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FINAL MODULE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What Immunoglobin that can pass through the placenta? a.IgM

b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgA

A

c.IgG

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2
Q 
Movement out of the circulatory system and into the site of injury 
A. Diapedesis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Amoeboid Movement
A

A. Diapedesis

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3
Q 
What is Factor IV in the coagulation cascade? 
A. Hageman
B. Prothrombin
C. Calcium
D. Tissue Factor
A

C. Calcium

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4
Q 
Secondary storage of protein outside the liver
A. hemosiderin
B. Ferritin
C. Transferrin
D. Jejenum
A

A. hemosiderin

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5
Q 
Often produced in large numbers in people with parasitic infections, and they migrate in large numbers into tissues diseased by parasites?                      
A. Basophil
B. Neutrophil  
C. Eosinophil 
D. Macrophage
A

C. Eosinophil

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6
Q

What type of blood transfusion should be given to patients who have sickle cell anemia?
A. Platelet concentrates
B Fresh frozen plasma
C Whole blood acquired from a blood relative
D Packed red blood cells

A

D Packed red blood cells

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT seen in acute haemoglobinaemia?

A. Fever
B. Decreased bilirubin in the urine
C. Increased stercobilinogen in the gut
D. Increased urobilinogen

A

B. Decreased bilirubin in the urine

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8
Q

Patient with thrombocytopenia is less likely to have A. Bleeding
B. Clotting
C. Infection
D. Protection

A

B. Clotting

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9
Q

Jandro was playing in the park with his friends, when he tripped and fell on his knee. He then sat and was curious with his wound. Jandro noticed that the bleeding slowly stop. What stage of platelet formation the loose platelet plug occurs? A. Platelet Adhesion
B. Platelet Aggregation
C. Platelet Activation
D. Platelet Animation

A

B. Platelet Aggregation

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10
Q

Kuppfer cells are normally found in what organ? A. heart
B. kidneys
C. liver
D. lungs

A

C. liver

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11
Q

A patient came in to ER with multiple gunshot wounds. Relative said that patient was found lying on pool of blood in the bedroom, you then anticipated that the patient has had profuse blood loss. What type of blood transfusion product should then be ordered? A. PRBC
B. Whole blood
C. Platelet Concentrate
D. Cryoprecipitate

A

B. Whole blood

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12
Q 
Cytotoxic T cells secretes hole forming proteins on foreign cells, which allows these killer cells to secrete cytotoxic substances that directly attacks the foreign antigens. These hole forming proteins are called \_\_\_\_\_
A. Perforins
B. Cytokines
C. Proenzyme
D. Regulatory proteins
A

A. Perforins

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13
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ has a strong stimulator effect in causing growth and differentiation of both cytotoxic and suppressor T cells.
A. Lymphokine IL-2
B. Lymphokine IL-15
C. Lymphokine IL-5
D. Lymphokine IL-4
A

A. Lymphokine IL-2

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14
Q

Which is the best example of a Nervous control mechanism?

a. Intake of alcohol after seeing your Ex with someone else
b. Seeing your ex with someone else
c. Dextrose to treat dehydration
d. Pikachu using thunder shock when you try to put it back in its pokeball

A

d. Pikachu using thunder shock when you try to put it back in its pokeball

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15
Q

Which is the best example of a Hormonal control mechanism?

a. Anti-depressant drugs
b. Performing a butterfly stroke
c. Tackling your bestfriend
d. Taking cover so that your Ex does not see you

A

a. Anti-depressant drugs

Hormonal control = chemical messages

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16
Q

For adults the total body of water, with respect to body weight, is ____%

a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 60%
d. 65%

A

c. 60 %

60% H2O of total body weight for adults & 75% H2O of total body weight for newborns

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17
Q

Norepinephrine is secreted by the cells form the Pons, specifically in the ________

A. Basal forebrain
B. Locus ceruleus
C. Substantia Nigra
D. Median raphe

A

B. Locus ceruleus

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18
Q

An effective stimulus have the following elementary attributes except A. Modality
B. Duration
C. Intensity
D. Effectivity

A

D. Effectivity

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19
Q 
An effective stimulus involves all of the following except
 A. Appropriate modality
B. Appropriate intensity
C. Appropriate location
D. Appropriate depolarization
A

D. Appropriate depolarization

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20
Q

Norepinephrine and epinephrine is secreted by many neurons in the following area except. A. Hypothalamus
B. Brainstem
C. Locus ceruleus of pons
D. Nucleus basalis of Meynert

A

D. Nucleus basalis of Meynert

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21
Q 
These type of neuronal circuit receives signal from multiple inputs and unite to excite a single neuron      . 
 A. Divergence
B. Convergence
C. Insurgence
D. Reverberation
A

B. Convergence

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22
Q

These greatly increases neuronal excitability.

a. alkalosis
b. acidosis
c. inhibition
d. stimulation
e. No answer

A

a.alkalosis

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23
Q

Acetylcholine is secreted by neurons in many areas of the nervous system but specifically by the following areas of the nervous system except;

a. the postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system,.
b. the preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system,
c. the terminals of the large pyramidal cells from the motor cortex
d. at synapses in the spinal cord.

A

d. Glycine is secreted at synapses in the spinal cord.

