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Immunology > first test > Flashcards

first test Flashcards

1
Q

define immunity

A

means being defended or protected against some threat

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2
Q

what are the two general types of threats

A

external and internal

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3
Q

what are external threats

A

foreign, do NOT belong in the body= non self

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4
Q

what are internal threats

A

foreign-appearing, mutated, altered self

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5
Q

What does the IS act as to external threats

A

the body’s army-rid anything that doesn’t belong

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6
Q

What does the IS act as to internal threats

A

manages what’s in the body and removes problem causers

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7
Q

What are the three functions of the IS

A

1-recognize the threat
2-respond to threat by killing the foreign or altered cell
3-remembers the threat in case of a future attack

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8
Q

What is an important feature of recognizing the threat

A

identify or detect the difference between self and non self or altered self

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9
Q

How is immunity commonly categorized

A

by the type of IS killer

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10
Q

What are the two types of immunity

A

humoral

cell mediated

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11
Q

What is humoral immunity

A

“fluid-based” protection consisting of proteins dissolved in the blood stream

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12
Q

What is cell mediated immunity

A

protection provided by cells which directly lyse internal threats

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13
Q

Do these work independently or together

A

together through interactions, not side by side

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14
Q

What is the ratio of types of immunity for effectiveness

A

HI:CMI

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15
Q

What is another way to categorize immunity

A

adaptive vs innate

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16
Q

What is adaptive immunity

A

specific

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17
Q

What is innate immunity

A

non specific

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18
Q

How is innate immunity non specific

A

broad range of threats recognized by certain cells

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19
Q

What cells are involved in innate immunity

A

macrophages

NK cells

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20
Q

What do macrophages do

A

have receptor which binds to many different kinds of bacteria

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21
Q

What do NK cells do

A

have a receptor which recognizes many different defective body cells

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22
Q

Why is innate non specific

A

everyone has these cells at all stages of life, these allow for quick responses

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23
Q

How big is the response of innate immunity

A

very limited in size

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24
Q

How is adaptive immunity specific

A

cells recognize a single threat due to each having a unique “threat” receptor

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25
Q

What is the response time for adaptive immunity

A

slowly 7-10 days

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26
Q

How big is the response for adaptive immunity

A

larger

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27
Q

What does adaptive immunity include that innate immunity doesn’t have

A

memory to prevent a recurrence of the particular threat

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28
Q

What is an antigen

A

a foreign or foreign-appearing substance that provokes the production of defenders that recognize the substance

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29
Q

How are antigens recognized

A

due to complementary matching shapes

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30
Q

Completely foreign antigens stimulate what response

A

humoral immunity

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31
Q

partially foreign antigens stimulate what response

A

CMI

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32
Q

antigens are what in regards to composition

A

biological molecules

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33
Q

Where are these biological molecules

A

found free in solution or on the surface of the threat

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34
Q

What are the four main biological molecules that could be antigens

A

proteins
carbohydrates
nucleic acids
PLP

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35
Q

What is the most abundant biological molecule antigen

A

protein

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36
Q

What is the size of biological molecule

A

very large-100s of AA, dozens of sugars, thousands of nucleic acids

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37
Q

What does antigen refer to

A

the whole biological molecule

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38
Q

What do the IS cells recognize

A

not the whole antigen but certain regions

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39
Q

What are the smaller regions called

A

epitopes

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40
Q

How large are epitopes

A

few as 5 AA

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41
Q

how many epitopes on an AA

A

many epitopes that may be an immune response for each

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42
Q

How are antigens defined as

A

operationally

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43
Q

What does it mean antigens defined as operationally

A

antigens are biomolecules with other normal functions in another organism’s body

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44
Q

What is an antibody

A

large protein produced by an IS cell in response to an antigen

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45
Q

What is the structure of an antibody

A

y shaped molecule with a stem and two arms

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46
Q

What composes the stems of an antibody

A

same amino acid sequence as other antibodies

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47
Q

What is the stem region known as

A

the constant region

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48
Q

Why are the stems the constant region

A

because they have the same shape as other antibodies

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49
Q

What composes the arms of an antibody

A

different amino acid sequences

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50
Q

What are the arms known as

A

variable region

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51
Q

Why are the arms the variable region

A

different amino acids create different shapes making different from other antibodies for each antigen

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52
Q

What does the shape of the variable region match

A

the shape of the particular epitope on the antibody

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53
Q

What occurs when the antibody and epitope match

A

non covalent bonds form

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54
Q

What is it called when non covalent bonds form

A

recognition

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55
Q

What are the killers in humoral immunity

A

antibodies

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56
Q

What occurs to the antigen or epitope when an antibody bonds

A

physically covers so the antigen cannot perform its normal function

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57
Q

After the antibody covers the antigen what occurs

A

the cell with the antigen and antibody are lysed

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58
Q

What is the problem for the immune system

A

there are 10 million different epitopes requiring 10 million antibodies and other cells to recognize

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59
Q

What is the ratio of killer to epitope

A

1:1

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60
Q

What is the solution to this problem

A

IS makes a little bit of each of its 10 million antibodies and a few of each of its 10 million killer cells

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61
Q

What do these premade cells function as

A

sample or models that are on hand at all time

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62
Q

What happens when the IS selects an Ab or killer cell that matches an epitope

A

the IS will mass produce that cell to attack the threat

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63
Q

Where do we get all the genetic info for 10 million of each type of immunity

A

from the 20,000 genes–take genes with exons and introns and splice together in various combinations, zap with mutations

