Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Paramedic > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Atrial kick is defined as:

A

Increased preload pressure as a result of atrial contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Grey Turner sign is correct?

A

Grey Turner sign is characterized by flank bruising and indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Periumbilical ecchymosis is:

A

Referred to as Cullen sign and may take hours or days to develop following abdominal trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Distributive shock in children is MOST often the result of:

A

Sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The primary function of the tactical paramedic is to provide:

A

Care for law enforcement teams who make entry into violent situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition in which

A

Liver disease causes reduced brain function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Patients with a colostomy

A

Have had a surgical procedure that directs the large intestine out through a stoma in the anterior abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Unlike adults, children who are struck by a motor vehicle are MORE likely to

A

Be run over by the vehicle as they are propelled to the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

According to the rule of nines, an adult man with partial- and full-thickness burns to his head, face, and anterior chest has burns to ____% of his total body surface area

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Production of clotting factors is a function of the

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Flash burns

A

Are usually relatively minor compared with the potential for trauma from whatever caused the flash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The pediatric assessment triangle was designed to

A

Help EMS providers form a hands-off general impression of an ill child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient with orthopnea

A

Seeks a sitting position when short of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Early signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure include

A

Headache and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a sustained increase in intracranial pressure?

A

Intracranial tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

As intracranial pressure rises

A

Cerebral herniation may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In contrast to patients in shock, patients with increased intracranial pressure MOST often experience:

A

A widened pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hyperventilating a patient who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) will

A

Constrict the cerebral vasculature and decrease cerebral perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the cerebral perfusion pressure of a patient with a mean arterial pressure of 80 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure of 5 mm Hg?

A

75 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For any patient with an increase in intracranial pressure, the paramedic must

A

Maintain an adequate blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Intracranial pressure is determined by the volume of the intracranial contents

A

The brain, blood, & cerebrospinal fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Signs for ICP

A

Increased blood pressure with a decrease in the pulse and respiratory rate (shock has low BP, hypotension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following would have the MOST negative effect on the outcome of a patient with an intracranial hemorrhage?

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The MOST immediate and significant complication associated with a hemorrhagic stroke is

A

Increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The downslope of the T wave:

A

Represents a vulnerable period during which a strong impulse could cause depolarization, resulting in a lethal arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Atrial fibrillation can be interpreted by nothing

A

An irregularly irregular rhythm and absent P waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is the result of:

A

Excess carbon dioxide elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Penetrating abdominal trauma MOST commonly results from:

A

Low-velocity gunshot or stab wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What would make a partial thickness burn critical?

A

If it involves more than 30% of the body surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A full thickness burn is considered to be critical if it

A

Occurs in a patient with significant medical illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Unlike partial-thickness burns, full-thickness burns

A

Destroy the base membrane of the dermis that produces new skin cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following statements regarding partial-thickness burns is correct?

A

Partial-thickness burns are usually extremely painful for the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The application of ice to partial-thickness burns:

A

Can exacerbate tissue injury and should be avoided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Full-thickness circumferential burns to the chest:

A

May cause significant restriction of respiratory excursion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The respiratory centers of the brainstem lie within the:

A

Pons and medulla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The respiratory center of the brain is located in the

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What portion of the brain stem regulates respiratory rate and depth?

A

Pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The involuntary part of the brain that controls breathing?

A

Breathing originates in the pons and medulla oblongata (brain stem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The MOST significant immediate danger resulting from an earthquake is

A

Structural collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is manufactured in the:

A

Ventricles of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A first-degree heart block has a PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds because

A

Each impulse that reaches the AV node is delayed slightly longer than expected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A positive Murphy sign is characterized by

A

A sudden stop in inspiration due to sharp pain when pressure is applied to the right upper quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

All of the following are voluntary muscles, EXCEPT:

A

Smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cardiac muscle comprises the heart. This muscle is:

A

Nonstriated and involuntary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Nonstriated muscle is also called _________ muscle.

A

Smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called

A

Ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Normally, an adult at rest should have respirations that

A

Follow a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood in the pulmonary capillaries is called:

A

External respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The byproduct of cellular respiration is

A

Carbon Dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

You are assessing a 6-year-old Asian child who presents with a fever. During your assessment, you note red, flat, rounded lesions on the child’s torso. This finding is MOST indicative of

A

Cupping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q 
Common causes of trismus in an unresponsive patient include all of the following, EXCEPT
•	An active seizure
•	A head injury
•	Cerebral hypoxia
•	Opiate toxicity
A

Opiate toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Furosemide (Lasix) increases urinary output by?