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24
Q 
GABA(Gamma-amino Butyric Acid ) is secreted in the following terminals, except 
 A. Basal ganglia
B. Median raphe of brain stem
C. Spinal cord
D. Cerebellum
E. No answer
A

B. Median raphe of brain stem

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25
Q 
10. The neurotransmission in electrical synapse is \_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A.Bidirectional
B. Unidirectional
C. Multidirectional
D. Non-continuous
A

C. Multidirectional

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26
Q 
Which does not belong to the group?
 A.Acetylcholine: learning, memory
B. Dopamine: alertness, reward
C. Serotonin: mood, sleep
D.Norepinephrine: arousal, wakefulness
A

B. Dopamine: alertness, reward

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27
Q

Which is the correct order for stages of hemostasis

   1. Reflex vasoconstriction
   2. Primary hemostasis
   3. Clot retraction
   4. Secondary hemostasis A. 4,2,3,1 B. 2,3,4,1 C. 1,2,4,3 D. 3,2,1,4
A

C. 1,2,4,3

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28
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the capability of the body to resist almost all types of organisms or toxins that tend to damage tissues and organs. 
A. Immunity
B. Phagocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Complement system
A

A. Immunity

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29
Q 
Hormone responsible for RBC production is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; which can be stimulated when experiencing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. EPO; hypoxia
B. ABO; anemia
C. ADH; low systolic blood pressure
D. ANP; electrolyte imbalance
A

A. EPO; hypoxia

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30
Q 
The Bone marrow being the only source of hematopoesis postnatally begins at what time after birth
A. 72 hours
B. 4th month of development
C. 3rd week of neonatal life
D. 4th week of development
A

B. 4th month of development

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31
Q 
1st site of blood cell production during 3rd week of fetal embryonic development
A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Stem cell
D. Yolk sac
A

D. Yolk sac

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32
Q 
What is the primary determinant of capillary oncotic pressure
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Albumin
D. Chloride
A

C. Albumin

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33
Q

Sickle cell disease (homozygous haemoglobin SS) is frequently associated with

A. cardiomyopathy
B. chronic respiratory dysfunction
C. nephropathy
D. peripheral neuropathy
E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

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34
Q

in beta-thalassaemia major

A. blood transfusion prevents growth retardation in children.
B. the red blood cells are hypochromic and macrocytic.
C. the average age at death is 25-30 yrs.
D. liver failure is the most common cause of death

A

A. blood transfusion prevents growth retardation in children.

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35
Q

Haemophilia A is commonly associated with:
A. a haemarthrosis in a female infant
B. a haemarthrosis in a male infant
C. low levels of Factor IX
D. normal prothrombin time (PT) and prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
E. prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

A

E. prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

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36
Q 
Fetal Hemoglobin consists of the ff:      
A. 1 alpha & 1 gamma chain
B. 2 alpha & 2 gamma chains
C. 1 alpha & 1 beta chain
D. 2 alpha & 2 beta chains
A

B. 2 alpha &; 2 gamma chains

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37
Q 
The production Eosinophil in the bone marrows is controlled by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
A. crystal protein (galectin -10)
B. chemokines eotaxins -1
C. cytokine interleukin 5 (IL-5)
D. Leukotrienes
A

C. cytokine interleukin 5 (IL-5)

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38
Q

Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein which:

A. Stimulates red and white cell production
B. Is broken down in the kidney
C. Polypeptide B glycoprotein
D. Increases in response to hypoxia

A

D. Increases in response to hypoxia

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39
Q

Which immune cell is responsible for the release of histamine that causes redness and itchiness associated with allergies?

A. Mast cell
B. Lymphocyte
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil

A

A. Mast cell

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40
Q

In Iron Deficiency Anemia, production of haemoglobin is impaired, thus, their appearance is described as _______?

A. Hyperchromic and macrocytic
B. Hyperchromic and microcytic
C. Hypochromic and microcytic
D. Hypochromic and macrocytic

A

C. Hypochromic and microcytic

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41
Q

Vitamin K dependent factors include:

A. V
B. VII
C. VIII
D. III

A

B. VII

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42
Q

The serine protease that is primarily responsible for degrading fibrin and fibrinogen?

A. Thrombin
B. Plasmin
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin

A

B. Plasmin

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43
Q

The total combination of monocytes, mobile and fixed macrophages, and few endothelial cells in the bone marrow, spleen, and lymph nodes is called _____.?

A. Reticuloendothelial system
B. Reticulomacrophage system
C. Reticulomonocyte system
D. Reticulolymphocyte system

A

A. Reticuloendothelial system

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44
Q

Iron deficiency is characterized by

A. high serum ferritin level and low serum iron
B. low serum iron level and lowered total iron binding capacity
C. high serum ferritin level and normal serum iron
D. low serum ferritin level and low serum iron

A

D. low serum ferritin level and low serum iron

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45
Q

What amino acid is substituted for glutamic acid in patient with sickle cell anemia?

A. Glycine
B. Cysteine
C. Leucine
D. Valine

A

D. Valine

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46
Q

Lack of these Vitamins causes abnormal and diminished DNA which will cause failure of nuclear maturation and cell division.

A. Vitamin E and K
B. Folic Acid and Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin B5 and Cyanocobalamin
D. Vitamin B2 and B7

A

B. Folic Acid and Vitamin B12

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47
Q

Even if you put any stimulus, nothing will happen.
What is the refractory period in this situation?
A absolute refractory period
B.Ionic base of relative refractory period
C.Relative Refractory Period
D.Accommodation

A

A. absolute refractory period

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48
Q 
What is the effect when there is an increase 
extracellular calcium concentration?
A.Decrease in excitability
B.Increase threshold
C.Decrease Resting Membrane Potential
D. Both A and B
A

D. Both A and B

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49
Q

This refers to the rapid changes in the membrane
potential which spreads faster along the nerve fiber
membrane.
A. overshoot
B.action potential
C.Primary active transport
D.Osmolality

A

B.action potential

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50
Q

CSF is secreted in large portions of the brain by specific type of cells,

A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann cells
C. Ependymal cells
D. Nerve cells

A

C. Ependymal cells

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51
Q

What are the most important ions needed in the
development of membrane potentials in muscle fibers and
nerve?
A. Sodium, Potassium, Chloride ions
B. Sodium, Potassium, Flouride ions
C. Sodium, Potassium, Lithium ions
D.None of the above

A

A. Sodium, Potassium, Chloride ions

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52
Q

What is the key factor in determining the level of

the normal resting membrane potential?
A.overshoot
B.conformational change
C.calcium pump
D.differential in permeability
A

