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Radiation Therapy > *******Final Exam [4621]******** > Flashcards

*******Final Exam [4621]******** Flashcards

1
Q

In which anatomical location are primary bone lesions most common?

A

Lower extremity

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2
Q

In which anatomical location are metastatic bone lesions most common?

A

Spine

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3
Q

In which anatomical location are soft tissue sarcomas most common?

A

Lower extremity

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4
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor for osteosarcoma?

A

Presence of metastatic disease

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5
Q

What type of bone marrow is contained in the diaphysis of long bones?

A

Yellow

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6
Q

What is the most common form of primary bone cancer?

A

Osteosarcoma

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7
Q

What is the most common site of metastasis from a primary bone cancer?

A

Lung

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most common metastatic site in STS?

A

Lung

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9
Q

When used with radiation therapy, which of the following reduces the loss of function and improves overall control?

A

Limb-sparing surgery

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10
Q

All except which of the following are examples of primary bone tumors?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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11
Q

Which of the following has the highest incidence of bone tumors?

A

Metastatic bone lesions

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12
Q

Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of patients with bone tumors?

A

Pain

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13
Q

The main shaft of a typical long bone is termed the __________.

A

diaphysis

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14
Q

The most common symptom associated with STS is __________________.

A

palpable and painless mass

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15
Q

A mantle field is used to treat which type of cancer?

A

Hodgkin’s disease (HD)

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16
Q

In what general anatomical location is Waldeyer ring located?

A

Mouth

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17
Q

The spleen is commonly associated with which of the following blood cell types?

A

Red blood cells

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18
Q

The thymus is commonly associated with which of the following blood cell types?

A

T-cell lymphocytes

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19
Q

The abdominal para-aortic treatment portal may include the________.

A

Spleen

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20
Q

What is the standard dose delivered for the treatment of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL)?

A

3000 to 4500 cGy

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21
Q

What landmark is typically used to determine the lower border of the mantle field?

A

T10

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22
Q

What landmark is typically used to determine the lower border of the abdominal portion of the inverted-Y field?

A

L4-5

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23
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of HD?

A

Painless mass

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24
Q

Which treatment field for HD includes the inguinal lymph node chain?

A

Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

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25
Q

Which treatment field for HD includes the axillary lymph node chain?

A

Mantle

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26
Q

Which treatment field for HD includes the cervical lymph node chain?

A

Mantle

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27
Q

Which treatment field for HD includes the para-aortic lymph node chain?

A

Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)

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28
Q

Which treatment field for HD includes the retroperitoneal lymph node chain?

A

Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

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29
Q

Which treatment field for HD includes the iliac lymph node chain?

A

Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

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30
Q

Which treatment field for HD includes the mediastinal lymph node chain?

A

Mantle

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31
Q

Which of the following organs is most closely associated with the lymphatic system?

A

Spleen

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32
Q

Which of the following is not a B symptom?

A

Diarrhea

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33
Q

Today, the standard treatment for early stage Hodgkin lymphoma is combination chemotherapy and irradiation of the involved field to a dose of ____ Gy.

A

36

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34
Q

Cancer of which of the following endocrine glands has the highest incidence rate?

A

Thyroid

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35
Q

Cancer of which of the following endocrine glands is the most deadly?

A

Thyroid

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36
Q

In which gland is oxytocin produced?

A

Pituitary

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37
Q

In which gland is prolactin (PRL) produced?

A

Pituitary

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38
Q

In which gland is epinephrine produced?

A

Adrenal

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39
Q

In which gland is T4 produced?

A

Thyroid

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40
Q

Radioactive iodine is used to treat cancers of which of the following endocrine glands?

A

Thyroid

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41
Q

Radiation is a known risk factor for cancers of which of the following endocrine glands?

A

Thyroid

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42
Q

The pituitary gland is located within what portion of the sphenoid bone?

A

Sella turcica

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43
Q

What is the most common form of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary

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44
Q

Which of the following is the primary thyroid tumor with the worst prognosis?

A

Anaplastic

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45
Q

Osteosarcomas are most commonly found in the _____________.

A

distal femur

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46
Q

Malignant plasma cells tumors are known as which of the following?