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64
Q

What are the four main groups of IS cells

A

B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
“other” lymphocytes
phagocytic cells

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65
Q

What are B lymphocytes

A

B cells

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66
Q

Where do b cells mature

A

in bone marrow

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67
Q

What is the function of B cells

A

to produce and secrete antibodies

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68
Q

What are T lymphocytes

A

T cells

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69
Q

Where do T cells mature

A

thymus gland

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70
Q

What are the two types of T cells

A

cytotoxic T cells

regulatory T cells

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71
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic T cells

A

kill foreign appearing cells

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72
Q

What is the function of regulatory T cells

A

enhance or suppress IRs by other IS cells

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73
Q

What are “other” lymphocyte cells

A

null cells

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74
Q

What is the function of null cells

A

directly kill foreign appearing cells

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75
Q

What null cell directly kills foreign appearing cells

A

Natural Killer cells (NK cells)

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76
Q

What are the phagocytic cells

A

macrophages and dendritic cells

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77
Q

What is the function of phagocytic cells

A

initiate IR by phagoctyosing antigen, processing it, presenting the pieces for all IS cells to see

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78
Q

What occurs after a phagocytic cell presents the antigen

A

T and B cells which recognize are selected to reproduce and attack the threat

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79
Q

What are macrophages and dendritic cells also known as

A

antigen presenting cells

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80
Q

What are the two ways that all four groups of IS cells can interact

A

through direct contact and indirect

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81
Q

What is direct contact

A

via receptors

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82
Q

How does direct contact use receptors

A

surface molecules with matching shapes in which multiple molecules must match so they don’t attack each other

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83
Q

How does indirect contact work

A

via signals sent in the form of hormone like molecules

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84
Q

what are the hormone like molecules

A

interleukins, lymphokines, cytokines

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85
Q

What are interleukins

A

“between leukocytes”

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86
Q

what are lymphokines

A

“lymphocyte stimulator”

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87
Q

When is the IS prepared

A

before birth IS recognizes 10 million different epitopes

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88
Q

General steps of IR

A

1-bacteria penetrates surface and multiplies
2- phagocytic cell detects and phagocytoses a few
3-phagocytosed bacteria processed into antigens and epitopes
4-epitopes presented to the 10 million lymphocytes
5-selected cells multiply and secrete antibodies to attack
6-antibodies bond to epitopes of surface
7-phagocytic cells with receptors for Ab stems latch onto the bacteria and phagocytose them
8-ON SECOND EXPOSURE-rapid reaction by memory cells left over from first exposure to prevent disease

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89
Q

What is the estimated amount of lymphocytes scattered throughout the body

A

10^12

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90
Q

How many total cells in the body

A

10^14

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91
Q

lymphocytes make up what percent of body weight

A

1%

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92
Q

What are the first steps in development of lymphocytes

A

division of pluripotent stem cells into unipotent lmphocyte progenitor cells

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93
Q

Where does devolpment of lymphocytes occur

A

bone marrow

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94
Q

What does pluripotent mean

A

multiple ptential

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95
Q

What does multiple potential mean

A

it can develop into any blood cell

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96
Q

What is another name for pluripotent stem cell

A

hemocytoblast

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97
Q

what does hemocytoblast mean

A

blood cell former

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98
Q

What do PSC encounter at the fork in the road

A

whether to self-renew or begin developing into a blood cell

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99
Q

What does it mean to self-renew

A

remain a PSC to maintain the supply

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100
Q

What is another fork in the road PSC encounter

A

whether to be a lymphoid stem cell or myeloid stem cell

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101
Q

What is the eventual end of a lymphoid stem cell

A

lymphocyte

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102
Q

what is the eventual end of myeloid stem cell

A

some other kind of blood cell

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103
Q

What do lymphoid stem cells and myleoid stem cells specialize into

A

progenitor cells

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104
Q

What are the three main types of progenitor cells

A

B progenitor
T progenitor
erythroid progenitor

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105
Q

What decides the path the PSC will take

A

interleukins and cytokines present at that time and location

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106
Q

What are cytokines

A

growth factors of the immune system

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107
Q

What are cytokines called

A

colony stimulating factors

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108
Q

What produces CSF

A

bone cells

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109
Q

What are interleukins produced by

A

other blood cells

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110
Q

T and B progenitor cells are what

A

unipotent

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111
Q

What does unipotent mean

A

has a single potential or fate to be the specific blood cells called lymphocytes

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112
Q

Where does the transition from the PSC to the UPC take place

A

in different organs at different stages of embryonic development

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113
Q

Where does the transition first take place

A

embryonic yolk sac

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114
Q

Where does the transition take place after the yolk sac

A

moved to fetal liver and spleen

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115
Q

After the spleen and liver it is relocated where

A

bone marrow

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116
Q

What occurs to the progenitor cells over time

A

begin to mature by turning into naive or antigen sensing lymphocytes

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117
Q

At this stage is the fate of ASL determined

A

yes, each will become a very sepcific type of lymphocyted

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118
Q

How specific will it be

A

recognize only 1 epitope- antigen sensing

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119
Q

can progenitor cells recognize antigens

A

No not until they are ASL

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120
Q

Where does the transition from progenitor cell to ASL take place

A

in a primary lymphoid organ

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121
Q

When does this transition occur

A

before birth-as all 10 million are available after birth

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122
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs

