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Embryology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

0
Q

What is mesenchyme

A

Meshwork of loosely organized embryonic connective tissue

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1
Q

What is the dividing somite made up of and what does this give rise to

A

Mesodermal cells

Mesenchyme

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2
Q

What does condensation of mesenchyme give rise to

A

Formation of bone models

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3
Q

What are the 2 types of bone formation from the sclerotome

A

Cartilage bones

Membrane bones

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4
Q

Characteristic of cartilage bones

A

Replace provisional cartilage

Remaining bones of the body
face and cranial roof are membrane bones

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5
Q

Characteristics of membrane bones

A

Make up the face and cranial roof

Develop from skeletal mesenchyme

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6
Q

Why is the cartilage stage of bone development important

A

Cartilage bone can grow rapidly to match the growth of the fetus

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7
Q

During the 8th week of development mesenchyme condenses and forms

A

Chondrification centers

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8
Q

What is the most common type of cartilage that also makes up most of the embryonic skeleton

A

Hyaline

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9
Q

In intramembranous ossification where osteoid tissue is being deposited will become

A

Ossification centers

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10
Q

What is the neurochondrocranium

A

Cartilaginous base of the neurocranium and the skull

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11
Q

What is in the neurochondrocranium at 6 weeks

A

Two pairs of nasals
One pair of orbitals
One pair of temporals

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12
Q

What is the neuromembranocranium

A

Forms the sides and the roof of the neurocranium

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13
Q

What “bones” are in the neuromembranocranium

A

Two parietals

Two frontals

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14
Q

With the development of the neurochondrocranium there are large fibrous areas separating the bones of the skull known as

A

Fontanells and sutures

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15
Q

What are sutures

A

Connective tissue membranes separating the bones of the skull during fetal development

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16
Q

What are fontanells

A

Membrane covering the large fibrous areas at the angle of bones

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17
Q

Which fontanel is the largest and when does it close

A

Anterior

By the end of the second year

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18
Q

When do the posterior and anterolateral fontanels close

A

2-3 months

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19
Q

When does the posterolateral fontanel close

A

End of first year

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20
Q

What does the 1st visceral arch form

A

Palate and maxilla
Meckels cartilage
Incus and malleus

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21
Q

What does the 2nd visceral arch form

A

Stapes
Cranial half of the hyoid
Lesser horn

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22
Q

What does the 3rd visceral arch form

A

Caudal half of the hyoid

Greater horn

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23
Q

What do the 4th and 6th arches form

A

Cartilages of the larynx

no ossification occurs here

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24
Q

The vertebral column develops from

A

Somite mesenchyme sclerotome

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25
Q

The vertebral column develops caudal part______ packed area, cranial part_______ packed area

A

Densely (sclerotome proliferates)

Loosely

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26
Q

Intersegmental development give the vertebrae __________&__________

A

Muscle attachment

Nerve emergence

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27
Q

When does chondrification begin in the cranial vertebrae

A

7th week then continues down the lower levels

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28
Q

Describe the centrum of the vertebral development

A
  • cartilaginous vertebrae
  • replaces notochord
  • chondrification centers
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29
Q

Describe the vertebral arches of the vertebral development

A
  • on each side there is a medial growth around the neural tube
  • one chondrification in each arch
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30
Q

When do the vertebral arches unite to form the spinous process

A

Not until after the 3 month after birth

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31
Q

When does the ossification of the vertebrae begin______, during the 5th month all ossification centers are present except for __________.

A

9 weeks

Sacral and coccyx regions

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32
Q

How many ossification centers are there in the vertebrae, where are they ?