A

Blocking sodium absorption at the distal and proximal tubules and the loop of Henley.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ondansetron hydrochloride (Zofran) prevents nausea and vomiting by:

A

Blocking serotonin receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Mild effects of cyanide exposure

A

Generally resolve by simply removing the victim from the environment and administering oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In contrast to alpha radiation, beta radiation:

A

Requires a layer of clothing to stop it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A dislocation is considered an urgent injury because of its potential to cause:

A

Neurovascular compromise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hyphema is defined as:

A

blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A newborn is at GREATEST risk for meconium aspiration if he or she:

A

Is born at more than 42 weeks’ gestation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

Erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hepatitis B is also referred to as:

A

Serum hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The MOST common etiology for Bradycardia in a newborn is:

A

Severe hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A specific attribute of a Level I trauma center is that it:

A

Has 24-hour in-house coverage by general surgeons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A spontaneous abortion:

A

Occurs naturally and may or may not have an identifiable cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include:

A

Bradycardia and sluggish reflexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Unlike hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism:

A

Causes an increase in oxygen demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Drugs that have alpha or beta sympathetic properties are called

A

Sympathomimetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Any sympathomimetic drug will cause:

A

Tachycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Catecholamines and sympathomimetic medications should be administered with caution because they:

A

Can increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following statements regarding sympathomimetic chemicals is correct?

A

They are not found naturally in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The major complication associated with hollow organ injury is:

A

Peritonitis caused by rupture and spillage of toxins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Generalized abdominal pain following a rupture of hollow organ is Most indicative of

A

Diffuse peritoneal contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Isolated rib fractures may result in inadequate ventilation because:

A

He patient often purposely limits chest wall movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

You are transporting a conscious and alert man who experienced an isolated blunt injury to the right anterolateral chest. His vital signs are stable, but he is dyspneic and his breath sounds are diminished over the apex of his right lung. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, the MOST critical intervention for this patient involves:

A

Frequently reassessing him for signs of clinical deterioration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Kyphosis is characterized by:

A

A hunchback appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when

A

The cells metabolize fat and produce ketones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis experiences polydipsia as a result of:

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Severe dehydration that commonly accompanies diabetic ketoacidosis is caused by:

A

Hyperglycemia-induced osmotic diuresis and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Metabolic causes of abnormal behavior include:

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In contrast to patients in shock, patients with increased intracranial pressure MOST often experience

A

A widened pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A patient with quiet tachypnea is MOST likely experiencing:

A

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Hypoperfusion (shock) can result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
• Increased systemic vascular resistance
• Widespread dilation of the blood vessels
• Failure of red blood cells to deliver oxygen
• A marked decrease in the patient’s pulse rate

A

Increased systemic vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

An epidural hematoma typically causes rapid deterioration in the head-injured patient’s condition because:

A

It is associated with brisk arterial bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Adenosine is contraindicated for patients with:

A

Drug-induced tachycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q 
Common signs of bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract include all of the following, EXCEPT:
•	Melena.  
•	Hematochezia.  
•	Melena.  
•	Hematemesis.
A

Hematochezia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q 
Major cations of the body include all of the following, EXCEPT:
•	Sodium.
•	Bicarbonate.
•	Magnesium.
•	Potassium
A

Bicarbonate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Victims standing near an object that is struck by lightning:

A

• Often have burns characterized by a feathering pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The MOST common cause of death following a tricyclic antidepressant overdose is:

A

A cardiac dysrhythmia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Cor pulmonale is MOST accurately defined as:

A

Right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Hypothermia is defined as a decrease in core body temperature, generally starting at:

A

95°F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Down syndrome is a condition in which:

A

A triplication of chromosome 21 occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which of the following statements regarding partial-thickness burns is correct?

A

Partial-thickness burns are usually extremely painful for the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Rocuronium bromide (Zemuron) is classified as a:

A

nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Grey Turner sign is defined as ecchymosis to the _________ and is indicative of _________.

A

Flank, retroperitoneal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol) is a(n):

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Addison’s disease is MOST correct?

