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Boeing 787 COPY > Flight Controls > Flashcards

Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

In the event of a complete loss of flight control signaling, loss of all input to the FCC, What flight controls are available?

A

One spoiler pair and the stabilizer

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2
Q

When is primary pitch trim inhibited?

A

When the autopilot is engaged.

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3
Q

Which has priority over the other, Primary or Alternate pitch trim?

A

Alternate trim switches have priority.

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4
Q

Moving the pitch trim on the ground (primary or alternate) moves which control surface?

A

On the ground, moving pitch trim switches will directly position the stabilizer.

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5
Q

What happens when you move the primary pitch trim switches in the air, in normal mode?

A

The trim reference speed is changed.

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6
Q

In the event of a loss of all hydraulic power, what flight controls are available?

A

Two electrically actuated spoiler pairs and the electrically actuated stabilizer.

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7
Q

Identify the power sources for the horizontal stabilizer.

A

Electric control units powered by L2 and R2 AC buses.

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8
Q

In which flight control mode(s) is Flight Envelope Protection available?

A

Only in normal mode.

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9
Q

What will cause the flight control system to revert to the secondary mode?

A

Inertial or air data is insufficient to support normal mode, or
ALL slat & flap position data is unavailable.

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10
Q

Can the pilot select secondary flight control mode manually?

A

No

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11
Q

Are the ACE’s fully functional in secondary mode?

A

Yes. ACE’s continue to receive and process pilot inputs.

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12
Q

What functions are not available in secondary flight control mode?

A
  • Autopilot
  • Auto Speedbrakes
  • Envelope protection
  • Gust suppression
  • Pitch compensation
  • Roll/Yaw asymmetry compensation
  • Tail strike protection
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13
Q

How can the flight control mode be selected to direct mode?

A

By manually moving the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS switch to DISC.

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14
Q

What flight control functions no longer work when direct mode is manually selected?

A

Same as for secondary mode.

  • Autopilot
  • Auto Speedbrakes
  • Envelope protection
  • Gust suppression
  • Pitch compensation
  • Roll/Yaw asymmetry compensation
  • Tail strike protection
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15
Q

In normal mode when the pitch trim is moved, what flight control surface is actually moved?

A

The elevators.
The PFC’s automatically move the elevators to achieve the trim change, then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator.

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16
Q

If the stabilizer is manually shut down or failed, what does movement of the pitch trim cause?

A

In the normal mode, pitch trim commands still change the trim reference speed and the elevators move to trim the airplane.

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17
Q

How and where is stabilizer position indicated to the crew?

A

Indicated on the EICAS and the flight control synoptic display.

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18
Q

When does the EICAS stabilizer trim position indication disappear?

A

Indication blanks when:

  • Gear up for 10 seconds, or
  • 60 seconds after liftoff
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19
Q

When does the EICAS stabilizer trim position indication automatically appear?

A

-On the ground at power-up
-After landing and any pair of trim switches are used
-After landing and groundspeed is less than 40kts
-In the air, any of the following EICAS messages are active:
“FLIGHT CONTROL MODE”
“PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS”
“STABILIZER”
“STABILIZER SHUTDOWN”
“PITCH UP AUTHORITY”
“PITCH DOWN AUTHORITY”

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20
Q

What causes the EICAS “STAB GREENBAND” message to display?

A
  • Computed green band disagrees with pressure transducer data.
  • The 2 transducer values are not within the set tolerance
  • Either transducer has failed
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21
Q

What does the stabilizer green band compare for the correct stab trim?

A

It compares FMC calculated stabilizer greenband to the validation limits from the transducers.

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22
Q

What is the default range for the stab green band?

A

From 4 to 9 units.

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23
Q

How does the stall protection system operate?

A

It limits the speed to which the airplane can be trimmed. Pilot must apply aft column pressure at twice the normal force to maintain airspeed below the minimum maneuvering speed.

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24
Q

In flight in normal mode, what does movement of the rudder pedals command?

A

Rudder input commands a sideslip maneuver with the angle dependent upon the size of the pedal input.

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25
Q

On the ground above 60kts, how does the flight control system attempt to maintain a yaw rate near zero?

A

By commanding rudder to counter the majority of the yawing moment.

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26
Q

In flight, how does the flight control system attempt to maintain a zero roll rate and sideslip?

A

System commands rudder and lateral inputs to counter the moments.

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27
Q

After an initial input, how does the system off load any steady state inputs?

A

After initial input, the system off loads any steady state lateral inputs to the rudder.

28
Q

What is the Wheel to Rudder cross-tie, and when is it available?

A

A function reducing the maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads.
Available in secondary and direct modes.

29
Q

How many rudder trim rates are available?

A
  1. High and low rate.
30
Q

When are any manual rudder trim inputs automatically zeroed?

A

During takeoff roll at 30kts and on landing

31
Q

Where are rudder trim indications displayed?

A

EICAS and flight controls synoptic display.

32
Q

When does the rudder trim EICAS indication blank?

A
  • Gear up for 10 seconds, or

- 60 seconds after liftoff.

33
Q

In secondary mode, rudder pedal deflection sends what command to the rudder?

A

Rudder pedals command a proportional deflection of the control surface.