A

3

One in the Centrum
One in each half of the vertebral arch

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33
Q

How many ossification Centers are there in the vertebrae at puberty, where are they

A

5

One at tip of spinous process
One at each tip of transverse process (2)
Two on the rim of the epiphyseal center

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34
Q

Mesenchymeal bands of the sternum are

A

Sternal bars

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35
Q

Durning the 6th week the sternum ______

A

Unites with the end of ribs to fuse with each other

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36
Q

Smaller cartilages anterior to the sternal bars fuse with the sternum making the

A

Manubrium

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37
Q

What bone ossifies before any other bone in the body

A

Clavicle

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38
Q

What is achondroplasia

A

Slow growth of cartilage and bone ossification

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39
Q 
Characteristics of achondroplasia syndrome 
Growth 
Craniofacial
Skeletal 
Muscle
Etiology
A
  • small stature
  • megolacephaly (large face head)
  • lumbar lordosis, short tubular bones, thoracolumbar kyphosis
  • mild hypotonia
  • autosomal dominant
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40
Q

What is cleidocranial dysostosis

A
  • clavicle agenesis
  • skull disorders
  • jaw disorders
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41
Q

Spina bifida , occulta is

A

Limited to the skeletal components

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42
Q

Spina bifida, cystica is

A

Involvement of the meninges

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43
Q

Spina bifida ( cystica) involving the meninges only is called

A

Meningocoele

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44
Q

Spina bifida ( cystica) involving the meninges and spinal cord is called

A

meningomyelocoele

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45
Q

What is congenital scoliosis

A
  • abnormal curvature of the spine

- you can have numerical variations, morphological variations, or both

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46
Q

What is craniostenosis

A
  • premature closures of the sutures of the skull

- brain and eye deformities

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47
Q

What is oxycephaly

A

All sutures close prematurely ( symmetrical)

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48
Q

What is plagiocephaly

A

Happens when sutures close asymmetrically

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49
Q

What is scaphocephly

A

When sagital sutures close prematurely

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50
Q

What is acrocephaly (brachycephaly)

A

Coronal sutures are involved.

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51
Q

What are cervical ribs and what is the chance of having them

A

Rib attached to 7th cervical vertebrae

32% 1:500

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52
Q

What is the chance of having lumbar ribs

A

30%

1:500

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53
Q

What is amelia and what is the etiology

A

Absence of limbs

Environmental factors

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54
Q

What is phocomelia and what is the etiology

A

Absence or reduction of the proximal part of the limb

Environmental factors

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55
Q

What is sympodia and what is the etiology

A

Monopodia
Hypoplasia and fusion of the lower limbs
Spontaneous

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56
Q

What is dichiria and what is the etiology

A

Duplication of the distal parts of Limbs

Autosomal dominate

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57
Q

What is polydactyly and what is the etiology

A

Presence of extra digits

Autosomal dominate

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58
Q

What is syndactyly and what is the etiology

A

Fusion of the digits

Autosomal dominate

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59
Q

What is brachydactyly and what is the etiology

A

Shortness of digits

Autosomal dominate

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60
Q

What is Hyperphalangism and what is the etiology

A

Long digits with extra phalanges.

Autosomal dominate

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61
Q

What are the somite derivatives

A 
Dermamyotome
      -Dermatome Skin 
      -Myotome Muscles
Sclerotome
      -Skeleton
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62
Q

What are Small dorsal division of the skeletal muscles

A

epimere or epiaxial

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63
Q

What is the large ventral division of the skeletal muscles

A

hypomere or hypaxial

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64
Q

What do epimers form

A

Extensor muscles of the vertebral column

Dorsal primary rami *

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65
Q

What do hypomers give rise to

A

Muscles of the limbs and body wall

Ventral primary rami *

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66
Q

What are 2 examples of muscle changes in directions

A

Migration of muscle - latissimus dorsi

Fusion of successive myotomes- rectus abdominis

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67
Q

What forms ligaments

A

Degeneration of myotomes

Ex tensor fascia lata

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68
Q

What is a trait of the innervation of muscle

A

Muscles retain the same innervation even as they change direction

69
Q

How do ribs affect the innervation of muscles

A

The ribs cause the muscles in the wall ofthe thorax to maintain their segments.