A

thymus and bone marrow

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123
Q

What are the two important things ASL learn while in primary organ

A

to recognize an epitope

to tolerate self proteins

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124
Q

What does recognizing an epitope require of a cell

A

a receptor, so maturing ASL receives receptor

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125
Q

In the primary lymphoid organ, what is present

A

NON-foreign antigens, only self proteins

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126
Q

What occurs if a ASL recognizes a non foreign antigen

A

it is killed or deleted

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127
Q

What would occur if cell wasn’t deleted and left to attack own antigen

A

autoimmunity

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128
Q

How is a self cell killed

A

telling itself to self desturct=commit cell suicide

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129
Q

What is cell suicide called

A

apoptosis

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130
Q

What is a feature of all epitopes in primary lymphoid organ

A

they are all considered self so all others outside are considered non-self

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131
Q

Once the ASL learns these things what occurs

A

they graduate and move to a secondary lymphoid organ to enter real world

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132
Q

What occurs in the third transition

A

ASL differentiates into an effector lymphocyte or a memory lymphocyte

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133
Q

Where does third transition occur

A

in secondary organ where it encounters antigens

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134
Q

When an ASL is presented an epitope it recognizes, what occurs

A

it proliferates, forming a larger clone of identical epitope recognizing cells, then they differentiate

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135
Q

If it was an antigen sensitive B cell what occurs

A

secrete antibodies to attack the antigen

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136
Q

If it was an antigen sensitive CTL

A

directly attack antigen bearing altered self cells

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137
Q

If it was an antigen sensitive regulatory T cell

A

secrets interleukins to assist the proliferation of the other effector cells

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138
Q

What does the secondary lymphoid organ function as

A

lymphocytes workplace and holding site for lymphocytes

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139
Q

Where are all progenitor cells produced

A

in bone marrow

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140
Q

Some progenitor cells stay in bone marrow others go to the

A

thymus

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141
Q

What calls some progenitor cells to the thymus

A

released into bloodstream and are attracted by thymic cytokines and cell adhesion molecules to leave bloodstream

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142
Q

What do progenitor cells called to the thymus mature into

A

antigen sensitive T lymphocytes

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143
Q

What is the thymus

A

shapeless organ

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144
Q

Where is the thymus located

A

ventral surface of the body between lungs beneath sternum

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145
Q

what is present in the thymus and induces maturation

A

cytokines

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146
Q

maturing cells are shielded from contact with

A

foreign antigen

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147
Q

what shields the cells

A

placenta and extra thick basement membrane and a continuous layer of cells around capillaries that enter thymus

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148
Q

If a foreign protein is present what occurs

A

it will be considered as self and not attacked

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149
Q

What can mature T cells be identified by

A

appearance of new proteins or markers on their surface

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150
Q

What do progenitor cells that mature in bone marrow mature into

A

naive, antigen-sensitive B lymphocytes

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151
Q

bone marrow contains the proper mix of

A

growth factors to stimulate maturation

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152
Q

once mature, where do B cells go

A

to secondary lymphoid organ

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153
Q

What occurs in the secondary lymphoid organ

A

ASLs are stored, encounter antigens, proliferate and differentiate

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154
Q

What does the secondary lymphoid organ contain

A

large populations of all cells necessary

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155
Q

what are the cells the secondary lymphoid organ contain

A

mature, naive, antigen sensitive B cells
mature helper and killer T cells
APCs-macrophages

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156
Q

How are the cells in the secondary lymphoid organ arranged

A

in rows or cords

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157
Q

Why are the cells arranged in rows or cords

A

blood or lymph flows through and antigens become trapped where it is presented to naive lymphocytes

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158
Q

When a naive lymphocyte is selected, what occurs

A

lymphocyte proliferates into a clone of cells, forming a visible structure

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159
Q

what is the visible structure called

A

germinal center or lymph nodule

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160
Q

What does proliferation cause

A

secondary lymphoid organ to increase in size

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161
Q

once selected, proliferated, and differentiated, what happens

A

cells leave the secondary organ and home in on infected inflamed areas

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162
Q

What leads them to these areas

A

cytrokines and cell adheasion molecules on the capillaries nearby

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163
Q

What are the 6 secondary lymphoid organs

A 
bone marrow
lymph nodes
spleen
tonsils
appendix
lymph nodules
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164
Q

Bone marrow does what function

A

filters blood

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165
Q

what is the size of lymph nodes

A

poppy seeds to kidney beans

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166
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes

A

filters lymph fluid that oozed out of blood capillaries due to pressure and needs to be reclaimed

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167
Q

How does lymph flow

A

edge of node toward the indentation and out

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168
Q

What is present in the cords

A

APC that phagoctyose antigens and present epitopes to the nearby ASL

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169
Q

What does the outer edge of lymph node contain

A

germinal centers

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170
Q

What are germinal centers

A

dense clusters of proliferating B cells

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171
Q

What is the function of germinal centers

A

secrete antivody into the lymph fluid

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172
Q

Some B cells, what name, reenter circulation and travel to body surfaces to defend them

A

plasma cells

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173
Q

How long does a germinal center exist

A

until the threat is gone and then it disbands

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174
Q

What is the function of the spleen

A

filters blood

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175
Q

What are the tonsils

A

less well organize collection of APC and ASL

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176
Q

When an antigen is encountered, what occurs in tonsils

A

germinal centers for, causing tonsils to swell

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177
Q

What are lymph nodules

A

where antigen, APCs and matching ASLs meet

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178
Q

where do lymph nodules form

A

anywhere, especially the lining of the large intestine

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179
Q

What are lymph nodules in the intestines called

A

Peyer’s patches

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180
Q

What are the primary groups of immune system cells

A

APC
T cells
B cells
null cells

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181
Q

How long do T cells survive

A

0.5-10 years

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182
Q

What percentage of lymphocytes do T cells make up

A

65-75%

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183
Q

How long do B cells survive

A

survive 1-2 months

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184
Q

What percentage of lymphocytes do B cells make up

A

20-30%

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185
Q

What percentage of null cells

A

less than 5%

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186
Q

What is the purpose of being able to distinguish

A

from each other
stages of development-different abilities of maturation
determine abilities of individual groups
aids in diagnosis
by each other during IS cell interactions