D.differential in permeability

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53
Q

A decrease in sodium entry to the cell and the
simultaneous _______________ exit from the cell combines
to increase the rate of repolarization. This leads to a
_________ recovery of the resting membrane potential.
A.increase in sodium; full
B.increase in potassium; full
C.decrease in sodium; partial
D.decrease in potassium; partial

A

B.increase in potassium; full

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54
Q

In order to produce an action potential, you must
first ____________ slow calcium channels.
A. activate
B. block
C. inactivate
D. plug

A

A. activate

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55
Q

Sodium channels can be blocked by a toxin called

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. exotoxin
B. endotoxin
C. tetrodotoxin
D. hydrogen sulfide
A

C. tetrodotoxin

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56
Q

“An action potential can’t be stopped once it starts
firing to the muscles.” This describes action potential
as ___________.
A.Action Potential is Non-decremental
B.Action Potential is Irreversible
C.Action Potential follow the All or None law.
D.Action Potential is Decremental

A

B.Action Potential is Irreversible

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57
Q

Responsible for the encapsulation of the dorsal root and cranial nerve ganglion cells

A. Satellite cells
B. Astrocytes
C. Oligodendrites
D. Nodes of Ranvier

A

A. Satellite cells

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58
Q

Which of the following is involved with common sensation such as slight touch?

A. Multipolar
B. Unipolar
C. Pseudounipolar
D. Bipolar

A

C. Pseudounipolar

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59
Q

Type of synapse wherein the neurotransmission is multidirectional, allowing simultaneous activation and coordinated contraction to occur.

A. Electrical synapse
B. Chemical synapse
C. Mechanical synapse
D. One-to-one synapse

A

A. Electrical synapse

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60
Q

Which of the following is secreted by the substantia nigra?

A.glycine
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Acetylcholine

A

B. Dopamine

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61
Q

Which of the following is involved in learning and memory?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Acetylcholine

A

D. Acetylcholine

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62
Q

What type of stimulus causes the parachute reflex?

A. Mechanical
B. Chemical
C. Thermal
D. Electrical

A

A. Mechanical

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63
Q

Which of the following is is responsible for myelin in the peripheral nervous system?

A. Schwann cells
B. Neurolemmal cells
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Astrocytes

A

A. Schwann cells

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64
Q

It is the metabolic part of the neuron

A. Axon
B. Soma
C. Dendrite
D. Synapse

A

B. Soma

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65
Q

Synapse is involved with neuronal communication with the following except:

A. Other neurons
B. Tissues
C. Muscles
D. Glands

A

B. Tissues

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66
Q 
In some instances, the excited membrane does not repolarize immediately after depolarization, what is this called?
A. Plateau
B. Hyperpolarization
C. Max potential
D. Stroke
A

A. Plateau

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67
Q

In case of Hyperkalemia (exess potassium), which of the following is false
A. due to mutated voltage gated channels
B. Elevated K+ causes hyperpolarization in muscles
C. Elevated K+ causes depolarization in muscles
D. results in increased K+ efflux

A

B. Elevated K+ causes hyperpolarization in muscles

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68
Q 
The resting membrane potential of large nerve fibers when not transmitting nerve signals
A. About -70 millivolts
B. About -90 millivolts
C. About -30 millivolts
D. About -150 millivolts
A

B. About -90 millivolts

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69
Q

Why is a stronger stimulus needed to generate an Action potential during relative refractory period?
A. Sodium conductance is still elevated
B. Potassium conductance is still elevated
C. Slow opening of Potassium channels
D. fast closing of Sodium Channels

A

B. Potassium conductance is still elevated

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70
Q 
The following favors an increase in conduction velocity except
A. Myelination
B. upregulation of ion channels
C. increase in axon diameter
D. increase in membrane capacitance
A

D. increase in membrane capacitance

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71
Q 
Which structure contributes to the maintenance of the concentration gradient?
A. Voltage-gated Na+ channels
B. Voltage-gated K+ channels
C. Na+/K+ ATPase pump
D. K+ leak channels
A

C. Na+/K+ ATPase pump

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72
Q

Fixed macrophages in lungs & liver

A. Originate in the bone marrow and migrate to their site of action as megakaryocytes

B. Kill bacteria in phagosomes by lymphokines

C. Are activated by cytokines secreted by activated T cells

D. Part of humoral immunity

A

C. Are activated by cytokines secreted by activated T cells

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73
Q 
Which will produce a unidirectional Action potential? 
A. Stimulation at axon hillock
B. Stimulation at axon body
C. Axoaxonic signal transmission
D. Axosomatic signal transmission
A

A. Stimulation at axon hillock

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74
Q 
What is the unique function of the Non-gated Ion channels?
A. Resting membrane potential
B. Synaptic potentials
C. Generation of action potentials
D. Propagation of action potentials
A

A. Resting membrane potential

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75
Q

Why can’t the cardiac muscles be completely tetanized?
A. Because the absolute refractory period overlaps with the contraction phase
B. Continuous influx of Calcium ions
C. Because the absolute refractory period overlaps with the relaxation phase
D. Continuous efflux of Calcium ions

A

C. Because the absolute refractory period overlaps with the relaxation phase

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76
Q 
It refers to occasions when binding of presynaptic receptors leads to a decrease in release of neurotransmitter
A.  Presynaptic inhibition
B. Synaptic depression
C. Shunting effect
D. Synaptic integration
A

A. Presynaptic inhibition

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77
Q 
Neurotransmitter that is responsible for long-term behavior and for memory and is secreted by nerve terminals in areas of the brain
A. Nitric oxide
B. Serotonin
C. Norepinephrine
D. GABA
A

A. Nitric oxide

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78
Q 
Which of the following is not a component of G-protein?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Epsilon
D. Gamma
A