70
Q

What is in the first branch of the branchial/pharyngeal arches

A

Muscles of mastification

71
Q

What is in the second arch of the branchial/ pharyngeal arches

A

The facial muscles

72
Q

What are in the 4th and 6th arch of the branchial/ pharyngeal arches

A

Laryngeal

73
Q

What is the smooth muscle of the iris derived from

A

Neuroectoderm

74
Q

What is a congenital malformation usually associated with

A

Other defects such as skeletal

75
Q

The congenital malformation of which muscle is always bilateral

A

Abdominal muscles

76
Q

What is prune belly

A

Distended abdomens from aplasia of the abdominal musculature

77
Q

What is torticollis, what causes it, what side does it affect, ratio of male to females, etiology

A
  • The sternocleidomastoid (SCM) is injuredduring development
  • position in the uterus, muscle development (different from birth injury)
  • affects both sides equally
  • equally prevalent in males and females
  • autosomal dominate gene
78
Q

What is happens In congenital torticollis

A

SCM becomes fibrous

79
Q

Urinary and genital system develop from

A

Intermediate mesoderm

80
Q

Urinary and genital system extends along the paraxial mesoderm From the ______ to _______ somite level

A

7th

28th

81
Q

What is Nephrogenic mass andurogenital ridge

A
  • longitudinal ridge develops from the intermediate mesoderm
  • along 7th to 28th somite level
82
Q

What is the longitudinal elevation of the mesoderm

A

Urogenital ridge

83
Q

What are nephratomes

A
  • segments

- nephratomes between 7-14 levels are sitting next to somites

84
Q

What does the Nephrogenic cordgenital ridge give rise to

A

Urinary systems- nephrogenic cord

Genital system- genital ridge

85
Q

What are the 3 distinct types of kidneys

A

Pronephroi
Mesonephroi
Metanephroi

86
Q

What are open tubules of the kidneys

A
  • external glomerulus
  • drain into the coleum
  • neither glomerulus or tubules associated with each other
87
Q

What are closed tubules of the kindness

A
  • internal glomerulus
  • s shaped tubules
  • tubules and glomerulus associated with each other
88
Q

What is the Pronephroi, where does it develop and when does it degenerate, how many pairs of tubes does it have

A
  • 1st kidney, rudimentary, analogous to kidney in fishes
  • 7-10th somite level, head of the kidney, open tubules with external glomeruli
  • 4th week
  • 4
89
Q

What is the Mesonephroi, where is it located, how many pairs of tubules, tubules are _____, degenerates how

A
  • 2nd kidney, well developed and function briefly, analogous to amphibians and adult fish
  • 10-26th somite level
  • 38 pairs of tubules
  • s shaped, closed, internal glomerulus
  • degenerate at cranial end more are added to caudal end
90
Q

What are the differences in the Mesonephric tubules of males and females

A

In males some of the tubules and duct remain

In females none remains

91
Q

What is the Metanephroi kidney, when does it develop, where does it develop, where is it located, and what are the tubules like

A
  • permanent kidneys
  • 5 th week
  • develops from 2 sources
    Ureteric bud
    Metaphorogenic blastema
  • Located lateral to themesonephric duct-26 to 28th somite
  • branched
92
Q

What is the duct system like in the Metanephroi kidney

A

collecting ducts, renal pelvis, ureter

ureteric bud at 28th somite level

93
Q

What is the flat end of the bud in the Metanephroi kidney

A

Renal pelvis

94
Q

What develops from the renal pelvis how are they branche

A

Major and minor calyces

Branching of the minor calyces produce the collecting duct system of the kidneys

95
Q

The Metanephroi kidney has a _______ glomerulus and ______ tubules.