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187
Q

What are the 2 criteria for distinguishing

A

cell surface receptors

other proteins or markers

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188
Q

What are the T cell markers and receptors (8)

A 
TCR
CD2
CD4/CD8
CD28
CD5/CD3
MHC class 1 proteins
receptors for lymphokines
receptors for specific mitogens
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189
Q

What is the TCR

A

T cell receptor for an epitope

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190
Q

What is the TCR receptor expressed on

A

only antigen sensitive Tcells and later stages effector and memory T cells

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191
Q

What is the CD2

A

receptor on T cells for the ligand CD58 on APCs during the selection process; promotes proliferation

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192
Q

What is the CD4 or CD8

A

receptors on T cells for MHC proteins; like an ID card reader to recognize as self

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193
Q

What are MHC

A

major histocompatibility complex

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194
Q

What allows the ID card holder to be read as self

A

kinase enzyme relays signal across the plasma membrane

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195
Q

What is the CD28

A

T cell receptor for the B7 protein on APCs to “confirm identification”

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196
Q

What is the CD5 and CD3

A

T cell proteins present on all stages of T cell decelopment; signal transduction

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197
Q

What do the receptors for certain lymphokines do

A

stimulate proliferation

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198
Q

What do receptors for specific mitogens do

A

protein from kidney beans; used experimentally

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199
Q

What happens to many of the signals

A

converge to enhance the proliferation response

200
Q

What are identifying B cell markers (13)

A 
CD9/CD10
mIg
CD20
CD32
CD124
receptor for certain mitogens
CD21
CD19
MHC class 1 proteins
MHC class 2 proteins
CD40
B7 proteins
CD45
201
Q

What are CD9 and CD10

A

markers of immature B cells lost during development

202
Q

What are CD20

A

marker of all B cell lineages: expressed at all stages of development

203
Q

What is CD32

A

B cell receptor for the stems of secreted complexed antibodies

204
Q

What is the functional significance of CD32

A

way to capture antigen for processing and presentation

205
Q

What is CD124

A

receptor for certain lymphokines

206
Q

What is CD21

A

natural ligand: a complement protein leading to B cell activation signal

207
Q

What occurs to the CD21 and EBV

A

EBV takes advantage and enters B cell to cause mono

208
Q

What is CD19

A

detects mIg clustering and spatial concentrating of the signal to proliferate

209
Q

What are MHC class I proteins

A

ID card of self cells

210
Q

What are MHC class II proteins

A

ID card of APC

211
Q

What is CD40

A

for communication with helper T cells=subset of regulatory T cells

212
Q

What is B7 protein

A

communicates with CD28 on T cells

213
Q

What is CD45

A

transduces signal of antigen binding to the nucleus, stimulates proliferation

214
Q

What is the earliest marker of B cell identity

A

CD45

215
Q

How long do injected antibodies last

A

2 months

216
Q

What receptors do null cells lack

A

TCRs and mIGs

217
Q

What are null cells called

A

non B and non T lymphocytes

218
Q

What receptors does null cells have

A

NKG2D
CD16
receptors for specific lymphokines

219
Q

what are the main APC

A

macrophages and dendritic cells

220
Q

what is an easy way to recognize APC

A

morphologically different, larger than lymphocytes and irregularly shaped, ratio of cytoplasm

221
Q

How is the ratio of the cytoplasm different

A

nucleus larger than lymphocytes

222
Q

What are receptors for APC

A

TLR
CD64
MHC class II proteins
self CD47 proteins/SIRP alpha

223
Q

what is the CD64

A

high affinity receptor for Ab stems

224
Q

What are MHC class II proteins

A

identification as self, tells cytotoxic T cells to not shoot

225
Q

How does the APCs recognize self proteins in other cells

A

SIRP alpha receptor to avoid phagocytosing self cell

226
Q

All immune system cells and other cells have the receptor

A

Fas or CD95

227
Q

What does Fas or CD95 do

A

serves as the “off switch” in case they become mutant

228
Q

What does flipping the switch off cause

A

apoptosis

229
Q

What is the key to flip the switch

A

Fas-L or Fas ligand

230
Q

What usually possess the Fas-L ligand

A

CTLs and killer T cells and Nk cells

231
Q

Where are antigens usually found

A

on the surfaces of threats

232
Q

What do antigens cause

A

provokes an immune response to eliminate the threat

233
Q

Do all antigens provoke immune response equally

A

NO

234
Q

What is the varying in effectiveness called

A

immunogenicity

235
Q

What is the equation for immunogenicity

A

probability of provoking an IR X magnitude of IR provoked

236
Q

What are factors that influence immunogenicity

A 
size of antigen molecule
complexity
structure and stability
degradability of the molecule
foreignness of the molecule
237
Q

how does size influence immunogenicity

A

larger molecules are more effective antigens

238
Q

why are larger molecules more effective antigens

A

more epitopes

239
Q

why are more epitopes better

A

each epitope is recognized by a different lymphocyte which proliferates into a clone of lymphocytes, more lymphocytes the larger scalle the IR is