C. Epsilon

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79
Q 
Part of the neuron which is specialized for signal transmission to target cells
A. Axon Terminal
B. Axon Hillock
C. Dendrites
D. Cell body
A

A. Axon Terminal

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80
Q

Glycoprotein CD4 is expressed on:

A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Suppressor T cells
C. Helper T cells
D. Plasma cells

A

C. Helper T cells

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81
Q 
Neurons that convey signals from one neuron to another
A. Efferent Neurons
B. Interneurons
C. Sensory Neurons
D. Motor Neurons
A

B. Interneurons

82
Q 
It is the primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction
A. Epinephrine
B. Glutamate
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine
A

C. Acetylcholine

83
Q

It triggers the release of neurotransmitter
A. Entry of calcium into the presynaptic terminal
B. Entry of calcium into the postsynaptic terminal
C. Movement of vesicles to the membrane
D. Binding of neurotransmitter to the receptor

A

A. Entry of calcium into the presynaptic terminal

84
Q 
The neuroglia that produce myelin sheaths around axons in the CNS:
A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann Cells
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Ependymal cells
A

C. Oligodendrocytes

85
Q 
What is/are the main cytoplasmic organelle/s in dendrites?
A. Golgi Apparatus
B. Microtubules & neurofilaments
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
D. Mitochondria
A

B. Microtubules & neurofilaments

86
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an organelle that yields energy through oxidation reactions and has its own DNA.
 A) Nucleus
 B) Mitochondria
 C) Endoplasmic reticulum
 D) Cytosol
A

B) Mitochondria

87
Q

Disorders which results from the defects in the lysosomal function is characterized as deficient in a particular enzyme thus correspond to accumulation of undegraded substrate. One example is the Tay-Sachs disease, which is deficient in Hexosaminidase A. A patient with this disease may exhibit

A) Liver and spleen enlargement, erosion of long bones
B) Mental retardation, blindness, death by age 3
C) Liver and spleen enlargement, mental retardation
D) Skin rash, kidney failure, pain in lower extremities

A

B) Mental retardation, blindness, death by age 3

88
Q

Lysosomes are organelles which contains at least 50 different hydrolytic enzymes. And these enzymes can hydrolyze every type of biological macromolecule. Lysosomal enzymes share an important property:

A) All have their optimal activity at an acid pH and thus are acid hydrolases.
B) All have their optimal activity at a basic pH and thus are basic hydrolases
C) The pH optimum of these enzymes is suited to the high pH of lysosomal compartment
D) The pH optimum of these enzymes is not suited to the low pH of lysosomal compartment

A

A) All have their optimal activity at an acid pH and thus are acid hydrolases.

89
Q

___________ is involved in secretion of proteins from the cell, but it also appears in cells in which the primary function is not protein secretion and divided into cis, medial and trans.

A) Endoplasmic reticulum
B) Peroxisomes
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Nucleus

A

D. Nucleus

90
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is defined by the presence of ribosomes bound to its cytosolic surface and continuous with the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope.
 A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
 B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
 C) Mitochondria
 D) Nucleus
A

A. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

91
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is developed in numerous cell types, including skeletal muscle and kidney tubules. SER functions are the ff. EXCEPT:

A) Synthesis of steroid hormones in the endocrine cells of the gonad and adrenal cortex.
B) Protein synthesis
C) Sequestering calcium ions within the cytoplasm of cells.
D) Detoxification in the liver of a wide variety of organic compounds.

A

B) Protein synthesis

92
Q 
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a relatively rare autoimmune disorder in which antibodies form against nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) postsynaptic receptors at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) of the skeletal muscles. MG affect the movement of \_\_\_\_ ions across the plasma membranes of excitable cells which reduce the ability to transmit impulses.
 A) Ca-2
 B) K+
 C) Cl-
 D) Na+
A

A) Ca-2

93
Q 
The person's blood type is determined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, having a short chain of sugars covalently attached to membrane lipids and proteins of RBC membrane. Blood type A has an enzyme that adds to N-acetylgalactosamine to the end of chain, blood type B has an enzyme that adds galactose to the end chain, blood type AB has both enzymes and blood type O has none.
 A) Oligosaccharides 
 B) Disaccharides 
 C) Monosaccharides
 D) Polysaccharides
A

A) Oligosaccharides

94
Q 
Cell membranes, which shows a trilaminar structure, is composed of a lipid bilayer. Membrane lipids, all of which is amphipathic, is composed of the following EXCEPT:
 A) Phosphoglycerides
 B) Cholesterol
 C) Triacylglycerols
 D) Sphingolipids
A

C) Triacylglycerols

95
Q

The following are functions of the cell membrane or plasma membrane EXCEPT:
A) Compartmentalization
B) Scaffolding for biochemical activities
C) Providing a selectively permeable barrier
D) Pumping water out of the cell

A

D) Pumping water out of the cell

96
Q

What mechanism of action allows kinase to alter other proteins?

a. Phosphorylation b. Glycosilation
c. Reduction
d. No answer

A

a. Phosphorylation

97
Q

The rate of diffusion is determined by the ff. except?

a. By the amount of substance
b. Velocity of kinetic motion
c. Number and sizes of openings
d. Electrochemical gradient

A

d. Electrochemical gradient

98
Q

Also called as contact-dependent signaling? a. Autocrine

b. Paracrine
c. Juxtacrine
d. No answer

A

c. Juxtacrine

99
Q

Process by which an extracellular signal activates a membrane receptor?

a. Hyperpolarization
b. Signal transduction
c. Depolarization
d. repolarization

A

b. Signal transduction

100
Q

Hemophilia B

A.) Factor VII deficiency
B.) Factor II deficiency
C.) Factor IX deficiency
D.) Factor VIII deficiency

A

C.) Factor IX deficiency

101
Q

Hageman factor

A.) XII
B.) XI
C.) XIII
D.) X

A

A.) XII

102
Q

In primary fibrinolysis, there is excessive

A.) thrombi
B.) formation of clots
C.) sweating
D.) bleeding

A

D.) bleeding

103
Q

Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of this enzyme

A.) Thromboxane A2 synthetase
B.) Prostacyclin synthetase
C.) Phospholipase
D.) Cyclooxgenase

A

D.) Cyclooxgenase

104
Q

In the cascade theory of blood coagulation, the factors react in which order?