A

multiple myeloma

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47
Q

The rationale for leaving a 1-3cm strip of skin and soft tissue rather than total circumferential irradiation of an extremity being treated for STS includes:

A

avoids future excessive fibrosis and edema

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48
Q

The loss of differentiation is known as:

A

anaplasia

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49
Q

Which of the following is linked to HIV?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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50
Q

A system of determining how much a cancer has spread from its original site is:

A

staging

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51
Q

A malignant tumor of fat would be called a(n):

A

liposarcoma

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52
Q

A malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin would be called a(n):

A

sarcoma

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53
Q

The most common histologic subtype of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:

A

nodular sclerosing

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54
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma tends to predominately spread:

A

via lymphatic route in a contiguous manner

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55
Q

The endocrine gland that is approximately the size of a pea and located at the base of the brain is the

A

pituitary

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56
Q

The parathyroid glands are located

A

in the posterior aspects of the lobes of the thyroid gland

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57
Q

The endocrine gland, located above each kidney and divided into portions called the medulla and cortex, is the

A

adrenal gland

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58
Q

Which of the following modalities is used in treatment of microadenomas?

A

surgery

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59
Q

Which leukemia subtype is most common in children ?

A

ALL

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60
Q

What is considered the treatment of choice for all leukemias?

A

Chemotherapy

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61
Q

Which of the following is not a histologic subtype of leukemia?

A

CAL

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62
Q

Which of the following chemotherapy regimen(s) is/are used to treat Hodgkin’s disease? (Choose all that apply)
I. CHOP
II. MOPP
III. ABVD

A

II

III

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63
Q

tissue of origin of smooth muscle

A

leiomyosarcoma

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64
Q

tissue of origin of lymph vessels

A

angiosarcoma

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65
Q

tissue of origin is peripheral nerves

A

malignant schwannoma

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66
Q

tissue of origin of autonomic ganglia

A

neuroblastoma

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67
Q

tissue of origin of fibrous tissue

A

fibrosarcoma

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68
Q

tissue of origin cartilage

A

chondrasarcoma

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69
Q

tissue of origin of blood vessels

A

hemangiosarcoma

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70
Q

tissue of origin striated muscle

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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71
Q

tissue of origin adipose tissue

A

liposarcoma

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72
Q

The papillae that separate the anterior 2/3 of the tongue from the posterior 1/3 is/are:

A

circumvallate

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73
Q

What is the most common symptom associated with childhood brain tumors in the cerebellum?

A

ataxia

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74
Q

The tonsils are located in the hypopharynx.

A

False

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75
Q

The node of Rouviere is also called the:

A

lateral retropharyngeal

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76
Q

Painful swallowing is also called:

A

odynophagia

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77
Q

Prognosis for cancer of the vocal cords is favorable due to:

A

no lymph node involvement

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78
Q

The pyriform sinus is located in the hypopharynx

A

True

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79
Q

What is the tumor staging system for lung cancer?

A

TNM

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80
Q

The inferior border of the larynx port for the vocal cords treatment anatomically corresponds to:

A

cricoid cartilage

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81
Q

What is the first treatment of choice for SCLC?

A

chemotherapy

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82
Q

What is the most common grade of gliomas?

A

high grade

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83
Q

Which is the TD 5/5 of the heart?

A

40 Gy

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84
Q

The ______ salivary gland located 2cm anterior and 2cm inferior to the EAM is:

A

parotid

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85
Q

What is the most common source of brain metastases among the following?

A

Lung

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86
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?

A

cells appear relatively normal

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87
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT in the oropharynx?

A

Hard palate

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88
Q

What is the most common form of larynx cancer?

A

squamous cell

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89
Q

Which of the following is a late effect of brain irradiation in children?

A

Decreased IQ

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90
Q

Which of the following is not associated with developing brain tumors?

A

smoking

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91
Q

Which of the following is/are common presenting symptoms of brain tumors in adults? (Choose all that apply)

A

blurred vision, headaches, seizures

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92
Q

Mesothelioma is a cancer of which respiratory system component?

A

Pleura

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93
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe the surgical removal of an entire lung?

A

Pneumonectomy

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94
Q

obstruction, discharge, facial pain, dipolpia and local swelling are presenting symptoms associated with what location?

A

nose and sinuses

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95
Q

dysphagia and painful neck node are presenting symptoms associated with what location?

A

hypopharynx

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96
Q

swelling or an ulcer that fails to heal are presenting symptoms associated with what location?

A

oral cavity

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97
Q

bloody discharge and difficulty hearing are presenting symptoms associated with what location?

A

nasopharynx

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98
Q

painful swallowing and referred otalgia are presenting symptoms associated with what location?