A

Internal

Closed

96
Q

How many nephrons does each Metanephroi kidney have

A

2 million

97
Q

What are kidneys like in the fetus, what do they develop into later

A

Loubulated

Smooth

98
Q

What is the alantosis continuous with what does it become and what is it in the fetus , in the a adult

A
  • continuous with bladder
  • becomes vestigial
  • urachus
  • median umbilical ligament
99
Q

What is bilateral renal agenesis

A
  • compatible with inter-uterine life
  • not compatible with post natal life
  • potter syndrome
100
Q

What is unilateral renal agenesis

A
  • absence of one kidney

- compatible with life

101
Q

Type 1 Congenital Cystic Kidney

A
  • found in infants
  • early death, unless postnatal transplant and dialysis
  • giant kidneys, sponge kidneys
  • symmetrically enlarged
102
Q

What is type 2 Congenital Cystic Kidney

A
  • variable in size and shape
  • unilateral
  • cyst grow larger with age
103
Q

What is type 3 Congenital Cystic Kidney

A
  • normal and abnormal tissue
  • both kidneys are involved
  • cyst are small at birth
  • kidneys are enlarged - cyst
  • found in trisomy 13-15, 18,21,22
104
Q

What is type 4 Congenital Cystic Kidney

A
  • urethral obstruction
  • cyst found in collecting tubules
  • If severe neonatal/fetal deat
  • if mild surgery repair
105
Q

Type 5 Congenital Cystic Kidney

A
  • could see in clinic
  • manifest in adult
  • present before birth
    (Onset 40 years old death 50 if not treated)
  • low back pain
  • kidney infections
106
Q

When does the reproductive system develop, when is sex able to be determined

A
  • 5-6 week ( indifferent stage)

- 8th week

107
Q

What are the areas of development of the gonads

A
  • colemic epithellium
  • inner mesenchyme tissue
  • primordial germ cells
  • reproductive system
108
Q

What is the genital ridge, what is it covered by and what makes up the inner mass

A
  • development of cells cause ridge to budge in coleum
  • coleum epithellium
  • mesenchyme
109
Q

What are the primary sex cords

A
  • cells within the genital ridge arrange themselves into cords
  • cords grown into underlying mesenchyme
  • become primary sex cords
110
Q

The indifferent gonad has a _______ and __________

A

Cortex

Medulla

111
Q

Cortex is the _____ layer in indifferent gonads, in males it____, in females it _______

A
  • outer layer
  • regresses
  • develops
112
Q

Medulla is the _______ layer in indifferent gonads, in males the medulla _______, in females it ________

A

Inner
Develops
Regresses

113
Q

What ducts play an important role in the male reproductive system

A

Mesonephric ducts (kidneys)

Form the: Epididymis,Ductus deferens,Ejaculatory duct, Cranial part-efferent ducts

114
Q

Describe the paramesonephric duct in females

A
  • develop on each side of body
  • open into coleum
  • passes caudally along the side of themesonephric duct
  • Caudal end fuse to form Y shape*
  • Uterovaginal –uterus and vagina*
115
Q

The genitalia also pass through what stage

A

Indifferent stage

116
Q

What is Ovarian Hypoplasia(Turner’s

Syndrome)

A 
Ovaries small in size 
Poor breast development  
Small uterus 
Some ovarian function 
Can be unilateral or bilateral– ovary development
117
Q

What is possible with unilateral ovarian hypoplasia

A

Can give birth to a normal infant

118
Q

What is Bilateral Hypoplasia

A

-Contains very few primordial germ cells
- migrate from yolk sac
Few reach genital ridges
Mothers hormones stimulates the fetus cells
- six month after birth no oocyte

119
Q

What is Pure Gonadal Dysgenesis

A

Germ cells do not migrate from the yolk sac.

120
Q

What is Androgen Insensitivity or Testicular Feminization Syndrome

A

Looks like a normal femal, has secondary sex characteristics, but has male testes in the inguinal or abdominal area

121
Q

What is Adrenogenital syndrome

A

(excessive androgen production from the adrenals)

  • Genetic females 46,XX
  • Masculinization of external genitalia result of high levels of androgens-adrenal cortex
  • Chromatin positive
  • Ovaries, Uterus, uterine tubes
122
Q

What is Hypospadias

A
  • Urethral opening onthe ventral side of the penis instead of the tip
  • Glandular ,Penile ,Penoscrotal ,Perineal
123
Q