A.) XII-IX-XI-VIII-X
B.) XII-XI-IX-VIII-X
C.) XII-XI-X-IX-VIII
D.) XI-XII-X-IX-VIII

A

B.) XII-XI-IX-VIII-X

105
Q

Which of the following erythroid maturation stages would be the most sensitive to EPO stimulation?

A.) Polychromatic normoblast
B.) BFU-E
C.) CFU-E
D.) Reticulocyte

A

C.) CFU-E

106
Q

Which of the following best describe megakaryopoiesis (formation of thrombocytes)

A.) Progressive decrease in overall cell size
B.) Increasing basophilia of cytoplasm
C.) Nuclear division without cytoplasmic division
D.) Fusion of the nuclear lobes

A

C.) Nuclear division without cytoplasmic division

107
Q

Macrocytic RBCs are expected to be seen in all of the following disorders, except

A.) Megaloblastic anemia
B.) Liver disease
C.) Leukemia
D.) Maternal Anemia

A

C.) Leukemia

108
Q

Hemoglobin levels are naturally higher in males because

A.) Estrogen has inhibitory effects on erythropoiesis of females
B.) Females have monthly menstrual periods
C.) Males have bigger body mass
D.) All of the choices are correct

A

A.) Estrogen has inhibitory effects on erythropoiesis of females

109
Q

The precipitates of hemoglobin that result from oxidant stress and is found primarily in patients with hemolytic anemia

A.) Howell-Jolly bodies
B.) Heinz bodies
C.) Basophilic stippling
D.) Pappenheimer bodies

A

B.) Heinz bodies

110
Q

Rbc inclusions resulting from acceleration in hemoglobin biosynthesis and consists of RNA

A.) Howell-Jolly bodies
B.) Heinz bodies
C.) Basophilic stippling
D.) Pappenheimer bodies

A

C.) Basophilic stippling

111
Q

The nongranule-containing peripheral part of the platelets is called the

A.) Centromere
B.) Hyalomere
C.) Granulomere
D.) Chromomere

A

B.) Hyalomere

112
Q

What cells are highly phagocytic and release lysozyme, peroxidase, and pyrogenic proteins?

A.) Neutrophils
B.) Eosinophils
C.) Basophils
D.) Platelets

A

A.) Neutrophils

113
Q

What term describes the change in shape of erythrocytes?

A.) Poikilocytosis
B.) Anisocytosis
C.) Hypochromia
D.) Pancytopenia

A

A.) Poikilocytosis

114
Q

Erythrocytes exhibit variation in size from the normal 6-8 microns

A.) Poikilocytosis
B.) Anisocytosis
C.) Hypochromia
D.) Pancytopenia

A

B.) Anisocytosis

115
Q

A direct-attack Type of T cell that is capable of killing microorganisms?

A Cytotoxic T Cell
B T Helper
C Suppressor T Cell
D B Cells

A

A Cytotoxic T Cell

116
Q

Stage of Differentiation of Red Blood Cells consisting of remnants of the Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, and a few other cytoplasmic organelles?

A Proerythroblast
B Basophil Erythroblast
C Orthochromatic Erythroblast
D Reticulocyte

A

D Reticulocyte

117
Q

It is required to produce prothrombin and other clotting factors in the liver

A. Calcium
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin C
D. Actin

A

B. Vitamin K

118
Q

The Strongest contributor in Reflex Vasoconstriction

A. TXA2
B. Endothelin
C. Local Myogenic Spasm
D. Nervous Reflexes

A

C. Local Myogenic Spasm

119
Q

What is Factor I in the coagulation cascade?

A. Fibrinogen
B. Prothrombin
C. Calcium
D. Tissue Factor

A

A. Fibrinogen

120
Q

Which of the following has a lifespan of 4-8 hours in blood. 4-5 days in tissue?

A.Monocyte
B.Granulocyte
C. Agranulocyt
D. Lymphocyte

A

B.Granulocyte

121
Q

Responsible for RBC production and stimulated by Hypoxia?

A. EPO
B. M-CSF
C. TPO
D. CSF

A

A. EPO

122
Q

The Life Span of Red Blood Cells in Adult is About?

A 60 Days
B 90 Days
C 120 Days
D 150 Days

A

C 120 Days

123
Q

An abnormality in the red blood cell because of lack of functioning bone marrow ?

A Iron deficiency anemia
B Hemolytic anemia
C Aplastic anemia
D Polycythemia

A

C Aplastic anemia

124
Q

Pernicious anemia is a maturation failure of RBC caused by failure of gastric parietal cells to produce glycoprotein IF which impairs?