A

oropharynx

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99
Q

hoarseness and stridor are presenting symptoms associated with what location?

A

larynx

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100
Q

The treatment of choice for head and neck carcinomas, that are inaccessible to a surgeon’s knife:

A

radiation therapy

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101
Q

A patient presents with positive Epstein-Barr virus and a painless neck mass. This is most likely a _____ cancer.

A

nasopharynx

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102
Q

The primary lymphatic drainage of the lower lip would be to:

A

submental nodes

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103
Q

Treatment fields in the chest should be designed

A

with respiratory motion in mind

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104
Q

What is the TD 5/5 for whole lung?

A

17.5 cGy

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105
Q

The area that contains the pyriform sinus, posterior cricoid cartilage and lower posterior pharyngeal wall is the:

A

hypopharynx

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106
Q

What is the most significant risk factor associated with mesothelioma?

A

Asbestos exposure

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107
Q

What defines the inferior radiation field border for the treatment of the whole brain for palliation?

A

Both b and c

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108
Q

What is the tumor staging system for lung cancer?

A

TNM

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109
Q

In what part of the lung are primary squamous cell carcinomas usually found?

A

Central

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110
Q

Which of the following is anatomically situated between the vertebral bodies C3 to C6:

A

hypopharynx

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111
Q

In which portion of the brain do most CNS tumors occur in pediatric patients?

A

cerebellum

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112
Q

In which portion of the brain do most CNS tumors occur in adults?

A

cerebrum

113
Q

When treating a lung cancer, the spinal cord dose not to be exceeded is:

A

4500cGy

114
Q

The most common site of cancer in the oropharynx is/are:

A

tonsils

115
Q

Which of the following beam arrangements is most typical for treatment of a malignant primary brain tumor?

A

Small partial brain fields with 1 to 3 cm margins

116
Q

Which of the following is not located in the oral cavity?

oropharynx
hypopharynx
larynx
soft palate

A

larynx

117
Q

Which of the following is not located in the oral cavity?

lips
floor of mouth
soft palate
hard palate

A

soft palate

118
Q

Clinical examination of patients includes palpation of the _____ lymph nodes to aid in determining prognosis of head and neck cancer:

A

posterior cervical

119
Q

Which of the following do not originate from glial cells?

A

medulloblastoma

120
Q

The staging system used for head and neck cancer(s) is:

A

AJCC/TNM

121
Q

The major reason wax is placed on lead shields used in electron treatment of the lips or external nose is to:

A

Prevent electron backscatter

122
Q

Fields gaps are often shifted two or three times during a course of treatment to:

A

reduce the risk of overdose in the spinal cord

123
Q

Which medication helps reduce ICP?

A

Corticosteroids

124
Q

Which is not a section of the larynx?

glottis
supraglottis
subglottis
midglottis

A

Midglottis

125
Q

In which of the paranasal sinuses do most cancers arise:

A

maxillary sinus

126
Q

In lung cancer EBRT, oblique fields are used to take the tumor beyond 45 Gy because:

A

Cord tolerance is usually reached using AP/PA

127
Q

What is the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors based on?

A

degree of differentiation of the cells

128
Q

At what anatomical location does the trachea bifurcate into the right and left main stem bronchi?

A

Carina

129
Q

Which salivary gland is associated with the Stensen duct?

A

parotid

130
Q

After what dose of radiation does xerostomia typically first occur?

A

1000 to 2000 cGy

131
Q

Which of the following is not a common acute side effect a patient may experience during the course of radiation treatments for lung cancer?

A

Diarrhea

132
Q

All of the following are major etiologic factors of head and neck cancer except:

A

handwashing

133
Q

What is the most common symptom associated with lung cancer?

A

cough

134
Q

The most common presenting sign/symptom of glottic carcinoma:

A

hoarseness

135
Q

The purpose of the staging system for cancer is:

A

to estimate the geographical extent of disease

136
Q

The vertebral level used to identify the location of the true vocal cords:

A

C4

137
Q

What is the most common type of brain tumor?

A

Metastatic brain lesions

138
Q

Which tumors spread through the cerebral spinal fluid?

A

Medulloblastoma

139
Q

The treatment of choice for brain metastasis is:

A

Radiation therapy

140
Q

What diagnostic imaging tool is most commonly used to detect lung cancers?

A

Chest x-ray

141
Q

What is the most effective single-agent chemotherapy drug used in the treatment of respiratory tumors?