240
Q

How big is large

A

surface proteins average 100,000 800 AA

241
Q

How many AA form an epitope

A

40

242
Q

how many AA of an epitope contacted

A

5

243
Q

If one of the 5 contact points are changed or altered what occurs

A

loss of affinity

244
Q

a surface protein with 800 amino acids could have how many epitopes

A

20

245
Q

peptide hormones average how big

A

2000d 16 amino acids

246
Q

antibody molecules are how big

A

150,000 1320 amino acids

247
Q

How is immunogenicity affected by complexity

A

proportional

248
Q

What does complexity mean

A

shape

249
Q

More complex means what

A

more prominent regions and unique shapes on an antigen

250
Q

More prominant regions means what

A

more epitopes

251
Q

Large but simple proteins can be fair antigens because they stimulate by what different mechanism

A

single epiptope repeated many times

252
Q

When the epitopes are recognized, what occurs

A

receptors drawn together or clustered in the plasma membrane of the B cell, detected by CD19 which induces proliferation

253
Q

what is the key to immune response

A

lymphocyte proliferation

254
Q

without interleukins, what can’t happen

A

formation of B cells

255
Q

Small proteins have few, what

A

non-repeating epitopes

256
Q

Why don’t small proteins stimulate response

A

few different B cells will recognize the epitopes, no helper T cells involved, no repeated epitopes, no signal for proliferation

257
Q

How does the structure and stability of the molecule influence immunogenicity

A

if not stable-conformation changes to find matching antigen recetor

258
Q

What makes larger proteins more stable

A

non covalent bonds

259
Q

What are the non covalent bonds

A

H bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic bonds

260
Q

What is formed when an amino acid chain folds and bonds hold it together in a particular shape

A

conformational epitope

261
Q

If the bonds are destroyed what happen

A

epitope is destroyed

262
Q

What are the two types of epitopes

A

sequential epitopes

tertiary epitopes

263
Q

How does the degradability of a molecule affect immunogenicity

A

if a molecule is rapidly destroyed it will not be around long enough for it to be phagocytosed and presented or if too small it won’t be phagocytosed

264
Q

What molecules produce the most effective IR

A

moderately degradable ones

265
Q

How does foreignness of the molecule affect immunogenicity

A

the greater the foreignness the more unfamiliar the epitopes the larger the IR

266
Q

What are haptens

A

small molecule unable to elicit an IR by itself

267
Q

Can a hapten ever elicit an immune response

A

yes if it is covalently attached to a large carrier protein

268
Q

How can haptens improve IR

A

being chemically conjugated to a carrier

269
Q

When exposed to IS, what response

A

hapten stimulates B cell while carrier stimulates T cells causing proliferation of the B cell and IR

270
Q

When antibodies are made in response to carrier and hapten what occurs

A

they will attach to the hapten alone

271
Q

How is a vaccine a hapten example

A

single epitope conjugated to a carrier to elicit a response

272
Q

How are the concentrations of hormones or drugs in the blood determined

A

hormones and drugs are poor antiges but if conjugated to a carrier and injected into an animal the animal will make antibodies to measure the presence of the drugs

273
Q

Penicillian allergies and haptans

A

IR to penicillin attaches to blood serum albumin, provides one epitope which stimulates a B cell, while the blood protein, alterred by the presence of the penicillin may stimulate a helper T cell leading to B proliferation and IR

274
Q

What leads to penicillin reaction

A

antibodies to penicillin attaching to a subseqent injection of penicillin alone

275
Q

How can immunogenicity be increased

A

with adjuvants

276
Q

what are adjuvants

A

compounds injected along with the antigen

277
Q

What do adjuvants do

A

slow the release and removal of the antigen, attract APCs, stimulate production of cells that recognize the epitopes in the antigen

278
Q

What is cross reactivity

A

same antibody or TCR binding to two different antigens

279
Q

because epitopes are small what can happen

A

same epitopes found on other unrelated molecules

280
Q

two unrelated foreign molecules have cross reactivity when

A

same epitope on different antigens causing one to neutralize the other

281
Q

what is exogenous antigens

A

antigens that arise from outside the persons body

282
Q

what kind of immune response handles exogenous antigens

A

mainly humoral-most times phagocytosed

283
Q

What is exogenous antigens handled by mostly

A

neutrophils with some help from eosinophils

284
Q

Where are neutrophils formed

A

bone marrow

285
Q

What is the most common White blood cell in the bloodstream

A

neutrophils

286
Q

When do neutrophils leave the bloodstream

A

during inflammation to enter ISS

287
Q

How long do neutrophils last

A

die within 24 hours of production

288
Q

What is an identifying feature of neutrophils

A

lobed nucleus

289
Q

neutrophils are what type of cell

A

suicide cells

290
Q

what is the death of neutrophils

A

apoptosis

291
Q

what is apoptosis

A

shrinking and self disassembly followed by pahgocytosis by macrophage

292
Q

what is necrotic cell death

A

swelling and lysis releasing lysosomes which damage surrounding cells and tissue

293
Q

What is neurophil attack

A

phagocytosis of microorganisms

294
Q

what is the first step in neutrophil attack

A

endothilial cells produce adhesion proteins

295
Q

what adhesion proteins called

A

selectins

296
Q

what do selectins do

A

grab neutrophils as they stream by

297
Q

Once neutrophils leave the bloodstream what occurs

A

neutrophils detect chemicals released by bacteria or damaged host cells and crawl towards higher concentrations