A absorption of Vitamin B-12
B production of folic acid
C production of Pteroylglutamic Acid
D absorption of Vitamin K

A

A absorption of Vitamin B-12

125
Q 
Solutions having the same osmolarity
A. Isosmotic
B. Hyperosmotic
C. Hyposmotic
D. Isotonic
A

A. Isosmotic

126
Q 
This measures the amount of pressure needed to prevent the flow of water into a semi-permeable membrane
A. Oncotic Pressure
B. Osmolality
C. Osmotic Pressure
D. Osmolarity
A

A. Oncotic Pressure

127
Q 
What mechanism of  Cellular Communication is exhibited by the testosterone in spermatogenesis
A. Juxtacrine signalling
B. Neurocrine signalling
C. Paracrine signalling
D. Endocrine signalling
A

C. Paracrine signalling

128
Q

A patient with Diarrhea may experience isosmotic volume contraction. What corresponds to this said event.
A. Loss of water and Na, Decrease ECF, no change in ICF
B. Loss of water, increase ICF, decrease ECF
C. Loss of Na, decrease ECF osmolarity, decrease ECF, increase ICF
D. Loss of water and Na, decrease ECF, decrease ICF

A

A. Loss of water and Na, Decrease ECF, no change in ICF

129
Q

Which of the following will make the statement true?
“In types of synaptic potentials, if the intracellular voltage ______, it is called an ______ post-synaptic potential”
a. Increases; Inhibitory
b. Increases; Excitatory
c. Decreases; Excitatory
d. Decreases; Prohibitory

A

b. Increases; Excitatory

130
Q

When considering Ions in action potentials; the voltage gated K channels will contribute to _______, and with an increase to the extracellular K will result in a/an _______ of resting membrane potential

a. Hyperpolarization; decrease
b. Depolarization; equal
c. Hyperpolatization; increase
d. Repolarization; decrease

A

d. Repolarization; decrease

131
Q

Gaps found in the nerves where action potential travels.

a. Nodes of Ranvier
b. Axons
c. Collagen
d. Myelin

A

a. Nodes of Ranvier

132
Q

Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein which:

A. Stimulates red and white cell production

B. Is broken down in the kidney

C. Has a half life of days

D. Levels inversely proportional to haematocrit

A

D. Levels inversely proportional to haematocrit

133
Q

This channel plays a vital role in increasing the rapidity of repolarization of the membrane.

a. Voltage Gated Potassium channel
b. Voltage Gated Sodium Channel
c. Ligand Gated Sodium Channel
d. Ligand Gated Potassium Channel

A

a. Voltage Gated Potassium channel

134
Q

A middle-aged woman, slightly jaundiced and with a spleen just
palpable, has a Hb of 7G/dl. The blood film report reads as follows: “Erythrocytes show anisocytosis and range in size from microcytes to oval macrocytes, many showing poikilocytosis. They are normochromic. The platelets are diminished in number. There is a leucopenia and a slight neutropenia. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Pernicious anaemia
B. Chronic blood loss
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Hepatitis A

A

A. Pernicious anaemia

135
Q

In excitatory local potentials, the cell will ________ and make a neuron more likely to produce action potentials.

a. Hypopolarizes
b. Hyperpolarizes
c. Isopolarizes
d. Depolarizes

A

d. Depolarizes

136
Q

Sickle cell disease is:

A. Homozygous recessive
B. Confined to black Africans
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Associated with haemoglobin A

A

A. Homozygous recessive

137
Q

A ________ membrane potential is the condition before an action potential begins

a. Resting
b. Relaxing
c. Unpolarized
d. Pre-actio

A

a. Resting

138
Q

These channels are also known as Leakage channels

a. Voltage gated Ion channels
b. Non-gated ion channels
c. Ligand Gated channels
d. Lock and Key Channels

A

b. Non-gated ion channels

139
Q

The minimum and maximum velocity conductivity of nerve fibers are:

a. 1 m/sec; 1,000 m/sec
b. 0.0001 m/sec ; 10,000 m/sec
c. 0.35 m/sec ; 150 m/sec
d. 0.25 m/sec ; 100 m/sec

A

d. 0.25 m/sec ; 100 m/sec

140
Q

In order for a plateau in some action potentials to occur, which of the following factors are considered?

a. Voltage activated sodium channels and voltage-activated calcium-sodium channels
b. Voltage-activated sodium-channels
c. Voltage-activated sodium channels, voltage-activated calcium-sodium channels, and Potassium channels
d. Potassium channels

A

c. Voltage-activated sodium channels, voltage-activated calcium-sodium channels, and Potassium channels

141
Q

In order for a sodium channel to reopen, the nerve fibers must undergo the process of:

a. depolarization
b. repolarization
c. activation
d. inactivation

A

b. repolarization

142
Q

Calcium channels are said to be abundant in:

a. Smooth muscle and Skeletal muscle
b. Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle
c. Cardiac muscle and smooth muscle
d. Cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscles

A

c. Cardiac muscle and smooth muscle

143
Q

Procaine and Tetracaine, which are local anesthetics, play a role in the activation of the gates of sodium channels by:

a. easily opening the gates and increase excitability
b. preventing the opening of gates and preventing excitability
c. having a difficult opening of gates and reducing excitability
d. easily opening the gates and reducing excitability

A

c. having a difficult opening of gates and reducing excitability

144
Q

An increase in voltage of a weak stimulus may specifically ______a fiber

a. weaken
b. destroy
c. excite
d. paralyze

A

c. excite

145
Q

If there is a high requirement of Nernst potential in a membrane, what will happen to the diffusion of ions in the membrane?

a. Faster rate of diffusion b. prevention of diffusion
c. slower rate of diffusion
d. stable diffusion

A

b. prevention of diffusion

146
Q

In an Absolute Refractory Period, the greatest amount of impulse is said to be ___ impulses per second

a. 2,500
b. 250,000
c. 4,500
d. 6,500

A

a. 2,500

147
Q

What would be the effect in the molecules if there is a greater amount of pressure on one side of the membrane?

a. the molecules will stay the same
b. the molecules will be destroyed
c. the molecules of greater amount will diffuse on the other side
d. the molecules will increase in number

A

c. the molecules of greater amount will diffuse on the other side

148
Q

Why is facilitated diffusion not governed by Fick’s law of diffusion
A. Because it is a uniport B. Because it reaches a maximum velocity due to the conformational changes it undergoes. C. Because it requires metabolic energy D. Due to the presence of non-permeable membranes

A

B. Because it reaches a maximum velocity due to the conformational changes it undergoes.

149
Q

The rate of diffusion is determined by the ff. except? a. By the amount of substance

b. Velocity of kinetic motion
c. Number and sizes of openings
d. Electrochemical gradient

A

D electrochemical gradient

150
Q

Enzyme that facilitates the conversion of ATP to cAMP? a. Adenylyl cyclase

b. Ribozyme
c. Phosphatase
d. Adenylyl glutamate

A

a. Adenylyl cyclase

151
Q

Which of the following does cause a crisis in a patient with sickle cell anaemia?