A

cisplatin

142
Q

What is the TD 5/5 of the spinal cord?

A

47 Gy

143
Q

Xerostomia is caused by irradiation of the:

A

salivary glands

144
Q

All of the following are major etiologic factors of head and neck cancer except:

smoking
alcohol consumption
poor dental hygiene
hand washing

A

handwashing

145
Q

The layer of meninges closely adhering to the brain tissue is the:

A

pia mater.

146
Q

What is the leading cause of non–small cell carcinoma of the lung?

A

Smoking

147
Q

Lymphatic metastases from lesions other than those that invade the mediastinum or chest-wall directly, usually pass from _____ to _____ to ____ in an orderly fashion.

A

intrapulmonary, hilar, mediastinal

148
Q

Why should a patient’s arms be positioned above his or her head during radiation treatments of a primary lung cancer?

A

Avoid treating normal tissue

149
Q

The most common histology of lung cancer in the US is:

A

adenocarcinoma

150
Q

The shoulders should be displaced _______ as much as possible to maximize the utility of lateral photon fields.

A

inferiorly

151
Q

What is the most common histological type of head and neck cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

152
Q

List three positioning and/or immobilization devices used in external beam radiation therapy for head and neck tumors.

A

Bite block

aquaplast mask

head rest

153
Q

What is included in the oropharynx?

hypopharynx
pyriform sinus
hard palate
base of tongue

A

base of tongue

154
Q

If a patient’s lateral thickness measures 25cm. If the left lateral SSD is 89cm, what is the right lateral SSD?

A

86cm

155
Q

Which of the following is most commonly used in immobilization of head and neck cancer?

slant board
s frame/ aquaplast mask
wingboard
sand bags

A

s-frame/aquaplast mask

156
Q

Which group of bronchogenic carcinomas has the poorest prognosis?

A

small cell carcinoma

157
Q

Which of the following is the dose at which radiation necrosis of brain tissue is most likely to occur?

A

6000 cGy

158
Q

The anatomic relationship of the esophagus to the trachea and vertebral column is:

A

The esophagus is posterior to the trachea and anterior to the vertebral column.

159
Q

Which class of chemotherapy drugs has the ability to cross the blood-brain barrier?

A

Nitrosoureas

160
Q

The warning signs for cancer include:

unusual bleeding
change in bowel habits
change in wart or mole
solid lump (painless)
all of the above

A

all of the above

161
Q

Which of the following is the structure located immediately superior and medial to the left kidney?

gallbladder
prostate
spleen
adrenal gland

A

Adrenal gland

162
Q

Which of the following describes the anatomic relationship of the esophagus to the trachea and vertebral column?

A

The esophagus is posterior to the trachea and anterior to the vertebral column.

163
Q

A patient is to be treated with a pelvic field on a linear accelerator. The patient is quite obese and the port films show that the field shifts superiorly and inferiorly on a daily basis. What bony landmark may measurements be taken from to stabilize this treatment portal?

pubic symphysis
umbilicus
patella
anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

A

Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

164
Q

Which organ begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and travels through the diaphragm to the cardiac sphincter?

A

esophagus

165
Q

At what age should a person of average risk have his or her first screening colonoscopy?

A

45

166
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal syndrome (HNPCC) are most closely associated with which type of cancer?

A

Colorectal

167
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is associated with cancer of which anatomic region?

A

Esophagus

168
Q

What is the treatment of choice for most anal cancers?
I. Surgery
II. Chemotherapy
III. Radiation therapy

A

II and III

169
Q

The Whipple is a surgical procedure associated with cancer of which organ?

A

Pancreas

170
Q

The vermiform appendix is most closely associated with which portion of the digestive tract?

A

Cecum

171
Q

What is the dose-limiting structure of most concern for radiation treatments of colorectal cancers?

A

Small bowel

172
Q

What is the dose-limiting structure of most concern for radiation treatments of the esophagus?

A

Spinal cord

Careful dosimetry planning is necessary to avoid overdosing the spinal cord when treating esophageal cancers. AP/PA fields are used initially; as cord tolerance is approached, an off-cord technique is implemented.

173
Q

What is the most common histologic type of cancers that occur in the lower third of the esophagus?

A

Adenocarcinoma

The most common pathologic types of esophageal cancer are squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. Squamous cell carcinomas are found most frequently in the upper and middle thoracic esophagus. Adenocarcinoma typically occurs in the distal esophagus and gastroesophageal junction; however, it can occur in other regions of the esophagus.