298
Q

what is the movement toward the source of a dissolved chemical called

A

chemotaxis

299
Q

neutrophils that are attracted do what

A

attach to the invader

300
Q

how do neutophils attach to invaders

A

via an intermediary protein

301
Q

what are the intermediary proteins known as

A

opsonin

302
Q

what can function as opsonins

A

antibodies, serum

303
Q

once attached what occurs

A

the neutrophil pulls the microorganism into its cytoplasm forming a phagosome

304
Q

What does the membrane of the phagosome contain

A

NADPH oxidase enzymes

305
Q

What do the NADPH oxidase enzymes introduced

A

superoxide

306
Q

What is the reaction to make superoxide

A

NADPH + 2O2= NAD + H+ +202-

307
Q

What does the superoxide cause

A

nearby granules of duperoxide dismutase to add their contents

308
Q

What is the reaction

A

2o2-+ 2H+= H2O2 + O2

309
Q

What follows the superoxide dismutase

A

granules of myeloperoxidase fuse with the phagosome

310
Q

What is the reaction for myeloperoxidase

A

H2O2 + cl-= H2O+ OCl-

311
Q

What is OCl-

A

hypochlorite= bleach

312
Q

What do the strong oxidizing agents do

A

oxidize proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates, denaturing and or breaking them

313
Q

what are the strong oxidizing agents

A

O2, H2O2, OCl-

314
Q

after the proteins are denatured what occurs

A

phagosome fuses with lysosome

315
Q

what does the lysosome do

A

enzymes destroy the contents of the phagosome

316
Q

What do neutrophils release

A

monocyte chemotactic factors

317
Q

What do monocyte chemotactic factors do

A

attract monocytes that develop into macrophages

318
Q

How do eosinophils differ from neutrophils in oxidizing process

A

eosinophils generate oxidizing agents extracellularly onto threats too large to be phagocytosed

319
Q

What are two limits to neutrophils

A

capable of only phagocytosing a few particles- quickly exhausted
antigens are completely destroyed so no epitopes for presentation and memory

320
Q

What is the nucleus like of macrophage

A

mononuclear

321
Q

Where do nacrophages develop

A

monocytes in the bloodstream which originated in the bone marrow

322
Q

What is the macrophages life span

A

3 months

323
Q

Where are macrophages located

A

throughout the body but concentrated in secondary lymphoid organs, lungs, and liver

324
Q

What are the functions of macrophages

A 
phagocytosis
lymphokine secretion
ADCC
remove damaged tissue
phagocytose aged, dead, and apoptotic self cells
325
Q

what is the purpose of phagocytosing

A

initiate immune responses by processing and presenting epitopes to lymphocytes

326
Q

Why are macrophages able to present epitopes

A

display MHC class II proteins

327
Q

what do macrophages utilize to produce IR

A

C3b receptor of naive lymphocytes and CD64 stem receptor of memory lymphocytes

328
Q

phagocytosing also does what (not initiate but)

A

finish immune responses by phagocytosing foreign material

329
Q

What does finishing immune responses

A

utilize Ab stem receptors, generate oxidizing agents

330
Q

Why are macrophages better at finishing immune responses

A

capable of sustained phagocytic activity- don’t tire quickly

331
Q

What is the function of lymphokine secreation

A

stimulates other pathways

332
Q

What does interleukin 4 stimulate

A

proliferation of TH2 cells

333
Q

What does interleukin 6 stimulate

A

TH17 cells

334
Q

What does interleukin 12 do

A

stimulattes proliferation of TH1 cells which stimulate CTLs selected by antigen presentation with IL-2

335
Q

What is ADCC

A

antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity

336
Q

what specifically is ADCC

A

frustrated phagocytosis

337
Q

what does ADCC require

A

antibodies to identify targest and Ab stem receptors to identify antibodies

338
Q

What is secreted onto target in ADCC

A

lysosomal contents

339
Q

What is the function of removal of damaged tissue

A

to remove so new cells or connective tissue can form

340
Q

what does removal of damaged tissue initiate

A

wound healing

341
Q

Where are dendritic cells located

A

in ISS beneath body surfaces and in secondary lymphoid organs

342
Q

What allows dendritic cells to monitor a wide area

A

dendrites

343
Q

What do DC cells express for antigen

A

TLR

344
Q

What do DC cells to bind antibodies attached to antigens

A

CD64 Ab stem receptors

345
Q

What is the response of DC cells

A

present processed antigen to naive lymphocytes

346
Q

What are the first cells to contact the antigen

A

dendritic cells

347
Q

What do DC cells do

A

phagocytose or endocytose it

348
Q

What occurs after phagocytosing it

A

migrate to nearby secondary lymphoid organ to present to naive lymphocytes

349
Q

What are dendritic cells goal

A

antigen transporting cells

350
Q

What do DC display to avoid attack

A

MHC II proteins

351
Q

What do DC secrete

A

interleukins

352
Q

What do dendrites contack

A

present to 200 naive lymphocytes at a time to accelerate presentation of epitopes

353
Q

What is the importantce of DC

A

superior at presenting, accelerate presentation with dendrites, prolonged presentation for days, no complete degradation of antigens

354
Q

What do B cells do with antigen

A

recognize with antibody attached to it, initiate secondary immune responses, internalized by endocytosis and presented on MHC II proteins

355
Q

What occurs after phagocytosing it

A

migrate to nearby secondary lymphoid organ to present to naive lymphocytes

356
Q

What are dendritic cells goal

A

antigen transporting cells

357
Q

What do DC display to avoid attack

A

MHC II proteins

358
Q

What do DC secrete

A

interleukins

359
Q

What do dendrites contack

A

present to 200 naive lymphocytes at a time to accelerate presentation of epitopes