A. Hypothermia
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Hypokalaemia

A

D. Hypokalaemia

152
Q 
Sodium Depolarization:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ; Potassium Depolarization:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
 A. Over shoot, Under shoot
 B. Under shoot, Over shoot
 C. Negative feedback, Positive feedback
 D. Positive feedback, Negative feedback
A

D. Positive feedback, Negative feedback

153
Q 
It is used to calculate the equilibrium potential at a given concentration difference of a permeable ion across a cell membrane. 
 A. Nernst Equation
 B. Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz Equation
 C. Goldman-Hedgkin-Katz Equation
 D. A and C
A

A. Nernst Equation

154
Q 
It calculates membrane potential on the inside of the membrane. 
 A. Nernst Equation
 B. Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz Equation
 C. Goldman-Hedgkin-Katz Equation
 D. A and C
A

B. Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz Equation

155
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ affects conduction velocity of nerve transmission.  
 A. Size of fiber
 B. Presence of myelin sheath
 C. Both A and B
 D. Presence of enzymes
A

C. Both A and B

156
Q

These are properties of the Local potentials, EXCEPT
A. Graded
B. Decremental
C. Irreversible D. Short-Acting

A

C. Irreversible

157
Q

If there is an increase in extracellular K concentration, the effect would be?
A. No effect on resting membrane potential
B. Increase resting membrane potential
C. Reduce the size of action potential
D. Decrease resting membrane potential

A

D. Decrease resting membrane potential

158
Q 
A necessary actor in both depolarization and repolarization of the nerve membrane.
 A. Voltage-gated Potassium Channel
 B. Ligand-gated Potassium Channel
 C. Voltage-gated Sodium Channel
 D. Ligand-gated Sodium Channel
A

C. Voltage-gated Sodium Channel

159
Q 
It plays a vital role in increasing the rapidity of repolarization of the membrane.
 A. Voltage-gated Potassium Channel
 B. Ligand-gated Potassium Channel
 C. Voltage-gated Sodium Channel
 D. Ligand-gated Sodium Channel
A

A. Voltage-gated Potassium Channel

160
Q 
It acts as an insulator around nerve axons and increases induction velocity 
 A. Ions
 B. Membrane
 C. Myelin
 D. Fibrous Sheath
A

C. Myelin

161
Q 
A type of potential that propagate from one cell to another. It spreads along the nerve fiber.
 A. Electrotonic Potential
 B. Action Potential
 C. Local Potential
 D. Depolarization
A

B. Action Potential

162
Q 
The centrioles form and move toward opposite ends of the cell ("the poles")
 A.) Interphase
B.) Prophase
C.) Metaphase
D.) Anaphase
A

B.) Prophase

163
Q 
\_\_\_ is the "resting" or non-mitotic portion of the cell cycle
 A.) Interphase
B.) Prophase
C.) Metaphase
D.) Anaphase
A

A.) Interphase

164
Q

The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell (“the equator”)

A.) Interphase
B.) Prophase
C.) Metaphase
D.) Anaphase

A

C.) Metaphase

165
Q 
\_\_\_ checkpoint ensures that the cell is large enough to divide, and that enough nutrients are available to support the resulting daughter cells.
 A.) G0
B.) G1
C.) M
D.) S
A

B.) G1

166
Q

The expressed traits of an organism A.) Phenotype
B.) Genotype
C.) Both
D.) Neither

A

A.) Phenotype

167
Q

5.) Elongate cellular structure composed of DNA and protein - they are the vehicles which carry DNA in cells A.) Chromosome
B.) Centromere
C.) Chromatid
D.) Centriole

A

A.) Chromosome

168
Q 
4.) The total hereditary endowment of DNA of a cell or organism
 A) locus
B) gene
C) genome
D) gamete
A

C) genome

169
Q 
The specific location of a gene on a chromosome
 A) locus
B) gene
C) genome
D) gamete
A

A) locus

170
Q 
Basic unit of heredity    
 A) locus
B) gene
C) genome
D) gamete
A

B) gene

171
Q 
Cellular condition where each chromosome type is represented by two homologous chromosomes
 A) diploid
B) haploid
C) gamete
D) somatic
A

A) diploid

172
Q 
Also called contact-dependent signalling. 
A. Autocrine signalling 
B. Paracrine signalling 
C. Endocrine signalling 
D. Juxtacrine signalling
A

D. Juxtacrine signalling

173
Q 
Also called synaptic transmission 
A. Paracrine signalling 
B. Neurocrine signalling 
C. Juxtacrine signalling 
D. Autocrine signalling
A

B. Neurocrine signalling

174
Q 
A peripheral membrane protein that anchors the cytoskeleton of red blood cells to an integral membrane transport protein
 A. Albumin 
B. Transferrin 
C. Ferritin
D. Hemosiderin
A

C. Ferritin

175
Q 
Features of carrier-mediated transport proteins except: 
A. Competition 
B. Stereospecificity 
C. Diffusion 
D. Saturation
A

C. Diffusion

176
Q 
How are peripheral membrane proteins attached to the cell membrane? 
A. Hydrophobic interactions 
B. Ionic bonds 
C. Van der Waals 
D. Electrostatic Interactions
A

D. Electrostatic Interactions

177
Q 
Osmotic pressure is calculated by 
A. Nernst Equation 
B. Gibbs-Donnan 
C. Starling 
D. van't Hoff equation
A

D. van’t Hoff equation

178
Q

Secondary active transport utilizes ATP by:
A. In the process of uphill movement of solute, ATP is hydrolyzed, and the energy source is directly coupled to the transport process.
B. It occurs down an electrochemical potential gradient.
C. Downhill movement of Na+ provides energy for uphill movement of the other solute.
D. Downhill movement of K, provides energy for uphill movement of the other solute.