A

It most often occurs when the immune system creates antibodies that attack and destroy the adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The MOST common cause of Addisonian crisis is:

A

abrupt termination of corticosteroid use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The primary clinical manifestation of Addisonian crisis is:

A

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
• Consistent PR intervals and upright P waves. .
• A consistent heart rate between 60 and 100 beats/min. .
• Minimal variation between the R-R intervals. .
• QRS complexes that are less than 140 milliseconds.

A

QRS complexes that are less than 140 milliseconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Jugular venous distention during a tension pneumothorax:

A

Is caused by blood accumulation in the vena cava.

100
Q

Unlike bacteria, viruses:

A

do not produce exotoxins or endotoxins

101
Q

In contrast to stable angina, unstable angina:

A

often awakens the patient from his or her sleep.

102
Q

Stable angina:

A

occurs after a predictable amount of exertion.

103
Q

Dry powder chemicals:

A

should be brushed off the skin before irrigation with water.

104
Q

Dysarthria is:

A

The inability to make speech sounds correctly.

105
Q

A patient with dysarthria has

A

Slurred speech

106
Q

The MOST significant complication associated with dysphagia is:

A

Compromise of the airway

107
Q

Calcium chloride may be beneficial to patients with beta-blocker overdose because it:

A

Increases cardiac contractility.

108
Q

Symptoms of delirium tremens usually begin within ___ to ___ hours after the last alcohol intake.

A

24, 72

109
Q

Patients with delirium tremens often experience:

A

Hallucinations.

110
Q

A staggering gait is MOST suggestive of damage to the:

A

Cerebellum

111
Q

Vasoconstriction occurs following stimulation of:

A

Alpha receptors

112
Q

A pure alpha agent:

A

Causes marked vasoconstriction

113
Q

Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors results in:

A

Vasoconstriction

114
Q

Alpha-1, Angiotensin II:

A

Is a potent vasoconstrictor

115
Q

Cardiac output is influenced by:

A

Heart rate and/or stroke volume.

116
Q

A positive Babinski reflex is observed when the:

A

Toes move upward in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot

117
Q

Most significant change in your pt. from preeclampsia to eclampsia

A

Seizures

118
Q

Fractures of the lower rib cage should make you MOST suspicious for injuries to the:

A

Liver or spleen

119
Q

Choanal atresia is defined as a:

A

Bony or membranous obstruction of the back of the nose.

120
Q

Increased intracranial pressure hydrocephalus occurs when

A

The movement of CSF decreases, but the production of CSF does not

121
Q

Hydrocephalus may occur if:

A

Cerebrospinal fluid absorption into the bloodstream is reduced.

122
Q

Biological agents are:

A

Naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory.

123
Q

A biologic agent’s incubation period is especially important for the paramedic to understand because:

A

The patient may be contagious despite the absence of signs and symptoms.

124
Q

A common sign of the measles is:

A

A blotchy red rash.

125
Q

The MOST common cause of right-sided heart failure is:

A

Left-sided heart failure

126
Q

Hepatomegaly and jugular venous distention are MOST suggestive of

A

Right heart failure

127
Q

The MOST significant immediate risk associated with an open fracture is:

A

Hemorrhage.

128
Q

o The MOST reliable indicator that a patient is no longer able to compensate for shock is:

A

Sluggishly reactive pupils.

129
Q

Sluggish pupils could indicate

A

Cerebral hypoxia

130
Q

What are the ingredients of CRACK cocaine

A

Cocaine mixed baking soda & water

131
Q

The most common sight of deceleration injury in the chest

A

Aorta

132
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a sight of potential injury when the aorta is subjected to shearing forces during rapid deceleration?
•	Ligamentum arteriosum
•	Anulus
•	Aortic hiatus
•	Coronary sinus
A

Coronary sinus

133
Q

Abruptio placenta is MOST accurately defined as:

A

Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall.

134
Q

Commotio cordis is a phenomenon in which:

A

Ventricular fibrillation is induced following blunt trauma to the chest during the heart’s repolarization period

135
Q

Cerebral palsy is a

A

nonprogressive, bilateral neuromuscular disorder in which voluntary muscles are poorly controlled.