360
Q

What is the importantce of DC

A

superior at presenting, accelerate presentation with dendrites, prolonged presentation for days, no complete degradation of antigens

361
Q

What do B cells do with antigen

A

recognize with antibody attached to it, initiate secondary immune responses, internalized by endocytosis and presented on MHC II proteins

362
Q

What does the structure of the antibody correlate with

A

its function

363
Q

What does structure allow us to do with antibodies

A

identify the classes

364
Q

How many classes of Abs in humans

A

five

365
Q

what are the five classes of Abs

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD

366
Q

How many subunites in Ig

A

4

367
Q

What are the four subunits

A

2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

368
Q

How big are the heavy chains

A

50,000d

369
Q

How big are the light chains

A

25,000d

370
Q

What is the total weight of the subunits

A

150,000

371
Q

How are the chains held together

A

by disulfide bonds and non covalent bonds

372
Q

If papain enzyme is used to break the AA chains how many pieces are formed

A

three

373
Q

how big are the three chains

A

50,000

374
Q

What does papain cut

A

AA chains only between certain pairs of AA

375
Q

What are the three chains formed

A

Fc region, 2 Fab regions

376
Q

What is the Fc region

A

crystallizable, constant structure, able to form crystals

377
Q

What does the Fc region make up in the antibody

A

the stem

378
Q

What receptors does the Fc region work with

A

CD16, CD32, CD64

379
Q

What are the Fab regions

A

fragments for antigen binding capacity

380
Q

what can the fragment bond

A

2 antigens but no Fc receptor

381
Q

What region of the antibody does the Fab region make

A

the arm

382
Q

If the disulfide bonds break what forms

A

6 chains

383
Q

how long are the 6 chains

A

25,000d

384
Q

What occurs to the antigens if the 6 chains form

A

Fab fragments lose their ability to bind to Ag

385
Q

If an intact Ig is cut by a different enzyme pepsin what forms

A

several fragment pieces plus one F(ab)’2 fragment

386
Q

How big is the F(ab)’2 fragment

A

110,000

387
Q

what can the fragment bond

A

2 antigens but no Fc receptor

388
Q

What region was cut into tiny fragments

A

the Fc region

389
Q

What would be allotype differences

A

alleles , variations due to genes

390
Q

What are the two light chain classes

A

K and I

391
Q

What is the technical term for two classes

A

isotypes

392
Q

What is different between the two classes

A

AA sequences and different shapes

393
Q

In what species are K and I light chains found

A

only in humans

394
Q

Within each class there are subgroups called

A

allotypes

395
Q

What is the difference between isotypes and allotypes

A

vary slightly in sequence between different individuals

396
Q

What would be allotype differences

A

alleles , variations due to genes

397
Q

within allotypes there are more differences called

A

idiotypes

398
Q

what are idiotypes

A

differences strictly in the V region between antibodies which recognize different epitopes

399
Q

What do the idiotypes produce

A

differences in AA sequences and shapes

400
Q

How many classes of Heavy chains

A

5

401
Q

what are the classes of heavy chains

A

A, E, M, G, M

402
Q

How do the heavy chains different

A

structurally and functionally

403
Q

Within what classes are there subgroups

A

m and g

404
Q

within each class and subclass there are what

A

allotypes

405
Q

within each allotype there is what

A

idiotypes

406
Q

with light and heavy chains there are regions of wha

A

domains

407
Q

What is the N terminal

A

block of 110 AA that constitutes most of the V region

408
Q

What is the area responsible for binding antigens

A

VH

409
Q

What is the second 110 AA block

A

the CH1 domain

410
Q

What is the function of the CH1 domain

A

to support or stabilize the V region

411
Q

What is the next block of AA

A

CH2 domain

412
Q

What is the function of the CH2 domain

A

activates the complement pathwa

413
Q

what is the function of the CH4 domain

A

activate complement no hinge

414
Q

What is between CH1 and CH2 regions

A

hinge

415
Q

What is the function of the hinge

A

allow the arms to bend and where interchain disulfide bonds are formed

416
Q

How big are the hinge regions

A

12 AA

417
Q

What is the next 110 AA region

A

Ch3

418
Q

What is the function of the CH3 domain

A

attaches to Fc receptors on various cells

419
Q

In m chains there is another region called

A

Ch4 domain

420
Q

what is the function of the CH4 domain

A

activate complement no hinge

421
Q

What does mIg contain that Igm does not have

A

transmembrane domain beyond CH4

422
Q

What doe d H chains lack

A

CH2 domain

423
Q

What is the function of the CH3 domain in d H chain

A

not to attach to Fc receptors

424
Q

What attaches d H chains to receptors

A

transmembrane domain in the plasma membrane of memory B cells

425
Q

What do e chains have

A

an extra block of 110 AA

426
Q

What does the extra block in e chains do

A

attaches to mast cells, stimulates inflammation, no hinge

427
Q

In e chains what does the CH2 domain not do

A

activate complement

428
Q

What does the CH3 chain bind to in a H chains

A

J chain

429
Q

What does the J chain allow

A

formation of dimers of IgA

430
Q

even though the names of each domain are the same what is different

A

sequences, structures, and functions vary slightly

431
Q

How long are L chains

A

220 AA

432
Q

How many blocks in L chains

A

2 blocks

433
Q

What does the N terminal do

A

responsible for binding to antigen, vary greatly

434
Q

What is the area responsible for bind to antigen directly called

A

VL domain

435
Q

What is the second terminal of L chains

A

C terminal

436
Q

What is the function of the C terminal

A

stabilize the Ag binding site

437
Q

In the V regions of L and H chains what occurs

A

AA sequences variation is concentrated in 3 small regions

438
Q

what are the 3 small regions called

A

hypervariable regions or complementarity determining regions

439
Q

How many AA does each of these regions contain

A

10

440
Q

What does HVR indicate

A

the degree of variation in AA sequences

441
Q

What does CDR indicate

A

role in determining complementarity with an epitope on an antigen

442
Q

In between the HVRs are what

A

longer, more uniform section

443
Q

what are slight differnces in other epitopes found between the members of a species