A

C. Downhill movement of Na+ provides energy for uphill movement of the other solute.

179
Q

How does osmosis occur?
A. It occurs because of a concentration difference of water.
B. It occurs because of a pressure difference.
C. It depends whether the solute can cross the membrane.
D. Depends on the surface.

A

B. It occurs because of a pressure difference.

180
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of saturation?

A. The binding sites for solute on transport proteins are specific.
B. Recognition, binding, and transport of chemically related solutes.
C. Binding sites are occupied and the transport maximum is achieved.
D. Depends on the cell membrane whether eukaryotic or prokaryotic.

A

C. Binding sites are occupied and the transport maximum is achieved.

181
Q

Sickle cell Anemia is caused by the amino acid Valine when it replaced Glutamic acid in the 6th position of the protein sequence. What is the pathway of the Synthesis of Valine from DNA

a. Translation, transcription, Replication
b. Replication, translation, transcription
c. Replication, Transcription, Translation

A

B.Replication, transcription, translation

182
Q

It is found in the Respiratory Epithelium and Fallopian tubes

a. Purkinje cells
b. Desmin
c. Microvilli
d. Cilia

A

D. Cilia

183
Q

It is the cellular movement of the sperm a. rotary movement

b. bending movement
c. flagellar movement
d. Spindle movement

A

c. flagellar movement

184
Q

Milieu interieur

a. ECF
b. ICF
c. Ribosome
d. Chromatids

A

A. ECF

185
Q

It specialises in transport of nutrients for the cell and removal of cellular waste

a. ICF
b. ECF
c. Albumin
d. Cytoplasm

A

B. ECF

186
Q

It is the most abundant cation in the Extracellular fluid a. Sodium

b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Water

A

A. Sodium

187
Q 
What are the volumes of the body fluid compartments in a 50 kg woman?                  
 a.TBW = 30 L
ICF = 10 L
ECF = 20 L
IF = 7.5 L
Plasma = 5 L
b. TBW = 30 L
ICF = 20 L
ECF = 10 L
IF = 7.5 L
Plasma = 2.5 L
c. TBW = 30 L
ICF = 40 L
ECF = 10 L
IF = 8 L
Plasma = 2 L
A 
b. TBW = 30 L
ICF = 20 L
ECF = 10 L
IF = 7.5 L
Plasma = 2.5 L
188
Q

The extracellular fluid is composed of what body fluid compartment?

a. Interstitial Fluid 95% of ECF and Plasma 40% of ECF
b. Interstitial Fluid 75% of ECF and Plasma 30% of ECF
c. Interstitial Fluid 45% of ECF and Plasma 25% of ECF
d. Interstitial Fluid 25% of ECF and Plasma 75% of ECF

A

C. Interstitial Fluid 75% of ECF and Plasma 25% of ECF

189
Q

Uses organic messages that passes thru the blood in response to internal stimuli

a. Nervous Control
b. Hormonal control
c. Electric Control
d. Chemical Control

A

b. Hormonal control

190
Q

Fast Reaction in response to external stimuli and uses Electric Impulse

a. Nervous Control
b. Hormonal control
c. Electric Control
d. Chemical Control

A

b. Nervous control

191
Q

Maintains a constant internal environment

a. thalamus
b. homeostasis
c. covalent bond
d. Oxidation Reduction Reaction

A

b.homeostasis

192
Q

This is the model used to describe the covering of the cell

a. tri-layer membrane
b. Fluid Mosaic
c. Unit membrane
d. Stiff membrane

A

b. Fluid Mosaic

193
Q

What is the powerhouse of the cell?

a. nucleus
b. ribosome
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. Mitochondria

A

D. Mitochondria

194
Q 
A patient is scheduled for an elective surgery. The doctor ordered to stand by 2’u’ PRBC properly typed and cross matched. Upon examination for blood typing, they found out that the patient has an Agglutinogen A and B. What constituent Agglutinin does the patient have?
A.	Anti A
B.	Anti B
C.	Anti AB
D.	Anti O
E.	None of the above
A

E. None of the above

195
Q 
A patient with anemia is for blood transfusion. Few minutes upon transfusing the blood, the patient complaints of pruritus. Upon assessment, rashes are seen all over his face and upper extremities. What type of adverse blood transfusion reaction occurred?
A.	Immunologic
B.	Non-immunologic
C.	Infection
D.	Immunomodulation
A

A. Immunologic

196
Q 
A first year medicine student accidentally pricked his finger upon dissecting the cadaver. Knowing the inflammatory response, this cell releases histamine causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.
A.	Glial cell
B.	Plasma cell
C.	Mast cell
D.	Cell of Martinotti
A

C. Mast cell

197
Q 
During Bone Marrow Aspiration, the anesthesiologist noted a yellow fatty specimen. The patient age would more likely be.
A.	5 years old
B.	10 years old
C.	15 years old
D.	20 years old
A

D. 20 years old

198
Q 
How many oxygen molecules can 1 hemoglobin molecule bind?
A.	1
B.	2
C.	3
D.	4
A

D. 4

199
Q 
On a microscopic view, differential count of the patient has an increase number of round, densely stained nucleus with a pale basophilic and non granular cytoplasm. The doctor suspects the infection to be:
A.	Bacterial
B.	Viral
C.	Fungal
D.	Protozoan
A

B. Viral

200
Q

Male with a haemoglobin of 80%, and a reticulocyte count of 10%. Possible diagnosis

:A. Untreated pernicious anaemia
B. Aplastic anaemia
C. Acute leukaemia
D. Hereditary spherocytosis

A

D. Hereditary spherocytosis

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