136
Q 
o	Common complications associated with cerebral palsy include all of the following, EXCEPT
•	seizures.  
•	mental retardation.  
•	cardiovascular disease.  
•	visual impairment.
A

cardiovascular disease

137
Q

When dealing with a patient with cerebral palsy it is most important to be prepared for

A

Seizures and have suction ready

138
Q

If a pregnant woman is injured and is bleeding severely:

A

Blood flow will be diverted away from the uterus.

139
Q

Crackles or rales in the lungs following a myocardial contusion would MOST likely result from:

A

Left ventricular dysfunction

140
Q

Gross hemarturia and suprabubic pain following a pelvic injury is MOST indicative of

A

injury to the Bladder

141
Q

What type of thermal burn is most commonly associated with inhalation injury

A

Steam Burn

142
Q

With the exception of the aorta, great vessel injury is MOST likely to occur following

A

penetrating trauma

143
Q

When performing a cranial nerve assessment of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you note that the patient’s pupil is constricted and the upper eyelid droops

A

C3

144
Q

The MOST appropriate vagal maneuver for an infant involves:

A

Holding ice packs firmly to the face

145
Q

The MOST appropriate endotracheal tube for a 6-year-old child is:

A

5.5 mm, uncuffed

146
Q

Gestational hypertension:

A

May be an early sign of preeclampsia.

147
Q

Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

Erythema

148
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper eyelids?

A

Oculomotor

149
Q

In contrast to an abruptio placenta, a placenta previa

A

Usually presents with painless vaginal bleeding.

150
Q

The purpose of hospice care is to:

A

Provide quality end-of-life care through pain and symptom management.

151
Q

A person who is “speedballing” is:

A

• Using cocaine in combination with heroin, by injecting them either underneath the skin or directly into a vein, in order to regulate the high.

152
Q

In contrast to primary apnea, secondary apnea

A

Is usually unresponsive to stimulation alone.

153
Q

The hyoid bone

A

Floats in the superior aspect of the neck just below the mandible

154
Q

If the distance between the hyoid bone and the thyroid notch is at least ___ cm wide, the difficulty of intubation should be low

A

2

155
Q

The primary target of infection with the human immunodeficiency virus is the:

A

Immune system

156
Q

Treatment for pediatric asystole includes:

A

Epinephrine.

157
Q

In contrast to adults, cardiac arrest in children is usually caused by:

A

Respiratory failure.

158
Q

The recommended IV dose and concentration of epinephrine for the newborn is:

A

0.1 to 0.3 mL/kg, 1:10,000.

159
Q

Appropriate treatment for a conscious child with anaphylaxis includes

A

0.01 mg/kg epinephrine 1:1,000 IM.

160
Q

The intervention of choice for pediatric bradycardia that is refractory to effective ventilations and chest compressions is:

A

Epinephine

161
Q

You are attempting to intubate a 5-year-old girl when you note that her heart rate has fallen from 120 beats/min to 80 beats/min. A patent IV line has been established. The MOST appropriate action is to:

A

Abort the attempt and ventilate with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.

162
Q

When attempting resuscitation of a child with pulseless electrical activity, you should:

A

Attempt to identify an underlying cause of the arrest

163
Q

Esophageal varices are a direct result of:

A

Portal hypertension.

164
Q

A sudden onset of discomfort in the throat, severe dysphagia, and vomiting bright red blood is MOST indicative of:

A

Ruptured esophageal varicies

165
Q

Cyanide is a chemical asphyxiant, which means that it:

A

Interferes with the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level.

166
Q

Ricin is a neurotoxin that is derived from:

A

Mash that is left from the castor bean.

167
Q

The poisonous part of the apricot plant is the _______, which contains:

A

Seed, cyanide

168
Q

The toxic chemical in castor beans is:

A

Ricin

169
Q

When caring for a prolapsed umbilical cord, you should:

A

Keep the presenting part of the baby off the umbilical cord during rapid transport to the hospital.

170
Q

Which of the following is NOT an antepartum risk factor that increases the potential that a newborn may require resuscitation?

A

Prolapsed cord

171
Q

Chest compressions are indicated in the newborn if its heart rate remains less than ____ beats/min despite effective positive-pressure ventilations for ____ seconds.

A

60, 30

172
Q

You and your partner are caring for a 5-pound distressed newborn. After providing 30 seconds of effective bag-mask ventilations, the newborn’s heart rate remains below 60 beats/min. You should:

A

Continue bag-mask ventilations and initiate chest compressions.