34
Q

In normal mode, rudder pedal deflection sends what command to the rudder?

A

Rudder pedal input commands a sideslip maneuver, with the angle dependent on pedal displacement.

35
Q

What is the purpose of the rudder ratio changer?

A

It automatically reduces the sideslip command as airspeed increases.

36
Q

What is the rudder ratio based on in secondary and direct control modes?

A

Flap positions

37
Q

What is auto drag used for? When is it available?

A

A function deflecting ailerons upward and raising the two outboard spoilers while maintaining airspeed, to assist glideslope/glidepath capture from above.

  • Available in normal mode only
  • In landing config, flaps 25 or 30 and idle thrust.
38
Q

Which control surfaces lock out at high speed flight?

A

Ailerons

39
Q

Are all the spoilers hydraulically controlled?

A

No, 5 spoiler pairs are hydraulically controlled, 2 pairs are electric.

40
Q

At which flap settings are the slats sequenced to move?

A

Flaps 1 - Slats move to mid-range position

Flaps 25 - Slats move to fully extended

41
Q

Describe the normal slat and flap movement sequence from up to 30.

A 
Flaps 1 - Only slats move
Flaps 5 - Flaps move
Flaps 15 - Flaps move
Flaps 20 - Flaps move
Flaps 25 - Only slats move
Flaps 30 - Flaps move
42
Q

What failures can cause the flap and slat modes to engage in secondary mode?

A
  • Center hydraulics system failed
  • Control surfaces move at less than 50% of normal rate
  • Flap/Slat disagree detected
  • Flap/Slat primary control failure
  • Primary mode fails to move the flaps to commanded.
  • Uncommanded flap/slat motion
43
Q

What is the EICAS indication of secondary flap/slat mode?

A

EICAS “FLAPS/SLATS PRIMARY FAIL” message

Extended flap/slat position indication on EICAS

44
Q

What flap/slat protections are available in the secondary modes?

A 
Slat load relief 
Pre-gap 
Asymmetry protection 
Skew protection
Uncommanded motion
Disagree
45
Q

How are the alternate flaps/slats powered?

A

Electrically

46
Q

What is the farthest extension available for flaps/slats in alternate mode?

A

Flaps - 20

Slats - Middle position

47
Q

Is the flap lever operative in alternate mode?

A

No

48
Q

What flap/slat protection is available in alternate mode?

A

None

49
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the flight controls?

A

All systems

Flaps/Slats by center system.

50
Q

What does a magenta flap selection number and line mean? Green?

A

Magenta - Flaps/Slats in transit

Green - Flaps/Slats are in the commanded position.

51
Q

When are the first series of flight control tests run?

How long do they take to complete?

A

After landing, with flaps and speed brakes retracted and groundspeed less than 30kts.
-Takes approx. 90 seconds to complete, hydraulic power must be on and flight controls not moved.

52
Q

When is the column cutout function active?

A

If a trim command is opposed by either control column for more than 2 seconds.

53
Q

Does roll mode control wheel forces increase with airspeed?

A

No

54
Q

When is vertical gust suppression active?

A

Only with autopilot engaged in altitude HOLD or VNAV modes.

55
Q

What will cause the spoilers to automatically retract?

A
  • On the ground, either thrust lever moved to the takeoff range.
  • On the ground, when there is a transition to in the air
  • In the air, when either thrust lever is advanced beyond 90% of full travel.
56
Q

When is flap/slat deployment inhibited?

A

Speed >260KIAS, Altitude >20.000’

In primary or secondary modes.

57
Q

When is cruise flaps available?

A

Above 25,000’ and between M0,54 - M0,87

58
Q

What causes the spoilers to extend on the ground when speedbrake lever is NOT armed?

A
  • On the ground with groundspeed above 85kts, either thrust lever previously at T/O, and both thrust levers moved to idle.
  • On the ground and both thrust reversers moved to the idle detent.
59
Q

Why are the auto speedbrakes inoperative and why should the speedbrakes NOT be armed with Center Hydraulics failed?

A

Auto speedbrake deployment is triggered by main gear truck untilt. Truck tilt is powered by Center hydraulics.
Arming the speedbrakes could lead to spoilers deploying in flight as main gear truck is already untilted.

60
Q

What is Landing Attitude Modifier?

A

An automatic function used to increase pitch attitude and increase the nose gear height when landing flaps are selected at higher speeds. LAM increases pitch attitude by partially raising selected lateral control surfaces.

61
Q

In which mode is flap load relief available?

A

Primary mode only

62
Q

In which flap range is load relief available? What is the limit on retraction?

A

Available in flaps 15-30, limited retraction to flaps 5.

63
Q

In which mode is slat load relief available?

A

Only in secondary mode.

64
Q

What is the difference between autogap and pregap?

A

Autogap is a function of AOA with airspeed below 225kts.

Pregap will always deploy below 225kts. (With flaps not up)

65
Q

Why is slat load relief not provided in primary mode?

A

In primary mode, autogap will only extend slats fully at high AOA below 225kts. When speed is close to 225kts, AOA will not be high enough to trigger autogap and slats will remain at mid position. Overspeed not a factor.
In secondary mode slats will be fully extended below 225kts making overspeed possible.

Boeing 787 COPY (18 decks)

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