What is Epispadias

A

-Urethral opening on the dorsal side of the penis instead of the tip

124
Q

When does the cardiovascular system develop

A

End of third week

125
Q

What makes up the primitive vascular system

A
  • vitelline veins
  • umbilical veins
  • Cardinal veins
126
Q

What are vitelline veins

A

Returns blood from the yolk sac

127
Q

What are umbilical veins

A

Brings blood from chorion (placenta)

128
Q

What is the cardinal veins

A

Returns blood from body

129
Q

Describe the development of the heart

A

Two thin walled endothelial tubes

Continuation of the first aortic arches

Eventually fuses to form asingle tube

130
Q

Describe the heart shape

A

The bulbus and ventricle grow faster then the rest of the heart Giving the heart an S shape Atrium started at the lower end of the heart with the growth end up in the upper portionof the heart

131
Q

How does the atrial septa develop

A

Septum Primum- Sickle shaped crest –roof of atrium

Ostium Primum- openingbetween septum primum and endocardial cushion

Ostium Secundum- opening in the septum primum

Septum Secundum- right atrium incorporates part ofthe sinus a new septum appears.

Oval Foramen- opening in the septum secundum

132
Q

What is necessary for the communication between the right and left atria

A

Foramen ovals

133
Q

What happens if the interatrial shunt closes prenatal

A

It is incompatible with fetal life

134
Q

What is probe patency of the oval foramen

A

In 25% of the population when the septum primum and septum

secundum do not fuse and theoval foramen does not close

135
Q

How does the ventricle septum develop

A

interventricular septum does not grow as fast as the tissue surrounding the narrow strip.

Walls expand on each side of the interventricular septum*

136
Q

Describe the contraction of the fetal heart, 22nd day and 28-30th day

A

Simple ebb and flow type of circulation, myogenic (muscle) origin

unidirectional blood flow with contractions ofthe heart tube

137
Q

Oxygenated blood enters fetus from placenta via _______.Deoxygenated blood leaves the fetal body via _______

A

Veins

Arteries

138
Q

What is etopic cordis

A

Heart is located through the sternal fissure
◦ Either into the neck
◦ Or through a diaphragmatic hernia

(Limited life expectancy without surgery )

139
Q

What is dextra cardia

A

Heart is located in the right hemithorax
Dextracardia can occur alone but usually is associated with other anomalies ( ex: Dextracardia with complete situs inversus)

140
Q

What is atrial septal defect ASD

A

Small patent foramen ovale to complete absence of the interatrial septum

Can be combined with other cardiac anomalies

If not severe can be tolerated into adult life.

Becomes an important lesion in late adulthood

Loud systolic murmur

141
Q

What is ventricular septal defect VSD

A

Uncomplicated VSD is considered harmless

Harsh systolic murmur – Erb’s point

With no cyanosis – bluing around the mouth, fingers and toes

VSD – 6:10,000

Can be spontaneous closure

142
Q

What is tetralogy of Fallon

A 
1880 Fallot described the syndrome: 
◦ 1. pulmonary stenosis 
◦ 2. ventricular septal defect 
◦ 3. overriding aorta 
◦ 4.right ventricular hypertrophy 
Life expectancy is approximately 12 years – without surgery*** 
Rubella infection can result in tetralogy  
Symptoms: 
◦ Cyanosis 
◦ Paroxysmal dyspnea with exertion
143
Q

What are the positional changes of the spinal cords during the 3 and 6 month of development, at birth and adult.