173
Q

If you are unsure if a patient became hypothermic prior to developing cardiac arrest, you should:

A

Begin resuscitative efforts.

174
Q

Hydramnios is a condition in which:

A

There is too much amniotic fluid

175
Q

The typical adult dose for midazolam (Versed) is:

A

2 to 2.5 mg.

176
Q

The amount of blood that is pumped out by either ventricle per minute is called:

A

Cardiac Output

177
Q

Blood pressure is the product of:

A

Cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance.

178
Q

Which of the following two factors DIRECTLY affect cardiac output?

A

Stroke volume and pulse rate.

179
Q

Strength of a person’s peripheral pulses is related to:

A

Stroke volume and pulse pressure.

180
Q

With regard to stroke volume, the healthy heart:

A

Can easily increase stroke volume by 50%.

181
Q

The amount of blood returned to the heart is called:

A

Preload

182
Q

Afterload is defined as the:

A

Pressure in the aorta against which the left ventricle must pump.

183
Q

Because significant force is required to fracture the mandible:

A

it is often fractured in more than one place and is unstable to palpation

184
Q

Considerations with a fractured mandible

A

Getting a proper mask seal with BVM could be difficult.

185
Q

Which of the following injury patterns is MOST suggestive of child abuse?

A

Bruises on the abdomen

186
Q

You should be MOST suspicious for child abuse when caring for an injured 4-year-old child if:

A

There was an unusual delay in calling 9-1-1.

187
Q

A patient standing with his or her head cocked toward a knocked-down left shoulder MOST likely has a fracture of the:

A

Left clavicle

188
Q

Which of the following bones is MOST vulnerable to injury?

A

Clavicle

189
Q

The use of a straight blade during pediatric intubation

A

Makes it easier to manipulate the epiglottis.

190
Q

Which of the following signs of a basilar skull fracture would MOST likely be observed in the prehospital setting?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid drainage from the ear

191
Q

When functioning during a heat wave, the paramedic should:

A

Take small, constant sips of water throughout the day.

192
Q

A terminal illness is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A

Disease process that is expected to cause death within 6 months, verified by a physician.

193
Q

A subluxation occurs when:

A

A joint is partially dislocated.

194
Q

What type of intracranial hemorrhage would MOST likely be caused by a penetrating head injury?

A

Intracerebral hematoma

195
Q

According to the Waddell triad, the second impact from a motor vehicle occurs when the:

A

Chest and abdomen strike the grille or low on the hood of the car.

196
Q 
o	All of the following are indicators of the potential for violence, EXCEPT
•	Clenching of the fists. 
•	Uncontrollable pacing. 
•	A large body build. 
•	The use of profanity.
A

A large body build.

197
Q

A crushing or tearing amputation:

A

Can result in excessive blood loss due to hemorrhage if the paramedic does not intervene rapidly.

198
Q

Approximately ____ mL of air remains in the anatomic dead space of an adult with a tidal volume of 500 mL.

A

150

199
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anatomic dead space is MOST correct?

A

Anatomic dead space is about 1 mL per pound of body weight.

200
Q

Shallow water blackout occurs when

A

A swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.

201
Q

Radiation exposure that occurs through the body is MOST appropriately termed:

A

Irradiation.

202
Q

Patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma:

A

Present with severe dehydration and neurologic deficits.

203
Q

Prehospital treatment for patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma focuses on:

A

Airway management and fluid rehydration

204
Q

A diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction is made if ST-segment __________ of ___ mm or more is seen in ___ or more contiguous leads.

A

Elevation of 1 mm or more, is seen in two or more contiguous leads

205
Q

Which of the following statements regarding fentanyl (Sublimaze) is correct?

A

The peak effect of fentanyl is 3 to 5 minutes.

206
Q

To increase myocardial contractility and heart rate and to relax the bronchial smooth muscle, you must give a drug that:

A

Stimulates and beta-2 receptors.

207
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by:

A

Changes in pulmonary structure and function that are progressive and irreversible.

208
Q

Patients with COPD typically experience an acute exacerbation of their condition because of:

A

Environmental changes such as weather or the inhalation of trigger substances.

209
Q

Unlike hurricanes, tsunamis:

A

Cannot always be predicted with the same amount of accuracy.

210
Q

Upper airway damage following a burn is MOST often caused by:

A

Direct flame exposure to the oropharynx.