A

allotypic differences

444
Q

What are the most variable regions

A

HVR

445
Q

What are the moderately variable regions

A

framework regions

446
Q

What are the least variable regions

A

C regions

447
Q

What are the 3D structure of Igs

A

not strictly parallel but interwined and folded to produce a variety of surface shapes

448
Q

The shapes strictly belong to

A

one species because they would be unfamilliar epitopes to another

449
Q

where are the epitopes concentrated

A

c regions

450
Q

what are slight differnces in other epitopes found between the members of a species

A

allotypic differences

451
Q

Where is IgG most present

A

highest concentration in serum

452
Q

What is the structure of IgG

A

Y shaped

453
Q

What type of Heavy chains

A

gamma

454
Q

What types of light chains

A

kappa or lambda

455
Q

What is the function of IgG

A

diffuse through basement membranes surrounding capillaries, move from bloodstreat to the interstitial spaces to meet attackers there

456
Q

when is diffusion of IgG enhanced

A

durring inflammation

457
Q

Where are IgG formed

A

in bloodstream

458
Q

Can IgG cross placenta

A

yes

459
Q

what are 5 functional properties of IgG

A

can opsonize
can agglutinate and clump bc divalen
can activate complement leading to cell lysis/inflammation
can neutralize= block bacteria activity
catalyze the formation of the potent oxidizing agents

460
Q

what makes of IgM

A

m H chains with extra CH4 domain, plus kappa or lambda L chains

461
Q

What is the shape of IgM

A

pentameric

462
Q

what does the shape pentameric mean

A

5 Y shaped units held together by 4 pairs of disulfide bonds between Fc regions and 1 small protein J chain

463
Q

What is nickname for IgA

A

secretory IgA

464
Q

What does the IgM totally contain

A

10 Ag binding arms and 5C activating domains

465
Q

What are 5 functional properties

A

very efficient C activation promotes cell lysis
very efficient agglutination
larger flag for more opsonization and phagocytosis
efficient virus neutralization due to valence and large size
cannot escape from bloodstream due to size

466
Q

what is mIg

A

IgM monomer with additional transmembrane domain beyond CH4

467
Q

where is IgA typically found

A

in serum

468
Q

What is IgA structure

A

monomer with alpha H chains, dimer of 2 Y shaped units joined by J chain

469
Q

Where is IgA found

A

many body secretions

470
Q

What is nickname for IgA

A

secretory IgA

471
Q

What is the route form bloodstreat to body secretions

A

1-B cells in germinal centers produced IgA monomers and plasma cell is ISS do also
2- IgA escapes bloodstream by diffusion and J chains link to form dimers in ISS
3- epithelial cells have receptors for IgA J chain
4- after binding J chain, epithelial cells transport IgA across to other side
5-epithelial cells release IgA

472
Q

What does IgA mainly defend

A

body surfaces

473
Q

main area IgA works

A

mucas membranes of Gi, respiratory, urogenital

474
Q

What type of immunity does IgA provide

A

mucosal immunity

475
Q

When is IgA primarily formed

A

when antigen enters a body surface

476
Q

THe Ig class depends on what

A

where antigen is found

477
Q

If antigen in bloodstream what Ig class

A

IgM

478
Q

If antigen is ISS what Ig class

A

IgG

479
Q

If antigen in mucus

A

IgA

480
Q

when is secretory IgA formed

A

after intial exposure to antigen, not present at all times

481
Q

WHat is structure of IgE

A

monomer with epsilon H chain and 4 CH domains

482
Q

What is the function of CH4 domain of IgE

A

attaches to receptors on mast cells

483
Q

what do mast cells do

A

releas chemicals which cause large scale inflammation

484
Q

What is the structure of IgD

A

two delta H chains that lack CH2 domain but have an exra long hinge region

485
Q

What are the IgD chains held together by

A

only non covalent bonds, no disulfide bonds

486
Q

Where are IgDs found

A

in memory B cells

487
Q

Since IgDs Ch3 domain fails to bind to Fc receptors, what else does it have

A

transmembrane domain

488
Q

When antigen binds to it what happens

A

memory B cell wakes up and begins proliferating and secreting IgG or IgM

489
Q

Where is mIg found

A

in naive and antigen sensitive B cells

490
Q

what initially produces IgM

A

effector B cell

491
Q

Why does effector B cell initally produce IgM

A

to clear the bloodstream of antigens

492
Q

What later secretes IgG

A

daughters of the clone

493
Q

Why does IgG get secreted

A

to clear interstitial spaces of antigens

494
Q

if the antigen is difficult to eliminate, what gets secreted

A

IgE

495
Q

If antigen initially appears in mucus what is formed

A

IgA

496
Q

What remains on the surface of memory B cells

A

IgD

Immunology (4 decks)

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