A
  • Cord extends entire length of embryo
  • End of spinal cord level of 1st sacral vertebra
  • Level of 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebra
  • Lower end of the first lumbar vertebra
144
Q

What are the primary brain vesicles

A

Forebrain or Prosencephalon

Midbrain or Mesencephalon

Hindbrain or Rhombencephalon

145
Q

What are the secondary brain vesicles

A

Forebrain

Hindbrain

146
Q

What does the forebrain divide into

A

Telencephalon or cerebrum

Diencephalon

147
Q

What does the hind brain divide into

A

Metencephalon
▪ Pons
▪ Cerebellum
▪ Myelencephalon or medulla

148
Q

What are the 3 flexures of the brain

A

Cephalic
Cervical
Pontine flexure

149
Q

What is in the cephalon flexure

A

Midbrain or Mesencephalon

External bending ,Flexure causes the end of the head to bend ventrally

150
Q

What is in the cervical flexure

A

Junction of the myelencephalon and spinal cord

External bending

151
Q

What is in the pontine flexure

A

Metencephalon and myelencephalon

Internal bending

152
Q

What are category A drugs

A

Drugs for which studies have not shown a risk to the fetus.

153
Q

What are category B drugs

A

Drugs with no human studies but animal studies have shown an effect on the fetus

154
Q

What are category C drugs

A

Drug studies are inadequate in both humans and animals toshow an effect to the fetus.

155
Q

What are category D drugs

A

Drugs can definitely cause harm to the fetus but benefits the mother

156
Q

What are category X drugs

A

Drugs that cause harmto the fetus with no benefit to the mother

157
Q

What is any agent that can produce a congenital malformation

A

Teratogen

158
Q

What is a sign

A

Objective evidence of a disease

159
Q

What is a symptom

A

Subjective evidence of a disease

160
Q

What is a syndrome

A

Set of symptoms and signs which occur together

161
Q

What is an etiology

A

Study of the cause of the disease

162
Q

What are the critical periods for development for the nervous system, caradiac, ears, eyes and limbs

A 
Nervous systems (CNS,ANS,PNS) -3rd week-7th week  
Cardiac 4th week – 6th week 
Ears 4th week- 8th week 
Eyes 4th week- 8th week 
Limbs 4th week -7th week
163
Q

What are nondisjunctional chromosomal factors

A

Chromosomal disorders result from numerical abnormalities

Occurs during to cell division

164
Q

What is trisomy 21

A

47(21)XX or XY*
Hypotonia, Poor Moro reflex, flat facial profile
Hyper flexion of joints**

Downs syndrome
1:800 of conceptions (not all are live births)
Small stature, hyper flexed joints, hypotonia
Intellectual disability (Mental retardation)
Microcephaly, palpebralfissure, inner epicanthus
Simian crease, ulnar loops on all fingers

165
Q

What is trisomy 18

A

47 (18) XX or XY
Severe intellectual disability
Flexion deformation of fingers, overlapping fingers, rocker bottom feet
VSD, ASD, PDA

166
Q

What is trisomy with Y

A 
47,XXY  male*** 
 Klinefelter's syndrome*** 
1:500 
Tall stature 
Normal development  
IQ average 
Long legs compared tothe trunk 
Cardiac normal 
Cryptorchism, hypogonadism 
Chromatin positive
167
Q

What is modified Klinefelters

A 
47,XYY*** 
Trisomy Y
1:1000 males Tall stature 
Normal IQ 
Hypertelorism – eyes set wide apart 
Long legs** 
Scanty facial hair 
Cryptorchism – testesundescended  
Chromatin negative
168
Q

What is deletion of part 5

A

46(5p-)XX or XY**
Cri-du-chat or cry of the cat syndrome***
Mental retardation, low birth weight
High pitched cat like cry in infancy 100%
Hypotonia ,Microcephaly, Hypertelorism ,Simian crease, short metacarpals ,Variable cardiac defects ,Renal agenesis ,Premature graying of hair, Inguinal hernia,Frequent survival to adulthood

169
Q

What are mechanisms of damage

A
  • Produce free radicals.
  • Break chemical bonds.
  • Produce new chemical bonds and cross-linkage between. macromolecules.
  • Damage molecules that regulate vital cellprocesses. (DNA, RNA, proteins).
170
Q

What are the risk to the fetus during first, second and third trimester

A

First trimester – fetus most sensitive- can cause death.
Second trimester – major organs most sensitive –malformations.
Third trimester – cell population depleted – leukemia. **

Embryology (1 decks)

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