174
Q

Which of the following cancers is most common in the United States?

liver

stomach

esophagus

colorectal

A

colorectal

175
Q

Which of the following cancers has the highest incidence of cancer-related deaths in the United States?

colorectal

stomach

anal

esophagus

A

Colorectal

176
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for anal cancer?

A

Diet

immunosuppression

anal intercourse

man papillomavirus

177
Q

Which of the following cancer sites can be treated with endocavitary radiation therapy?

esophagus

liver

rectum

stomach

A

rectum

178
Q

Which of the following methods may reduce the dose to the small bowel during radiation therapy?
I. Supine positioning
II. Prone positioning
III. Full bladder
IV. Empty bladder

A

II and III

179
Q

What are the growths that arise from the mucosal lining and protrude into the lumen of the bowel?

A

Adenomatous polyps

180
Q

What condition is most closely associated with gastroesophageal reflux?

A

Barrett esophagus

Barrett esophagus is a condition in which the distal esophagus is lined with a columnar epithelium rather than a stratified squamous epithelium. This mucosal change usually occurs with gastroesophageal reflux.

181
Q

What condition is most closely associated with adenomatous polyposis?

A

Gardner syndrome

Patients with Gardner syndrome have adenomatous polyposis of the large bowel and other abnormal growths, such as upper gastrointestinal polyps, peri-ampullary tumors, lipomas, and fibromas.

182
Q

Radiation treatment fields for the distal esophagus typically include which of the following lymph nodes?

A

Celiac axis

Regional spread to draining lymphatics is a common early presentation and must be taken into consideration in the design of the radiation field. The cervical, supraclavicular, mediastinal, and sub-diaphragmatic (celiac axis) lymph node regions are at risk. The degree to which these nodal groups are at risk depends on the location of the primary tumor. Supraclavicular nodes are involved more often with a proximal lesion than a distal lesion.

183
Q

A dose-limiting organ of concern when planning treatment of the pancreas is the liver. The tolerance dose (TD 5/5) for the liver is ______ Gy.

A

35

184
Q

The width of the anterior field in the treatment of rectal cancer should the iliac lymph nodes. Therefore, the lateral borders of this field should __________________.

A

extend about 2 cm beyond the pelvic brim

185
Q

Cancer of which female reproductive organ is most deadly?

A

Ovarian

186
Q

Cancer of which organ can be genetically linked to breast cancer?

A

Ovarian

187
Q

Overall, cervical cancer occurs most frequently with those associated with which of the following factors?
I. Women of lower socioeconomic status
II. Early sexual activity and multiple partners
III. Multiple instances of pelvic infection

A

I, II, and III

188
Q

Intraperitoneal radiopharmaceuticals can be used to treat which of the following cancers of the female reproductive system?

A

Ovarian

Use of the radioisotope P-32 as a colloidal solution placed into the peritoneal cavity is an accepted alternative to single agent chemotherapy for treating high-risk stages I and II ovarian cancers.

189
Q

Pap testing is a screening tool used to detect cancers of the _________.

A

Cervical

190
Q

The prescription point A can be measured from the cervical os ______________.

A

2 cm superior and 2 cm lateral

191
Q

Diarrhea is a side effect of pelvic irradiation. Patients experiencing this side effect should be advised to adhere to a _________diet.

A

low-fiber

192
Q

Cancer of which urinary organ is most common?

A

Bladder

193
Q

Cancer of which of the following male reproductive system components is most common?

A

Prostate

194
Q

What is the most common histology found in kidney cancer?

A

clearcell carcinoma

195
Q

What is the most common histology found in bladder cancer?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

196
Q

What is the standard total dose used when irradiating the entire bladder?

A

5000 to 6000 cGy

The larger pelvic field to include the bladder and pelvic lymph nodes is generally treated to a dose of 45 to 50 Gy at 180 cGy per day, which requires 5 to 5 and a half weeks of treatment.

197
Q

What is the most common histology found in testicular cancer?

A

Germ cell tumors

198
Q

What is the most common form of penile cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

199
Q

What is the primary treatment option for kidney cancer?

A

Surgery

200
Q

What is the most common symptom of testicular cancer?

A

Painless mass

201
Q

Which of the following would likely by the first treatment for testicular cancers?

A

Surgery

202
Q

Who has the most significant risk of developing prostate cancer?