211
Q

In contrast to delirium, dementia is:

A

A progressive disease that produces irreversible brain failure.

212
Q

___________ Respirations are characterized by a grossly irregular pattern of breathing that may be accompanied by lengthy periods of apnea

A

Biot

213
Q

Hepatomegaly and jugular venous distention are MOST suggestive of:

A

Right heart failure.

214
Q

Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome:

A

Have an accessory pathway that bypasses the AV node and causes early ventricular depolarization.

215
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia is MOST accurately defined as:

A

A tachycardic rhythm originating from a pacemaker site above the level of the ventricles.

216
Q

Patients with heatstroke:

A

Have a core temperature greater than 104°F.

217
Q

The diagnosis of heat stroke is usually made when a patient has a high core body temperature and:

A

An altered mental status

218
Q

In contrast to an AV fistula, an AV graft:

A

Creates a raised area beneath the skin that resembles a large vessel.

219
Q 
In mild hypothermia, an older person would likely present with all of the following, EXCEPT:
•	Dysarthria. 
•	Noted ataxia. 
•	Shivering. 
•	A flat affect.
A

Shivering.

220
Q

Sodium bicarbonate may be indicated for all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A

hypokalemia

221
Q

Gross distortions of reality, withdrawal from social contacts, and bizarre behavior are MOST characteristic of:

A

Schizophrenia.

222
Q

State of delusion in which a person is out of touch with reality is MOST appropriately termed:

A

Psychosis

223
Q

Delirium is MOST accurately defined as:

A

An acute alteration in mentation that indicates an underlying condition.

224
Q

Common signs of gestational diabetes include

A

Polydipsia.

225
Q

Gestational diabetes is caused by

A

Increased insulin production and decreased cellular sensitivity to insulin.

226
Q

Diltiazem is commonly used for patients with:

A

Rapid atrial fibrillation.

227
Q

During the refractory period:

A

The cell is depolarized or in the process of repolarizing.

228
Q

The __________ represents the end of ventricular depolarization and the beginning of repolarization

A

J point

229
Q

The early phase of cardiac repolarization, wherein the heart muscle cannot be stimulated to depolarize; also known as the effective refractory period

A

Absolute refractory period

230
Q

Displacement of bony fragments into the anterior portion of the spinal cord results in:

A

Anterior cord syndrome

231
Q

A condition associated with extension injuries with isolated injury to the dorsal column, presents as decreased sensation to light touch, proprioception, and vibration while leaving most other motor and sensory function intact

A

Posterior Cord Syndrome

232
Q

What spinal cord injury is characterized by motor loss on the same side as the injury, but below the lesion?

A

Brown-Séquard syndrome

233
Q

Which of the following statements regarding central cord syndrome is correct?

A

The patient typically presents with greater loss of function in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities.

234
Q 
Signs of neurogenic shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
•	bradycardia.  
•	flushed skin.  
•	diaphoresis.  
•	hypothermia.
A

diaphoresis

235
Q

A loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone causes:

A

Neurogenic shock.

236
Q

What physiologic effect of anaphylactic shock is seen MOST commonly in patients with neurogenic shock?

A

Widespread vasodilation

237
Q

When an adult pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle, lateral and posterior injuries are most common because:

A

Adults tend to turn to the side or away from the impact

238
Q

Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus:

A

Need exogenous insulin to survive.

239
Q

A person with type 1 diabetes:

A

Generally does not produce any insulin and requires daily insulin injections.

240
Q

Type 1 diabetes that is secondary to an autoimmune disorder occurs when:

A

The body builds up antibodies that destroy the islets of Langerhans.

241
Q

Unlike partial-thickness burns, full-thickness burns:

A

Destroy the base membrane of the dermis that produces new skin cells.

242
Q

LSD is classified as a:

A

Hallucinogen.

243
Q

A rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle groups that is commonly observed during a seizure is called __________ activity.

A

Clonic.

244
Q

During a generalized tonic/clonic seizure, the patient is rigid and his back is arched. This represents the _________ phase of the seizure.

A

Hypertonic.

245
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct?

A

In a unified command system, multiple agencies from multiple jurisdictions work together to develop a plan that involves shared responsibilities.

246
Q

The unified command system:

A

Allows representatives from multiple jurisdictions and agencies to share command authority and responsibility.

Paramedic (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions