but have not yet undergone cell remodelling

502
Q

What is the blood-testes barrier formed by?

A

-cells associated with the basal lamina and tight junctions between Sertoli cells

503
Q

How does spermatogenesis progress in the testes?

A

-near the basal lamina, have the spermatogonia
-going out from the basal lamina, have primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes, then spermatids and spermatozoa

504
Q

What does a spermatozoan look like (anatomy)?

A

-Have the head, midpiece and tail
-Head: contains nucleus, acrosome contains enzymes to aid fertilization
-Midpiece: contains mitochondrial spiral
-tail: made of microtubules

505
Q

What is the acrosome?

A

The portion of the head that contains enzymes to aid fertilization

506
Q

How long does it take to go from spermatogonium to release into the lumen of the tubule?

A

64 days (in humans)

507
Q

How long do spermatazoa travel in the epididymis?

A

12 days

508
Q

What cells are supported by FSH?

A

Sertoli cells

509
Q

What cells are supported by LH?

A

Leydig cells

510
Q

T/F LH pushes testosterone in the testes and has in-testes effects to help Sertoli cells

A

T

511
Q

testicular androgens exhibit negative feedback control of….

A

LH/FSH and GnRH

512
Q

What primary sex characteristics are influenced by testicular androgens (2)?

A

-development and maintenance of internal and external genitalia
-support of spermatogenesis

513
Q

What secondary sex characteristics are influenced by testicular androgens?

A

-protein synthesis –> muscle growth

514
Q

What are four effects of testicular androgens?

A

-negative feedback control of LH/FSH and GnRH
-primary sex characteristics
-secondary sex characteristics
-behaviour

515
Q

What is the main secreted steroid of testicular androgens?

A

testosterone –> but often converted in target tissue to DHT

516
Q

Why is testosterone converted to DHT?

A

2-3x higher affinity for androgen receptor

517
Q

What is DHT (vs. testosterone) required for (3)?

A

-differentiation of external genitalia during development
-development and support of accessory sex glands
-male pattern baldness, acne, facial hair

518
Q

Describe the anatomy of the female reproductive system

A

-have ovarian tubes ending in fimbriae that hover near the ovary
-ovarian tubes go to the uterus, lined by the endometrium
-cervix opens up into the vagina

519
Q

What is meant by “metrium”?

A

uterus

520
Q

What is meant by “endometrium”

A

inner lining of uterus

521
Q

What is the GI equivalent of endometrium?

A

glandular epithelium and lamina propria

522
Q

What is myometrium?

A

smooth muscle of uterus

523
Q

Where does the endometrium lie?

A

On top of the myometrium

524
Q

Explain the progression of primary follicles in the ovary?

A

-start out with primary follicles
-they progress into secondary follicles
-gets bigger and bigger until it ruptures and you have ovulated oocyte
-leftover somatic cells of the follicle will form into the corpus luteum which make progesterone –> process called luteinization
-in a non-preganant cycle, the corpus luteum will regress

525
Q

What do you call the process in which the corpus luteum is formed?

A

luteinization

526
Q

What do you call the regression of the corpus luteum in a non-pregnant cycle?

A

luteolysis

527
Q

What hormone do follicles give off?

A

estrogen

528
Q

What hormone does the corpus luteum give off?

A

progesterone

529
Q

Describe the layout of the tertiary follicle

A

-antrum is the inner chamber
-then layer of granulosa cells, the basal lamina and then the theca

530
Q

When does LH peak in the menstrual cycle?

A

-LH remains steady until ovulation where you see a big peak

531
Q

When does FSH peak in the menstrual cycle?

A

-decreases slightly during the follicular phase and then small peak during ovulation

532
Q

What are the three phases of the menstrual cycle?

A

-follicular phase
-ovulation
-luteal phase

533
Q

How do ovarian structures progress during the menstrual cycle?

A

follicle grows during follicular phase up until ovulation when the oocyte is released
-corpus luteum forms during luteal phase and (in a non-pregnant cycle) regresses

534
Q

How do ovarian hormone levels fluctuate during the menstrual cycle?

A

-estrogen increases up to a peak at ovulation (because follicle gives off estrogen)
-when corpus luteum forms, have surge in progesterone
don’t have to look at inhibin

535
Q

T/F You have about 50x more progesterone than estrogen

A

T

536
Q

Describe the progression of the uterine cycle during the menstrual cycle

A

During menses, endometrium sheds off and becomes thinnest. Then during proliferative phase it grows again
-Then enters secretory phase where it is secreting compounds that make it a good place for a baby to grow

537
Q

What causes menses?

A

When corpus luteum regresses, you have a steroid withdrawal that causes shedding of the endometrium

538
Q

What does the follicular phase begin with?

A

luteal regression that leads to low ovarian steroid = menses

539
Q

What happens in the ovary during the follicular phase?

A

-selected follicle begins to grow and secrete estrogen
-sustained exposure to high estrogen (low progesterone) causes massive release of gonadotropins

540
Q

What do you call the massive release of gonadotropins that occurs after sustained high exposure to high estrogen?

A

LH surge = ovulation

541
Q

What happens in the uterus during the follicular phase?

A

-part of endometrial lining shed due to steroid withdrawal = menses
-rising estrogen (from maturing follicle) stimulate regrowth of lining

542
Q

The regrowth of the endometrium occurs during which phase?

A

proliferative phase

543
Q

When does the luteal phase begin?

A

begins with LH surge, which triggers ovulation

544
Q

What happens in the ovary during the luteal phase (4)?

A

-oocyte escapes ovary, completes meiosis 1 in response to LH surge, then arrests again in meiosis 2
-somatic cells of ovulatory follicle transform into luteal cells =luteinization
-high ovarian steroids suppress gonadotropins, preventing growth of large follicles
-in the absence of pregnancy, luteal regression occurs after 12 days

545
Q

What signal causes the completion of meiosis 1 in females?

A

-surge in LH

546
Q

The transformation of somatic cells in the ovulatory follicle into luteal cells is called…

A

luteinization

547
Q

During luteinization you have the formation of what kind of structure?

A

-solid, progesterone secreting structure

548
Q

What prevents the growth of large follicles in the luteal phase?

A

-high ovarian steroids suppress gonadotropins

549
Q

What has to occur for luteal regression to occur?

A

-absence of pregnancy

550
Q

What occurs in the uterus during the luteal phase?

A

-under influence of progesterone and estrogen, uterus continues to prepare for pregnancy
-luteal regression leads to steroid withdrawal and menses

551
Q

The preparation of the uterus for pregnancy occurs during which phase?

A

secretory phase

551
Q

Recap the fertilization, early cleavage and implantation process (5 steps)

A
  1. ovulation
  2. day 1: fertilization
  3. Days 2-4: early cleavage stages
  4. Day 4-5: Blastocyte reaches uterus
  5. Days 5-9: Blastocyte implants
552
Q

What are the first differentiated cell types in the mammalian embryo?

A

inner cell mass and trophectoderm

553
Q

What gives rise to the embryo proper?

A

inner cell mass

554
Q

What gives rise to all extra-embryonic membranes?

A

trophectoderm (such as placenta)

555
Q

What happens to the sperm as it travels through the female tract?

A

-undergoes changes as it moves through vagina–> cervix –> uterus –> oviduct

556
Q

What has to happen once the sperm arrives at the oocyte?

A

-must penetrate layer of granulosa cells and glycoprotein layer (zona pellucida)

557
Q

How is the sperm able to penetrate the layer of granulosa cells and the zona pellucida?

A

assisted by enzymes released from acrosomal cap

558
Q

What stage is the oocyte at prior to fertilization?

A

-it has completed meiosis I (extruded polar body) and arrested part way through meiosis II

558
Q

What happens once the membranes of the sperm and oocyte fuse?

A

fusion of membrane activates oocyte, triggering completion of meiosis II, closely followed by syngamy with sperm and preparation for the first mitotic division

559
Q

Once the sperm and oocyte fuse, you have re-establishment of _____

A

diploidy

560
Q

What does the baby look like near the end of the first trimester?

A

-floating in amniotic fluid which is held by the amnion and placenta

561
Q

What is parturition?

A

The act of giving birth

562
Q

What is “ripening”

A

cervical softening

563
Q

What are the four steps of parturition?

A

-cervical softening
-initiation of rhythmic uterine contractions
-delivery of the baby
-expulsion of the placenta

564
Q

Parturtion is controlled by what?

A

sequential cascade of hormones

565
Q

T/F there is considerable variation among species of mammals in the sequential cascade of hormones

A

T

566
Q

What is a consistent finding across mammals in terms of parturtion?

A

consistent finding is positive feedback/neuroendocrine reflex involving oxytocin

567
Q

Explain how labour and positive feedback work?

A

-cervical stretch occurs
-baby drops lower in uterus to initiate labor
-stimulates oxytocin release from the posterioir pituitary which causes uterine contractions
-pushes baby against the cervix causing cervical stretch