A

70-year-old black male

203
Q

Which of the following positions and strategies are most frequently used when irradiating the prostate?
I. Supine positioning
II. Prone positioning
III. Full bladder
IV. Empty bladder

A

I and III

204
Q

Which of the following cancers is most likely to occur in a 27-year-old male?

testicle

penis

urethra

prostate

A

Testicle

205
Q

Which of the following management strategies is least likely to be used in the management of a patient with prostate cancer?

radiation therapy
chemotherapy
hormone therapy

A

Chemotherapy

206
Q

To which surface of the prostate gland do the seminal vesicles attach?

A

Posterior superior

207
Q

Screening of prostate cancer is done by a blood test called:

A

Prostate Specific Antigen

208
Q

The Gleason system assigns a value based on the ____ of malignant cells.

A

grade

209
Q

The hockey stick field extends superiorly from to the bottom of the ischial tuberosity.

A

T-10

210
Q

Which lymph node group is most commonly involved in testicular cancer?

A

Para-aortic

211
Q

A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of:

A

a malignant tumor

212
Q

The vast majority of prostate cancers first develop in the _______ zone.

A

peripheral

213
Q

The prostate gland is located ___ to the seminal vesicles and bladder, ___ to the rectum, and ____ to the symphysis pubis.

A

inferior, anterior, posterior

214
Q

____ is the only established lifestyle risk factor for developing pancreatic cancer?

A

smoking

215
Q

What is the definition of achalasia?

A

lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esophageal sphincter

216
Q

What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?

A

occult blood in the stool

217
Q

Which of the following treatment techniques are most frequently used when irradiating the prostate? (Mark all that may apply)

Empty bladder
supine positioning
prone positioning
full bladder

A

supine positioning

full bladder

218
Q

Increased levels of which tumor marker(s) may indicate germ cell cancer? (Mark all that may apply)

hCG
BRCA-1
LDH
AFP
PAP
PSA

A

hCG only

219
Q

Which isotopes are used for prostate brachytherapy treatment? (Mark all that apply)

iridium 192
iodine 125
gold198

A

iodine 125
gold 198

220
Q

Which of the following are common acute side effects of radiation treatment to the pelvic region may include. (Mark all that apply)

fibrosis
dysuria
gynecomastia
cystitis
fatigue
diarrhea
erythema
proctitis

A

dysuria
fatigue
diarrhea
erythema

221
Q

Which of the following methods may reduce the dose to the small bowel during radiation therapy? (select all that apply)

A

prone positioning

full bladder

222
Q

Which of the following clinical situations do not lend themselves to the reproducible placement of localization marks? (select all that apply)

areas covered by dressings
elderly and/or obese patients
immobile skin surfaces
skin folds and creases

A

areas covered by dressings
elderly and/or obese patients
skin folds and creases

223
Q

What is the staging system used in management of esophageal cancer? (select all that apply)

kernohan
TNM
Ann Arbor
Duke’s
Modified Astler Coller
No staging used
Gleason
FIGO

A

TNM

224
Q

Colorectal cancers are the _______ most common cancer in the United States.

A

third

225
Q

Reductions in _______ intake in both Japan and the United States have coincided with _______ rates in colon cancer.

A

fiber; increasing

226
Q

In several studies, high levels of _______ consumption were associated with distal, but not proximal, colon cancer.

A

processed meat

227
Q

Currently, _______ remains the gold standard for colon cancer screening.

A

endoscopic colonoscopy

228
Q

The total preoperative radiation dose for rectal tumors is _______ Gy.

A

50.4

229
Q

Preoperative external beam radiation therapy increases overall mortality in patients with colon cancer.

A

False

230
Q

Endometrial cancer is the most common gynecologic malignancy.

A

True

231
Q

Cancers of the ____ are the most deadly type of gynecologic cancer.

A

ovaries

232
Q

The uterine walls contain which of the following tissue layers?

endometrium
myometrium
perimetrium

A

1, 2, and 3

233
Q

The molecular genetics and histology of gynecologic cancers can vary significantly

A

True

234
Q

Uterine carcinomas arise from ______ tissues.

A

epithelial

235
Q

Patients who have advanced vaginal cancer might receive:
1. EBRT of involved inguinal lymph nodes.
2. EBRT of involved para-aortic lymph nodes.
3. brachytherapy.

A

1, 2 and 3

236
Q

The most important risk factor for prostate cancer is:

A

age

237
Q

Incidence of and mortality from prostate cancer vary significantly based on:

  1. socioeconomic status
  2. geographical region
  3. ethnicity
A

1, 2, 3

238
Q

The principal screening methods for prostate cancer are the prostate specific antigen (PSA) test and:

A

digital rectal examination (DRE).

239
Q

The cancer detection rate is higher when the PSA test and DRE are used in combination than for either test alone.

A

True

240
Q

What causes differences in prostate volume, shape, and position between the volume study and the operating room?
1. imaging technique
2. equipment
3. patient positioning

A

1, 2, 3

241
Q

What is the TD 5/5 of the Bladder (whole organ)?

A

6500cGy

242
Q

When treating a prostate patient with radiation, what is the dose limit to the rectum in cGy?

A

6000

243
Q

What is the most critical structure when treating a seminoma with opposed hockey stick fields?

A

Kidney

244
Q

What is the most critical structure when treating a prostate cancer with radiation therapy?

A

Rectum

245
Q

What is the TD 5/5 of the femoral heads?

A

52 Gy

246
Q

What is the TD 5/5 of the kidney? (whole organ)

A

23 Gy

247
Q

What is the TD 5/5 of the Stomach? (whole organ)

A

50 Gy

248
Q

When treating a prostate, the bladder should be_______?

A

full

249
Q

Which urinary cancer can be treated by filling the organ with chemotherapy?

A

Bladder

250
Q

What is the most common type of leukemia in children?

A

Acute Lymphatic Leukemia (ALL)

also known as lymphoblastic malignancy

251
Q

Wilms’ tumors are most commonly associated with ________.

A

kidney cancer

mainly in children (3-4)

252
Q

What pediatric tumors occur in the testes and ovaries?

A

Pediatric germ cell tumors

253
Q

What is the most common pediatric cancer?

A

Acute Lymphatic Leukemia (ALL)

also known as lymphoblastic malignancy

254
Q

At what angle are supraclavicular fields positioned?

A

10- 15 degrees

255
Q

What organs are avoided when the gantry is placed at a certain angle in supraclavicular treatments? (3)

A

spinal cord

heart

larynx

256
Q

What is the most common staging system used for breast cancer?

A

TNM

257
Q

What is the most common radioisotope used in brachytherapy for breast cancer?

A

iridium 192

258
Q

What is the most reliable diagnostic tool to detect breast cancer?

A

mammogram

259
Q

What is the treatment of choice for breast cancer?

A

surgery

260
Q

What is the standard surgical treatment for breast cancer?

A

lumpectomy/ tylectomy

261
Q

What is Peau’d Orange?

A

A symptom of the skin becoming thick and pitted with a texture similar to an orange peel

262
Q

What is the most common cause of skin cancer?

A

UV exposure

263
Q

What is the most common histology of skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma

264
Q

What form of skin cancer has the highest mortality rate?

A

melanoma

265
Q

What are the ABCDs of melanoma?

A

asymmetry
border
color
diameter

266
Q

What are the layers of the skin?

A

epidermis
dermis
hypodermis

267
Q

What layer of the skin contains the melanocytes?

A

basal layer of the epidermis

268
Q

What is cranial nerve I? Function?

A

olfactory nerve

sense of smell

269
Q

What is cranial nerve II? Function?

A

optic nerve

transmitting visual information

270
Q

What is cranial nerve III? Function?

A

Oculomotor nerve

muscle movements of the eye

271
Q

What is cranial nerve IV? Function?

A

trochlear nerve

eye movements– downward and inward

272
Q

What is cranial nerve V? Function?

A

Trigeminal nerve

motor and sensation to eyes, face, chewing

273
Q

What is cranial nerve VI? Function?

A

Abducens nerve

eye movements

274
Q

What is cranial nerve VII? Function?

A

Facial nerve

muscle movement of facial expression + taste & salivary glands

275
Q

What is cranial nerve VIII? Function?

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

hearing and balance

276
Q

What is cranial nerve IX? Function?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

sensory/taste/salivary glands

277
Q

What is cranial nerve X? Function?

A

vagus nerve

control of visceral organs– heart rate, bronchorestriction, and digestive processes

278
Q

What is cranial nerve XI? Function?

A

Spinal Accessory Nerve

movement of shoulder and neck muscles

279
Q

What is cranial nerve XII? Function?

A

hypoglossal nerves

movement of the tongue

Radiation Therapy (26 decks)

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